O&G Flashcards

1
Q

Premenstrual symptoms management?

A

moderate (some impact) = Combined OCP
severe (withdrawal from social activities and normal functioning) = SSRI - initial 3 month trial

*If OCP contraindicated eg history of blood clots, give SSRI

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2
Q

management for umbilical cord prolapse?

A
  1. Call for senior help, continuous ctg, theatre for immediate delivery
  2. Prevent further cord compression
    - elevation of presenting part of fetus manually or by filling bladder with saline
    - on all fours position, knee to chest position or left lateral position.
  3. Emergency c section
  • do not push cord back in - but keep warm and moist.
  • tocolytics eg terbutaline can be used to reduce uterine contractions if attempts to reduce compression are failing
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3
Q

management for shoulder dystocia

A

Step 1 = lie woman flat and tell to stop pushing!!!

Step 2 = call for senior help

Step 3 = legs hyperflexed tightly to abdomen (Mc Roberts maneuvre) = 1st line manoeuvre +/- suprapubic pressure

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4
Q

treatment for CIN?
treatment for +ve HPV but normal cytology?
treatment for inadequate smear sample?

A
  1. LLETZ
  2. Repeat in 12 months. then 12 months again. if 2nd repeat the same -> colposcopy
  3. repeat in 3 months. if 2 consecutive inadequate samples -> colposcopy
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5
Q

what is the routine call frequency for cervcial smears?

A

AGES 25-49 = every 3 years
50-64 = every 5 years

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6
Q

urge incontinence treatment?

A

bladder retraining = 1st line
antimuscarinics -> oxybutinin (risk of falls in elderly), tolterodine, darifencacin

mirabegron is an alternative in elderly people to avoid confusion associated with anticholinergics

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7
Q

stress incontinence treatment?

A

pelvic floor muscle training = 1st line

surgical procedures: e.g. retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures

duoloxetine!! if surgical procedures denied

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8
Q

most common benign ovarian cyst in women under 25?

A

dermoid cyst, teratoma

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9
Q

most common ovarian pathology associated with Meigs syndrome (ascites, pleural effusion)

A

fibroma

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10
Q

intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy management?

name a differential

A

Weekly LFTS, pay close attention to fetal movements

ursedoxycholic acid -> symptomatic treatment, emollients

the risk of stillbirth only rises above the population rate once the serum bile acid concentration is ≥100μmol/L. So advise early delivery based on levels

induction of labour at 37 weeks to avoid stillbirth

*20% present with jaundice too

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy -> this will present with abdominal pain and nausea/vomiting also

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11
Q

chickenpox case management in pregnant woman?

chicken pox contact exposure management in pregnant woman?

A

oral aciclovir if >20 weeks pregnant and presents within 24 hours of rash onset

  1. check for varicella antibodies
    if history of chickenpox unknown/negative antibodies give oral aciclovir 7-14 days post exposure!! NOT` IMMEDIAtely
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12
Q

during pregnancy, fibroids may increase in size due to increased oestrogen -> pelvic pain, pressure symptoms

A
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13
Q

what is a missed miscarriage?

A

a gestational sac which contains a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion
mother may have light vaginal bleeding

cervical os is closed

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14
Q

management of pregnant women with GBS bacteuria?

A

treatment at time of diagnosis
+

intravenous benzylpenicillin given as soon as possible after the start of labour, then at 4-hourly intervals until delivery.

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15
Q

which HPV strains causes cervical cancer?

A

16 and 18, 33

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16
Q

management of infertility in PCOS?
Management Periods?

management of hirsutism

A

Clomifene = 1st line

OCP

Co-cyprindiol (dianette): cyproterone acetate + ethinyloestradiol, used in PCOS
complicated by hirsutism and acne (also acts as contraception)

Generally= dietician, weight loss

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17
Q

gestational diabetes definition?

gestational diabetes management?

A

fasting plasma glucose level of > 5.6. or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of >/= 7.8 mmol/L. I

if the fasting plasma glucose level is < 7 mmol/l a trial of diet and exercise should be offered

if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise metformin should be started

if glucose targets are still not met after another 1-2 weeks, insulin should be added to diet/exercise/metformin

gestational diabetes is treated with short-acting, not long-acting, insulin

if at the time of diagnosis the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l insulin should be started

 Explain how to monitor blood glucose (using glucometer)
 Need to be seen at a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within 1 week (and every 2 weeks
thereafter)
 Need to have ultrasound growth scans every 4 weeks from 28-36 weeks
 Explain that medication will be stopped after delivery but that they will be followed up to
check if glucose problem continues

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18
Q

targets for gestational diabetes management?

