NYFD CFR Study Guide

Question 1

1. Which of the following is not included in the fundamental attributes of a functioning
   Emergency Medical Services (EMS) System?

a. Human resources
b. Public education
c. Standardize curricula
d. Prevention

Answer 1

c. Standardize curricula

Question 2

2. Updating standards for dispatching are included in which of the following components of the Emergency Medical Services System?

a. Communication Systems
b. Legislation and Regulation
c. Human Resources
d. Clinical Care

Answer 2

a. Communication Systems

Question 3

3. Which of the following skills are usually NOT performed by First Responders?

a. Providing initial airway care
b. Assessing for life-threatening conditions
c. Performing life-saving skills such as CPR
d. Administering medications such as epinephrine and nitroglycerin

Answer 3

d. Administering medications such as epinephrine and nitroglycerin

Question 4

4. Which of the following First Responders is NOT acting appropriately?

a. A First Responder who yells at bystanders who have approached a patient
b. A First Responder who exercises three times a week
c. A First Responder who calms a crying child who was involved in a motor vehicle crash
d. A First Responder who keeps a clean jacket or jumpsuit to put on when responding from
his work as a mechanic

Answer 4

a. A First Responder who yells at bystanders who have approached a patient

Question 5

5. Which of the following First Responders is NOT demonstrating appropriate behavior?

a. The First Responder who places the patient’s safety before his or her own
b. The First Responder who holds a patient’s hand to show emotional
support
c. The First Responder who attends a refresher course to maintain skill
levels
d. The First Responder who attends CE courses to maintain knowledge

Answer 5

a. The First Responder who places the patient’s safety before his or her
own

Question 6

6. Which of the following is properly demonstrating behavior expected of a First
   Responder?

a. The First Responder who allows a family member to disrupt the
assessment of and provision of patient care
b. The First Responder who goes into a scene with “shots fired” before
the police arrive
c. The First Responder who performs skills learned in a CE course but
that are not included in local protocol
d. The First Responder who continues to assist with patient care as
requested by advanced care providers

Answer 6

d. The First Responder who continues to assist with patient care as
requested by advanced care providers

Question 7

7. The formal relationship between the EMS providers and the physician responsible for the
   prehospital medical care in a community best defines which of the following terms?

a. Direct medical control
b. Indirect medical control
c. Medical oversight
d. Medical practice act

Answer 7

c. Medical oversight

Question 8

8. Which of the following is TRUE of medical oversight?

a. Only services that provide advanced care need medical oversight.
b. The physician providing medical oversight is often referred to as the medical director.
c. First Responders act independently of physicians in most cases.
d. It requires First Responders to contact a physician before providing any care.

Answer 8

b. The physician providing medical oversight is often referred to as the medical director.

Question 9

9. All of the following are TRUE of direct medical control EXCEPT ____.

a. It is also called “online,” “base station,” “immediate,” or “concurrent” medical control.
b. To use medical control, you may use the radio or telephone or have direct contact with
the physician at the scene.
c. The only way to be under direct medical control is for the physician to be at the scene.
d. It allows a First Responder to communicate directly with a physician.

Answer 9

c. The only way to be under direct medical control is for the physician to be at the scene.

Question 10

10. Which of the following is FALSE regarding indirect medical control?

a. It occurs when a First Responder calls for orders over the radio or with
the phone.
b. It is also called “offline,” or “prospective” medical control.
c. It includes all the activities that are not direct medical control.
d. It may include providing quality assurance.

Answer 10

a. It occurs when a First Responder calls for orders over the radio or with
the phone.

Question 11

11. A First Responder initiates treatment according to protocols. This is an example of which of the following terms?

a. Concurrent medical control
b. Direct medical control
c. Indirect medical control
d. On-line medical control

Answer 11

c. Indirect medical control

Question 12

12. Which term represents the first designated level of professional emergency medical care?

a. Emergency Medical Technician
b. Emergency Medical Responder (CFR)
c. Advanced Emergency Medical Technician
d. Paramedic

Answer 12

b. Emergency Medical Responder (CFR)

Question 13

13. The laws or regulations that protect licensed health care providers who give emergency assistance in good faith as long as they do not commit negligent, willful, or wanton acts of misconduct or omissions or charge for their services are referred to as which of the following?

a. Good Samaritan laws
b. Emergency Medical Services regulations
c. Medical oversight laws
d. First Responder protection regulations

Answer 13

a. Good Samaritan laws

Question 14

14. Failure to continue giving care until you have transferred that care to someone of equal
    or higher training is best described by which of the following terms?

a. Refusal
b. Abandonment
c. Implied treatment
d. Indirect medical care

Answer 14

b. Abandonment

Question 15

1. Emotions commonly experienced by Emergency First Responders, patients, and family members in a stressful situation include all the following EXCEPT:

a. Anxiety
b. Pain
c. Depression
d. Patience

Answer 15

d. Patience

Question 16

2. You respond to a major motor vehicle crash. Two patients are severely injured. You begin
   breathing fast and notice your pulse is racing. You feel tense and start to shake. Which of
   the following statements is TRUE about these feelings?

a. These feelings are abnormal and not commonly experienced by First Responders.
b. These feelings are abnormal and you should report them to your partner immediately.
c. These feelings are normal signs of anxiety in a stressful situation.
d. These feelings are normal but are not usually experienced by First Responders at a major
incident.

Answer 16

c. These feelings are normal signs of anxiety in a stressful situation.

Question 17

3. You respond to the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing. The patient has lung
   cancer. You try to put oxygen on him and he yells at you. He complains that you didn’t do
   it right. The patient is presenting with which of the following stages of grief?

a. Denial
b. Anger
c. Bargaining
d. Depression

Answer 17

b. Anger

Question 18

4. Which of the following include the five stages of grieving that may be experienced by
   persons involved with death and dying?

a. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
b. Guilt, indecisiveness, joy, depression, isolation
c. Acceptance, comfort, anxiety, guilt, irritability
d. Isolation, respect, comfort, relief, depression

Answer 18

a. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 19

5. Which of the following steps should you take in your approach to the family confronted
   with death and dying?

a. Reassure them that the patient will be fine and not to worry.
b. Limit the control you provide to the patient and family.
c. Reassure them that everything is being done to help.
d. Be prepared for everyone to be angry as they often pass through the same stages together.

Answer 19

c. Reassure them that everything is being done to help

Question 20

6. Emergency First Responders respond to the scene of a child involved in a motor vehicle
   crash. The child has been severely injured and dies while the First Responder is caring for
   her. Which of the following is true of this situation?

a. The Emergency First Responder caring for this child may complain of sleep disturbances,
distressing dreams, anger, or changes in eating habits.
b. This is not the type of incident that Emergency First Responders have difficulty managing
or dealing with afterward.
c. This is a disaster and a disaster team should be activated to assist the Emergency First
Responder in managing this situation.
d. This is a stressful incident but will not require the use of a critical incident stress
debriefing team.

Answer 20

a. The Emergency First Responder caring for this child may complain of sleep disturbances,
distressing dreams, anger, or changes in eating habits

Question 21

7. Which of the following steps can an Emergency First Responder take to reduce stress?

a. Eat a balanced diet, maintain family and friend time, reduce consumption of caffeine
and alcohol.
b. Maintain your regular consumption of caffeine and alcohol, reduce protein intake, limit
family and friend time.
c. Sleep as much as needed even if it seems excessive, focus on work, and limit outside
activities.
d. Control and suppress your feelings, decrease any additional requirements on your time,
have an occasional drink to relax.

Answer 21

a. Eat a balanced diet, maintain family and friend time, reduce consumption of caffeine
and alcohol.

Question 22

8. At the scene of a motor vehicle crash the patient is trapped in the vehicle. With which of
   the following hazards should the Emergency First Responder be concerned?

a. The possibility of sharp metal and glass
b. Exposure to the patient’s blood
c. The possibility that the vehicle may be leaking harmful fluids
d. All of the above

Answer 22

d. All of the above

Question 23

9. Which of the following is TRUE of standard precautions?

a. Standard Precautions are necessary only when the Emergency First Responder
knows the patient has an infectious disease.
b. Use of Standard Precautions are primarily designed to protect the
Emergency First Responder from blood-borne infections.
c. Standard Precautions is necessary because as an Emergency First Responder,
some of the most serious hazards you may face are invisible.
d. Immunizations such as tetanus and HBV can be taken instead of using Standard Precautions.

Answer 23

c. Standard Precautions is necessary because as an Emergency First Responder,
some of the most serious hazards you may face are invisible.

Question 24

10. You are responding to a local nursing care home. Your patient is an elderly male with
    pneumonia. The nursing staff informs you that the patient has tuberculosis. As an
    Emergency First Responder, which of the following actions should you take?

a. Wear gloves and a HEPA mask
b. Wear a gown, gloves, and eye protection
c. Wear utility gloves and a surgical mask
d. Obtain a tuberculosis immunization

Answer 24

a. Wear gloves and a HEPA mask

Question 25

11. Which of the following immunizations are recommended for all healthcare providers?

a. Tetanus
b. Hepatitis B
c. Measles, mumps, and flu
d. All of the above

Answer 25

d. All of the above

Question 26

12. You are transporting a child with meningitis. Your partner recommends you fill out an
    exposure report. Which of the following is NOT a part of the standard reporting process?

a. The date and time you were exposed
b. What type of body fluid you were exposed to
c. How much body fluid you were exposed to and the who the source was
d. Previous exposures and results

Answer 26

d. Previous exposures and results

Question 27

13. You respond to a possible “shooting.” Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Personal protective equipment such as gloves, mask, and gown should
be considered.
b. Do not enter the scene until it has been secured by law enforcement.
c. Avoid disturbing anything at the scene when possible.
d. Delay treating the patient until his or her clothing has been secured for
evidence.

Answer 27

d. Delay treating the patient until his or her clothing has been secured for
evidence.

Question 28

14. Which of the following scenes would be safe for an Emergency First Responder to enter?

a. A frantic family member calls you into a home in which shots have
been fired.
b. A group of people motion you into a crowd for the victim of a
stabbing.
c. A patient lying in a pool of unknown chemicals calls to you for help.
d. A police officer directs you to the victim of a family altercation.

Answer 28

d. A police officer directs you to the victim of a family altercation.

Question 29

15. You are preparing to disinfect the stretcher used by a patient who was bleeding from an
    open chest wound. You should do which of the following?

a. Wash the stretcher with a soap and water mixture.
b. Clean the stretcher with a bleach and water mixture.
c. Use a sterile saline solution.
d. Clean the area with chemicals that cause a thermal reaction.

Answer 29

b. Clean the stretcher with a bleach and water mixture

Question 30

1. The Emergency First Responder scope of care is best defined by which of the following
   statements?

a. The care an Emergency First Responder may perform according to state law.
b. The obligation an Emergency First Responder has to respond to the scene and provide
care.
c. The legal authority to perform any medical care.
d. The care outlined in the protocol for individual patient problems.

