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NASM Nutrition Coach > Nutriton Coach > Flashcards

Nutriton Coach Flashcards

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1
Q

With which client would it be most appropriate for the nutrition coach to work?

A. Overweight client who wants to train for a 10k
B. Client who wants nutrition therapy for cancer prevention
C. Pre-pubescent teenager who is overweight
D. Client who wants accountability during a 9-week extreme calorie restricted diet

A

A. Overweight client who wants to train for a 10k

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2
Q

According to the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach, which is an example of an appropriate resource for determining daily caloric intake?

A. ADA calculations based on age, gender, and activity level.
B. Body type and cultural preferences
C. Dietary guidelines for Americans
D. The nutrition coach cannot assist with daily caloric intake

A

C. Dietary guidelines for Americans

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3
Q

A nutrition coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has never been able to maintain permanent weight loss and confides that she has made herself throw up after eating large meals. What is the best course of action?

A. Refer her to a clinical psychologist
B. Tell her she has bulimia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist
C. Tell her she may have anorexia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist
D. Move forward with the client sessions but monitor her closely for any more self-induced vomiting

A

A. Refer her to a clinical psychologist

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4
Q

A metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from non-carbohydrate carbon substrates such as lactate, glycerol, and glucogenic amino acids is referred to as which of the following?

A. Glucagon

B. Glycogenolysis

C. Glycolysis

D. Gluconeogensis

A

D. Gluconeogensis

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5
Q

To which of the following is one metabolic equivalent (MET) equal?

A. 10 ml O2/kg/min

B. 3.5 ml O2/kg/min

C. 15 ml O2/kg/min

D. 30 ml O2/kg/min

A

B. 3.5 ml O2/kg/min

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6
Q

ATP consists of an adenosine molecule bonded to how many phosphate groups?

A. Two

B. One

C. Three

D. Four

A

C. Three

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7
Q

Protein is involved in forming which of the following?

A. Adipose tissue

B. Electrolytes

C. Bones

D. Triglycerides

A

C. Bones

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8
Q

To meet body composition goals, is it prudent for the client to meet the prescribed protein intake by choosing protein-based foods that also cause them to exceed prescribed fat intake?

A. Yes, because protein is the most important of the macronutrients.

B. No. It is inadvisable to overconsume other nutrients to meet protein needs.

C. Yes, as long as it is not coming from saturated fat.

D. Yes, if the goal is to gain weight. No, if the goal is weight maintenance or loss.

A

B. No. It is inadvisable to overconsume other nutrients to meet protein needs.

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9
Q

What are enzymes?

A. Protein-based structures which transport other compounds between cells

B. Protein-based structures which transmit electrical signals throughout the nervous system

C. Protein-based structures which primarily eliminate pathogens

D. Protein-based structures which catalyze chemical reactions

A

D. Protein-based structures which catalyze chemical reactions

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10
Q

What are the current estimated daily intakes of fiber for men and women in the U.S.?

a. 18 grams for men; 15 grams for women
b. 12 grams for men; 10 grams for women
c. 25 grams for men; 19 grams for women
d. 8 grams for men; 5 grams for women

A

a. 18 grams for men; 15 grams for women

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11
Q

What is the recommended amount of added sugar suggested by the American Heart Association for American adult women?

a. A limit of 6 added teaspoons
b. A limit of 4 added teaspoons
c. A limit of 11 added teaspoons
d. A limit of 9 added teaspoons

A

a. A limit of 6 added teaspoons

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12
Q

Which complex carbohydrate chain contains straight-chain structures?

a. Soluble fiber
b. Insoluble fiber
c. Amylopectin
d. Amylose

A

d. Amylose

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13
Q

Which sugar units are combined to form a glycogen molecule?

a. Glucose
b. Maltose
c. Fructose
d. Sucrose

A

a. Glucose

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14
Q

What is the molecular structure for glucose?

a. C12H22O11
b. C6H12O6
c. H2O
d. CO2

A

b. C6H12O6

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15
Q

What glycemic score ranks a carbohydrate food as a medium GI food?

a. GI score between 25 and 39
b. GI score between 56 and 69
c. GI score between 70 and 80
d. GI score between 40 and 50

A

b. GI score between 56 and 69

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16
Q

Which polysaccharide is digested fastest?

a. Amylose
b. Amylopectin
c. Soluble fiber
d. Insoluble fiber

A

b. Amylopectin

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17
Q

During exercise, stored molecules of carbohydrates are broken down to glucose to serve as a fuel. What term defines the breakdown of stored glycogen?

a. Glycogenesis
b. Glycolysis
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Glycogenolysis

A

d. Glycogenolysis

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18
Q

What factor can raise a food’s GI score?

a. The presence of fiber in the food
b. The presence of fat in the food
c. Cooking and reheating a complex carbohydrate
d. Ingesting food in a liquid state

A

d. Ingesting food in a liquid state

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19
Q

Because of the catabolic nature of exercise, insulin release is largely suppressed during an exercise bout. How does glucose, consumed during a workout, then enter the cell?

a. The body relies upon norepinephrine mediated glucose uptake.
b. The body relies upon insulin mediated glucose uptake.
c. The body relies upon epinephrine mediated glucose uptake.
d. The body relies upon non-insulin mediated glucose uptake.

A

d. The body relies upon non-insulin mediated glucose uptake.

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20
Q

During exercise, stored molecules of carbohydrates are broken down to glucose to serve as a fuel. What term defines the breakdown of stored glycogen?

a. Glycolysis
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Glycogenesis
d. Gluconeogenesis

A

b. Glycogenolysis

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21
Q

Triglycerides are transported to adipose (fat) cells and go through beta-oxidation. What are the byproducts of beta-oxidation?

a. Acetyl-CoA and free fatty acids
b. Ketone bodies and glucose
c. Glycerol and free fatty acids
d. Glucose and glycogen

A

c. Glycerol and free fatty acids

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22
Q

What is a chylomicron?

a. An endothelium cell that delivers LDL cholesterol to the liver
b. A lipoprotein that delivers triglycerides to the cells
c. A lipoprotein that delivers amino acids to the cells
d. An enzyme that delivers HDL cholesterol to the cells

A

b. A lipoprotein that delivers triglycerides to the cells

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23
Q

A client visits a Nutrition Coach for the first time and tells the coach she is consuming 20% of her calories from dietary fat and 15% of her calories from saturated fat. What advice should the nutrition coach give the client?

a. Recommend the client decrease saturated fat to less than 10 - 11% of total calorie intake.
b. Recommend the client consume more dietary fat to evoke ketosis.
c. Recommend the client consume more saturated fat to improve LDL cholesterol levels.
d. Recommend the client decrease total fat to less than 10% of total calorie intake.

A

a. Recommend the client decrease saturated fat to less than 10 - 11% of total calorie intake.

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24
Q

What is the definition of hydrophilic?

a. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water.
b. Forcing hydrogen into vegetable oil to create a saturated fat.
c. Likely to repel or not mix with water.
d. Imbalance of free radicals and antioxidants.

A

a. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water.

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25
Q

What is a good source of monounsaturated fatty acids?

a. Canola oil
b. Coconut oil
c. Flaxseed oil
d. Soybean oil

A

a. Canola oil

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26
Q

Based on the U.S. style eating pattern, how much energy should come from discretionary sources?

a. 5%
b. 14%
c. 8%
d. 18%

A

b. 14%

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27
Q

Flushing of the skin after consuming alcohol is typically associated with which deficiency?

a. Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency
b. Alcohol dehydrogenase deficiency
c. Acetyl-CoA synthetase deficiency
d. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency

A

d. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency

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28
Q

What effect can reduced pyruvate from alcohol metabolism have if liver glycogen is low?

a. Cancer of the liver
b. Fatty acid accumulation
c. Fatty liver disease
d. Severe hypoglycemia

A

d. Severe hypoglycemia

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29
Q

What are the likely effects of consuming alcohol prior to going to sleep?

a. Increase in REM sleep and increase in growth hormone secretion
b. Increased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion
c. Decreased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion
d. No change to sleep patterns or hormone secretion

A

b. Increased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion

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30
Q

What acute effect does drinking alcohol have on the heart?

a. Increases left ventricle contractility and decreases heart rate
b. Decreases right ventricle contractility and increases heart rate
c. Decreases left ventricle contractility and increases heart rate
d. Does not effect the heart

A

c. Decreases left ventricle contractility and increases heart rate

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31
Q

Ethanol is ultimately metabolized to produce ATP and what other substances?

a. Carbon dioxide and water
b. Pyruvate and hydrogen peroxide
c. Acetyl-CoA and NADH
d. Oxygen and water

A

a. Carbon dioxide and water

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32
Q

According to the USAUDIT-C, harmful alcohol consumption is indicated by scoring above which of the following thresholds?