A

fasting: 5.3mmol/L
AND
1 hour postprandial: 7.8 mmol/L or
2 hours postprandial: 6.4 mmol/L

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19
Q

induction of labour methods?

A

if the Bishop score is ≤ 6
vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol
mechanical methods such as a balloon catheter can be considered if the woman is at higher risk of hyperstimulation or has had a previous caesarean

if the Bishop score is > 6
amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion

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20
Q

management of pregnant women with autoimmune conditions eg SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

low dose aspirin from 12 weeks pregnancy to date. to prevent pre-eclampsia

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21
Q

when do baby blues occur?
management

A

3-7 days post delivery
reassurance and support

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22
Q

when does postnatal depression occur?

management?

A

usually start within a month and peak at 3 months

CBT
SSRI if severe

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23
Q

When is screening done for gestational diabetes?

A

oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) = 1st line

  1. women who’ve previously had gestational diabetes: OGTT should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
  2. women with any of the other risk factors for GDM should be offered an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. RFs= BMI >30, previous baby >4.5kg, first degree relative with diabetes, family origin with high prevalence
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24
Q

rokitanskys protuberance in a mass in ovary indicates?

A

teratoma/dermoid cyst

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25
Q

Premature ovarian insufficiency symptoms?

diagnosis?

A

climacteric symptoms: hot flushes, night sweats
infertility
secondary amenorrhoea
RAISED!! FSH, LH levels
low oestradiol

diagnosis:
- elevated FSH levels demonstrated on 2 blood samples taken 4–6 weeks apart

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26
Q

how is downs syndrome tested for antenatally

A

combined test = standard
may use quadruple test instead

if these test show higher chance of down syndrome then perform:
- NIPT
- Or amniocentesis/CVS

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27
Q

placental abruption RFs?

A

A for Abruption previously;
B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia);
R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged;
U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen);
P for Polyhydramnios!!
T for Twins or multiple gestation;
I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis;
O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old);
N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)

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28
Q

1st line treatment for pre-eclampsia in woman with asthma?

A

nifedipine

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29
Q

how often is cervical screening carried out?

A

every 3 years for patients aged 25-49 years and every 5 years for patients aged 50-64 years.

every 1 year HIV +ve

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30
Q

how to confirm ovulation?

A

Take the serum progesterone level 7 days prior to the expected next period

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31
Q

history of endometriosis, acute abdomen, and the pelvis filled with fluid all point towards?

A

ruptured endometrioma

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32
Q

vasa previa classic triad?

A

rupture of membranes followed by painless vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia.

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33
Q

PPH medical management?

A

ABCDE approach - cannulas, cyrstaloid infusions
palpate uterus
IV oxytocin = first line!!

other options include: ergometrine slow IV or IM (unless there is a history of hypertension)
carboprost IM (unless there is a history of asthma)
misoprostol sublingual

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34
Q

upper limit of Bhcg in weeks 9 -12 of pregnancy?

A

300,000 mIU/ml i

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35
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum criteria?

management

A

5% !!pre-pregnancy weight loss
dehydration
electrolyte imbalance

admit for IV saline and potassium = 1st line. THEN prescribe oral cyclizine or promethazine (antihistamines) and discharge

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36
Q

when should insulin be commenced for GDM?

A

if fasting glucose is >= 7 mmol/l at time of diagnosis

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37
Q

which pregnant women should be given a higher dose of folic acid at 5mg?

A

BMI > or equal to 30. diabetes!!, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD.

otherwise give 400mcg to others

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38
Q

which condition occurs when placenta attaches past myometrium through the outer wall of uterus and can attach to organs such as the bladder?

A

placenta percreta

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39
Q

first line treatment for menorrhagia?

A

intrauterine sytstem/mirena coil if contraception desired

contraception not desired = mefanamic acid/ tranexamic acid

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40
Q

tetracylcines eg doxycycline, lymecycline are _ in pregnancy

A

contraindicated -> negative effect on child skeletal development and discolouration of teeth

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41
Q

how long should magnesium treatment for preclampsia last?