Answer 30

a. The care an Emergency First Responder may perform according to state law

Question 31

2. Which of the following is TRUE of the standard of care for a First Responder?

a. The standard of care is what a reasonably prudent First Responder would do in similar
circumstances.
b. The standard of care is different for every Emergency First Responder and is determined
by medical direction.
c. The Department of Transportation Emergency First Responder Curriculum determines
the national standard of care.
d. The standard of care is the same for all levels of EMS personnel.

Answer 31

a. The standard of care is what a reasonably prudent First Responder would do in similar
circumstances.

Question 32

3. You respond to the home of an elderly gentleman. His wife gives you a Do Not
   Resuscitate (DNR) document . Assuming your state recognizes this document in the
   prehospital setting, which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. The DNR cannot be revoked in the field.
b. If the patient is breathing and has a pulse, you should not provide medical care.
c. If the patient is not breathing and does not have a pulse, you should not provide medical
care.
d. Contact medical control before initiating any treatment.

Answer 32

c. If the patient is not breathing and does not have a pulse, you should not provide medical
care.

Question 33

4. You respond to the scene of a patient involved in a bicycle collision. You ask the patient if you may examine and treat her. You explain that you want to apply a cervical collar
   because the patient’s neck may be injured. You inform the patient that the collar may be
   uncomfortable. The patient agrees. This is an example of which type of consent?

a. Assumed consent
b. Expressed consent
c. Involuntary consent
d. Implied consent

Answer 33

b. Expressed consent

Question 34

5. You respond to the scene of an 8-year-old child who was struck by a car. The parents are
   unavailable. The child is found in the street. You begin to treat the child. This is an
   example of which of the following types of consent?

a. Informed consent
b. Expressed consent
c. Involuntary consent
d. Implied consent

Answer 34

d. Implied consent

Question 35

6. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between expressed and implied consent?

a. Implied consent applies only to patients who are refusing care, and expressed consent
involves patients who verbally consent to treatment.
b. With expressed consent a patient consents to treatment in writing, whereas with implied
consent a patient consents to treatment verbally.
c. Expressed consent can be obtained only from incompetent patients or minors, and
implied consent is obtained from competent patients.
d. Implied consent is granted when a patient is unconscious or is a minor without an
available parent or guardian, and expressed consent is verbally agreeing to treatment.

Answer 35

d. Implied consent is granted when a patient is unconscious or is a minor without an
available parent or guardian, and expressed consent is verbally agreeing to treatment.

Question 36

7. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the care of minors?

a. Consent for treatment must always be obtained from the parents prior to initiating treatment.
b. Any minor can legally give consent for treatment, whether the parent is present or not.
c. An emancipated minor may be legally capable of consenting to medical treatment.
d. Emancipated minors are able to give implied consent.

Answer 36

c. An emancipated minor may be legally capable of consenting to medical treatment

Question 37

8. Which of the following would be an example of abandonment?

a. An Emergency First Responder begins caring for a patient at the scene and turns the
patient over the Paramedic after giving a report.
b. An Emergency First Responder arrives on the scene at the same time as the
Paramedic crew. The Paramedic crew begins treating the patient. The First Responders
get and respond to another call.
c. An Emergency First Responder responds to a call for an ill person. As the EMT-Basic
crew arrives, the First Responders leave to a motor vehicle crash without giving a report.
d. An Emergency First Responder is caring for a patient when the EMT-Intermediate crew
arrives. The First Responders inform the crew of the care given to the patient.

Answer 37

c. An Emergency First Responder responds to a call for an ill person. As the EMT-Basic
crew arrives, the First Responders leave to a motor vehicle crash without giving a report.

Question 38

9. Which of the following meets all of the criteria to prove negligence?

a. A First Responder responds to a patient with difficulty breathing. Care is provided
according to protocol. The patient’s breathing gets worse and the patient stops breathing.
b. A First Responder cares for a child with the flu and treats the child according to protocol.
The child dies later at the hospital with meningitis.
c. An First Responder applies a splint according to protocol to a patient with a broken arm.
After the splint is applied the patient tells the First Responder, “My arm hurts and my
fingers are tingling.” The Emergency First Responder assures the patient but does not
evaluate the splint. The patient sustains nerve damage to the involved arm.
d. On scene of a motor vehicle accident, the patient is cared for, but spinal immobilization is
not applied, and protocol is not followed. The patient recovers without complications.

Answer 38

c. An First Responder applies a splint according to protocol to a patient with a broken arm.
After the splint is applied the patient tells the First Responder, “My arm hurts and my
fingers are tingling.” The Emergency First Responder assures the patient but does not
evaluate the splint. The patient sustains nerve damage to the involved arm.

Question 39

10. Failing to provide the expected standard of care to a patient that leads to further injury is
    best defined by which of the following terms?

a. Abandonment
b. Assault
c. Battery
d. Negligence

Answer 39

d. Negligence

Question 40

11. Leaving a patient before another healthcare provider has assumed responsibility for that
    patient is best defined by which of the following terms?

a. Abandonment
b. Assault
c. Battery
d. Negligence

Answer 40

a. Abandonment

Question 41

12. Touching or striking a person without that person’s consent is best defined by which of
    the following terms?

a. Abandonment
b. Assault
c. Battery
d. Negligence

Answer 41

c. Battery

Question 42

13. The legal obligation to provide medical care is best defined by which of the following
    terms?

a. Medical control
b. Duty to act
c. Standard of care
d. Advance directive

Answer 42

b. Duty to act

Question 43

14. To have a duty to act, which of the following conditions must be met?

a. Federal, state, or local statutes require you to act.
b. Your service has a contract to respond.
c. You have volunteered to respond in given circumstances.
d. All of the above

Answer 43

d. All of the above

Question 44

15. Which of the following Emergency First Responders is maintaining proper patient
    confidentiality?

a. An Emergency First Responder who discusses the last call he ran with the paramedics at
the current scene
b. An Emergency First Responder who releases a patient’s record to a police officer who
was not at the scene
c. An Emergency First Responder who informs the emergency physician caring for
the patient that the patient admitted to using cocaine
d. An Emergency First Responder who discusses a call with a crew member at a local
restaurant

Answer 44

c. An Emergency First Responder who informs the emergency physician caring for
the patient that the patient admitted to using cocaine

Question 45

1. The two most important elements of a well-written prehospital care report are:

a. Chronology and accuracy.
b. Legibility and completeness.
c. Clarity and accuracy.
d. Accuracy and completeness.

Answer 45

d. Accuracy and completeness.

Question 46

2. Information you receive concerning the patient’s condition can be told to:

a. The general public.
b. A friend or any relative.
c. Reporters as requested.
d. Appropriate emergency department staff.

Answer 46

d. Appropriate emergency department staff.

Question 47

3. Which of the following represents the best “nonjudgmental” documentation of a suspected case of alcohol intoxication on a prehospital care report?

a. The patient appeared intoxicated with an alcohol-like compound.
b. There was an alcohol-like smell on the patient’s breath.
c. The patient was speaking as if he was intoxicated.
d. The patient was extremely intoxicated.

Answer 47

b. There was an alcohol-like smell on the patient’s breath.

Question 48

4. Which of the following is routinely included on a prehospital care report?

a. Police officer’s names
b. Administrative information
c. Age of EMT
d. Mechanical condition of ambulance

Answer 48

b. Administrative information

Question 49

5. Which statement does not indicate that empathy is being demonstrated by the Emergency First Responder?

a. Sounds like you are…
b. I understand …
c. I imagine that must be…
d. I understand that must make you feel…

Answer 49

b. I understand …

Question 50

6. All of the following are elements of nonverbal communication except:

a. Body position
b. Eye contact
c. Use of nonmedical language
d. Tone of voice

Answer 50

c. Use of nonmedical language

Question 51

7. Any process that hinders or prevents the successful completion of the communication
   process is called:

a. Faulty messaging
b. Faulty decoding
c. Ineffective encoding
d. Interference

Answer 51

d. Interference

Question 52

8. You are managing a patient who has significant hearing impairment. Which of the
   communication techniques is most appropriate to ensure communication is successful?

a. Speak slowly while facing the patient
b. Raise you voice while facing the patient
c. Exaggerate lip movement to help with lip reading
d. Repeat words and phrases until the patient understand you

Answer 52

a. Speak slowly while facing the patient

Question 53

9. You are gathering past medical history information from a patient who is having extreme difficulty breathing. Which type of questions is best to use in this situation?

a. Family member-focused
b. Bystander-focused
c. Closed-ended
d. Open-ended

Answer 53

c. Closed-ended

Question 54

10. You are treating a 9-year-old male who appears to have fractured his lower leg after
    falling off a bicycle. Which represents the best approach to communication with this
    child?

a. Move the child to the ambulance for privacy
b. Allow the family to stay near the child
c. Distract the child from any pain with a toy
d. Always stand up when talking

Answer 54

b. Allow the family to stay near the child

Question 55

11. Which of the following is true concerning communication systems?

a. Portable radios have a transmission range of about 20 miles.
b. Base stations rely on repeaters to increase power.
c. Cellular telephones are secure devices and cannot be monitored.
d. Repeaters increase the transmission range of mobile radios.

Answer 55

d. Repeaters increase the transmission range of mobile radios.

Question 56

12. Which government agency is responsible for regulating radio communications in the
    United States?

a. FCC
b. IAFF
c. OSHA
d. IAFC

Answer 56

a. FCC

Question 57

13. Which of the following may be a violation of patient confidentiality?

a. Providing the address of the patient during a handoff report
b. Telling a rescue member from a different crew about a patient you
treated
c. Discussing patient treatment with your rescue partner after giving
the handoff report
d. Providing patient demographic information during a CISD session

Answer 57

b. Telling a rescue member from a different crew about a patient you
treated

Question 58

1. Which of the following statements best describes the respiratory system?

a. It uses blood to carry oxygen and nutrients to the cells and to remove
waste products.
b. It controls the voluntary and involuntary activities of the body.
c. It secretes hormones to assist the body with its activities.
d. It takes in oxygen and delivers it to the blood.

Answer 58

d. It takes in oxygen and delivers it to the blood.

Question 59

2. The respiratory system contains which of the following structures?

a. Oropharynx, nasopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, larynx, lungs, bronchi,
and alveoli
b. Arteries, veins, capillaries, and the heart
c. Brain, spinal cord, motor nerves, and sensory nerves
d. Skull, facial bones, vertebra, thorax, ribs, bones in the extremities, and
the pelvis

Answer 59

a. Oropharynx, nasopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, larynx, lungs, bronchi,
and alveoli

Question 60

3. Which of the following statements best describes the circulatory system?

a. It uses blood to carry oxygen and nutrients to the cells and to remove
waste products.
b. It controls the voluntary and involuntary activities of the body.
c. It gives the body shape and assists with movement.
d. It takes in oxygen and delivers it to the blood.