a. 7 for males and 5 for females
b. 4 for males and 3 for females
c. 3 for males and 2 for females
d. 8 for males and 6 for females

A

a. 7 for males and 5 for females

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33
Q

Why is breath alcohol level used as a measure of intoxication?

a. Because a small amount of ethanol stays in the mouth after being consumed
b. Because ethanol in the blood flowing to the mouth and head is excreted through the tissue inside the mouth
c. Because small amounts of ethanol are excreted in the breath
d. Because the end products of alcohol metabolism are excreted in the breath and can be measured by a breathalyzer

A

c. Because small amounts of ethanol are excreted in the breath

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34
Q

Based on research, which group of college athletes is more likely to regularly consume alcohol at hazardous levels?

a. Intercollegiate athletes
b. All athletes are equally likely to consume hazardous levels of alcohol.
c. Intramural/club athletes
d. Athletes from individual sports

A

c. Intramural/club athletes

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35
Q

Alcoholics often suffer from structural and functional damage to their brain as a result of a deficiency in which vitamin?

a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamine
c. Niacin
d. Vitamin C

A

b. Thiamine

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36
Q

What is the normal range for the extracellular concentration of sodium?

a. 321 to 338 millimolar
b. 136 to 151 millimolar
c. 175 to 190 millimolar
d. 206 to 217 millimolar

A

b. 136 to 151 millimolar

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37
Q

What percent of children under the age of 5 have vitamin A deficiency worldwide?

a. 22%
b. 47%
c. 33%
d. 5%

A

c. 33%

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38
Q

What important molecule is magnesium conjugated to in the body?

a. Leucine
b. ATP
c. Hemoglobin
d. Fatty acids

A

b. ATP

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39
Q

What is the common name for vitamin B2?

a. Folic acid
b. Pantothenic acid
c. Thiamine
d. Riboflavin

A

d. Riboflavin

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40
Q

What is the maximal recommended daily intake of mercury?

a. 0.5 µg/kg
b. 1 µg/kg
c. 2 µg/kg
d. 10 µg/kg

A

c. 2 µg/kg

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41
Q

What percent of magnesium in the human body is found in bone tissue?

a. 20%
b. 19%
c. 60%
d. 1%

A

c. 60%

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42
Q

What is the common name for vitamin B3?

a. Thiamine
b. Niacin
c. Riboflavin
d. Folate

A

b. Niacin

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43
Q

What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of iodine for adults (men and non-pregnant or lactating women > 18 years of age)?

a. 150 μg/day
b. 50 μg/day
c. 75 μg/day
d. 120 μg/day

A

a. 150 μg/day

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44
Q

What medical therapy is used to remove metals from the body, specifically things like iron, mercury, arsenic, and/or lead?

a. Chemotherapy
b. Chelation
c. Phlebotomy
d. Ultrasound

A

b. Chelation

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45
Q

What percent increased requirement do long distance runners have for iron compared to non-runners?

a. 50%
b. 70%
c. 35%
d. 25%

A

b. 70%

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46
Q

What is the normal range of calcium in the blood?

a. 8.4-9.5 mg/dL
b. 7.2-8.2 mg/dL
c. 5.5-6.9 mg/dL
d. 3.0-4.2 mg/dL

A

a. 8.4-9.5 mg/dL

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47
Q

What is the definition of Estimated Average Requirement for a nutrient?

a. A value based on observed or experimentally determined approximations of nutrient intake by a group (or groups) of healthy people.
b. The highest level of daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population.
c. A nutrient intake value that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a group.
d. The average daily dietary intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all (97 to 98%) healthy individuals in a group.

A

c. A nutrient intake value that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a group.

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48
Q

What is the recommended serving amount of fruit per day based on USDA Guidelines?

a. 6
b. 3
c. 1
d. 4

A

d. 4

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49
Q

What percent of the body is made of calcium?

a. 6-7%
b. 9-10%
c. 1-2%
d. 14-15%

A

c. 1-2%

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50
Q

What is the normal range of calcium in the blood?

a. 5.5-6.9 mg/dL
b. 3.0-4.2 mg/dL
c. 7.2-8.2 mg/dL
d. 8.4-9.5 mg/dL

A

d. 8.4-9.5 mg/dL

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51
Q

What elemental metal is present in vitamin B12?

a. Copper
b. Cobalt
c. Iron
d. Nickel

A

b. Cobalt

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52
Q

What signaling mechanism triggers thirst due to a significant loss in total body water from sweating?

a. Osmoreceptor
b. Golgi tendon organ
c. Muscle spindle
d. Baroreceptor

A

d. Baroreceptor

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53
Q

Urine-specific gravity is best assessed with which tool?

a. Refractometer
b. Scale
c. pH meter
d. Osmometer

A

a. Refractometer

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54
Q

Which of the following responses occurs during exercise associated hyponatremia?

a. Extracellular fluid shifts inside cells.
b. There is a large increase of sodium concentration in the extracellular fluid.
c. There is a large increase in sodium concentration in the intracellular fluid.
d. Intracellular fluid shifts outside of the cell.

A

a. Extracellular fluid shifts inside cells.

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55
Q

What is the primary cause of exertional rhabdomyolysis?

a. Chronic low electrolyte intake
b. Excessive water consumption
c. Chronic high electrolyte intake
d. An intense exercise session.

A

d. An intense exercise session

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56
Q

A client has repeatedly exhibited a pre-exercise USG range between 1.028 and 1.032. How would a Nutrition Coach interpret this finding?

a. The client needs to increase their fluid intake between training bouts.
b. The client is severely overconsuming fluids during recovery.
c. The client is drinking too many sport drinks.
d. The client is drinking an appropriate amount of water.

A

a. The client needs to increase their fluid intake between training bouts.

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57
Q

A client weighs 70 kg and is training to complete a marathon in a time of about 4 h. The client’s sweat losses are expected to equal around 4 liters (about 6% of body mass). Which fluid intake goal would be most appropriate?

a. Drink 2 liters of fluid during the race.
b. Drink 6 liters of fluid during the race.
c. Drink 1 liter of fluid during the race.
d. Drink 4 liters of fluid during the race.

A

a. Drink 2 liters of fluid during the race.

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58
Q

Which individual would be most likely to be at risk for exercise associated hyponatremia?

a. A runner completing a marathon in 2.75 hours in hot weather.
b. A runner completing a 4.5 hour marathon in cool weather.
c. An individual completing a spin class in warm spin room.
d. An individual completing a 1 hour spin class in a cool room.

A

b. A runner completing a 4.5 hour marathon in cool weather.

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59
Q

A client completes three weight-training sessions with a Personal Trainer per week but also completes three, 1-hour group indoor cycle per week (not on the same day). They ask their Nutrition Coach for hydration advice. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

a. “Drink sports drinks instead of water on days you go to indoor cycle class.”
b. “Determine your sweat losses and seek to replace 100% of your sweat losses with fluid intake during the indoor cycle class.”
c. “Your workout sessions are not long enough in duration to cause sweat losses that dictate a personal hydration plan. Keep fluids available during exercise, and drink based on thirst.”
d. “Drink 250 mL of fluids every 30 minutes during training.”

A

c. “Your workout sessions are not long enough in duration to cause sweat losses that dictate a personal hydration plan. Keep fluids available during exercise, and drink based on thirst.”

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60
Q

A client has repeatedly exhibited a pre-exercise USG range between 1.014 and 1.018. How would a Nutrition Coach interpret this finding?

a. The client needs to drink more sport drinks.
b. The client is doing a great job of meeting recovery fluid intake needs.
c. The client is severely overconsuming fluids during recovery.
d. The client is severely underconsuming fluids between training sessions.

A

b. The client is doing a great job of meeting recovery fluid intake needs.

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61
Q

A client who trains for triathlons has asked how much fluid he should consume between his morning runs and afternoon bike rides. He has determined his sweat losses from his early morning runs average around 2 liters. Which range of fluid intake would be most appropriate?

a. 2.5-3.0 liters
b. 3.0-3.5 liters
c. 1.5-2.0 liters
d. 1.0-1.5 liters

A

a. 2.5-3.0 liters

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62
Q

What role does pickle juice play in regards to client hydration status?

a. Pickle juice contains minimal electrolytes and will not positively impact hydration status.
b. Pickle juice contains a high concentration of sodium which can increase thirst drive and aid in consumed fluid retention.
c. Pickle juice contains a high concentration of sodium which decreases thirst drive and plasma osmolality.
d. Pickle juice can increase urine output which will in turn increase thirst drive.

A

b. Pickle juice contains a high concentration of sodium which can increase thirst drive and aid in consumed fluid retention.