A

24 hours after delivery or 24 hours after last siezure

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42
Q

what is the most common cause of PID?

A

chlamydia

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43
Q

management of pregnant women with HTN but blood pressure that is consistently <160/110mmHg?

A

home management -> oral labetalol and weekly follow up

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44
Q

endometrial hyperplasia symptoms?

A
  1. simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia = high dose progestogens with repeat sampling in 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may be used
  2. atypical endometrial hyperplasia: hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
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45
Q

medical abortion medication?

A

oral mifepristone! (anti-progestin)
+ prostaglandinds to sti ulate contractions (misoprostol)

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46
Q

when should booking visit occur?
anomaly scan?

A

8-12 weeks
18- 20+6 weeks

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47
Q

what testing occurs during booking appointment for women?

A

HIV, syphilis and hepatitis B

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48
Q

a positive urine pregnancy test is considered normal uptil how many weeks after abortion?

A

4 weeks

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49
Q

signs of ectopic pregnancy?

RFS?

A

abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding
absence of intrauterine pregnancy on ultrasound + pelvic free fluid (ruptured?)

PID
previous ectopic
endometriosis!!!
IVF
progesterone only pill

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50
Q

how to distinguish pre-existing hypertension from Pregnancy related blood pressure problems (such as pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia)

A

the latter do not occur before 20 weeks!!! pregnancy

before pregnancy or before 20 weeks, no proteinuria or edema = pre existing htn

note, if a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) for pre-existing hypertension this should be stopped immediately and alternative antihypertensives started (e.g. labetalol) whilst awaiting specialist review

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51
Q

A 57-year-old lady presents to the postmenopausal bleed clinic with a 2 week history of light vaginal bleeding, and mild pain on intercourse. She is otherwise well. On vaginal examination she is tender and has slight dryness. What should be done next in clinic?

A

referral to secondary care and TVUS must be done first to exclude endometrial cancer. atrophic vaginitis is a diagnosis of exclusion.

normal TVUS = oestrogen cream or referral to HRT clinic

abnormal TVUS (>4mm), then endometrial biopsy would be done.

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52
Q

what is the main complication of induction of labour? how does it present?

A

uterine hyperstimulation

high contraction frequency (tachysystole) and duration, for greater than 20 minutes, which may or may not be associated with signs of foetal distress.

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53
Q

which ectopic pregnancy should be managed surgically?

when should ectopic pregnancies be managed expectantly? what does this involve?

A

ectopic pregnancies >35 mm in size or with a serum B-hCG >5,000IU/L s

expectant management if:
1) An unruptured embryo
2) <35mm in size
3) Have no heartbeat
4) Be asymptomatic
5) Have a B-hCG level of <1,000IU/L AND declining!

= safety netting (for pain, bleeding) and asked to return in 48 hours for serum B-hcg

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54
Q

when treating acute VTE in pregnancy, what must be measured/monitored?

A

anti-xa activity

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55
Q

can you breastfeed on anti-epileptic medication?

A

yes

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56
Q

Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

If after 28/40 weeks, if a woman reports reduced fetal movements and no heart is detected with handheld Doppler, what is the next step?

A

immediate ultrasound
if heartbeat present on ultrasound ->CTG for at least 20 min

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57
Q

advice for patient with lactational mastitis?

A

continue breastfeeding

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58
Q

Woman aged > 30 years with dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, symmetrically enlarged, boggy uterus is most likely?

A

adenomyosis

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59
Q

25 weeks pregnant woman with history of watery discharge but no fluid seen on speculum examination and a closed os. positive fibronectin. how do you manage?

A

watery discharge not enough to diagnose premature rupture of membranes.

raised fibronectin indicateds inreased risk of preterm labour -> therfore admit and give IM steroids to promote fetal lung maturity. also monitor blood glucose in diabetics as steroids may cause hyperglycemia

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60
Q

what is retinopathy of prematurity?

A

visual impairment seen in premature baby born before 32 weeks and had received oxygen treatment.

Over-oxygenation can cause retinal vessel proliferation which can lead to a loss of the red reflex and neovascularisation seen in the examination.

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61
Q

why should cooked liver be avoided in pregnancy?

A

high levels of vitamin A

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62
Q

signs of ovarian torsion?