Answer 60

a. It uses blood to carry oxygen and nutrients to the cells and to remove
waste products.

Question 61

4. The cardiac system contains which of the following structures?

a. Oropharynx, nasopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, larynx, lungs, bronchi,
and alveoli
b. Arteries, veins, capillaries, and the heart
c. Brain, spinal cord, motor nerves, and sensory nerves
d. Skull, joints, vertebra, thorax, ribs, muscles, and the pelvis

Answer 61

b. Arteries, veins, capillaries, and the heart

Question 62

5. Which of the following statements best describes the musculoskeletal system?

a. It uses blood to carry oxygen and nutrients to the cells and to remove
waste products.
b. It controls the voluntary and involuntary activities of the body.
c. It gives the body shape and assists with movement.
d. It takes in oxygen and delivers it to the blood.

Answer 62

c. It gives the body shape and assists with movement.

Question 63

6. The musculoskeletal system contains which of the following structures?

a. Oropharynx, nasopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, larynx, lungs, bronchi,
and alveoli
b. Arteries, veins, capillaries, and the heart
c. Brain, spinal cord, motor nerves, and sensory nerves
d. Skull, joints, vertebra, thorax, ribs, muscles, and the pelvis

Answer 63

d. Skull, joints, vertebra, thorax, ribs, muscles, and the pelvis

Question 64

7. Which of the following statements best describes the nervous system?

a. It uses blood to carry oxygen and nutrients to the cells and to remove
waste products.
b. It controls the voluntary and involuntary activities of the body.
c. It gives the body shape and assists with movement.
d. It takes in oxygen and delivers it to the blood.

Answer 64

b. It controls the voluntary and involuntary activities of the body.

Question 65

8. The nervous system contains which of the following structures?

a. Oropharynx, nasopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, larynx, lungs, bronchi,
and alveoli
b. Arteries, veins, capillaries, and the heart
c. Brain, spinal cord, motor nerves, and sensory nerves
d. Skull, joints, vertebra, thorax, ribs, muscles, and the pelvis

Answer 65

c. Brain, spinal cord, motor nerves, and sensory nerves

Question 66

9. A recommended place to listen to the heart is on the ____ chest.

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Inferior
d. Superior

Answer 66

a. Anterior

Question 67

10. The spine is located on the ____ part of the body.

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Inferior
d. Superior

Answer 67

b. Posterior

Question 68

11. A child fell from her bike and has swelling just above her ankle. Which of the following
    would you document?

a. Swelling noted proximal to the ankle
b. Swelling identified superior to the knee
c. Swelling observed proximal to the knee
d. Swelling found distal to the ankle

Answer 68

a. Swelling noted proximal to the ankle

Question 69

12. You find a patient who was hiking and fell. You notice deformity and swelling of his left
    upper arm. Which of the following would you document?

a. Deformity and swelling of the left upper arm distal to the elbow
b. Deformity and swelling of the left upper arm inferior to the elbow
c. Deformity and swelling of the left upper arm medial to the shoulder
d. Deformity and swelling of the left upper arm distal to the shoulder

Answer 69

d. Deformity and swelling of the left upper arm distal to the shoulder

Question 70

13. Where is the liver located?

a. Upper right quadrant of the abdomen
b. Upper left quadrant of the abdomen
c. Lower right quadrant of the abdomen
d. Lower left quadrant of the abdomen

Answer 70

a. Upper right quadrant of the abdomen

Question 71

14. Your patient has a wound on the chest and is having trouble breathing. Your primary
    concern is which body system?

a. Endocrine system
b. Respiratory system
c. Nervous system
d. Cardiovascular system

Answer 71

b. Respiratory system

Question 72

15. Your patient has spilled hot coffee on her hand. Burns are primarily associated with
    which body system?

a. Integumentary system
b. Respiratory system
c. Nervous system
d. Endocrine system

Answer 72

a. Integumentary system

Question 73

1. The safest and most effective way to use your body as an advantage when lifting and
   moving something can be best described by which of the following terms?

a. Power lift
b. Power grip
c. Body mechanics
d. Extrication

Answer 73

c. Body mechanics

Question 74

2. Which of the following is true of body mechanics?

a. Use of stretchers and equipment to move patients best describes body mechanics.
b. The way a Emergency First Responder uses her or his body to lift and move patients
and equipment best describes body mechanics.
c. The best approach to lifting loads too heavy for an individual is to use good body
mechanics.
d. Body mechanics is the process of using mechanical devices to lift a patient.

Answer 74

b. The way a Emergency First Responder uses her or his body to lift and move patients
and equipment best describes body mechanics.

Question 75

3. Which of the following should the Emergency First Responders consider before
   determining how much help they may need when moving a patient?

a. The weight of the patient
b. Their own abilities and physical limitations
c. The terrain and distance they need to carry the patient
d. All of the above

Answer 75

d. All of the above

Question 76

4. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. In general, you should use your back instead of your legs to lift.
b. You should keep the weight of an object as close to your body as possible.
c. Your body should move as separate pieces to maintain your balance.
d. You should lift with your arms whenever possible.

Answer 76

b. You should keep the weight of an object as close to your body as possible.

Question 77

5. Which of the following statements reflects using a good technique to lift a patient on a
   backboard?

a. Squatting with feet shoulder width apart to lift the backboard
b. Keeping knees together while lifting
c. Keeping the patient’s weight away from the body
d. Lifting using the back muscles

Answer 77

a. Squatting with feet shoulder width apart to lift the backboard

Question 78

6. Which of the following is NOT an indication for an emergency move?

a. There is an immediate danger to the patient if the patient is not moved.
b. Life-saving care cannot be given because of the patient’s location or position.
c. Access cannot be gained to other patients in a vehicle who need life-saving care.
d. The patient needs stabilization to limit damage from a spinal cord injury.

Answer 78

d. The patient needs stabilization to limit damage from a spinal cord injury.

Question 79

7. Four First Responders are carrying a 250-pound patient on a backboard. They are
   lifting the patient on the backboard out of a ditch. The patient is lifted roughly and is
   unbalanced. Which of the following steps could the First Responders have taken to avoid this
   incident?

a. Do not lift the patient, drag him from the ditch.
b. Communicate so everyone knows what is happening with the lift.
c. Keep the back in a locked position to keep from twisting.
d. Use less help to make communication easier.

Answer 79

b. Communicate so everyone knows what is happening with the lift.

Question 80

8. Which of the following statements is true if more than one person is lifting a patient?

a. Lift the feet first.
b. Lift the head first.
c. Lift the body as a unit
d. Asynchronously lift the body.

Answer 80

c. Lift the body as a unit

Question 81

9. Which of the following is TRUE of the power grip?

a. An overhand grip is used.
b. Your hands should be at least 30 inches apart.
c. The palms of your hands should be in complete contact with the object.
d. You should use the same technique to lower the device.

Answer 81

c. The palms of your hands should be in complete contact with the object.

Question 82

10. Which of the following statements is TRUE of emergency carries?

a. All carries require at least two rescuers.
b. It is better to work with someone larger than you whenever possible.
c. Both rescuers should try to keep the patient as close to their bodies as
possible during the carry.
d. A completely different set of body mechanics is used for carries.

Answer 82

c. Both rescuers should try to keep the patient as close to their bodies as
possible during the carry

Question 83

11. Which of the following is an appropriate action to take when transferring a supine
    patient from a bed to a stretcher using the direct carry method of transfer?

a. The wheeled stretcher is positioned along the side of the bed.
b. The providers stand on each side of the stretcher and face each other.
c. The providers lift the patient to the edge of the bed and then to the stretcher.
d. With straight arms, the providers lift the patient directly to the stretcher.

Answer 83

c. The providers lift the patient to the edge of the bed and then to the stretcher.

Question 84

12. A carrying device that splits into two pieces called a ____ stretcher.

a. Portable
b. Scoop
c. Flexible
d. Basket

Answer 84

b. Scoop

Question 85

13. The preferred method of transporting a patient down a flight of stairs is with which of
    the following devices?

a. Wheeled stretcher
b. Stair chair
c. Basket stretcher
d. Short backboard

Answer 85

b. Stair chair

Question 86

1. The ____ carries air to the lungs and branches into the left and right bronchi.

a. Bronchioles
b. Mouth
c. Mediastinum
d. Trachea

Answer 86

d. Trachea

Question 87

2. Which of the following patients is NOT showing signs of respiratory distress?

a. A 69-year-old male complaining of weakness who is breathing 26
times a minute with gurgling respirations
b. A 10-year-old girl breathing 18 times a minute with minimal effort
c. A 4-year-old boy breathing 12 times a minute with cyanosis
d. An 88-year-old female breathing 22 times a minute with minimal air
exchange and depth

Answer 87

b. A 10-year-old girl breathing 18 times a minute with minimal effort

Question 88

3. Which of the following statements describes the proper technique to open the airway in
   a non-breathing patient?

a. Keep the head neutral and open the mouth of a 71-year-old cardiac
arrest patient.
b. Hyperextend the neck and lift the chin of a 6-month-old near-drowning
child.
c. Tilt the head and lift the jaw forward in a 7-year-old victim of a bicycle
crash.
d. Keep the head neutral and lift the jaw of a 22-year-old victim of a fall.

Answer 88

d. Keep the head neutral and lift the jaw of a 22-year-old victim of a fall

Question 89

4. You are at a party when an elderly female collapse and is not breathing. You get out
   your pocket mask. Which of the following is TRUE for the use of a pocket mask?

a. Seal the mask over the patient’s nose and mouth until the patient starts to breathe.
b. Place the mask over the patient’s nose and mouth and ventilate until you feel the air leak
around the mask.
c. Seal the mask over the patient’s nose and mouth and ventilate until the chest rises.
d. Remove the patient’s false teeth, loosely cover the patient’s mouth and nose with the
mask, and ventilate with small puffs of air.

Answer 89

c. Seal the mask over the patient’s nose and mouth and ventilate until the chest rises.

Question 90

5. Which of the following is TRUE of the jaw-thrust technique?

a. It is an easier technique than the head-tilt chin lift.
b. The jaw-thrust technique without head-tilt lift is the safest technique
for patients with a possible spinal injury.
c. It should be used for all responsive trauma patients.
d. It is the technique of choice for cardiac arrest patients.

Answer 90

b. The jaw-thrust technique without head-tilt lift is the safest technique
for patients with a possible spinal injury.

Question 91

6. Which of the following patients requires suctioning?

a. A 6-month-old patient with grunting
b. A 5-year-old patient with stridor
c. A 44-year-old patient with wheezing
d. A 74-year-old patient with gurgling

Answer 91

d. A 74-year-old patient with gurgling

Question 92

7. You are helping an EMT crew ventilate a patient with a bag-valve-mask device. Each
   time the patient receives a breath you feel air coming from the mask. Which of the following
   statements describes the best action to take?

a. Make sure oxygen is attached to the bag.
b. Increase the oxygen flow to the bag.
c. Hold the mask more firmly on the face.
d. Use less pressure when squeezing the bag.