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63
Q

Which of the following electrolytes is found in the greatest concentration in the intracellular fluid?

a. Magnesium
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Calcium

A

c. Potassium

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64
Q

A client weighs 50 kg and is training to complete a cool weather half-marathon in a time of about 2 h. The client’s sweat losses are expected to equal 2 liters (about 4% of body mass). Which fluid intake goal would be most appropriate?

a. Drink 2 liters of water during the race.
b. Begin the race euhydrated and simply drink to thirst.
c. Drink 2 liters of sports beverage during the race.
d. Drink 1 liter of water and 1 liter of sports beverage during the race.

A

b. Begin the race euhydrated and simply drink to thirst.

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65
Q

Where is approximately 2/3 of body water found?

a. Intracellular fluid
b. Extracellular fluid
c. Digestive system
d. Interstitial fluid

A

a. Intracellular fluid

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66
Q

For clients engaged in prolonged endurance events who know what their sweat losses will be, which is the most appropriate advice to give in regards to developing a competition hydration strategy?

a. Try to match fluid intake during competition to sweat-loss volume.
b. Drink 250 mL of fluid every 15 minutes.
c. Replace 150% of sweat losses with fluid intake during the competition.
d. Do not drink in excess of sweat losses and limit body mass loss to < 3-4%.

A

d. Do not drink in excess of sweat losses and limit body mass loss to < 3-4%.

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67
Q

Which of the following scenarios would create the most optimal conditions for decreasing body temperature increase during exercise if the temperature and humidity were equal under each training scenario?

a. Completing a step class
b. Running on a treadmill
c. Completing a spin class
d. Cycling for an hour outdoors at 20 miles/hour

A

d. Cycling for an hour outdoors at 20 miles/hour

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68
Q

A client’s pre-exercise weight is 75.0 kg. Their post-exercise weight is 73.5 kg. They consumed 0.25 liters of fluid during training. What was the volume of their sweat loss?

a. 2.0 liters
b. 1.75 liters

c, 1.5 liters

d. 1.25 liters

A

b. 1.75 liters

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69
Q

Which range identifies the percentage of body mass that is comprised of water?

a. 10-30%
b. 30-50%
c. 50-70%
d. 70-90%

A

c. 50-70%

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70
Q

What is the fuel source for cells in the body?

a. Pancreatic amylase
b. Amino acids
c. Adenosine triphosphate
d. Palmitic acid

A

c. Adenosine triphosphate

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71
Q

What does the Institute of Medicine (IOM) recommend for protein intake?

a. 70-85% of total energy
b. 40-50% of total energy
c. 10-35% of total energy
d. 55-65% of total energy

A

c. 10-35% of total energy

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72
Q

Resistance-based exercise relies primarily on which fuel source?

a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Micronutrients
d. Fat

A

a. Carbohydrates

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73
Q

Which of the following is the recommended daily protein amount to help most exercisers build and maintain muscle tissue?

a. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight per day
b. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of lean body mass per day
c. 1.2-2.2 g/kg of lean body mass per day
d. 1.2-2.2 g/kg of body weight per day

A

d. 1.2-2.2 g/kg of body weight per day

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74
Q

The Food & Drug Administration’s role in the manufacturing of supplements includes which of the following?

a. Maintaining a database of supplements found to be contaminated with illegal drugs and prescription medication
b. Review of label claims by supplement manufacturers for accuracy and truthfulness
c. Screening of all dietary supplements for banned substances, illegal drugs, and prescription drugs
d. Mandatory annual audits of supplement manufacturers

A

a. Maintaining a database of supplements found to be contaminated with illegal drugs and prescription medication

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75
Q

Strong evidence exists for which supplement to assist with building muscle?

a. Creatine monohydrate
b. Glutamine
c. BCAAs
d. HMB

A

a. Creatine monohydrate

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76
Q

All independent testing agencies provide which services?

a. Effectiveness of the supplement
b. Annual audits of the supplement companies to ensure compliance to Good Manufacturing Practices
c. Identify ingredient forms and amounts
d. Determining legality of anabolic steroids

A

c. Identify ingredient forms and amounts

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77
Q

Good Manufacturing Practices for supplements includes which of the following?

a. Standards and guidelines to ensure supplements are made properly.
b. Mandatory annual audits by the Food and Drug Administration
c. Independent testing of supplements for contaminants such as heavy metals and pesticides
d. Independent testing of supplements to verify label accuracy

A

a. Standards and guidelines to ensure supplements are made properly.

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78
Q

How might capsaicin aid in weight control?

a. It may have a slight positive impact on energy expenditure and appetite.
b. It may increase daily energy expenditure by 30%.
c. It is a banned substance.
d. It suppresses appetite, leading to reduced intake by 25%.

A

a. It may have a slight positive impact on energy expenditure and appetite.

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79
Q

Which of the following is true regarding third party testing of supplements?

a. It is not required by law.
b. It is required by law.
c. It determines whether a supplement is effective.
d. It determines whether product claims are accurate.

A

a. It is not required by law.

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80
Q

Which of the following is an example of social persuasion?

a. Showing a client how to log calories in a food journal
b. Finding out what the client’s goals are
c. Taking a client to a grocery store to demonstrate how to make healthier choices
d. Telling a client about the positive benefits of eating more fruits and vegetables

A

d. Telling a client about the positive benefits of eating more fruits and vegetables

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81
Q

Having a BMI less than which of the following values indicates an extreme case of anorexia nervosa?

a. 18
b. 15
c. 17
d. 19

A

b. 15

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82
Q

Which of the following is the best approach to build and implement effective programming?

a. Use a pre-developed program and modify a few things to meet individual needs.
b. Continue to constantly modify the program when the client struggles with adherence.
c. Develop a solid, evidence-based program that is used for all clients.
d. Develop a program based on evidence-based practice that supports individual client needs using empathy.

A

d. Develop a program based on evidence-based practice that supports individual client needs using empathy.

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83
Q

In terms of providing feedback to a client throughout a program, which of the following is the best approach?

a. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy.
b. Provide consistent praise and encouragement.
c. Provide consistent and thorough feedback to all clients.
d. Provide feedback to keep clients on track.

A

a. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy.

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84
Q

Which of the following is one primary goal of using supportive words?

a. Minimize ambiguity
b. Decrease emotional response
c. Create purpose
d. Build efficacy

A

d. Build efficacy

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85
Q

Which of the following represents the importance of word choice in verbal communication?

a. Word choice should be professional and clear and keep conversation focused on program components.
b. Word choice should be scientific to demonstrate knowledge and expertise.
c. Word choice should match client needs and demonstrate knowledge, understanding, and confidence.
d. Word choice should be simple and easy for all listeners to understand.

A

c. Word choice should match client needs and demonstrate knowledge, understanding, and confidence.

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86
Q

In which situation might verbal communication be a better choice than written communication?

a. Concern about ability to follow program component
b. Confirming an upcoming appointment
c. Simple question that requires direct response
d. Checking-in to see how progress is going for the day

A

a. Concern about ability to follow program component

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87
Q

Which of the following types of questioning encourages clients to openly share ideas and information?

a. Closed-ended questioning
b. Divergent questioning
c. Reflective questioning
d. Probing questioning

A

b. Divergent questioning

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88
Q

Which of the following is the theory that proposes that motivation lies on a continuum from amotivation, to extrinsic motivation, to intrinsic motivation?

a. Social-cognitive theory
b. Self-efficacy theory
c. Self-determination theory
d. Motivational interviewing

A

c. Self-determination theory

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89
Q

A client is not sure that they can reduce their intake of snacks at work, but their Nutrition Coach reminds them that they felt the same way when they thought they could not reduce their alcohol intake. The coach is using which of the following to increase this client’s self-efficacy for the specific task of reducing snacks?

a. Vicarious experience
b. Performance accomplishments
c. Physiological states
d. Verbal persuasion

A

d. Verbal persuasion

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90
Q

How many basic psychological needs are there in self-determination theory?

a. 2
b. 5
c. 3
d. 4

A

c. 3

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91
Q

Jill wants to perform aerobic exercise for one-hour, five-days per week. What kind of goal is this?

a. Performance goal
b. Objective goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Subjective goal

A

a. Performance goal

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92
Q

How many basic psychological needs are there in self-determination theory?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 2

A

C. 3

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93
Q

How many motivational interviewing strategies are there?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 4
D. 3

A

A. 5

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94
Q

A client is not sure that they can reduce their intake of snacks at work, but their nutrition coach reminds them that they felt the same way when they thought they could not reduce their alcohol intake. The coach is using which of the following to increase this client’s self-efficacy for the specific task of reducing snacks?

