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Geria + o 201 e1 > o 201 e1 > Flashcards

o 201 e1 Flashcards

1
Q 
1.	Which of the following is true about the lipid raft?
A.	Signals cell apoptosis
B.	???
C.	May be attached to the cytoskeleton
D.	???
A

C. May be attached to the cytoskeleton

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2
Q 
2.	Which of the following is the function of the nucleolus?
A.	Gives rise to mitotic spindles
B.	Final site of maturation of ribosomes
C.	Cell cycle regulation
D.	Structural backbone of the nucleus
A

C. Cell cycle regulation

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3
Q 
3.	Which of the following occurs in the pale rounded areas of the nucleolus?
A.	Transcription into the rRNA
B.	Synthesis into ribosomal proteins
C.	Assembly into preribosomes
D.	Translation of rRNA
A

A. Transcription into the rRNA

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4
Q
  1. What is true/describes the nuclear envelope?
    A. Inner membrane is folded into cristae
    B. Outer membrane is continuous with sER
    C. Made up of intermediate filaments
    D. Forms nuclear pores where the two membranes fuse
A

D. Forms nuclear pores where the two membranes fuse

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5
Q 
5.	Where do proteins synthesized by free ribosomes go?
A.	Lysosome
B.	Golgi apparatus
C.	rER
D.	Mitochondria
A

D. Mitochondria

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6
Q 
6.	Which of the following results from defective sER of the liver cells?
A.	Drug toxicity
B.	Infertility
C.	Muscle dystrophy
D.	Lactose intolerance
A

A. Drug toxicity

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7
Q 
7.	Which intermediate filament, when present in an undifferentiated tumors, suggests a connective tissue origin?
A.	Keratin
B.	Desmin
C.	Vimentin
D.	Laminin
A

C. Vimentin

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8
Q 
8.	What is the function of proteasome?
A.	Storage of excess protein
B.	Oxidation of long fatty acid chains
C.	Synthesis of protein
D.	Degradation of misfolded proteins
A

D. Degradation of misfolded proteins

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9
Q 
9.	What protein is responsible for labeling misfolded proteins?
A.	Actin
B.	Ubiquitin
C.	Clathrin
D.	Tubulin
A

B. Ubiquitin

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10
Q 
10.	What do microtubules look like?
A.	Hollow cylinders
B.	Rope-like structure
C.	Double-stranded helices
D.	Lattice-like network
A

A. Hollow cylinders

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11
Q 
11.	What structure is attacked by a virus for replication?
A.	Ribosomes
B.	Mitochondria
C.	Nucleolus
D.	rER
A

C. Nucleolus

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12
Q
  1. What is true of the cell membrane when viewed under the electron microscope?
    A. It is bilaminar
    B. It has a thickness of 50-100 nm
    C. It may have glycocalyx
    D. It is continuous with the rough endomplasmic reticulum
A

C. It may have glycocalyx

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13
Q
  1. Which is true about epithelial tissue?
    A. Abundant intracellular matrix
    B. Highly vascular
    C. Exhibits polarity
    D. Not all are attached to the basal lamina
A

C. Exhibits polarity

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14
Q 
14.	What is the function most suited for simple squamous epithelium?
A.	Protective Barrier
B.	Absorption
C.	Exchange of substances
D.	Secretion
A

B. Absorption

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15
Q 
15.	What type of Epithelium is found in the majority of the digestive tract?
A.	Pseudostratified
B.	Simple cuboidal
C.	Simple squamous
D.	Simple columnar
A

D. Simple columnar

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16
Q 
16.	Which structure forms the brush borders of the kidney tubules?
A.	Microvilli
B.	Motile cilia
C.	Stereocilia
D.	Primary cilia
A

A. Microvilli

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17
Q 
17.	Which organ can stereocilia be found?
A.	Epididymis
B.	Small intestine
C.	Trachea
D.	Kidney tubules
A

A. Epididymis

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18
Q 
18.	Which is true of motile cilia?
A.	Axoneme has a 9+0 microtubule pattern
B.	Attached to the terminal web
C.	Highly absorptive
D.	Contains dynein arms
A