Answer 92

c. Hold the mask more firmly on the face.

Question 93

8. Which patient is being adequately ventilated?

a. A 5-year-old female is pale and cyanotic, but her chest does not move with ventilations.
b. A 72-year-old male’s chest does not move, but his abdomen is getting larger.
c. A 4-month-old girl’s chest is moving with ventilations and she is starting to move
around.
d. A 28-year-old male’s chest is not moving and it is difficult to ventilate the patient.

Answer 93

c. A 4-month-old girl’s chest is moving with ventilations and she is starting to move
around.

Question 94

9. You have been ventilating a patient. The patient starts to vomit. Which of the
   following statements describes the best action to take?

a. Position the patient on his back and use a finger sweep to clear his airway.
b. Position the patient on his back and use a whistle tip suction to remove the vomit.
c. Turn the patient to his side and use a suction catheter to clear the vomit.
d. Turn the patient face down and use a suction catheter to clear the vomit.

Answer 94

c. Turn the patient to his side and use a suction catheter to clear the vomit.

Question 95

10. You respond to the scene of a 9-month-old male who stopped breathing after having a
    seizure. Which of the following actions should be performed?

a. Perform mouth-to-mask ventilations with puffs of air until the patient’s
chest rises.
b. Hyperextend the neck and begin mouth-to-barrier ventilation.
c. Provide supplemental oxygen.
d. Open the patient’s airway and complete a finger sweep.

Answer 95

a. Perform mouth-to-mask ventilations with puffs of air until the patient’s
chest rises.

Question 96

11. Which of the following patients should receive a nasopharyngeal airway?

a. A 66-year-old male who has snoring respirations and a gag reflex
b. A 24-year-old male who is not breathing and does not have gag reflex
c. An 82-year-old female who is breathing 18 times a minute and has a gag reflex
d. A 5-year-old female who is breathing 24 times a minute and is conscious

Answer 96

a. A 66-year-old male who has snoring respirations and a gag reflex

Question 97

12. Which of the following patients should receive an oropharyngeal airway?

a. A 66-year-old male who has snoring respirations and a gag reflex
b. A 24-year-old male who is not breathing and does not have a gag reflex
c. An 82-year-old female who is breathing 18 times a minute and has a gag reflex
d. A 5-year-old female who is breathing 24 times a minute and is conscious

Answer 97

b. A 24-year-old male who is not breathing and does not have a gag reflex

Question 98

13. A high-pitched whistling sound that is heard as a patient inhales is best defined by
    which of the following terms?

a. Dyspnea
b. Apnea
c. Stridor
d. Wheezing

Answer 98

c. Stridor

Question 99

14. A whistling sound heard when a patient exhales is best defined by which of the
    following terms?

a. Dyspnea
b. Apnea
c. Stridor
d. Wheezing

Answer 99

d. Wheezing

Question 100

15. A patient working harder to breathe can be described by which of the following terms?

a. Dyspnea
b. Apnea
c. Stridor
d. Wheezing

Answer 100

a. Dyspnea

Question 101

1. Which of the following describes scene size-up?

a. It is a quick evaluation of the entire scene.
b. It begins with taking information on the patient history.
c. It begins with patient care.
d. It begins when you ask for additional resources.

Answer 101

a. It is a quick evaluation of the entire scene.

Question 102

2. Which of the following hazards would you expect to find at a medical emergency?

a. Infectious disease
b. Broken glass
c. Traffic hazards
d. Unreleased air bags

Answer 102

a. Infectious disease

Question 103

3. You arrive on the scene and find a motor vehicle crash with a spider web crack in the
   windshield. You should suspect which of the following injuries?

a. Head and neck injuries
b. Abrasions from airbag deployment
c. Clavicle fractures
d. Lower extremity injuries

Answer 103

a. Head and neck injuries

Question 104

4. You respond to a 16-year-old victim of a low-speed motorcycle crash. The victim was
   wearing a helmet. Which of the following injuries should you consider for this victim?

a. Lower extremity injuries
b. Severe head injuries
c. Major upper extremity injuries
d. Significant multisystem trauma

Answer 104

a. Lower extremity injuries

Question 105

5. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding the general impression of a
   patient?

a. It is useful when determining the severity of a patient.
b. It is useful only when assessing a critical patient.
c. It is primarily used to triage patients.
d. It is useful only when deciding which patients require advanced care.

Answer 105

a. It is useful when determining the severity of a patient.

Question 106

6. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. A 3-year-old child who opens his eyes and watches you, but does not
move when you ask, would be considered unresponsive.
b. An 82-year-old man who knows his name and the date, but not what
happened, would be considered alert and oriented.
c. A 3-month-old child with a dull stare who does not respond to her
parents would be considered to have an altered level of consciousness.
d. A 24-year-old person who yells and screams at you, but will not
answer questions or obey commands, is considered alert.

Answer 106

c. A 3-month-old child with a dull stare who does not respond to her
parents would be considered to have an altered level of consciousness.

Question 107

7. Which of the following is true when assessing the level of consciousness?

a. A sleeping infant who cried when you touched her would be
unresponsive to painful stimuli.
b. A child who did not wake up or move when you called his name or
pinched him would be unresponsive.
c. An infant who opens her eyes and watches you but does not move
when you talk to her would be disoriented.
d. An adult who was awake and talking when you entered the room
would be verbal on the AVPU scale.

Answer 107

b. A child who did not wake up or move when you called his name or
pinched him would be unresponsive.

Question 108

8. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has an adequate airway?

a. A 2-month-old child with stridor when she breathes
b. A 16-year-old male with wheezing on expiration
c. An 86-year-old man with snoring respirations
d. A 4-year-old child with a respiratory rate of 22

Answer 108

d. A 4-year-old child with a respiratory rate of 22

Question 109

9. Which of the following patients is breathing normally?

a. A 1-year-old female with symmetrical equal chest movement and no
use of accessory muscles
b. A 54-year-old female with symmetrical chest movement at a
respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute
c. A 3-month-old child with nasal flaring and grunting
d. A 59-year-old man with intercostal muscle use who is cyanotic

Answer 109

a. A 1-year-old female with symmetrical equal chest movement and no
use of accessory muscles

Question 110

10. Which of the following is the correct way to measure a pulse?

a. Use your thumb to feel the pulse in the wrist.
b. Press hard with two fingers to feel the carotid pulse.
c. Use two fingers to check the pulse in the wrist.
d. Count the beats in 30 seconds and multiply by 4.

Answer 110

c. Use two fingers to check the pulse in the wrist.

Question 111

11. You find a patient with external bleeding. Which of the following describes the best
    action you should take?

a. Ignore it until the detailed assessment regardless of the severity.
b. Identify it, but recognize bleeding is not considered life threatening.
c. Treat it immediately if severe, as it may be a life-threatening condition.
d. Treat all bleeding as life threatening and a priority for advanced level
care.

Answer 111

c. Treat it immediately if severe, as it may be a life-threatening condition

Question 112

12. Which of the following is TRUE of prioritizing patients for transport?

a. Patients should be transported based on the injury that looks the most severe.
b. Patients should be transported based on life-threatening airway, breathing, or
bleeding emergencies.
c. Patients are difficult to prioritize so all patients should be rapidly transported to the
emergency department by advanced life support crews.
d. First Responders cannot determine how severe a patient’s condition is and the need
for transport.

Answer 112

b. Patients should be transported based on life-threatening airway, breathing, or
bleeding emergencies.

Question 113

13. Which of the following is the goal of a focused history?

a. Ruling out life-threatening injuries
b. Assessing the body thoroughly for injuries
c. Identifying past or additional medical problems
d. Associating the mechanism of injury with patient findings

Answer 113

c. Identifying past or additional medical problems

Question 114

14. Which of the following describes the purpose of the focused physical examination?

a. Ruling out life-threatening injuries
b. Assessing the body thoroughly for injuries
c. Identifying past or additional medical problems
d. Associating mechanism of injury with patient findings

Answer 114

b. Assessing the body thoroughly for injuries

Question 115

15. The mnemonic DOTS may be used during your assessment. What does DOTS stand
    for?

a. Deformities, Open injuries, Tenderness, Swelling
b. Disability, Obstruction, Trauma, Severity
c. Difficulty breathing, Onset, Time of incident, Severity of complaint
d. Distal pulses, Original time of incident, Thorough palpation, Symptoms

Answer 115

a. Deformities, Open injuries, Tenderness, Swelling

Question 116

16. Constricted pupil response often indicates which of the following?

a. Hypoxia
b. Drug exposure
c. Death
d. Head injury

Answer 116

b. Drug exposure

Question 117

17. You respond to a scene and arrive shortly after the first unit. When you get on the
    scene, you notice that one of the responders has applied an occlusive dressing to the patient’s neck. Which of the following assessment findings would the responder be treating?

a. Possible cervical spine injury
b. Swelling of the neck tissue
c. Open wound to the neck
d. Shifted trachea

Answer 117

c. Open wound to the neck

Question 118

18. You respond to a skiing incident. The patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. To
    assess the chest, you should do which of the following?

a. Compare the two sides of the chest.
b. Palpate only the side of the chest on which the patient complains of pain.
c. Identify open wounds and notify advanced providers so they can manage the wound.
d. Inspect and palpate the anterior chest as wounds to the back are rare.

Answer 118

a. Compare the two sides of the chest.

Question 119

19. Your patient was involved in a crash while riding an all-terrain vehicle. Which of the
    following should you consider as you assess the pelvis and lower extremities?

a. Crepitus on palpation of the pelvis is a normal finding.
b. Pelvic injuries are usually mild and not life threatening.
c. Distal pulses such as pedal or radial pulses should be palpated to evaluate the circulation.
d. Extremity injuries may be dramatic and should always be a treatment and assessment
priority.

Answer 119

c. Distal pulses such as pedal or radial pulses should be palpated to evaluate the circulation.