A. Performance accomplishments
B. Vicarious experience
C. Physiological states
D. Verbal persuasion

A

D. Verbal persuasion

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95
Q

Changing because of outside pressures is a controlled motive; however, changing because an individual wants to change is considered to be which one of the following?

a. Integrated motive
b. Autonomous motive
c. Self-determined motive
d. Extrinsic motive

A

b. Autonomous motive

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96
Q

Which of the following is not a motivational interviewing strategy?

a. Identifying discrepancies
b. Creating arguments
c. Expressing accurate empathy
d. Enhancing self-efficacy

A

b. Creating arguments

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97
Q

With which of the following does motivational interviewing start?

a. Rolling with resistance
b. Giving the client advice
c. Collaboration
d. A 24-hour dietary recall

A

c. Collaboration

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98
Q

A coach summarizes and restates what a client has just told them by saying, “This is the third time you have made a serious effort at losing weight in the last two years. The goal is personally important to you for health reasons, but you are also worried about staying committed to the goal over the long haul.” Which of the following is the coach expressing?

a. Change talk
b. Accurate empathy
c. Positive feedback
d. Listening skills

A

b. Accurate empathy

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99
Q

Which of the following is defined as all of the brain processes used to energize and direct behavior?

a. Attitude
b. Motivation
c. Intention
d. Self-efficacy

A

b. Motivation

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100
Q

Self-efficacy is mediated by how many sources?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 4

A

d. 4

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101
Q

Jim wants to place in the top ten of a 5k race. What type of goal is this?

a. Objective goal
b. Performance goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Subjective goal

A

c. Outcome goal

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102
Q

“I want to increase my intake of vegetables from two servings to three servings per day,” is an example of which kind of goal?

a. Performance goal
b. Outcome goal
c. Do-your-best goal
d. Subjective goal

A

a. Performance goal

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103
Q

What are goals in relation to one’s own level of performance or behavior?

a. Outcome goals
b. Do-your-best goals
c. Subjective goals
d. Performance goals

A

d. Performance goals

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104
Q

The average daily intake of a nutrient sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all (97 to 98 percent) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is known as which of the following?

a. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
b. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
c. Tolerable Upper Limit (UL)
d. Adequate Intake (AI)

A

b. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

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105
Q

Which body-composition assessment method uses high-frequency sound waves emitted by a probe to visualize different parts of the body?

a. Infrared 3-dimensional scanning
b. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
c. Bioimpedance spectroscopy
d. Ultrasound

A

d. Ultrasound

106
Q

Nutrition Information labels in the EU and UK do not indicate a serving size on food labels. Instead, they provide nutrient information for what standard amount?

a. 1/4 cup dry or a pint of fluid product
b. 100 grams of dry or 100 milliliters of fluid product
c. 3 ounces of dry or 1 cup of fluid product
d. 1 gram of dry or 1 milliliter of fluid product

A

b. 100 grams of dry or 100 milliliters of fluid product

107
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate visual approximation for a 1-cup serving of vegetables?

a. Two baseballs
b. A baseball
c. Two tennis balls
d. A soccer ball

A

b. A baseball

108
Q

If a supplement manufacturer makes a claim about a nutrient (e.g., a vitamin, mineral, amino acid, or type of fat), what information must it provide on the supplement facts label?

a. The RDA of the nutrient in a 2000 calorie diet
b. The ratio of the nutrient in the product
c. The amount of the nutrient in a serving of the product
d. The percent of RDA of the nutrient in the product

A

c. The amount of the nutrient in a serving of the product

109
Q

What is an appropriate visual approximation for starch at a meal for an average adult male who requires approximately 2200-2800 calories per day?

a. One cupped palm-size portion
b. Two finger-sized portions
c. One finger-sized portion
d. Two cupped palm-size portions

A

d. Two cupped palm-size portions

110
Q

If a food label in the EU and UK mentions a dietary ingredient in the product name or on the primary display panel, what must be included in the ingredients list in addition to the name of the dietary ingredient?

a. The volume of the dietary ingredient in the product
b. The percentage (%) by weight of the dietary ingredient in the product
c. The source of the dietary ingredient
d. The ratio of the dietary ingredient to the total number of ingredients in the product

A

b. The percentage (%) by weight of the dietary ingredient in the product

111
Q

A ketogenic diet typically requires carbohydrate intake to be restricted to less than how many grams per day?

a. 500 g
b. 50 g
c. 200 g
d. 5 g

A

b. 50 g

112
Q

What is the recommended total daily fat intake on a low-fat diet (LFD)?

a. > 40% of total calories
b. 20 to 35% of total calories
c. 10 to 15% of total calories
d. < 5% of total calories

A

b. 20 to 35% of total calories

113
Q

Gluten increases intestinal permeability by interacting with which one of the following molecules?

a. Lipase
b. Butyrate
c. Lipopolysaccharide
d. Zonulin

A

d. Zonulin

114
Q

The average dose of fructose used during controlled trials was greater than the intake of what percentile of Americans?

a. 75%
b. 95%
c. 30%
d. 50%

A

b. 95%

115
Q

Switching from conventional to organic produce significantly reduces biomarkers of pesticide exposure in as little as how many days?

a. 9–11 days
b. 13–15 days
c. 1–3 days
d. 5–7 days

A

d. 5–7 days

116
Q

Toxins and toxicants accumulate in humans primarily within which of the following?

a. Muscle
b. Fat
c. Skin
d. Blood

A

b. Fat

117
Q

How many nonnutritive sweeteners have been approved for use by the FDA?

a. 4
b. 8
c. 2
d. 6

A

b. 8

118
Q

Which of the following is produced in the greatest quantity during fructose metabolism?

a. Lactate
b. Fat
c. Glucose
d. Glycogen

A

c. Glucose

119
Q

Wheat allergy is best described as which of the following?

a. Autoimmune condition
b. Gluten intolerance
c. Food sensitivity
d. Allergic reaction

A

d. Allergic reaction

120
Q

What types of foods are the best example of staples of a low energy density diet?

a. Chips
b. Cheese
c. Whole fruits and vegetables
d. Bread

A

c. Whole fruits and vegetables

121
Q

Which item represents a method for cognitively reframing a weight-loss plateau?

a. View a plateau as a sign of a slowdown in metabolism.
b. View a plateau as an obstacle that needs to be overcome.
c. Consider plateaus as maintenance practice or opportunities to test the programme sustainability.
d. Consider a plateau as an indicator that the programme is not working and needs to be corrected.

A

c. Consider plateaus as maintenance practice or opportunities to test the programme sustainability.

122
Q

Which item best represents a psychological barrier to dietary adherence?

a. Abundance of hyperpalatable, energy-dense foods
b. No decrease in hunger during overfeeding
c. Strong increase in hunger in response to a calorie deficit
d. Tenacity of eating habits

A

d. Tenacity of eating habits

123
Q

A client sees a Nutrition Coach having previously followed a diet that separated foods into healthy and unhealthy choices. What sort of dietary approach does this represent?

a. Self-regulation
b. Rigid restraint
c. Tailored approach
d. Flexible restraint

A

b. Rigid restraint

124
Q

Which item represents the best way to manage a hyperpalatable, energy-dense food environment?

a. Store food in a closet/pantry rather than on a countertop.
b. Work on techniques to improve discipline.
c. Keep calorie-dense, hyperpalatable foods out of the house.
d. Keep a list of allowed and disallowed foods on the refrigerator.

A

c. Keep calorie-dense, hyperpalatable foods out of the house.

125
Q

A client is looking to change nutritional habits and start a diet consisting of high protein and plenty of fruits and vegetables. Which item represents the best way to initially go about this?

a. Provide the client with a general guide to high protein/low energy-density diets.
b. Rely on the person’s initial high motivation to help start the diet.
c. Establish a specific plan for the diet and how to follow through with it.
d. Educate the client on the benefits of high protein and high fruit and vegetable intakes.

A

c. Establish a specific plan for the diet and how to follow through with it.

126
Q

A client has been struggling to lose weight on a low-carb diet. Which item is most likely to be true?

a. The client feels low on energy and is less active.
b. The client is unable to adhere to a low-carb diet.
c. The client has not decreased carbohydrates enough.
d. The client is adherent to the diet but is not metabolically compatible with it.

A

b. The client is unable to adhere to a low-carb diet.

127
Q

A client has just started a weight-loss programme and is trying a low-carb diet. There has not been any weight-loss for the first 3 weeks of the diet. Which item represents the best approach to managing this situation?

a. Change the dietary strategy, as early adherence predicts long-term adherence.
b. Wait another week to see if it’s a true plateau.
c. Increase physical activity.
d. Decrease calorie intake further.

A

a. Change the dietary strategy, as early adherence predicts long-term adherence.

