O&G Flashcards
Snowstorm appearance in USS
Molar pregnancy
Woman w painless PV bleeding, what ix should you never do first?
Vaginal exam should NOT be done until USS done (exclude placenta praevia)
State the anatomy/structures of the types of placenta below.
a) Placenta Accreta
b) Placenta Increta
c) Placenta Percreta
d) Placenta Praevia
a) Invades into endometrium, not myometrium
b) Invades into myometrium through endometrium
c) Through the uterus, i.e. into abdomen, through myometrium
d) Covering the os (contraindication to vaginal birth)
O/E wooden uterus and bleeding, pt is in pain and a known smoker
Likely diagnosis?
Placental abruption
RFs of placental abruption
Pre-eclapmsia HTN Abdo trauma Cocaine Smoking
What is the role of AMH in reproductive tract formation?
AMH drives degeneration of Mullerian duct (goes onto form uterus, cervix and upper vagina)
Lack of AMH leads to degeneration of Wolffian duct (goes onto form epididymis, vas deferens, seminal ducts)
15 yo presents as mum worried she has never had a period, normal breast and pubic hair development
Likely diagnosis?
aka Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
Failure of lower Mullerian duct to develop
Also have associated w renal defects
13 yo presents w severe acute pelvic pain, has not had their first period, pain is worsening monthly for the last 3 months
Likely diagnosis?
Imperforate hymen .
Which organ structures would be affected if the metanephros was impaired?
Renal tract
Indomethacin vs prostaglandins for patent ductus arteriosum in fetus
Indomethacin (NSAID) used to CLOSE it
Prostaglandins used to keep it OPEN
- multiple cardiac defects, can be useful to have patent to maintain circulation
What are these structures formed from in the fetus?
a) Median umbilical ligament
b) Ligamentum arteriosum
c) Ligamentum teres of liver
d) Fossa ovalis
d) Ligamentum venosum
e) Medial umbilical ligament
a) Allantois duct (mediaN)
b) Ductus arteriosum
c) Umbilical vein
d) Foramen ovale
e) Ductus venosus
f) Umbilical artery (mediaL)
What is the karyotype of the following molar pregnancies?
a) Partial
b) Complete
a) Triploid: 69XXX, 69 XXY, 69 XYY
b) Majority are 46XX due to subsequent mitosis of the fertilising sperm
What are the 7 layers we go through in a C-section?
- Skin
- Fat
- Rectus sheath
- Rectus
- Parietal peritoneum
- Visceral peritoneum
- Uterus
What are the ideal types of incisions for a C-section
Transverse
- lower post-op pain, and increased cosmesis
Joel Cohen
- reduced op time and
What are the ideal types of incisions for a C-section
Transverse
- lower post-op pain, and increased cosmesis
Joel Cohen
- reduced op time and reduced post-op infection
Which arteries do we need to avoid damaging when inserting a laparoscopic port?
Superior and inferior epigastric arteries (anastomose at umbilicus)
Supplies anterior abdo wall and part of diaphragm - lead to severe bleed and bruising
Where is Palmer’s point and why do we use it?
3cm below costal margin on the left midclavicular line
Visceral-parietal adhesions rarely found here
Use indicated to insert first laparoscopic port when pt has multiple prior abdo surgery or is obese
What are the borders of the pelvic inlet?
Sacral promontory
Arcuate line (ilium)
Pubic symphysis
What are the borders of the pelvic outlet?
Pubic arch
Ischial tuberosity
Tip of coccyx
What are the average diameters of pelvic inlet/outlet?
Average width: 11cm
Average top-to-bottom: 13cm
What is pudendal nerve block used for?
LA for quick pain relief prior to instrumental delivery
Pudendal nerve supplies clitoris, perineum, and anus
What is the use of the ischial spines?
Landmark for pudendal blocks
- Bony prmenines at 4 and 8 o’clock at about finger-length into the cagina
What is the use of the ischial spines?
Landmark for pudendal blocks
- Bony prmenines at 4 and 8 o’clock at about finger-length into the cagina
When may episiotomies be performed?
NEVER prophylatically
During second stage of labour to avoid tearing damage
- usually isntrumental delivery
- under pudendal block