Question 120

20. You are giving a report to the on-coming crew. They ask you for the patient’s vital
    signs. You would report on which findings?

a. The patient’s respirations, pulse, skin signs, blood pressure, and pupils
b. The patient’s airway, breathing, and disability
c. The patient’s allergies, last oral intake, and events leading up to the
problem
d. The patient’s primary complaint, breathing and circulation status

Answer 120

a. The patient’s respirations, pulse, skin signs, blood pressure, and pupils

Question 121

21. Your patient is a 12-year-old boy with asthma. You ask the patient if he has any
    medication allergies. You are asking which of the following?

a. A––on the SAMPLE assessment
b. M––on the SAMPLE assessment
c. S––on the DOTS assessment
d. A––on the AVPU assessment

Answer 121

a. A––on the SAMPLE assessment

Question 122

22. You respond to a 7-year-old boy who crashed his scooter. He is awake and has a
    laceration to his right leg with minimal bleeding. He denies pain in his neck and shoulder. Respirations are unlabored and equal. Assessment for this patient would include which of the
    following?

a. Completing only an initial assessment with frequent reassessments
b. Assessing for other injuries before treating his laceration
c. Direct pressure to control the bleeding and packaging for transport
before further assessment
d. Treating his laceration and then assessing for other injuries that may be
life threatening

Answer 122

b. Assessing for other injuries before treating his laceration

Question 123

23. You respond to the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing. On arrival you find a
    cyanotic patient with a weak pulse and no breathing. Which of the following actions should you take?

a. Open the airway and complete an initial assessment.
b. Assess for other problems before managing his airway and breathing.
c. Open the airway and assist breathing, reassessing his airway and
breathing and circulation frequently.
d. Complete a thorough head-to-toe assessment before you open the
airway and initiate breathing.

Answer 123

c. Open the airway and assist breathing, reassessing his airway and
breathing and circulation frequently.

Question 124

24. You respond to the scene of a child who fell from a rock-climbing wall. She fell about
    12 feet and landed on her back. You hear snoring respirations. You stabilize the cervical
    spine and do which of the following?

a. Use a jaw thrust to prevent further injury due to the mechanism of
injury.
b. Use a head-tilt jaw-thrust to open the airway due to the mechanism of
injury.
c. Monitor the patient until ALS care arrives, since other maneuvers are
outside your scope of practice.
d. Apply oxygen and place the patient in the recovery position as you
continue your initial assessment.

Answer 124

a. Use a jaw thrust to prevent further injury due to the mechanism of
injury

Question 125

1. Which of the following are components of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?

a. Recognition and early access, early CPR, defibrillation, early advanced
care
b. Rescue breathing and external chest compression
c. Placing the automated external defibrillator (AED), clearing the
patient, defibrillation
d. Absence of pulse, absence of breathing

Answer 125

b. Rescue breathing and external chest compression

Question 126

2. Which of the following statements is TRUE of rescue breathing?

a. It moves oxygen into the lungs where it can move through the body.
b. It requires external compression to work.
c. It is used only in nonbreathing patients.
d. It should not be supplemented with oxygen.

Answer 126

a. It moves oxygen into the lungs where it can move through the body.

Question 127

3. Which of the following statements is TRUE of external compressions?

a. They work as effectively as the patient’s own heart.
b. They move the blood throughout the body.
c. They become more effective the longer you continue.
d. They help to sustain life indefinitely.

Answer 127

b. They move the blood throughout the body.

Question 128

4. Ventricular fibrillation is best corrected by which of the following?

a. Recognition and Early Access
b. Early CPR
c. Defibrillation
d. Early Advanced Care

Answer 128

c. Defibrillation

Question 129

5. You respond to a patient who is found lying in bed. The family tells you they cannot wake
   him. What is your first step?

a. Open the airway with a head-tilt chin-lift
b. Establish unresponsiveness
c. Provide rescue breathing
d. Check for signs of circulation

Answer 129

b. Establish unresponsiveness

Question 130

6. As a single rescuer you initiate CPR on an adult. You should perform compressions and
   respirations at which ratio?

a. 30 compressions to 2 ventilations
b. 30 ventilations to 1 compressions
c. 15 compressions to 2 ventilation
d. 15 ventilations to 1 compression

Answer 130

a. 30 compressions to 2 ventilations

Question 131

7. Your patient is a 6-month-old infant in cardiopulmonary arrest. You initiate CPR.
   Compressions should be performed using which of the following?

a. Two fingers
b. One thumb
c. One hand
d. Two hands

Answer 131

a. Two fingers

Question 132

8. You should compress the chest of a 3-month-old infant at what rate?

a. 40-60 / minute
b. 60-80 / minute
c. 80-100 / minute
d. 100-120 / minute

Answer 132

d. 100-120 / minute

Question 133

9. You should compress the chest of an 8-month-old child at what depth?

a. 2 inches
b. 1 1/2 inches
c. 1/3–1/2 depth of the chest
d. 1/4 inches

Answer 133

b. 1 1/2 inches

Question 134

10. As a single rescuer, you should perform compressions and respirations at what ratio on a 4-month-old child?

a. 30 compressions to 2 ventilations
b. 30 compressions to 1 ventilation
c. 15 compressions to 2 ventilations
d. 15 compressions to 1 ventilation

Answer 134

a. 30 compressions to 2 ventilations

Question 135

11. Your patient is a 4-year-old child in cardiopulmonary arrest. You initiate CPR.
    Compressions should be performed using which of the following?

a. Two fingers
b. One thumb
c. One hand
d. Two hands

Answer 135

c. One hand

Question 136

12. You should compress the chest of a 6-year-old child at what depth?

a. 2 inches
b. 1 1/2–2 inches
c. 1/3–1/2 depth of the chest
d. 1/4 inches

Answer 136

a. 2 inches

Question 137

13. As two rescuers, you should perform compressions and respirations at what ratio on an 8-year-old child?

a. 30 compressions to 2 ventilations
b. 30 compressions to 1 ventilation
c. 15 compressions to 2 ventilations
d. 15 compressions to 1 ventilation

Answer 137

c. 15 compressions to 2 ventilations

Question 138

14. When can an Emergency First Responder stop CPR?

a. When effective breathing and circulation have returned
b. When care is transferred to an equally trained person or when a greater trained
person takes over
c. CPR cannot be stopped in the field by an Emergency First Responder
d. Both a and b

Answer 138

d. Both a and b

Question 139

15. Your crew has initiated CPR on a patient. An AED is applied. What should you do
    while the patient is being analyzed?

a. Continue CPR
b. Attach the pads to the patient
c. Not touch the patient
d. Continue palpating a pulse until the shock is delivered.

Answer 139

c. Not touch the patient

Question 140

1. You are dispatched to an “ill person.” On arrival, you find a 64-year-old patient who tells
   you he just doesn’t feel well. He is anxious and breathing at 26 times per minute, pulse 96
   and regular, blood pressure (BP) 128/92. He tells you he used his inhaler for his breathing.
   He is shaky and his skin is pale, cool, and sweaty. Which of the following do you suspect
   is his primary problem?

a. Difficulty breathing/respiratory
b. Chest pain/cardiac
c. Altered level of consciousness/neurological
d. Behavioral/psychiatric

Answer 140

a. Difficulty breathing/respiratory

Question 141

2. Emergency First Responders assess a 42-year-old male who complains of chest tightness. He tells you the discomfort goes into his arm and jaw. He is a little short of breath and feels nauseated. Which of the following is most likely this patient’s primary problem?

a. Difficulty breathing/respiratory
b. Chest pain/cardiac
c. Altered level of consciousness/neurological
d. Behavioral/psychiatric

Answer 141

b. Chest pain/cardiac

Question 142

3. Care for a patient with difficulty breathing and a history of asthma would include which of
   the following?

a. Encourage the patient to lay flat, suction as needed
b. Encourage the patient to use his or her inhaler, position of comfort, oxygen, reassure
c. Position of comfort, high concentration oxygen, apply an automated external
defibrillator (AED)
d. Recovery position, small sips of warmed fluids, low concentration oxygen

Answer 142

b. Encourage the patient to use his or her inhaler, position of comfort, oxygen, reassure

Question 143

4. Care for a patient with chest pain would include all of the following EXCEPT _____.

a. Oxygen as needed
b. Position of comfort
c. Encourage patient to walk off the pain
d. AED as needed

Answer 143

c. Encourage patient to walk off the pain

Question 144

5. Which of the following patients does NOT have an altered mental status?

a. A 1-year-old patient who points to his injured foot when asked where he hurts but does
not speak
b. A 16-year-old patient who mumbles “Where am I?” when asked his name
c. A 64-year-old patient who yells obscenities when asked what happened
d. An 82-year-old patient who tells you it is morning when it is actually evening

Answer 144

a. A 1-year-old patient who points to his injured foot when asked where he hurts but does
not speak

Question 145

6. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

a. Ask the patient to show his or her teeth or smile.
b. Have the patient close his or her eyes and hold out both arms for 10 seconds.
c. Have the patient say “You can’t teach an old dog new tricks.”
d. Shine a light in the patient’s eyes to assess for equality and reactivity.

Answer 145

d. Shine a light in the patient’s eyes to assess for equality and reactivity.

Question 146

8. Which of the following conditions would potentially cause an altered mental status in a
   patient?

a. Fever, infections, psychiatric conditions
b. Poisoning, low blood sugar, head injury, decreased oxygen to the brain
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

Answer 146

c. All of the above

Question 147

7. Your patient is a 73-year-old female who is complaining of weakness on her left side. As
   you assess her, she tells you the weakness is going away. You note her grip is stronger
   than when you arrived. You suspect which of the following?

a. Stroke
b. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
c. A behavioral emergency
d. She was faking it

Answer 147

b. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

Question 148

9. You respond to a patient who is confused and is nauseated and vomiting. The family tells
   you he is an insulin-dependent diabetic. They tell you he has been sick a few days and is
   getting worse. He appears dehydrated. You suspect which of the following?

a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. The flu with no diabetic problems
d. An acute abdomen with no diabetic problems

Answer 148

a. Hyperglycemia

Question 149

10. Which of the following statements is TRUE of a seizure?

a. It may be caused by problems such as fever, infections, and low blood sugar.
b. The body may have convulsions and may stiffen and violently jerk.
c. The patient may be incontinent of stool and urine and sleepy after the seizure.
d. All of the above

Answer 149

d. All of the above

Question 150

11. Care for a patient with seizures includes which of the following?

a. Move dangerous objects away, protect privacy, restrain the patient as needed
b. Suction as needed, do not restrain the patient, oxygen as needed
c. Place the patient in the recovery position after the seizure, place an oral airway
d. Maintain a safe environment, place a bite block to maintain the airway

Answer 150

b. Suction as needed, do not restrain the patient, oxygen as needed

Question 151

12. Your patient is complaining of abdominal pain and is nauseated and vomiting. What
    other signs and symptoms may be present and suggestive of an acute abdomen?

a. Abdominal guarding and shock
b. Loss of control of bladder and bowel
c. Loss of sensation to the affected area
d. Difficulty breathing and headache

Answer 151

a. Abdominal guarding and shock

Question 152

13. You are called to the home of 24-year-old male who was discharged from the hospital
    today. He had a fracture of his femur and pelvis and has been immobile for a period of
    time in the hospital. He complains of sudden onset of chest pain on the right side. The
    pain is sharp and stabbing. He is also complaining of difficulty breathing. His lungs are clear and the pain is worse when he takes a deep breath. You suspect he has which of the
    following conditions?

a. Myocardial infarction
b. Angina
c. Pulmonary emboli
d. Congestive heart failure

Answer 152

c. Pulmonary emboli

Question 153

14. You are dispatched to an office complex. You find a 56-year-old female with chest
    pain. She tells you the pain came on when she was walking up the stairs to her office. The
    pain was a dull ache in her chest but is almost gone now that she has been sitting down
    resting. You suspect she has which of the following conditions?

a. Myocardial infarction
b. Angina
c. Pulmonary emboli
d. Congestive heart failure

Answer 153

b. Angina

Question 154

15. You are dispatched to the home of a patient who is threatening to kill himself. Which
    of the following is your first action?

a. Do not enter until police officers arrive.
b. Try to talk calmly to the patient.
c. Distract the patient so your partner can restrain him.
d. Explain to the patient what you are doing.