128
Q

What is the evidence-based technique that the Nutrition Coach can use when discussing key findings to increase the client’s comprehension of new information, promote accurate retention of the key findings once the session has ended, and improve adherence to the recommended plan known as?

a. Decision Balance Sheet
b. Teach-back method
c. Self-Determination Theory
d. Motivational interviewing

A

b. Teach-back method

129
Q

What should the fat target be set at for endurance athletes?

a. 0.25 to 0.5 g/kg/day
b. 0.5 to 0.75 g/kg/day
c. 1.5 g/kg/day
d. 1 g/kg/day

A

d. 1 g/kg/day

130
Q

What is the division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages?

a. Circuit training
b. Weight cycling
c. Periodization
d. Interval training

A

c. Periodization

131
Q

Based on the most recent evidence, what is the ideal range of protein consumption per meal to maximize muscle growth?

a. 0.55 to 0.7 g/kg
b. 0.36 to 0.39 g/kg
c. 0.2 to 0.35 g/kg
d. 0.4 to 0.55 g/kg

A

d. 0.4 to 0.55 g/kg

132
Q

What rate of body weight gain per month is considered a realistic rate of weight gain for advanced trainees looking to increase lean body mass?

a. 1.0 to 2.5%
b. 0.25 to 0.5%
c. 2.5 to 5%
d. 5 to 7.5%

A

b. 0.25 to 0.5%

133
Q 
Scientists perform a study tracking 10,000 people over a 10-year period. They look at their sugar intake at the beginning of the study and then see who develops diabetes over the study duration. Which term best describes this study?
Select one:
a. Cohort study
b. Cross-sectional study 
c. Survey
d. Case-control study
A

a. Cohort study

134
Q

Seven studies show diet A lowers cholesterol more than diet B. Three studies show no difference. Assuming all the studies are equivalent in quality, which item best describes this situation?
Select one:
a. It is unknown whether diet A lowers cholesterol more than diet B.
b. The weight of the evidence suggests that diet A and B are equivalent in their ability to lower cholesterol.
c. There are insufficient studies to conclude that diet A lowers cholesterol more than diet B.
d. The weight of the evidence suggests diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than diet B, but more data is needed.

A

d. The weight of the evidence suggests diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than diet B, but more data is needed.

135
Q 
How many dimensions of wellness are there?
Select one:
a. Five 
b. Six
c. Four
d. Three
A

b. Six

136
Q

Between 1969/1971 and 1999/2001, global food consumption per person has risen by how much?
Select one:
a. Approximately 400 kcal per person per day
b. Approximately 2,000 kcal per person per day
c. Approximately 150 kcal per person per day
d. Approximately 1,000 kcal per person per day

A

a. Approximately 400 kcal per person per day

137
Q 
Ketogenic amino acids may become which 2 molecules that can be used to produce ATP?
Select one:
a. Glucose and fructose
b. Acetyl-CoA and pyruvate 
c. Acetyl-CoA and glucose
d. Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate
A

d. Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate

138
Q

Is it ever okay for a sedentary person to eat a high protein diet?
Select one:
a. Yes, but only a little over the RDA, up to 1.2 g/kg body weight.
b. Yes, there is usually no issue with a sedentary person consuming a diet high in protein up to 2.2 g/kg body weight.
c. Yes, but only a moderately high protein diet up to 1.6 g/kg body weight.
d. No, a sedentary person should never consume a high protein diet.

A

b. Yes, there is usually no issue with a sedentary person consuming a diet high in protein up to 2.2 g/kg body weight.

139
Q

Which of the following is true about high-protein snacks?
Select one:
a. Protein-based snacks without excess fats or carbohydrates can enhance satiety and, therefore, weight loss.
b. Protein-based snacks offer no benefit to satiety or weight loss.
c. Protein-based snacks will enhance satiety and weight loss regardless of their fat or carbohydrate content.
d. Protein-based snacks can help with satiety and weight loss, but only if they are low in fat.

A

a. Protein-based snacks without excess fats or carbohydrates can enhance satiety and, therefore, weight loss.

140
Q 
What disease associated with large intakes of fructose in inactive people has recently gained more attention as a health concern?
Select one:
a. Hypertriglyridemia
b. Cirrhosis
c. Hyperinsulemia 
d. Non-alcoholic liver disease
A

d. Non-alcoholic liver disease

141
Q

When would the body undergo the process of gluconeogenesis?
Select one:
a. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like triglycerides.
b. During periods in which ketones levels become depleted, the body can produce glucose from other carbohydrate sources like fructose.
c. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids.
d. During periods in which ketones levels become depleted, the body can produce glucose from other carbohydrate sources like glycogen.

A

c. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids.

142
Q

What is true of Bulletproof® coffee?
Select one:
a. It significantly reduces LDL cholesterol.
b. It has a low saturated fat content level.
c. It is proven harmful for people with epilepsy.
d. It can increase daily caloric intake up to 1,000 calories.

A

d. It can increase daily caloric intake up to 1,000 calories.

143
Q

What is the role of lipoprotein lipase?
Select one:
a. It is the enzyme within a person’s saliva that initially breaks down food.
b. It is the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.
c. It is the enzyme that reassembles fatty acids into triglycerides.
d. It is the enzyme that reassembles fatty acids into chylomicrons.

A

b. It is the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.

144
Q 
What enzyme is responsible for breaking down the triglycerides in the mouth?
Select one:
a. Lingual lipase
b. Gastric lipase
c. Lipoprotein lipase 
d. Pancreatic lipase
A

a. Lingual lipase

145
Q

What is the function of a micelle?
Select one:
a. Facilitation of the digestion of fatty acids in the stomach.
b. Protection of the structural integrity of fatty acids from gastric juice.
c. Facilitation of the absorption of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins.
d. Transportation of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins to the gall bladder.

A

c. Facilitation of the absorption of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins.

146
Q

A new client who likes to consume large amounts of alcohol on a regular basis. His primary goal is weight loss. In the first instance, what should the Nutrition Coach advise him in regards to his energy intake?
Select one:
a. Focus on getting the right balance of macronutrients before worrying about alcohol.
b. Reduce the intake of other macronutrients to accommodate energy from alcohol.
c. Reduce energy intake by limiting alcohol consumption.
d. Increase exercise frequency to account for the excess energy provided by alcohol.

A

c. Reduce energy intake by limiting alcohol consumption.

147
Q 
What family of compounds are the vitamin K1 compounds called?
Select one:
a. Retinoids 
b. Tocopherols
c. Phylloquinones
d. Menaquinones
A

c. Phylloquinones

148
Q 
What is the group of compounds that make up the vitamin A family called?
Select one:
a. Tocopherols
b. Prostaglandins
c. Retinoids
d. Eicosanoids
A

c. Retinoids

149
Q 
Proven side effects from creatine use in healthy individuals include which of the following?
Select one:
a. Muscle cramping
b. Weight gain
c. Kidney damage
d. Dehydration
A

b. Weight gain

150
Q 
"I want to increase my intake of vegetables from two servings to three servings per day," is an example of which kind of goal?
Select one:
a. Performance goal
b. Subjective goal
c. Do your best goal
d. Outcome goal
A

a. Performance goal

151
Q

Of the following methods, which estimate body composition based on how easily small electrical currents travel through the body?
Select one:
a. Air displacement plethysmography and underwater weighing
b. Circumferences and skinfolds
c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis and bioimpedance spectroscopy
d. Ultrasound and dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

A

c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis and bioimpedance spectroscopy

152
Q 
Which of the following is an appropriate visual approximation for vegetables at a meal for an average adult female who requires approximately 1500-1800 calories per day?
Select one:
a. Two baseballs 
b. A tennis ball
c. Two tennis balls
d. A baseball
A

d. A baseball

153
Q 
B. J. Fogg's behavior model proposes that three elements must converge in order for a behavior to happen. What are these three elements?
Select one:
a. Motivation, ability, and a prompt
b. Planning, preparation, and action
c. Ambition, confidence, and action
d. Desire, action, and commitment
A

a. Motivation, ability, and a prompt

154
Q

What does the body do during ketosis?
Select one:
a. Converts ketones into amino acids
b. Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from glucose
c. Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from fat
d. Rapidly increases the amount of cholesterol being made by the liver

A

c. Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from fat

155
Q 
High-fructose corn syrup usually contains what percentage of fructose?
Select one:
a. 75–85% 
b. 55–65%
c. 45–55%
d. 65–75%
A

b. 55–65%

156
Q 
Which of the following is produced in the lowest quantity during fructose metabolism?
Select one:
a. Glucose 
b. Fatty acids
c. Lactate
d. Glycogen
A

b. Fatty acids

157
Q

Which item represents a reason for poor long-term weight maintenance statistics?
Select one:
a. Lack of willpower
b. Lack of discipline
c. Impaired satiety signals
d. Increased availability of high-carbohydrate foods

A

c. Impaired satiety signals

158
Q

Which of the following represents the best reason as to why resistance training may help with long-term weight maintenance?
Select one:
a. Increases metabolism
b. Decreases appetite
c. Helps preserve fat-free mass
d. Increases physical activity energy expenditure