A

enlarged ovary with free pelvic fluid
whirlpool sign! (also seen in volvulus)

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63
Q

ultrasound is indicated if lochia persists beyond?

A

6 weeks

USS to look for retained products of conception

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64
Q

which drug when used as an anti-emetic in pregnancy can cause extrapyramidal side effects (tremor, increased upper limb tone)

A

metoclopramide -> thus not used as 1st line!

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65
Q

name some potentially rhesus sensitizing events for pregnent women

A

Ectopic pregnancy
- Evacuation of retained products of conception and molar pregnancy
- Vaginal bleeding < 12 weeks, only if painful, heavy or persistent
- Vaginal bleeding > 12 weeks
- Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis
- Antepartum haemorrhage
- Abdominal trauma
- External cephalic version
- Intra-uterine death
- Post-delivery (if baby is RhD-positive)

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66
Q

management of anemia in pregnancy?

A

start oral iron replacement therapy

if in
First trimester < 110 g/L
Second/third trimester < 105 g/L
Postpartum < 100 g/L

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67
Q

what investigation can be done for urinary incontinence when the type is not known?

A

urodynamic studies

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68
Q

placenta accreta?
increta?
percepta?

A

present with pph

accreta = placenta attaches to myometrium

increta = invades myometrium

percepta = invades all layers of uterus and can reach organs eg bladder

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69
Q

Which condition presents with low values in quadruple test bar inhibin which is normal?

A

edwards syndrome

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70
Q

what risk is associated with odansetron use in pregnancy?

A

increased risk of cleft lip/palate if used in 1st trimester

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71
Q

when should anti-D be given to a resus negative pregnant woman?

A

at 28 and 34 weeks

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72
Q

what is a ring pessary used for?

A

pelvic organ prolapse

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73
Q

first line investigation for P-PROM?

A

sterile speculum investigation

Further management

Admit to antenatal ward to perform sterile speculum examination to look for pooling of amniotic fluid and administer following:
o 1st line = oral erythromycin
Then IM betamethasone for lung maturity

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74
Q

when should a pregnant woman with HTN be admitted to the maternal unit for observation?

A

when BP >/= 160/110

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75
Q

first line investigation for pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding?

A

TVUSS to assess the viability of the pregnancy and determine the source of bleeding.

Should the pregnancy be viable then other management options such as Rho(D) immunoglobulins would be considered if the woman is Rh-negative,

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76
Q

What supplement should all pregnant women take daily

A

10 micrograms of vitamin D

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77
Q

key side effect of magnesium sulfate? what should you monitor?
what is the antidote?

A

respiratory depression
monitor resp rate (and check reflexes)

antidote = calcium gluconate

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78
Q

If PPH medical management fails, what is first line surgical management?

A

intrauterine balloon tamponade (intrauterine bakri-catheter). - particularly if uterin atony suspected as main cause

other interventions:
B-Lynch suture, ligation of the uterine arteries or internal iliac arteries
if severe, uncontrolled -> hysterectomy is sometimes

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79
Q

what is a galactocele?

A

painless firm breast lump occuring in women that have recently stopped breastfeeding

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80
Q

advice on methotrexate use when trying to concieve?

A

must be stopped at least 3 months before conception in both men and women

81
Q

first stage of labour ends when?

A

cervix fully dilated (10cm).

2nd stage = birth of fetus

3rd stage = expulsion of placenta

82
Q

why is induction of labour indicated for intrahepatic cholestasis?

A

it increases chance of stillbirth

83
Q

placental abruption management?

A

ABCDE approach
o Gain 2x IV access
o Bloods (FBC, Rhesus status, cross-match and clotting screen)
o Continuous foetal monitoring
o Kleihauer test and anti-D if needed

Then decide on delivery:

Fetus alive and < 36 weeks
fetal distress: immediate caesarean
no fetal distress: observe closely, steroids, no tocolysis, threshold to deliver depends on gestation

Fetus alive and > 36 weeks
fetal distress: immediate caesarean
no fetal distress: deliver vaginally

84
Q

Raised FSH/LH in primary amenorrhoea - consider what?

A

gonadal dysgenesis (e.g. Turner’s syndrome)

85
Q

Stereotypical PCOS lab results?

A

raised LH:FSH ratio
testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated
SHBG (sex hormone binding globulin) is normal to low

86
Q

First line treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?