Answer 154

a. Do not enter until police officers arrive.

Question 155

1. Which of the following statements describes arterial bleeding?

a. Bright red blood spurting from a laceration
b. Darker red blood flowing from a laceration
c. Dark red blood oozing from abrasions
d. Clotted blood in a wound

Answer 155

a. Bright red blood spurting from a laceration

Question 156

2. Which of the following statements describes venous bleeding?

a. Bright red blood spurting from a laceration
b. Darker red blood flowing from a laceration
c. Dark red blood oozing from abrasions
d. Clotted blood in a wound

Answer 156

b. Darker red blood flowing from a laceration

Question 157

3. Your patient is a 7-year-old child who was hit on the head with a baseball. He has a
   wound on his left forehead that is bleeding profusely. Which of the following describes
   the first action you should take?

a. Clean the wound and apply a dressing.
b. Apply direct pressure to the area.
c. Rinse the area with sterile water.
d. Apply pressure to the pressure points.

Answer 157

b. Apply direct pressure to the area.

Question 158

4. You are caring for a patient with a large laceration to his foot. A dressing is in place, but
   it is soaked with blood. Which of the following describes the correct action to take?

a. Remove the dressing and apply another in its place.
b. Apply pressure to the dressing.
c. Apply an additional dressing on top and then apply pressure.
d. Apply a tourniquet.

Answer 158

c. Apply an additional dressing on top and then apply pressure.

Question 159

5. Your patient was the driver of a motorcycle that crashed as he was leaving a party. He had
   been drinking and was obviously intoxicated according to witnesses. He is lying on his
   side mumbling that his leg hurts. His skin is cool, pale, and moist. He has a small
   laceration to his lower leg and some abrasions to his arms. He is breathing 36 times per
   minute and his heart rate is 136. His radial pulse is weak. Which of the following do you
   suspect?

a. The patient is drunk and his wounds are minor.
b. The patient may be going into shock from the injuries to his arms and leg.
c. The patient may be going into shock from internal bleeding.
d. The patient is stable, and you should control the bleeding from his arms and leg.

Answer 159

c. The patient may be going into shock from internal bleeding.

Question 160

6. Which of the following are considered signs and symptoms of internal bleeding?

a. Slow pulse, warm dry skin
b. Slow breathing, slow pulse, cool dry skin
c. Fast breathing, fast pulse, warm dry skin
d. Fast breathing, fast pulse, cool moist skin

Answer 160

d. Fast breathing, fast pulse, cool moist skin

Question 161

7. Your patient is a 22-year-old male who fell 20 feet while rock climbing. He is complaining of abdominal pain and has a fractured left arm. He is cool, pale, and sweaty. He is breathing 24 times per minute and his radial pulse is 118 and weak. Care for the patient would include which of the following?

a. Low concentration oxygen and splinting his arm
b. Spinal stabilization, high concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask, keeping the
patient warm, and stablizing the arm
c. Spinal stabilization and low concentration oxygen
d. Low concentration oxygen, keeping the patient warm, and reassuring him

Answer 161

b. Spinal stabilization, high concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask, keeping the
patient warm, and stablizing the arm

Question 162

8. You respond to a child who fell from a slide. He has an obviously deformed forearm and
   has scrapes on his hands and knees that are oozing a small amount of blood. The scrapes
   are referred to as ____.

a. Abrasions
b. Contusions
c. Lacerations
d. Avulsions

Answer 162

a. Abrasions

Question 163

9. A factory worker has caught his arm in a piece of machinery. A large flap of tissue is
   hanging loose on his upper arm. The flap of tissue is referred to as a(n) ____.

a. Abrasion
b. Avulsion
c. Amputation
d. Laceration

Answer 163

b. Avulsion

Question 164

10. Your patient has a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following dressings would
    be most appropriate?

a. Gauze with direct pressure
b. Occlusive dressing with direct pressure
c. Thick, moist dressing
d. Occlusive dressing with an opening to let the air escape

Answer 164

d. Occlusive dressing with an opening to let the air escape

Question 165

11. You respond to a restaurant fire. The cook has been burned by a grease fire. She has
    blistered burns to her hands, forearms, and chest. These burns would be considered ____.

a. noncritical burns and require application of a dry sterile dressing
b. critical burns and require application of a dry sterile dressing
c. critical burns and require breaking of the blisters and application of a moist dressing
d. noncritical burns and require application of moist sterile dressings

Answer 165

b. critical burns and require application of a dry sterile dressing

Question 166

12. Which of the following actions should you take for a chemical burn patient?

a. Chemical burns occur only as a result of skin contact, so eye protection and gloves
should be adequate for chemical burn scenes.
b. Dry powder should be flushed with water immediately to remove the chemical.
c. Cover the burns with sterile saline-soaked dressings as soon as you arrive.
d. Flush the patient’s eyes with copious amounts of water for at least 20 minutes.

Answer 166

d. Flush the patient’s eyes with copious amounts of water for at least 20 minutes.

Question 167

13. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. One of the most important priorities in electrical burns is scene safety.
b. Electrical burns may cause an irregular heart beat, so an AED may be necessary.
c. Electrical burns often follow the body’s nerves and blood vessels.
d. The patient’s internal injuries are often much less severe than the external injuries.

Answer 167

d. The patient’s internal injuries are often much less severe than the external injuries.

Question 168

14. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Roller gauze is an example of a dressing.
b. Bandages are held in place by dressings.
c. Tape and triangular bandages are secure types of dressings.
d. A dressing is a protective or supporting covering placed on an injured part.

Answer 168

d. A dressing is a protective or supporting covering placed on an injured part.

Question 169

15. Your patient is a 3-year-old child who pulled a hot cup of coffee off a table onto herself.
    She has superficial and partial thickness burns to her right thigh and lower leg. Priorities
    for this patient include which of the following?

a. Managing her airway as it may close off from the swelling.
b. Keeping her warm as burns can contribute to hypothermia in children.
c. Dressing the wound with moist sterile dressings.
d. Notifying police as most childhood burns are the result of child abuse.

Answer 169

b. Keeping her warm as burns can contribute to hypothermia in children.

Question 170

1. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the musculoskeletal system?

a. Muscles have a blood and nerve supply, but bones do not.
b. It gives the body shape.
c. It protects the vital organs and provides movement.
d. It includes the bones, muscle, and connective tissue.

Answer 170

a. Muscles have a blood and nerve supply, but bones do not.

Question 171

2. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the anatomy of the musculoskeletal
   system?

a. The axial skeleton is made up of the bones of the extremities.
b. The appendicular skeleton supports most on the weight of the body.
c. The bones of the upper extremity are the humerus, ulna, and radius.
d. The bones of the lower extremity are the pelvis, vertebra, and thorax.

Answer 171

c. The bones of the upper extremity are the humerus, ulna, and radius.

Question 172

3. Your patient was crushed between a truck and a loading dock. His pelvis was fractured.
   Which of the following is a concern?

a. He may have injured his digestive organs.
b. His urinary organs may be damaged.
c. He may have significant bleeding and shock.
d. All of the above

Answer 172

d. All of the above

Question 173

4. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the muscular system?

a. It consists of four types of muscle tissue.
b. Smooth muscle is connected to bone.
c. Cardiac muscle is voluntary muscle.
d. Involuntary muscle helps you breathe.

Answer 173

d. Involuntary muscle helps you breathe.

Question 174

5. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. A fracture is another name for a strain.
b. Fractures rarely damage nearby soft tissue.
c. Fractures are closed injuries.
d. It is often difficult to differentiate a fracture from a dislocation.

Answer 174

d. It is often difficult to differentiate a fracture from a dislocation.

Question 175

6. An injury in which the ligaments are stretched or torn is called a ____.

a. sprain
b. strain
c. dislocation
d. contusion

Answer 175

a. sprain

Question 176

7. When a muscle is pulled near a joint, it is referred to as a ____.

a. sprain
b. strain
c. dislocation
d. contusion

Answer 176

b. strain

Question 177

8. When a bone is separated from its normal position in a joint, it is referred to as a ____.

a. sprain
b. strain
c. dislocation
d. contusion

Answer 177

c. dislocation

Question 178

9. Your patient was playing football when he was tackled by another player. He is
   complaining of left knee pain. You should manually stabilize his knee by doing which of
   the following?

a. Supporting the bones distal and proximal to the injury.
b. Holding his ankle and not letting him move his leg.
c. Supporting the joints proximal to his knee.
d. Pulling slight traction from his knee.

Answer 178

a. Supporting the bones distal and proximal to the injury.

Question 179

10. You respond to a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She was not
    restrained and is complaining of neck pain and difficulty breathing. Which of the
    following should you do to manually stabilize the cervical spine?

a. Hold her head still and tilt her neck to help maintain her airway.
b. Slightly flex her neck until resistance or pain is felt.
c. Hold her head still with her eyes forward and the neck hyperextended.
d. Place her in an eyes forward neutral position and hold her head still

Answer 179

d. Place her in an eyes forward neutral position and hold her head still.