A

c. Helps preserve fat-free mass

159
Q 
What is an appropriate range of carbohydrates for the general population and athletes who partake in low volume training or mostly skill-based training?
Select one:
a. 1-1.5 g/kg/day
b. 3-5 g/kg/day
c. 2-3 g/kg/day
d. 5-7 g/kg/day
A

b. 3-5 g/kg/day

160
Q 
Which of the following represents a strength of observational studies?
Select one:
a. Can determine mechanisms for effects
b. Large subject numbers
c. Can establish cause and effect 
d. High degree of control
A

b. Large subject numbers

161
Q 
An important factor impacting satiety includes which of the following?
Select one:
a. Affordability
b. Location
c. Hunger 
d. Palatability
A

d. Palatability

162
Q 
What percent of daily energy expenditure is accounted for by the process of consuming food?
Select one:
a. 0.5
b. 0.05
c. 0.25
d. 0.1
A

d. 0.1

163
Q 
The acidic chyme leaving the stomach must be neutralized before any digestion can occur in the small intestine. What compound neutralizes this chyme?
Select one:
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Potassium citrate
c. Chymotrypsin 
d. Pepsinogen
A

a. Sodium bicarbonate

164
Q

What is the adequate intake (AI) for omega-3 fatty acid for men and women?
Select one:
a. 3.6 grams per day (men) and 3.1 grams per day (women)
b. 1.6 grams per day (men) and 1.1 grams per day (women)
c. 5.6 grams per day (men) and 5.1 grams per day (women)
d. 7.6 grams per day (men) and 7.1 grams per day (women)

A

b. 1.6 grams per day (men) and 1.1 grams per day (women)

165
Q 
What is a good source of alpha-linoleic acids (ALA)?
Select one:
a. Crab
b. Mackerel
c. Salmon 
d. Walnuts
A

d. Walnuts

166
Q 
An alcohol-related reduction in which hormone can lead to muscle loss?
Select one:
a. Testosterone
b. Estrogen
c. Cortisol 
d. Insulin
A

a. Testosterone

167
Q 
In which of the following key processes is chromium involved?
Select one:
a. Blood pressure
b. Insulin signaling
c. Heart rate
d. Nerve conduction
A

b. Insulin signaling

168
Q 
What is the common name for vitamin B2?
Select one:
a. Folic acid
b. Riboflavin
c. Pantothenic acid
d. Thiamine
A

b. Riboflavin

169
Q 
What is the minimum percentage of beverage fluid replacement range that should be suggested for clients who lose more than 3% of their body mass during training and train more than once over a 24-hour period?
Select one:
a. 90-100%
b. 120-130%
c. 140-150% 
d. 110-120%
A

d. 110-120%

170
Q 
What are the most abundant sources of endogenous energy in the body?
Select one:
a. Disaccharides 
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Fatty acids
d. Monosaccharides
A

c. Fatty acids

171
Q 
How many hours does a fat-containing food need to digest or leave the gut?
Select one:
a. Up to 5-6 hours
b. Up to 7-8 hours
c. Up to 1-2 hours
d. Up to 3-4 hours
A

a. Up to 5-6 hours

172
Q

Which of the following is the best approach to gathering information related to a sensitive topic from a client?
Select one:
a. Don’t worry about sensitive information as it will make the client uncomfortable and decrease adherence.
b. Encourage the client to fully share so that appropriate programming can be developed.
c. Tell the client a story of another client with similar issues.
d. Gather information in pieces throughout programming.

A

d. Gather information in pieces throughout programming.

173
Q 
Which body composition assessment method involves the estimation of the 3-dimensional volume of the body through measurement of an individual’s displacement of air while they sit in a sealed chamber?
Select one:
a. Infrared 3-dimensional scanning 
b. Ultrasound
c. Underwater weighing
d. Air displacement plethysmography
A

d. Air displacement plethysmography

174
Q 
Which body composition assessment method uses high-frequency sound waves emitted by a probe to visualize different parts of the body?
Select one:
a. Bioimpedance spectroscopy 
b. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
c. Infrared 3-dimensional scanning
d. Ultrasound
A

d. Ultrasound

175
Q

Of the following methods, which estimate body composition based on the 3-dimensional volume of the body?
Select one:
a. Ultrasound and dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
b. Air displacement plethysmography and underwater weighing
c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis and bioimpedance spectroscopy
d. Circumferences and skinfolds

A

b. Air displacement plethysmography and underwater weighing

176
Q 
Which of the following is an appropriate visual approximation for carbohydrate at a meal for a large adult who requires approximately 2200-2800 calories per day?
Select one:
a. A baseball
b. A soccer ball
c. Two tennis balls
d. Two baseballs
A

a. A baseball

177
Q 
Nonnutritive sweeteners may be associated with weight gain because of what psychological phenomenon?
Select one:
a. Glycemic control
b. Satiety signaling
c. Taste preferences 
d. Brain activation patterns
A

d. Brain activation patterns

178
Q 
What are the guidelines for carbohydrate intake for strength or power athletes?
Select one:
a. about 12 g/kg/day
b. 5-6 g/kg/day
c. 3-4 g/kg/day
d. 1-2 g/kg/day
A

b. 5-6 g/kg/day

179
Q 
What are carbohydrate guidelines for endurance athletes who partake in very high-volume, endurance-based training such as athletes engaging in > 6 hours of training per day at 5-7 days per week?
Select one:
a. 17-19 g/kg/day
b. 5-7 g/kg/day 
c. About 12 g/kg/day
d. 1-2 g/kg/day
A

c. About 12 g/kg/day

180
Q 
To ensure the client is retaining any shared information, it is important that the content presented is perceived to be important and what other quality?
Select one:
a. Based on prior experience
b. Delivered slowly
c. Easy to understand 
d. Reviewed several times
A

a. Based on prior experience

181
Q 
Which of the following is an example of descriptive research?
Select one:
a. Cohort study 
b. Meta-analysis
c. Survey
d. Randomized controlled trial
A

c. Survey

182
Q 
Scientists perform a study comparing 1000 women with breast cancer to 1000 women without breast cancer. They gather information on the women's diets and look to see if the women diagnosed with breast cancer had more fat in their diet compared to the women who did not get cancer. Which term best describes this study?
Select one:
a. Case-control study
b. Cohort study
c. Survey
d. Cross-sectional study
A

a. Case-control study

183
Q 
Which term describes the phenomena when a group does not represent the population a scientist is intending to study?
Select one:
a. Generalizability
b. Selection bias
c. Uncontrolled variable 
d. Recall bias
A

b. Selection bias

184
Q 
What is the leading contributor to preventable death?
Select one:
a. Obesity 
b. Breast cancer
c. Heart disease
d. Diabetes
A

c. Heart disease

185
Q 
The first law of thermodynamics is also referred to as which of the following?
Select one:
a. The law of probability of energy
b. The law of estimation of energy
c. The law of facilitation of energy
d. The law of conservation of energy
A

d. The law of conservation of energy

186
Q 
A deficiency in which hormone is associated with an increased fat mass (central adiposity in particular), reduced insulin sensitivity, and impaired glucose tolerance?
Select one:
a. Epinephrine
b. Testosterone
c. Estrogen
d. Cortisol
A

b. Testosterone

187
Q

Is post-workout protein consumption more important for novice or experienced weightlifters?
Select one:
a. Experienced
b. Post-workout protein is important for both novice and experienced weightlifters.
c. Post-workout protein is not important for experienced or novice weightlifters.
d. Novice

A

a. Experienced

188
Q

Which is most likely to impact longevity?
Select one:
a. Calorie restriction may enhance longevity.
b. Protein restriction will enhance longevity.
c. Protein restriction will inhibit longevity.
d. Calorie restriction may inhibit longevity.

A

a. Calorie restriction may enhance longevity.

189
Q 
How many sugar units are contained in oligosaccharides?
Select one:
a. 10-15 sugar units
b. 3-10 sugar units
c. 5-12 sugar units
d. 12-18 sugar units
A

b. 3-10 sugar units

190
Q

What is the function of low-density lipoproteins?
Select one:
a. Transportation of cholesterol to the small intestine.
b. Transportation of bile to the gall bladder.
c. Transportation of enzymes to the pancreas.
d. Transportation of cholesterol to cells of the body.

A

d. Transportation of cholesterol to cells of the body.