A

Antihistamines - eg promethazine

87
Q

Normal laboratory findings in pregnancy?

A

Reduced urea, reduced creatinine, increased urinary protein loss

88
Q

Most common complication of a myomectomy for fibroids

A

Adhesions

89
Q

Hysterectomy associated with what type of prolapse?

A

Vaginal vault

90
Q

How does induction of labor method vary based on bishop score?

A

if the Bishop score is ≤ 6
vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol!

mechanical methods such as a balloon catheter can be considered if the woman is at higher risk of hyperstimulation or has had a previous caesarean

if the Bishop score is > 6
amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion

Score >8 indicates likely spontaneous labor

91
Q

HTN in pregnancy is defined as?

A

systolic > 140 mmHg or diastolic > 90 mmHg

92
Q

in patients with continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labour and from a country with poor obstetric services, what do you expect? Management?

A

Vesicovaginal fistula. Urinary dye studies

93
Q

A pregnancy with β-HCG higher than 1,500 IU/L should be visible on ultrasound.

If not, then most likely what?

A

ectopic pregnancy, rather than missed miscarriage

94
Q

what medication is useful in short term treatment of fibroids?

what surgery to remove?

management of menorrhagia?

what is the only treatment that improves fertility?

A

GOSERELIN (GnRH agonist) - only used in short term due to menopausal symptoms and loss of bone kineral density. used to shrink fibroid

myomectomy, hystorectomy, uterine artery embolization.

menorrhagia -> IUS if uterus not distorted, mefanamic acid

myomectomy improves fertility

95
Q

what is the most common type of ovarian epithelial cell tumour?

A

serous cystadenoma - is benign

96
Q

treatment for BV and trichomonas?

A

oral metronidazole

97
Q

treatment for gonorrhea?

A

IM ceftriaxone

98
Q

if a woman is pregnant, when should they have their routine cervical screening?

A

Cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until 3 months post-partum unless missed screening or previous abnormal smears

99
Q

a delayed 3rd stage of labour in a patient with a history of c-section (most important risk factor )and PID points towards?

management?

A

placenta accreta. can cause major blood loss after delivery as part of placenta remains attached.

hysterectomy = definitive. attempts to remove placenta may cause hemorrhage

100
Q

describe the woodscrew maneuvre. when is it used?

A

put hand in uterus and attempt to rotate fetus 180 degrees.

used in shoulder dystocia as second line to mc roberts maneuvre

101
Q

ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome symptoms?

A

ascites, vomiting, diarrhoea, high hematocrit, SOB

102
Q

miscarriage management?

A

expectant = first line

Medical management instead if patient has ris of hemorrhage, evidence of infection.

medical management = VAGINAL MISOPROSTOL 1st line

last resort = surgical management eg vacuum aspiration

103
Q

management of mastitis in breastfeeding mothers?

A

flucloxacillin

104
Q

first line treatment for thrush in non pregnant women?

A

oral fluconazole

105
Q

effect of pre-eclampsia on amniotic fluid?

A

oligohydramnios

106
Q

causes of oligohydramnios?

A

premature rupture of membranes

Potter sequence
bilateral renal agenesis + pulmonary hypoplasia

intrauterine growth restriction

post-term gestation

pre-eclampsia!

107
Q

causes of folic acid deficiency?

A

phenytoin
methotrexate
pregnancy
alcohol excess

108
Q

after colposcopy and treatment for CIN2, when should a patient return for a test of cure?

A

6 months

109
Q

53 YR old woman presents with urinary urgency and frequency, treated in past for utis but urine cultures were always negative. cyst found in ovary on ultrasound. most likely diagnosis?

A

ovarian cancer - urgency is a pressure effect

110
Q

Name some LMWHs used in pregnancy in place of DOACS and warfarin

A

enoxaparin
dalteparin
tinzaparin

111
Q

Medical treatments for postpartum haemorrhage secondary to uterine atony?

A

oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost and misoprostol

112
Q

50% of umbilical cord prolapses occur after which surgical intervention?

A

artificial rupture of membranes

113
Q

endometrial cancer investigations?

A

TVUSS = 1ST LINE
then, hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy

114
Q

if fetal movements have not been felt by __ weeks, a refferal should be made

A

24

115
Q

if a patient with menopausal symptoms already has a mirena IUS in, what other treatment do you add?