Question 180

11. Which of the following patients is LEAST likely to have a neck injury?

a. A 16-year-old patient who dove off a dock into shallow water
b. A 54-year-old patient found unresponsive at the foot of a staircase
c. An unrestrained 28-year-old driver of a car in a motor vehicle crash
d. A 26-year-old man who was stabbed in the chest

Answer 180

d. A 26-year-old man who was stabbed in the chest

Question 181

12. Which of the following signs and symptoms is most commonly associated with a
    head/brain injury?

a. Irregular breathing pattern
b. Altered mental status
c. Loss of normal speech
d. All of the above

Answer 181

d. All of the above

Question 182

13. Which of the following treatments are indicated for head injury patients with minor
    bleeding?

a. Manual stabilization of the head and neck, head tilt to maintain the airway, low
concentration oxygen
b. Stabilize the spine, jaw thrust, high concentration oxygen, stop the bleeding and
fluid loss from ears
c. Stabilize the spine, jaw thrust, high concentration oxygen, control external bleeding
d. Assist ventilations as needed, do not control any bleeding as it may
increase intracranial pressure

Answer 182

c. Stabilize the spine, jaw thrust, high concentration oxygen, control external bleeding

Question 183

14. Lightly pressing on a finger and asking a patient whether he can feel it is an appropriate
    method to assess which of the following?

a. Circulation
b. Sensation
c. Movement
d. Tenderness

Answer 183

b. Sensation

Question 184

1. The passageway from the womb to the vaginal opening is called the ____.

a. ovary
b. birth canal
c. fallopian tube
d. uterus

Answer 184

b. birth canal

Question 185

2. What structure is attached to the uterus and provides the fetus with oxygen and nutrients?

a. Ovary
b. Womb
c. Placenta
d. Embryo

Answer 185

c. Placenta

Question 186

3. As the baby’s head delivers, you should check around the neck for the structure that
   connects the fetus to the mother. This structure is called the ____.

a. Placenta
b. umbilical cord
c. fallopian tube
d. birth canal

Answer 186

b. umbilical cord

Question 187

4. The fluid-filled structure that protects the growing fetus is called the ____.

a. fallopian tube
b. Ovary
c. birth canal
d. amniotic sac

Answer 187

d. amniotic sac

Question 188

5. Your partner assesses a pregnant patient and tells you crowning is present. What does this mean?

a. The baby’s head is at the vaginal opening.
b. The amniotic sac has ruptured.
c. Contractions have started.
d. The placenta is delivering.

Answer 188

a. The baby’s head is at the vaginal opening.

Question 189

6. You respond to a 22-year-old female who is 12 weeks pregnant and is having severe
   abdominal cramps. She is having vaginal bleeding and is passing clots of blood. You
   suspect which of the following?

a. She is term and in labor.
b. She is having postpartum hemorrhage.
c. She has a placenta previa.
d. She is having a spontaneous abortion.

Answer 189

d. She is having a spontaneous abortion.

Question 190

7. Your patient is a 30-year-old female who is pregnant. She is full term and is having
   intense contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. Her bag of waters has ruptured and the fluid is
   clear. The contractions last 60 to 90 seconds and she feels like pushing. This situation
   suggests which of the following?

a. False labor
b. Bloody show
c. Delivery is imminent.
d. She is having complications with her labor.

Answer 190

c. Delivery is imminent.

Question 191

8. You should take all the following actions to prepare a patient for delivery EXCEPT ____.

a. visually inspect the vaginal area
b. insert a gloved hand into the vagina to check for baby positioning
c. protect the patient’s modesty by covering her with drapes
d. provide emotional support to the patient and the family

Answer 191

b. insert a gloved hand into the vagina to check for baby positioning

Question 192

9. Which of the following should you do when you see the baby’s head crowning?

a. Place the palm of your hand on the baby’s head and exert gentle
pressure.
b. Have the mother push between contractions.
c. Observe the delivery and prepare to suction the baby.
d. Check around the neck for the cord.

Answer 192

a. Place the palm of your hand on the baby’s head and exert gentle
pressure.

Question 193

10. The baby has delivered. Which of the following actions should you take?

a. Check the cord for pulsation before clamping.
b. Keep the baby positioned above the level of the uterus.
c. Massage the mother’s uterus.
d. Encourage the mother to keep pushing until the placenta delivers.

Answer 193

a. Check the cord for pulsation before clamping

Question 194

11. You are helping to deliver a baby. The head delivers with this contraction, but the body
    does not. As per NY City Protocol, which of the following actions should you take once
    the infant’s head delivers?

a. Observe the baby until the next contraction.
b. Suction the mouth and nose.
c. Place your hand into the vaginal opening.
d. Wipe the nose and mouth, but do not suction.

Answer 194

b. Suction the mouth and nose.

Question 195

12. Once the baby delivers, you should do which of the following?

a. Dry the baby and keep his or her head covered.
b. Complete a thorough assessment and then warm, dry, and stimulate the
baby.
c. Initiate CPR immediately if the baby is blue.
d. Check a radial pulse to evaluate circulation.

Answer 195

a. Dry the baby and keep his or her head covered

Question 196

13. If the baby does not breathe immediately on delivery, you should do which of the
    following?

a. Start CPR.
b. Begin rescue breathing with a bag-valve-mask device.
c. Apply oxygen.
d. Rub the baby’s back and suction the baby.

Answer 196

d. Rub the baby’s back and suction the baby.

Question 197

14. You have just assisted in the delivery of a term baby. The baby remains limp and blue.
    Her pulse is less than 60, respirations are 6. You have tried 30 seconds of rescue breathing
    with no improvement. What should you do next?

a. Start CPR.
b. Begin rescue breathing with a bag-valve-mask device.
c. Apply oxygen.
d. Rub the baby’s back and suction the baby.

Answer 197

a. Start CPR.

Question 198

15. The baby is delivering breech. Which of the following is false?

a. The baby is presenting buttocks first.
b. Do not pull on the baby to deliver the head.
c. You may need to create an airway for the baby while the head is still in
the birth canal.
d. The head may not deliver

Answer 198

c. You may need to create an airway for the baby while the head is still in
the birth canal.

Question 199

1. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A child’s head is proportional in size to an adult’s head, so head injuries are
more common in children than adults.
b. Larger tongues in children than adults tend to contribute to greater problems
managing children’s airways.
c. Infants and small children have more secretions, which can block their small
airways, than adults.
d. The muscles of the neck allow greater movement of the head, making it easier to
stabilize than an adult’s head.

Answer 199

c. Infants and small children have more secretions, which can block their small
airways, than adults.

Question 200

2. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Because of a higher metabolic rate, children have a greater need for oxygen and
nutrients than adults.
b. Infants are primary nose breathers and have a greater incidence of respiratory
distress when their noses are plugged with secretions than adults.
c. Because children’s chest muscles are more developed than adults’ muscles, children
present with intercostal retractions and abdominal muscle use.
d. Straps and restraints that are secured too snugly tend to cause more respiratory
distress in children due to their muscle development.

Answer 200

b. Infants are primary nose breathers and have a greater incidence of respiratory
distress when their noses are plugged with secretions than adults.

Question 201

3. Which of the following assessment findings would you expect to identify in a child with
   respiratory distress?

a. Increased respiratory rate
b. Retractions
c. Head bobbing with each breath
d. All of the above

Answer 201

d. All of the above

Question 202

4. Which of the following conditions may cause respiratory distress in children?

a. Shock, seizures, dehydration
b. Asthma, croup, epiglottitis
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

Answer 202

a. Shock, seizures, dehydration

Question 203

5. Your patient is a 10-year-old male child with difficulty breathing. He is awake and
   anxious. His breathing is labored. He uses an inhaler when he has attacks like this. He has
   wheezes when you auscultate his lungs. You suspect he may have which of the following
   conditions?

a. Asthma
b. Croup
c. Epiglottitis
d. Foreign body airway obstruction

Answer 203

b. Croup

Question 204

6. You are dispatched to a 2-year-old male child with difficulty breathing. He is awake and
   anxious. You hear a “seal like” bark when he coughs. He has had a cold for a few days
   and is now having trouble breathing. You suspect he may have which of the following
   conditions?

a. Asthma
b. Croup
c. Epiglottitis
d. Foreign body airway obstruction

Answer 204

c. Epiglottitis

Question 205

7. Your patient is a 6-year-old female with shortness of breath. She is awake and looks very sick when you enter the room. She is sitting up and is drooling. Her mother says she
   hasn’t been able to take any fluids because it hurts too much to swallow. Her vital signs
   are pulse 130, respirations 32 and shallow, blood pressure 98/60, and temperature 103°F.
   You suspect she may have which of the following conditions?

a. Asthma
b. Croup
c. Epiglottitis
d. Foreign body airway obstruction

Answer 205

d. Foreign body airway obstruction

Question 206

8. You are dispatched to a child with trouble breathing. You find a conscious 1-year-old
   female who is in distress. She was eating a piece of bread when she became cyanotic. She
   is unable to make any noise and you do not hear any air exchange. Which of the following
   steps should you take first?

a. Take her pulse.
b. Administer back blows.
c. Assess her respiratory rate.
d. Explain to her mother the advantages and risks of the treatment you need to perform.

Answer 206

d. Explain to her mother the advantages and risks of the treatment you need to perform

Question 207

9. You respond to an 11-year-old male who is unresponsive and has a respiratory rate of 4.
   He was hit by a car and has blood in his nose. He is snoring. Which of the following steps
   should you take?

a. Administer high concentration oxygen and call for ALS backup.
b. Suction the nose with a bulb syringe and reassess his airway.
c. Perform a jaw thrust and initiate bag-valve-mask ventilation with high concentration
oxygen.
d. Call for ALS backup and open the airway with a head tilt maneuver.

Answer 207

d. Call for ALS backup and open the airway with a head tilt maneuver.

Question 208

10. Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in children?

a. Epilepsy
b. Fever
c. Trauma
d. Low blood sugar

Answer 208

a. Epilepsy

Question 209

11. As you treat a child who was involved in a motor vehicle crash, it is important to
    understand the common mechanisms of injury associated with various incidents. Which of
    the following statements is FALSE?

a. Children who are unrestrained in a vehicle often have head and neck injuries.
b. Children who are restrained in a vehicle often have abdominal and lower spine injuries.
c. Infants in improperly restrained safety seats often have abdominal and chest injuries.
d. School-age children struck by vehicles typically sustain head, thorax, and extremity
injuries.

Answer 209

b. Children who are restrained in a vehicle often have abdominal and lower spine injuries.

Question 210

12. A 5-year-old male child fell on a bottle and lacerated his leg. He is sitting up holding his
    leg and is awake and crying. His skin is cool and pale. His capillary refilling time is decreased. The wound on the leg is spurting bright red blood. He has lost quite a bit of blood when you arrive. You do which of the following?

a. Open his airway with a jaw thrust.
b. Apply direct pressure to his wound, lay him flat, and apply oxygen.
c. Keep him in a sitting position, apply a dressing, and wrap him in a blanket.
d. Assess the non-injured leg and then assess the injured leg and distract him with your
stethoscope.

Answer 210

c. Keep him in a sitting position, apply a dressing, and wrap him in a blanket.

Question 211

13. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered child abuse?

a. A 4-year-old child has broken teeth and bruising to his face, with new and old bruises to
his back. He tells you he got them from falling off his bike earlier today.
b. A 5-year-old girl has abrasions to her knees and palms. She tells you she fell out of
the swing when her Dad was pushing her.
c. A 7-year-old boy has burn marks on his feet and buttocks and refuses to talk about
the injuries.
d. A 1-year-old child is unconscious. Her mother says she fell from her swing. Her mother’s
boyfriend says she will be fine and seems unconcerned.

Answer 211

a. A 4-year-old child has broken teeth and bruising to his face, with new and old bruises to
his back. He tells you he got them from falling off his bike earlier today.

Question 212

14. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. First Responders must have police or social services present before caring for the child.
b. Most states do not require that child abuse be reported.
c. Actual or suspected child abuse and neglect should always be reported in your hand-off
report to another care provider.
d. Child abuse must be reported, but neglect does not need to be reported.