191
Q 
Which product of ethanol metabolism disrupts fatty acid oxidation in peripheral tissues?
Select one:
a. NADH
b. Acetaldehyde 
c. Acetyl-CoA
d. Acetate
A

d. Acetate

192
Q

How is harmful drinking categorized for males?
Select one:
a. 4 or more standard drinks per day or 8 or more drinks per week
b. 8 or more standard drinks per day or 18 or more drinks per week
c. 5 or more standard drinks per day or 15 or more drinks per week
d. 2 or more standard drinks per day or 10 more drinks per week

A

c. 5 or more standard drinks per day or 15 or more drinks per week

193
Q 
What percent of the body is made of calcium?
Select one:
a. 9-10%
b. 6-7% 
c. 14-15%
d. 1-2%
A

d. 1-2%

194
Q 
In what process does selenium play a critical role?
Select one:
a. Fatty acid metabolism
b. Antioxidant system
c. Carbohydrate metabolism
d. Production of neurotransmitters
A

b. Antioxidant system

195
Q 
What is the fuel source for cells in the body?
Select one:
a. Adenosine triphosphate
b. Pancreatic amylase
c. Amino acids 
d. Palmitic acid
A

a. Adenosine triphosphate

196
Q

Good Manufacturing Practices for supplements includes which of the following?
Select one:
a. Mandatory annual audits by the Food and Drug Administration
b. Independent testing of supplements to verify label accuracy
c. Standards and guidelines to ensure supplements are made properly.
d. Independent testing of supplements for contaminants such as heavy metals and pesticides

A

c. Standards and guidelines to ensure supplements are made properly.

197
Q

Which of the following describes the intake of essential micronutrients among those attempting weight loss?
Select one:
a. It is worse compared to those not attempting weight loss.
b. It is adequate.
c. It is similar to those not attempting weight loss.
d. It is excessive.

A

a. It is worse compared to those not attempting weight loss.

198
Q

Which of the following represents the importance of mirroring as a nonverbal communication technique?
Select one:
a. Allows coach to influence client perceptions
b. Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences
c. Allows coach set example for goal behavior
d. Allows coach to demonstrate authority

A

b. Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences

199
Q 
How many basic psychological needs are there in self-determination theory?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4 
d. 2
A

a. 3

200
Q

A client wants to know if her daily multivitamin provides an adequate amount of each vitamin to meet all her daily needs. What values should she look at on the Supplement Facts label to determine this?
Select one:
a. The total amount in milligrams (mg) of each vitamin listed
b. The total amount in grams (g) of each vitamin listed
c. The % Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for each vitamin
d. The % Daily Value (DV) for each vitamin

A

d. The % Daily Value (DV) for each vitamin

201
Q 
What is an appropriate portion (in ounces) of protein at a meal for an adult, average woman who requires approximately 1500-1800 calories per day?
Select one:
a. 3 - 4 ounces
b. 6 - 8 ounces
c. 1 - 2 ounces
d. 4 - 5 ounces
A

a. 3 - 4 ounces

202
Q 
What is an appropriate visual approximation for vegetables at a meal for an average adult male who requires approximately 2200-2800 calories per day?
Select one:
a. Two poker chip-sized portions
b. One poker chip-sized portion
c. Two fist-sized portions
d. One fist-sized portion
A

c. Two fist-sized portions

203
Q 
When meal prepping, it is recommended that clients limit themselves to how many new recipes to avoid making the process too complicated?
Select one:
a. One or two 
b. Three or four
c. Four or five
d. Two or three
A

d. Two or three

204
Q 
An extremely low intake of what macronutrient, on a consistent basis, may increase the risk of low testosterone?
Select one:
a. Alcohol
b. Carbohydrate
c. Fat
d. Protein
A

c. Fat

205
Q 
Vegans will likely have lower muscle stores of what compound when compared to non-vegans?
Select one:
a. Glycogen
b. Triglycerides 
c. Beta-alanine
d. Creatine
A

d. Creatine

206
Q

What is an example of a direct risk of GMO consumption?
Select one:
a. Increased intake of vitamin A (beta-carotene)
b. Increased use of pesticides on GMO crops
c. Expression of allergenic proteins
d. Reduced spoilage of produce

A

c. Expression of allergenic proteins

207
Q 
Non-celiac gluten sensitivity is best described as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Gluten intolerance
b. Food sensitivity
c. Allergic reaction 
d. Autoimmune condition
A

b. Food sensitivity

208
Q 
According to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, how many positive answers might indicate an eating disorder?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 5 
d. 1
A

b. 2

209
Q 
Which term refers to the ability to get similar results when something is measured under the same conditions?
Select one:
a. Validity
b. External validity
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Generalizability
A

c. Test-retest reliability

210
Q 
Which observational study design allows scientists to hypothesize a potential causal association?
Select one:
a. Case study 
b. Case-control study
c. Cross-sectional study
d. Cohort study
A

d. Cohort study

211
Q 
Which of the following is a primary contributor to preventable death?
Select one:
a. Drinking
b. Obesity 
c. Suicide
d. Smoking
A

d. Smoking

212
Q 
Which of the following is best defined as the quality or state of being fed or gratified to or beyond capacity?
Select one:
a. Stressed
b. Full Incorrect
c. Satiety
d. Complete
A

c. Satiety

213
Q 
Which two monosaccharides combine to make lactose?
Select one:
a. Glucose and glucose
b. Glucose and maltose 
c. Glucose and galactose
d. Glucose and fructose
A

c. Glucose and galactose

214
Q

What is the key role of phospholipids?
Select one:
a. They are responsible for transporting cholesterol in the bloodstream.
b. They are responsible for what enters and leaves every cell.
c. They are responsible for transporting triglycerides in the bloodstream.
d. They are responsible for transporting fat-soluble vitamins.

A

b. They are responsible for what enters and leaves every cell.

215
Q 
What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of iodine for adults (men and non-pregnant or lactating women > 18 years of age)?
Select one:
a. 50 μg/day
b. 120 μg/day 
c. 75 μg/day
d. 150 μg/day
A

d. 150 μg/day

216
Q 
What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of vitamin A for adult males ( > 18 years of age)?
Select one:
a. 900 μg/day
b. 400 μg/day
c. 600 μg/day
d. 1000 μg/day
A

a. 900 μg/day

217
Q 
What percent of athletes have been found to have inadequate levels of vitamin D?
Select one:
a. 0.73 
b. 0.11
c. 0.54
d. 0.36
A

c. 0.54

218
Q 
What important molecule is magnesium conjugated to in the body?
Select one:
a. Leucine
b. Fatty acids 
c. Hemoglobin
d. ATP
A

d. ATP

219
Q 
Which of the following electrolytes is found in the greatest concentration in the extracellular fluid?
Select one:
a. Calcium
b. Potassium 
c. Magnesium
d. Sodium
A

d. Sodium

220
Q 
A pre-exercise snack, such as chocolate milk, fruit, or yogurt, should be consumed how long before endurance activity?
Select one:
a. 3.5 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 1.5 hours to 2 hours 
d. 30 mins to 1 hour
A

d. 30 mins to 1 hour

221
Q 
Which term refers to skin tingling, a reported side effect from beta alanine use?
Select one:
a. Glycogenolysis
b. Paresthesia
c. Thermogenesis 
d. Anesthesia
A

b. Paresthesia

222
Q 
Being motivated to eat due to spending time with others or to make social gatherings comfortable is an example of which eating motive?
Select one:
a. Traditional eating
b. Social norm 
c. Sociability
d. Affect regulation
A

c. Sociability

223
Q

Which of the following is an example of social persuasion?
Select one:
a. Finding out what the client’s goals are
b. Showing a client how to log calories in a food journal
c. Telling a client about the positive benefits of eating more fruits and vegetables
d. Taking a client to a grocery store to demonstrate how to make healthier choices

A

c. Telling a client about the positive benefits of eating more fruits and vegetables

224
Q

Which of the following is considered the top barrier to healthy eating?
Select one:
a. Emotional eating
b. Family and friends with different habits
c. Cost of healthy foods
d. Lack of time

A

a. Emotional eating

225
Q

Which of the following best describes the use of questioning in communication?
Select one:
a. A variety of question types should be used to gain different information.
b. Divergent questioning is the best tool to gain understanding of client preferences.
c. Closed-ended questioning should be avoided.
d. Probing questioning should be primarily used to gain the most information.

A

a. A variety of question types should be used to gain different information.

226
Q 
Which of the following is the theory that proposes that motivation lies on a continuum from amotivation, to extrinsic motivation, to intrinsic motivation?
Select one:
a. Social-cognitive theory
b. Motivational interviewing
c. Self-efficacy theory 
d. Self-determination theory
A

d. Self-determination theory

227
Q 
In Motivational Interviewing, ambivalence is seen as which of the following?
Select one:
a. A roadblock to change
b. A sign of resistance 
c. A trait of difficult clients
d. A normal part of the change process
A

d. A normal part of the change process

228
Q 
"I want to run for 30-minutes, four times a week," is an example of which kind of goal?
Select one:
a. Outcome goal
b. Process goal
c. Subjective goal
d. Objective goal
A

d. Objective goal

229
Q

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of a 24-hour recall?
Select one:
a. It takes approximately 1 minute to complete.
b. It begins by making a quick list of foods and beverages consumed by the client.
c. It only needs to be performed for one day every 3 months for an accurate assessment.
d. It is a single-step process in which the client lists the brands of food items consumed in the last 24 hours.