A

patient already has progesterone from iUS so just add on estradiol

HRT is incorrect as it contains both progesterone and estrogen

116
Q

the progestogen component of HRT increases the risk of what? in menopausal women

A

breast cancer

117
Q

management for patients w secondary dysmennoorhea

A

must all be referred to gynaecology

118
Q

state some absolute indications to vaginal birth after c section

A

previous vertical (classical) caesarean scars, previous episodes of uterine rupture and patients with other contraindications to vaginal birth (e.g. placenta praevia).

119
Q

preclampsia management first line?

A

antihypertensives!!
Magnesium sulfate is only given after! this to prevent siezure

120
Q

how to differentiate placenta preavia and vasa praevia?

A

vasa praevia is a triad of bleeding PLUS (rupture of membranes and fetal compromise

121
Q

if NSAIDS and OCP dont control endometriosis symptoms, what should be tried?

A

GNRH analogues

122
Q

low levels of LH/FSH indicate what causes of secondary amenorrhea?

A

hypothalamic causes

123
Q

in a woman >50 presenting with symptoms suspicipous of IBS and not having these symptoms prior, what must you rule out? first line investigation?

A

rule out ovarian cancer
ca-125 first line.
if this is elevated, then ultrasound scans of abdomen and pelvis is performed, NOT TVUSS

124
Q

first line management for menorrhagia in fibroids as long as there is no distortion of uterine cavity and fertility is not desired?

A

LNG-IUS

125
Q

cervical motion tenderness/cervical excitation is a sign that is seen in ectopic pregnancy and _____

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

126
Q

what are some signs of false labour?

A

Occurs in the last 4 weeks of pregnancy
Presentation: contractions/pain felt in the lower abdomen. The contractions are irregular and occur every 20 minutes. Progressive cervical changes are absent.

127
Q

name a risk factor for a second trimester miscarriage

A

cervical cone biopsy

128
Q

first line treatment for UTI in non-pregnant women?

A

trimethroprim - also safe in breastfeeding

129
Q

in which condition does placenta invasion go beyond the myometrium and into the perimetrium?

A

placenta percreta

130
Q

name the SSRIs of choice for breastfeeding women

A

Sertraline
Paroxetine

131
Q

what is a normal fetal heart rate?

A

100 - 160

132
Q

what should be prescribed for severe hyperemesis gravidarum

A

IV Saline with potassium chloride.

*in hyperemesis gravidarum, electrolyte depletion is common

133
Q

management for postpartum thyroiditis?

A

thyrotoxicosis = propanolol (symptomatic treatment only)

hypothyroid phase = thyroxine

134
Q

effect of cocp on endometrial cancer

A

protective.
progesterone component of pill protects against estrogen

135
Q

which antihypertensives are contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

ACE inhibitors and ARBS

136
Q

define PPH. what is a differential?

A

passage of >500ml of blood following delivery
lochia = differential

137
Q

managment of placental abruption under 36 weeks if fetus not in distress

A

admit and give IV steroids

138
Q

management of pregnant woman with low-lying placenta at 20 week scan?

A

rescan at 32 weeks

139
Q

what conditions may cause a pregnant woman to have a raised AFP?

A

Neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly)
Abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis)
Multiple pregnancy

140
Q

What conditions can cause a pregnant woman to have a low AFP?

A

Down’s syndrome
Trisomy 18
Maternal diabetes mellitus

141
Q

name a GnRH agonist used to shrink fibroids?

A

Triptorelin
Leuprolide

142
Q

↓ AFP
↓ oestriol
↑ hCG
↑ inhibin A

(quadruple test done at 15-20 weeks) indicates what condition most likely?

also suggested by ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency. (combined test, done earlier in pregnancy)

A

Downs syndrome

143
Q

if a speculum examination shows no signs of PPROM, what is the next step in management?

A

testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) (e.g. AmniSure®) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein‑1

144
Q

When do you give anti-D prophylaxis for an abortion?

A

Offer to women who are rhesus D negative and are having an abortion after 10 weeks’ gestation.

Before 10 weeks, only offer if it is a surgical abortion NOT a medical abortion

145
Q

After termination of pregnancy, when is a multi level pregnancy test carried out?