D. Contains dynein arms

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19
Q 
19.	What is in a tight junction?
A.	Cadherin
B.	Occludin
C.	Integrin
D.	Laminin
A

B. Occludin

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20
Q 
20.	Which among the lateral modifications is destroyed in cholera-infected patients experiencing diarrhea?
A.	Zona Occludens
B.	Zona adherens
C.	Macula adherens
D.	Gap junctions
A

A. Zona Occludens

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21
Q 
21.	What structure in the basal lamina makes it a good selective barrier?
A.	Type IV collagen
B.	Laminin
C.	Proteoglycan
D.	Type VII collagen
A

C. Proteoglycan

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22
Q 
22.	Which of the following has a secretory epithelium?
A.	Large intesine
B.	Esophagus
C.	Stomach
D.	Small intestine
A

C. Stomach

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23
Q 
23.	What type of gland is the sebaceous gland?
A.	Simple tubular
B.	Simple acinar
C.	Simple branched acinar
D.	Compound branched acinar
A

C. Simple branched acinar

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24
Q 
24.	Which is true about mucous secreting glands?
A.	Appears pale cells
B.	Secrete enzyme-rich fluid
C.	Poorly glycosylated proteins
D.	Has round nuclei
A

A. Appears pale cells

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25
Q 
25.	Which is part of stroma of a large gland?
A.	Capsule
B.	Duct
C.	Acini
D.	Tubule
A

A. Capsule

26
Q 
26.	What type of duct directly drains the acini?
A.	Striated duct
B.	Intercalated duct
C.	Interlobular duct
D.	Intralobar duct
A

B. Intercalated duct

27
Q 
27.	Which of the following makes the thyroid gland a unique endocrine organ?
A.	It has a duct
B.	It has an exocrine portion
C.	It has a follicular structure
D.	It has poor vasculature
A

C. It has a follicular structure

28
Q 
28.	Which of the following exhibits an apocrine type of secretion?
A.	Sebaceous gland
B.	Apocrine sweat gland
C.	Eccrine sweat gland
D.	Mammary gland
A

D. Mammary gland

29
Q 
1.	Microfibrils 75 mm and stains blue with Masson's Trichome test:
A.	Collagen fibers
B.	Reticular fibers
C.	Elastic fibers
D.	All of the above
E.	None of the above
A

E. None of the above

30
Q 
2.	Composed of Type III Collagen
A.	Collagen fibers
B.	Reticular fibers
C.	Elastic fibers
D.	All of the above
E.	None of the above
A

B. Reticular fibers

31
Q 
3.	Type of fiber that was made from fibroblast cells
A.	Collagen fibers
B.	Reticular fibers
C.	Elastic fibers
D.	All of the above
E.	None of the above
A

D. All of the above

32
Q 
4.	The PAS stains this fiber orange/red. It is 0.5-2 micron(s) in diameter
A.	Collagen fibers
B.	Reticular fibers
C.	Elastic fibers
D.	All of the above
E.	None of the above
A

E. None of the above

33
Q 
33. This CT cell may reach 50 microns in diameter, specialized in storage, and stains black in osmium tetraoxide.
A. Mast cell
B. Fibroblast
C. Fat cell
D. Macrophage
A

. Fat cell

34
Q 
34. Which of the following is a compound tubuloacinar gland?
A. Prostate gland
B. Pancreas
C. Goblet cell
D. Sweat gland
A

A. Prostate gland

35
Q 
35.	Functions of the basement membrane include which of the following?
A.	Contractility
B.	Molecular filtering
C.	Active ion transport
D.	Excitability
E.	Modification of secreted proteins
A

B. Molecular filtering

36
Q 
36.	Using immunohistochemistry a population of cells is shown to be positive for the protein connexin. From this we can infer that the cells are connected by what type of junction?
A.	Tight (occluding) junctions 
B.	Zonula adherens
C.	Gap junctions 
D.	Hemidesmosomes
E.	Desmosomes (macula adherens)
A