A

b. It begins by making a quick list of foods and beverages consumed by the client.

230
Q 
What is the recommended portion size for meat/poultry in the UK according to the British Dietetic Association ?
Select one:
a. Palm of hand
b. A baseball
c. A deck of cards
d. A tennis ball
A

c. A deck of cards

231
Q 
Basic food safety guidelines remain important when meal prepping. Cooked fish should be consumed no later than how many days following preparation?
Select one:
a. Three to four days after preparation
b. One to two days after preparation
c. Four to five days after preparation
d. Two to three days after preparation
A

d. Two to three days after preparation

232
Q

The nutrient quality of a meal refers to which of the following?
Select one:
a. Whether or not the foods used to prepare the meal are of high quality
b. Whether or not the foods in the meal are organically sourced
c. The total number of nutrients provided in a meal relative to the total number of foods in the meal
d. The amount and variety of nutrients provided in a food or meal

A

d. The amount and variety of nutrients provided in a food or meal

233
Q 
High consumption of processed meat products has been associated most strongly with which disease?
Select one:
a. Grave's disease
b. Dementia
c. Colon cancer
d. Atherosclerosis
A

c. Colon cancer

234
Q 
Which of the following diet characteristics is associated with successful long-term weight maintenance?
Select one:
a. High energy density
b. High variety
c. High palatability 
d. Low energy density
A

d. Low energy density

235
Q 
What do guidelines suggest as a protein intake target for endurance athletes?
Select one:
a. 1.7-2.2 g/kg/day 
b. 1.2-1.6 g/kg/day
c. 2.2-3.0 g/kg/day
d. 0.8-1.0 g/kg/day
A

b. 1.2-1.6 g/kg/day

236
Q

According to the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach, which is an example of an appropriate resource for determining daily caloric intake?
Select one:
a. ADA calculations based on age, gender, and activity level
b. Body type and cultural preferences
c. The Nutrition Coach cannot assist with daily caloric intake.
d. Dietary Guidelines for Americans

A

d. Dietary Guidelines for Americans

237
Q 
Common assessments performed by a Nutrition Coach include height, weight, body composition, and what other test?
Select one:
a. SCOFF test 
b. Hydrostatic weighing
c. Blood pressure
d. Anthropometric measurements
A

d. Anthropometric measurements

238
Q

A Nutrition Coach has been working with an overweight client for 6 weeks. During the most recent weight-in, they discover that she has lost 27 pounds. What is the best course of action for the Nutrition Coach?
Select one:
a. Suggest she limit her exercise to twice per week.
b. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits.
c. Add an additional 300-500 calories to her daily intake.
d. Congratulate her for a job well done

A

b. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits.

239
Q

A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has diabetes and she has trouble keeping her blood glucose controlled. What is the best course of action?
Select one:
a. Refer her to a Registered Dietitian.
b. Refer her to a Certified Diabetes Educator.
c. Inform her that when she loses 10% of her body weight, her blood glucose will be easier to manage.
d. Advise her to cut back on her simple carbohydrates at each meal.

A

b. Refer her to a Certified Diabetes Educator.

240
Q 
Scientists randomly assign subjects to a low or high carbohydrate group and then look at changes in body weight over 3 months. Which item represents the independent variable in this study?
Select one:
a. Diet type
b. Subjects 
c. Length of study (3 months)
d. Body weight
A

a. Diet type

241
Q 
Scientists take 5000 people and have them fill out questionnaires on their dairy intake. They then compare cancer rates between people with high intakes and low intakes. What type of study is this?
Select one:
a. Anecdotal
b. Randomized controlled trial
c. Observational
d. Meta-analysis
A

c. Observational

242
Q 
To which of the following is one metabolic equivalent (MET) equal?
Select one:
a. 3.5 ml O2 / Kg / min
b. 10 ml O2 / Kg / min
c. 1 ml O2 / Kg / min
d. 1 RMR equivalent of energy
A

a. 3.5 ml O2 / Kg / min

243
Q 
Resting metabolic rate, or RMR, declines by what percentage per decade for men?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2%
b. 8 to 10%
c. 5 to 6% 
d. >10%
A

a. 1 to 2%

244
Q

Does the Dietary Guidelines for Americans adjust RDAs according to a person’s activity level?
Select one:
a. No, they are only based on body volume.
b. No, they are only based on body size.
c. Yes, the recommendations are adjusted based on activity level, weight, height, and goal.
d. Yes, they are adjusted based on activity level alone.

A

b. No, they are only based on body size.

245
Q 
What is the main protein involved in regulating fluid balance?
Select one:
a. Albumin
b. Leucine
c. Human growth hormone
d. Hemoglobin
A

a. Albumin

246
Q 
Which sweetener is not considered a mono- or disaccharide and is extracted from chicory root?
Select one:
a. Dextrose 
b. Inulin
c. High-fructose corn syrup
d. Lactose
A

b. Inulin

247
Q 
What is the current daily fiber intake recommendation for women in the U.S.?
Select one:
a. 15 grams of fiber daily
b. 25 grams of fiber daily
c. 30 grams of fiber daily
d. 20 grams of fiber daily
A

b. 25 grams of fiber daily

248
Q 
Bile is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. A phospholipid
b. An enzyme
c. An emulsifier
d. A micelle
A

c. An emulsifier

249
Q 
What are the byproducts of beta-oxidation?
Select one:
a. Glycerol and free fatty acids
b. Ketone bodies and glucose
c. Glycerol and glycogen 
d. Acetyl-CoA and free fatty acids
A

a. Glycerol and free fatty acids

250
Q

What is a chylomicron?
Select one:
a. A lipoprotein that delivers amino acids to the cells
b. A lipoprotein that delivers LDL cholesterol to the liver
c. A lipoprotein that delivers HDL cholesterol to the cells
d. A lipoprotein that delivers triglycerides to the cells

A

d. A lipoprotein that delivers triglycerides to the cells

251
Q 
1 gram of alcohol increases urine output by how much?
Select one:
a. 50 mL
b. 10 mL
c. 5 mL
d. 20 mL
A

b. 10 mL

252
Q 
Pyridoxal, pyridoxine, and pyridoxamine are all molecules of which vitamin?
Select one:
a. Vitamin B12 
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B6
A

d. Vitamin B6

253
Q 
What disease is the result of vitamin D deficiency?
Select one:
a. Hypothyroidism 
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Psoriasis
d. Rickets
A

d. Rickets

254
Q 
How much glucose does the brain consume?
Select one:
a. about 10% of glucose derived energy 
b. about 20% of glucose derived energy
c. about 1% of glucose derived energy
d. about 5% of glucose derived energy
A

b. about 20% of glucose derived energy

255
Q

In terms of providing feedback to a client throughout a program, which of the following is the best approach?
Select one:
a. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy.
b. Provide feedback to keep clients on track.
c. Provide consistent praise and encouragement.
d. Provide consistent and thorough feedback to all clients

A

a. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy.

256
Q 
Which of the following is a client who eats healthy food because eating food is connected to their identity is experiencing?
Select one:
a. Intrinsic motivation 
b. Introjected regulation
c. Integrated regulation 
d. External regulation
A

c. Integrated regulation

257
Q 
Based on the national food survey called What We Eat in America, about 75% of the United States population has an eating pattern that is low in which of the following?
Select one:
a. Fruits
b. Protein foods 
c. Grains
d. Saturated fats
A

a. Fruits

258
Q 
The amount of energy (i.e. number of calories) an individual uses at rest in order to sustain basic processes in the body is known as the which of the following?
Select one:
a. Total daily energy expenditure
b. Energy intake
c. Resting metabolic rate
d. Activity level
A

c. Resting metabolic rate

259
Q

Which of the following strategies might the Nutrition Coach recommend to a client who says that he finds himself snacking constantly at his desk at work?
Select one:
a. Store snacks in his drawer versus on his immediate desk area.
b. Remove snacks from his desk and immediate work area, and store them in the office kitchen.
c. Avoid bringing any snacks to work.
d. Plan his meals for the day ahead of time.

A

b. Remove snacks from his desk and immediate work area, and store them in the office kitchen.

260
Q

What is the scientific consensus of genetically modified (GM) foods?
Select one:
a. Extremely hazardous to human health and should be avoided
b. Safe to consume
c. Carcinogenic
d. Unsustainable and bad for the economy

A

b. Safe to consume

261
Q 
A client tells their Nutrition Coach that coworkers bring donuts to work every morning. Which psychological barrier to adherence does this represent?
Select one:
a. Situational barrier
b. Stress-related eating
c. Perception of choice 
d. Confusion
A

a. Situational barrier

NASM Nutrition Coach (1 decks)

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