A

After 2 weeks - should show lower HCg levels although test may be normal and positive for up to 4 weeks post termination

146
Q

Name a drug that is a rf for thrush?

A

Antibiotics. Eg thrush post treated uti

147
Q

What fetal conditions call for a category 1 c section (ie in 30 mins)

A

, fetal hypoxia or persistent fetal bradycardia

148
Q

What maternal conditions call for a cat 1 c section?

A

suspected uterine rupture, major placental abruption, cord prolapse

149
Q

How do you manage late declarations on a Ctg trace?i

A

urgent fetal blood sampling
Concerning finding for fetal hypoxia or fetal acidosis! If acidosis, urgent delivery

149
Q

Placenta praevia risk factors

A

previous placenta praevia, previous caesarean section, endometrium damage and multiple pregnancies.

150
Q

what is given to treat hirsutism in PCOS?

A

COCP

151
Q

what is given to treat oligomenorrhea in PCOS?

A

COCP or LNG-IUS

treatment needed to prevent endometrial hyperplasia

152
Q

what differential test must you do in urinary incontinence?

A

urinalysis - rule out UTI and diabetes

153
Q

what bugs cause early vs late onset sepsis in newborn

A

early (<48 hours)
= GBS

late ( >48 hours)
= staph epidermis, staph aureus

154
Q

what are some high risk and moderate risk factors for preeclampsia?

A

high risk factors:
hypertensive disease in a previous pregnancy
chronic kidney disease

autoimmune disease, such as systemic lupus erythematosus!! or antiphospholipid syndrome!!!

type 1!!! or type 2 diabetes

chronic hypertension

moderate:
first pregnancy
age 40 years or older
pregnancy interval of more than 10 years
body mass index (BMI) of 35 kg/m² or more at first visit
family history of pre-eclampsia
multiple pregnancy

155
Q

Treatment for pregnant women with risk factors for pre-eclampsia?

A

If a woman has one or more high-risk factors (or ≥2 moderate risk factors), she should be prescribed 75-150mg of aspirin daily from 12 weeks gestation until birth to help prevent pre-eclampsia.

156
Q

endometrial cancer treatment?

A

localised disease is treated with total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy

Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women not considered suitable for surgery.

157
Q

Persistent unexplained vulval skin lesion management?

A

2 week wait referral to rule out cancer

158
Q

cat 2 c section should be done in how many minutes

A

75 minutes

159
Q

Which HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE?

A

Transdermal HRT

vs oral which does

160
Q

contraindication to the use of epidural anaesthesia?

A

coagulopathy

161
Q

when do baby blues occur?

A

typically in 3-7 days following birth

162
Q

If a uterine fibroid is less than __cm in size, and not distorting the uterine cavity, medical treatment can be tried (e.g. IUS, tranexamic acid, COCP etc)

A

3

163
Q

what are some common cardiac findings in pregnancy and what is a concerning finding?

A

an ejection systolic murmur is heard in 96% of women and 84% have a third heart sound. Forceful apex beat is not a cause for concern provided it is still within 2cm of the mid-clavicular line

pulmonary edama is concerning. in addition, that + HTN = most likely pre-eclampsia

164
Q

how do bartholiin cysts appear on examination?

A

painful and soft
pain while walking, dyspareunia
common in childbearing woman

165
Q

what analgesic must be avoided in breastfeeding women?

A

aspirin

166
Q

if NSAIDs/COCP have not controlled symptoms of endometriosis, what can be tried?

A

GnRH analogues/agonists

*avoid the copper IUD as it does not contain hormones and so does not prevent build up of uterine lining

167
Q

what medication is safe in pregnant women to help quit smoking?

A

nicotine replacement therapy

168
Q

first line non hormonal treatment for menorrhagia?

A

tranexamic acid

mefanamic acid can be given if painful periods or fertility not desired

169
Q

mode of delivery for pregnant women with HIV?

A

vaginal delivery is recommended if viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks

170
Q

what is urogenital prolapse? state different types
management?

A

In urogenital prolapse there is descent of one of the pelvic organs resulting in protrusion on the vaginal walls.

cystocele, cystourethrocele
rectocele
uterine prolapse

Management
if asymptomatic and mild prolapse then no treatment needed
conservative: weight loss, pelvic floor muscle exercises
ring pessary
surgery

Surgical options
cystocele/cystourethrocele: anterior colporrhaphy, colposuspension
uterine prolapse: hysterectomy, sacrohysteropexy
rectocele: posterior colporrhaphy

171
Q

when is mastitis treated in a breastfeeding woman?