Answer 212

a. First Responders must have police or social services present before caring for the child.

Question 213

15. Which of the following patients is NOT showing signs of respiratory distress?

a. A 2-year-old child who is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute
b. A 2-month-old baby quietly breathing 40 times a minute
c. A 12-year-old child breathing 42 times a minute with stridor
d. A 3-year-old child who is sleepy and breathing 60 times per minute

Answer 213

b. A 2-month-old baby quietly breathing 40 times a minute

Question 214

1. In the incident command process, Emergency First Responders will most often be which of the following?

a. Incident commander for large-scale disasters
b. Sector commander responsible for staging
c. Assigned to tasks within one of the sectors
d. In charge of triaging patients according to severity

Answer 214

c. Assigned to tasks within one of the sectors

Question 215

2. Which of the following is NOT usually the responsibility of an Emergency First
   Responder during an extrication after a motor vehicle crash?

a. Maintaining scene safety and recognizing hazards
b. Operating the extrication tools to disentangle the patient
c. Assisting with removal of a patient from a vehicle
d. Providing spinal stabilization during the extrication process

Answer 215

b. Operating the extrication tools to disentangle the patient

Question 216

3. Which of the following is NOT a method of gaining simple access to a patient?

a. Opening a door
b. Unlocking a door
c. Rolling down a window
d. Use hydraulic tools

Answer 216

d. Use hydraulic tools

Question 217

4. You respond to the scene of a tanker truck rollover with a large gasoline spill. The patient
   is trapped in the vehicle. You should do which of the following?

a. Notify the hazardous materials team and control access to the scene and the patient.
b. Notify the hazardous material team and begin extricating the patient.
c. Call for an extrication team and perform an initial assessment.
d. Stabilize the vehicle and notify the fire department of a fire hazard.

Answer 217

a. Notify the hazardous materials team and control access to the scene and the patient.

Question 218

5. You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle crash. The patient has been pulled from the
   car. A fire has started and is engulfing the car. Which of the following actions should you
   perform?

a. Try to turn off the ignition of the vehicle.
b. Move the patient back from the scene and provide care.
c. Attempt to put out the fire with a fire extinguisher even though you
have not had fire-fighter training.
d. Stabilize the vehicle so it does not move and spread the fire.

Answer 218

b. Move the patient back from the scene and provide care.

Question 219

6. You respond to a motor vehicle crash. The car struck a utility pole and has wires lying
   over it. The patient is inside the car. What should you do when you arrive on the scene?

a. Remove the wires from the car and assess for life threats.
b. Encourage the patient to get out of the car if he is awake and able to
move.
c. Keep the patient in the car until someone trained to work with wires
can move them.
d. Stabilize the vehicle with wood cribbing so the electricity will not be
conducted.

Answer 219

c. Keep the patient in the car until someone trained to work with wires
can move them.

Question 220

7. You respond to a rollover. The car is up on its side and wobbles with the wind. The
   patient is inside and is complaining of difficulty breathing. What should you should you
   do first?

a. Enter the car and assess for life-threatening conditions.
b. Stay outside the car and assist ventilations.
c. Encourage the patient to try to crawl out of the car.
d. Stabilize the vehicle and then assess the patient.

Answer 220

d. Stabilize the vehicle and then assess the patient.

Question 221

8. Which of the following is expected of an Emergency First Responder in a mass casualty
   situation?

a. Be prepared to assume the responsibility of Triage Officer when paramedics are on the
scene.
b. Be prepared to treat all injuries as they are found on patients.
c. You may be required to be the Triage Officer and receive reports from the Incident
Commander.
d. You may have to move tagged patients to treatment and transport staging areas after
reassessment.

Answer 221

d. You may have to move tagged patients to treatment and transport staging areas after
reassessment.

Question 222

9. Which of the following is NOT a component of triage or a responsibility of a triage
   officer?

a. Complete a quick initial assessment of all patients.
b. Confirm the nature of the incident and establish a command post.
c. Apply tags to the patients to identify severity.
d. Begin transporting patients as soon as each is assessed.

Answer 222

d. Begin transporting patients as soon as each is assessed.

Question 223

10. Which of the following patients would be considered a high priority or immediate
    category in a mass casualty incident?

a. Patient with snoring respirations
b. Patient with burns to arm and hand but no breathing problems
c. Patient with pain in the lower back with numbness in one leg
d. Patient who is not breathing and does not have a pulse

Answer 223

a. Patient with snoring respirations

Question 224

11. Which of the following patients would be considered a second priority or delayed
    category in a mass casualty incident?

a. Patient with a flail chest breathing shallow at 40 times a minute
b. Patient with an open fracture to the left lower leg with minor bleeding
c. Patient with lacerations and abrasions to both extremities with minor
bleeding and no airway problems
d. Patient who is not breathing and does not have a pulse

Answer 224

b. Patient with an open fracture to the left lower leg with minor bleeding

Question 225

12. Which of the following patients would be considered a low priority or minor category in a
    mass casualty incident?

a. Patient with an open femur fracture that is bleeding severely and is
difficult to control
b. Patient with a bilateral lower leg fracture with moderate bleeding that
has been controlled
c. Patient with a fractured humerus without neurovascular compromise
d. Patient who is not breathing and does not have a pulse

Answer 225

c. Patient with a fractured humerus without neurovascular compromise

Question 226

13. Which of the following should you expect dispatch to provide when you are responding
    to a call?

a. Location of the patient and nature of the illness
b. Patient name, birth date, and insurance information
c. Response time, scene time, and ETA
d. ETA to closest facility and patient history

Answer 226

a. Location of the patient and nature of the illness

Question 227

14. Which of the following actions should you take when responding in an emergency
    vehicle?

a. Be prepared, since motorists may drive in front of you at any time.
b. Recognize that motorists will hear your siren and yield the right of way
to you.
c. Proceed through intersections without slowing since you have the legal
right of way.
d. Exceed the speed limit as much as necessary to reduce response times.

Answer 227

a. Be prepared, since motorists may drive in front of you at any time.

Question 228

15. Which of the following actions should you take when setting up a landing zone for a
    helicopter?

a. Landing zones should be 100 feet from the scene.
b. Landing zones should be located where the ground does not slope.
c. It is best to identify the landing zone by placing a vehicle or flares at
two points of a landing zone.
d. It is best to keep your lights on and turned up toward the helicopter to
help the pilot with landing.

Answer 228

b. Landing zones should be located where the ground does not slope.

Question 229

1. You are a member of a search and rescue team and find a hiker who was lost. When you
   assess him, his fingers, nose, and cheeks are white, waxy, and hard to touch. You suspect
   which of the following conditions?

a. Superficial frostbite
b. Deep frostbite
c. Cold shock
d. Cold stroke

Answer 229

b. Deep frostbite

Question 230

2. Your patient was found outside on a cold rainy night. She is unresponsive and cold to the
   touch. Her carotid pulse is 30 and very weak. She is breathing six times per minute and
   her breathing is shallow. You suspect which of the following conditions?

a. Hyperthermia
b. Hypothermia
c. Deep frostbite
d. Superficial frostbite

Answer 230

b. Hypothermia

Question 231

3. Care for a patient with deep frostbite to the hand and fingers would include which of the
   following?

a. Breaking the blisters
b. Rubbing and massaging the area
c. Encouraging the patient to use his or her hand
d. Having the patient place his or her hand in the armpit

Answer 231

d. Having the patient place his or her hand in the armpit

Question 232

4. You are doing stand-by for a large outdoor concert in the summer. It is hot, humid, and
   mid-afternoon when friends bring a 28-year-old male to you. He had been playing Frisbee
   when he started having stomach cramps. He is warm and sweaty and complaining of
   abdominal cramps. He is alert and oriented and denies any other medical problems. You
   suspect which of the following conditions?

a. Heat stroke
b. Heat exhaustion
c. Heat cramps
d. Hypothermia

Answer 232

c. Heat cramps

Question 233

5. Your patient was playing soccer on a hot humid summer day when she collapsed. She
   complains of being severely weak and dizzy. She is extremely diaphoretic. You suspect
   which of the following conditions?

a. Heat stroke
b. Heat exhaustion
c. Heat cramps
d. Hypothermia

Answer 233

b. Heat exhaustion

Question 234

6. Your patient is a 64-year-old female. She is found unresponsive in her apartment. It is a
   hot summer day. Her windows are all closed and locked, and she does not have air
   conditioning or a fan. The room is extremely hot. Her pulse is weak and rapid. Her skin is
   hot and dry. Family tells you she had a seizure prior to your arrival. Care for this patient
   would include all the following EXCEPT _____.

a. high concentration oxygen
b. recovery position
c. sips of cool water
d. remove her from her apartment into a cooler environment

Answer 234

c. sips of cool water

Question 235

1. In the elderly, the vital capacity, the total amount of air that can be moved in and out with every breath:

a. declines with age.
b. increases with age.
c. does not change.

Answer 235

a. declines with age.

Question 236

2. In the elderly, the stroke volume, the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each
   beat:

a. declines with age.
b. increases with age.
c. does not change.

Answer 236

a. declines with age.

Question 237

3. Which of the following is not more common in the elderly?

a. Fear of death
b. Fear of loss of independence
c. Weakness
d. Increased energy levels

Answer 237

d. Increased energy levels

Question 238

4. You are treating an 87-year-old patient, Ed Flattery, who was found by his granddaughter
   on the floor complaining of hip pain. The best way to communicate with this patient is to
   address him as:

a. Ed.
b. Pops.
c. Mr. Flattery.
d. Eddie.

Answer 238

c. Mr. Flattery.

Question 239

5. A cause of dehydration in the elderly may include:

a. decreased salivation production.
b. weakening of bladder muscles.
c. loss of bone mass.
d. decreased gastric secretion.

Answer 239

b. weakening of bladder muscles.

Question 240

6. The group most prone to illness or injury is:

a. women younger than 50 years.
b. women older than 65 years.
c. men younger than 50 years.
d. men older than 75 years.

Answer 240

d. men older than 75 years.

Question 241

8. Which of the following is an appropriate method to use when communicating with a
   hearing impaired patient?

a. Exaggerate lip movement
b. Face the patient when speaking
c. Increase the volume of your voice
d. Repeat words until they are understood

Answer 241

b. Face the patient when speaking

Question 242

7. What is the medical term for a motor function disorder caused by a brain defect or lesion present at birth?

a. Quadriplegia.
b. Atrophy
c. Muscular dystrophy
d. Cerebral palsy

Answer 242

d. Cerebral palsy

Question 243

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of elder abuse?

a. Taking advantage of an elder’s property
b. Taking charge of an elder’s finances
c. Ignoring the elder’s physical needs
d. Disrespecting the elder’s emotional needs

Answer 243

b. Taking charge of an elder’s finances