C. Gap junctions

37
Q
  1. An individual genetically unable to synthesize normal occludin is likely to have epithelia with defective regulation in which of the following?
    A. Material crossing the epithelium between the cells (paracellular movement)
    B. Communication between the cells
    C. Attachment to the basement membrane
    D. Strong attachment to neighboring cells
    E. Movement of membrane proteins in the apical domain of cells
A

A. Material crossing the epithelium between the cells (paracellular movement)

38
Q 
38.	An intermediate filament protein found in cytoplasm of most epithelial cells is which of the following? 
A.	Actin 
B.	Vimentin 
C.	Laminin
D.	Myosin
E.	Keratin
A

E. Keratin

39
Q
  1. Which of the following cellular features is used in naming types of epithelia?
    A. Shape of cells in the basal layer
    B. Number of cell layers
    C. Presence of basal lamina
    D. Size of nuclei
    E. Nature of the cell junctions that are present
A

B. Number of cell layers

40
Q 
40.	The release of lipid droplets from cells is which type of secretion?
A.	Merocrine
B.	Serous
C.	Apocrine
D.	Mucous
E.	Holocrine
A

C. Apocrine

41
Q 
41.	Exocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland?
A.	Serous gland
B.	Mixed gland
C.	Mucous gland
D.	Tubuloacinar gland
E.	Simple gland
A

C. Mucous gland

42
Q 
42.	With a 5-year history of chronic respiratory infection, a 23-year old, non-smoking man is referred to an otolaryngologist. A bronchial biopsy indicates altered structures in the epithelial cells. Which of the following, if altered to reduce function, is most likely involved in this patient’s condition? 
A.	Hemidesmosomes
B.	Cilia 
C.	Basolateral cell membrane folds
D.	Microvilli
E.	Tight junctions
A

B. Cilia

43
Q 
43.	An 11-month old girl is referred to a pediatric gastroenterology clinic due to a history of generalized weakness, slow growth, and refractory diarrhea. For the past month she has been hospitalized regularly to receive parenteral nutrition. Examination of the epithelium lining her small intestine confirms that the failure to absorb nutrients is most likely due to a significant decrease in which of the following? 
A.	Microvilli
B.	Gap junction
C.	Cilia
D.	Cell layers
E.	Basement membrane thickness
A

A. Microvilli

44
Q 
44.	A 42-year old woman of Mediterranean descent presents with multiple oral blisters and a few cutaneous blisters on her back and buttocks. The superficial bullae are fragile, some have unroofed to form ulcerated lesions, and there is positive Nikolsky sign. Blood tests reveal antibodies to a subfamily of cadherins and immunohistochemical staining of a biopsy from the oral mucosa shows distribution of the antigen throughout the epithelium. In what structures is the defect that is causing this patient’s condition? 
A.	Desmosomes
B.	Tight junctions
C.	Hemidesmosomes
D.	Gap junctions
E.	Reticular lamina
A

A. Desmosomes

45
Q
  1. In transmission EM preparations of cells, the cell membrane often appears as a trilaminar structure having two parallel dark-staining components on either side of an unstained middle layer. This central poorly stained region of the membrane is primarily responsible for which of the following function?
    A. Creation of a barrier to water-soluble molecules
    B. Binding by cellular receptions to specific ligands
    C. Catalyzing cell membrane-associated activities
    D. Transport of ions
    E. Connections to the cytoskeleton
A

A. Creation of a barrier to water-soluble molecules

46
Q 
46.	Chaperonins are cytoplasmic proteins most likely to be found in which of the following organelles? 
A.	Lysosomes
B.	Golgi complexes
C.	RER
D.	SER
E.	Mitochondria
A

C. RER

47
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines the term ‘exocytosis’?
    A. The discharge of ions or small molecules from a cell by protein pumps in the cell membrane
    B. The uptake of material at one domain of a cell’s surface and its discharge from the opposite side of the cell
    C. The process by which proteins move from one cytoplasmic compartment to another
    D. The discharge of proteins in cytoplasmic vesicles from a cell following fusion of the vesicles with the plasmalemma
    E. Diffusion of lipid-soluble molecules from a cell across the cell membrane
A