A

‘if systemically unwell, if nipple fissure present, if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal of if culture indicates infection’. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin

erythema is not an indication!

172
Q

management of PPROM?

A

oral erythromycin should be given for 10 days

antenatal corticosteroids

delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation

173
Q

women presenting with ectopic pregnancy and abdominal pain, what is the management?

A

surgical management -> due to presence of abdominal pain!!

174
Q

management of ovarian cyst in pregnant woman?

A

reassurance.

in early pregnancy, ovarian cysts are usually physiological - known as a corpus luteum. They will usually resolve

175
Q

post menopausal vaginal bleeding is a _ to HRT

A

contraindication

176
Q

fetal movements should be felt by X weeks?

A

24

177
Q

breech presentation is common before x weeks? and only becomes a problem if woman goes in to preterm labour

A

34

178
Q

name some causes of perpeural pyrexia

A

endometritis: most common cause
urinary tract infection
wound infections (perineal tears + caesarean section)
mastitis
venous thromboembolism

178
Q

how to distinguish active and latent 1st stage of labour?

A

active =3-10cm dilation

179
Q

cat 2 c sections are how long

A

75 min

180
Q

How can you tell if pregnancy is SGA or LGA? from symphysis-fundal height

A

SFH should match the gestational age in weeks to within 2 cm after 20 weeks,

181
Q

pre-existing renal disease is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia

A
182
Q

what is the most common cause of post menopausal bleeding (including post coital bleeding)

A

vaginal atrophy!!!

endometrial cancer less common

and cervical cancer even less in UK due to screening programs

183
Q

If a uterine fibroid is less than 3cm in size, and not distorting the uterine cavity what is management?

A

try medical first -> IUS, OCP, Tranexamic acid

184
Q

when would you refer a cyst for biopsy?

A

when its a complex/multi-loculated cyst rather than a simple cysts

presence of ascities, strong blood flow etc

185
Q

is severe gestational diabetes treated with short or long acting insulin?

A

short acting

185
Q

pregnancy >6 weeks and bleeding management?

pregnancy < 6 weeks and bleeding with no other symptoms management.

A

> 6 weeks = TVUSS
<6 weeks = expectant management, do a repeat pregnancy test in 7 days if negative = miscarriage, if positive = more management

186
Q

cocaine abuse has been associated with placental abruption. what other signs can be seen on examination?

A

pupil dilation + hyperreflexia

187
Q

when can IV magnesium sulphate be used to treat pre-eclampsia rather than eclampsia?

A

when delivery is planned in 24 hours, or high risk of eclampsia/siezures

188
Q

Causes of pulmonary edema in pregnancy?

A

cardiac:
- peripartum cardiomyopathy
- cardiac ischemia
- pre existing heart disease

non cardiogenic
- fluid overload
- pre-eclampsia
- drugs - eg steroids and non steroidal eg diclofenac

189
Q

spontaneous hepatic rupture in pregnancy is a complication of what condition?

A

HELLP syndrome

190
Q

a short duration of vomiting or reduced oral intake in pregnancy can lead to starvation ketoacidosis. how do you differentiate it from DKA?

A

glucose is normal or low unlike in DKA and you treat by giving iV glucose

191
Q

naproxen/ibuprofen is safe until what stage of pregnancy?

A

safe till before 32 weeks

192
Q

is candesartan safe for breastfeeding mothers

A

yes unless child is premature

193
Q

which antiepileptcs are safe in pregnancy?

A

leveticetam
lamotrigine
clozabam

194
Q

state secondary causes of headache in pregnancy and their management

A
  1. cerebral venous sinus thrombosis -> CT venogram -> LMWH
  2. posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome -> visual disturbance, headache siezure -> MRI -> manage BP
  3. reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome -> thuderclap headache typically seen after delivery -> calcium channel blockers
  4. pituitary apoplexy ->

meningitis, IIH

195
Q

itchy rash on the abdomen of a pregnant woman is most likely?

A

polymorphic eruption of pregnancy (PEP)-> typically in 3rd trimester or post partum

196
Q
A