D. The discharge of proteins in cytoplasmic vesicles from a cell following fusion of the vesicles with the plasmalemma

48
Q 
48.	Cytoplasm often stains poorly because its lipid content is removed by the organic solvents used in the clearing step in routine histological preparations. This problem is most likely to occur with cytoplasmic regions rich in which of the following organelles? 
A.	Free polysomes
B.	Mitochondria
C.	Lysosomes
D.	SER
E.	RER
A

D. SER

49
Q
  1. Polarity in microtubules is important in determining which of the following?
    A. The strength of vinblastine binding to microtubules
    B. The velocity of transport along microtubules with myosin motors
    C. The overall dynamic instability of the microtubules
    D. The linkage of microtubules to intermediate filaments
    E. The direction of vesicular transport along microtubules
A

E. The direction of vesicular transport along microtubules

50
Q
  1. Which of the following proteins is/are most likely to have initially contained a “signal peptide” that bound a “signal recognition particle” during its translation?
    A. An enzyme of the respiratory chain
    B. Lamins
    C. Proteins in secretory granules
    D. F-actin
    E. Proteins in the large ribosomal subunit
A

C. Proteins in secretory granules

51
Q 
51.	Vesicles of a Golgi apparatus that are destined to become part of other organelles most likely have which of the following on their membranes? 
A.	Channel proteins
B.	Clathrin
C.	COP II
D.	Actin
E.	GTP
A

C. COP II

52
Q 
52.	Which of the following is a region of chromatin that is well-developed in large neurons active in protein synthesis?
A.	Heterochromatin
B.	The nucleolus
C.	The Nissl substance (neuronal RER)
D.	The Barr body
E.	The nucleosome
A

B. The nucleolus

53
Q 
53.	Which of the following is found during meiosis but not mitosis?
A.	Chromatids
B.	Polar microtubules
C.	Metaphase
D.	Synapsis
E.	Cytokinesis
A

D. Synapsis

54
Q 
54.	Transitions in the cell cycle from one phase to the next are regulated by protein kinases whose activity depends on what other proteins?
A.	Tumor suppressors
B.	Cyclins
C.	Actins
D.	Lamins
E.	Importins
A

B. Cyclins

55
Q 
55.	Mitotic figures visible in a tissue section from the lining of the small intestine are most likely to belong to which of the following categories?
A.	Terminally differentiated cells 
B.	Partially differentiated cells
C.	Blood cells
D.	Stem cells
E.	Progenitor cells
A

E. Progenitor cells

56
Q 
56.	Which of the following connective tissue components is located in the ECM but not in the ground substance?
A.	Collagen bundles
B.	Fibronectin
C.	GAGs
D.	Hyaluronan
E.	Proteoglycans
A

A. Collagen bundles

57
Q 
57.	What cells numerous in loose connective tissue are filled with secretory granules and stain with metachromasia?
A.	Macrophages
B.	Mast cells 
C.	Fibrocytes
D.	Active fibroblasts
E.	Leukocytes
A

B. Mast cells

58
Q 
58.	Sulfated GAGs are important constituents of what extracellular structures?
A.	Hyaluronan
B.	Elastic fibers
C.	Type I collagen
D.	Proteoglycans
E.	Multiadhesive glycoproteins
A

D. Proteoglycans

59
Q 
59.	Which of the following contains binding sites for integrins and is an important part of the ECM in both loose connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue?
A.	Aggrecan
B.	Fibronectin
C.	Perlecan
D.	Fibrillin
E.	Most types of collagen
A

B. Fibronectin

60
Q
  1. Dense regular connective tissue typically involves which of the following features?
    A. Contains mostly synthetically active fibroblasts
    B. Contains much ground substance
    C. Contains a similar cell population as areolar connective tissue
    D. Predominant tissue type in the stroma of most organs
    E. Predominantly located in tendons and ligaments
A

E. Predominantly located in tendons and ligaments

Geria + o 201 e1 (5 decks)

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