Nutrition/malnutrition/obesity Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for assessing energy expenditure in malnourished patients?
    A) Calorimetry
    B) BMI measurement
    C) Serum albumin levels
    D) Bioelectrical impedance analysis
A

Answer: A) Calorimetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which type of malnutrition is characterized by chronic starvation without inflammation?
    A) Starvation-related malnutrition
    B) Chronic disease-related malnutrition
    C) Acute disease or injury-related malnutrition
    D) Protein-energy malnutrition
A

Answer: A) Starvation-related malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is the target blood glucose range in ICU patients receiving nutritional support?
    A) 100-140
    B) 120-160
    C) 140-180
    D) 160-200
A

Answer: C) 140-180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition for critically ill patients because:
    A) It is easier to administer.
    B) It reduces the risk of infections.
    C) It provides higher caloric intake.
    D) It requires fewer nursing interventions.
A

Answer: B) It reduces the risk of infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which nutritional management strategy is recommended for a patient with a BMI >30 and polytrauma?
    A) Reduce caloric intake to 15 kcal/kg/day
    B) Use high-protein, calorie-restricted enteral nutrition
    C) Initiate parenteral nutrition immediately upon admission
    D) Avoid nutritional support for the first 48 hours
A

Answer: B) Use high-protein, calorie-restricted enteral nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. The clinical presentation of obesity includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    A) Regional fat distribution
    B) Increased susceptibility to infection
    C) Elevated BMI
    D) Dyslipidemia
A

Answer: B) Increased susceptibility to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which diagnostic test is recommended to evaluate metabolic complications in obesity?
    A) MRI of adipose tissue
    B) Thyroid function test
    C) Pulmonary function test
    D) Bone density scan
A

Answer: B) Thyroid function test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most effective first step in managing obesity?
    A) Surgical intervention
    B) Nutrition consultation
    C) Pharmacological therapy
    D) High-protein diet
A

Answer: B) Nutrition consultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following nutritional markers may be unreliable in critically ill patients?
    A) Albumin
    B) C-reactive protein
    C) Hemoglobin
    D) Calcium
A

Answer: A) Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. For a critically ill patient, when should enteral nutrition ideally be initiated?
    A) Within 12 hours of admission
    B) Within 24-48 hours of admission
    C) After 7 days of fasting
    D) Only if parenteral nutrition is not feasible
A

Answer: B) Within 24-48 hours of admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which of the following is an appropriate protein requirement for a critically ill burn patient?
    A) 0.8 g/kg/day
    B) 1.0 g/kg/day
    C) 1.2–2.0 g/kg/day
    D) 2.5 g/kg/day
A

Answer: C) 1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which type of malnutrition is characterized by inflammation that is acute and severe?
    A) Starvation-related malnutrition
    B) Chronic disease-related malnutrition
    C) Acute disease or injury-related malnutrition
    D) Protein-energy malnutrition
A

Answer: C) Acute disease or injury-related malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. A 58-year-old female with a history of gastric bypass surgery is admitted for evaluation of fatigue and dizziness. Labs reveal anemia and low albumin levels. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
    A) Begin enteral nutrition
    B) Administer parenteral nutrition immediately
    C) Obtain a detailed dietary history and order nutritional supplementation
    D) Refer for a bone density scan
A

Answer: C) Obtain a detailed dietary history and order nutritional supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. A critically ill 75-year-old male in the ICU requires nutritional support. He has hemodynamic instability and cannot tolerate enteral nutrition. What is the best course of action?
    A) Start parenteral nutrition immediately
    B) Wait 7 days before initiating parenteral nutrition
    C) Start total parenteral nutrition within 24 hours
    D) Begin enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube
A

Answer: B) Wait 7 days before initiating parenteral nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. A 40-year-old male with a BMI of 40 is admitted with cellulitis and poorly controlled Type 2 diabetes. Which intervention is most appropriate to address his obesity in the inpatient setting?
    A) Start a very low-calorie diet
    B) Encourage weight loss of 5-10% and schedule a nutrition consult
    C) Initiate bariatric surgery referral immediately
    D) Provide only clear liquids until cellulitis resolves
A

Answer: B) Encourage weight loss of 5-10% and schedule a nutrition consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which lab test is the most sensitive marker for acute malnutrition?
    A) Albumin
    B) Prealbumin
    C) C-reactive protein
    D) Hemoglobin
A

Answer: B) Prealbumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What is the primary complication of parenteral nutrition?
    A) Gut atrophy
    B) Hypernatremia
    C) Hypoglycemia
    D) Fluid retention
A

Answer: A) Gut atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Intentional permissive underfeeding is commonly recommended for which population?
    A) Patients with renal failure
    B) Obese critically ill patients
    C) Malnourished elderly patients
    D) Pediatric patients
A

Answer: B) Obese critically ill patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which type of feeding is preferred for a patient with a functioning gastrointestinal tract?
    A) Enteral nutrition
    B) Parenteral nutrition
    C) Intravenous dextrose
    D) Total parenteral nutrition
A

Answer: A) Enteral nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which nutritional intervention can prevent refeeding syndrome?
    A) Rapid reintroduction of carbohydrates
    B) Gradual increase in calorie intake
    C) High-dose thiamine supplementation
    D) Restricting protein intake
A

Answer: B) Gradual increase in calorie intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. A patient with a BMI of 40 requires nutritional support. Which is the most appropriate initial strategy?
    A) Enteral feeding within 48 hours
    B) Total parenteral nutrition
    C) Restriction of protein intake
    D) Early initiation of low-calorie parenteral nutrition
A

Answer: A) Enteral feeding within 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which type of malnutrition is associated with chronic inflammation?
    A) Starvation-related malnutrition
    B) Acute disease-related malnutrition
    C) Chronic disease-related malnutrition
    D) Injury-induced malnutrition
A

Answer: C) Chronic disease-related malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What is a key complication of refeeding syndrome?
    A) Hypernatremia
    B) Hypophosphatemia
    C) Hypercalcemia
    D) Hyponatremia
A

Answer: B) Hypophosphatemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which patient population is most at risk for malnutrition during hospitalization?
    A) Patients with obesity
    B) Patients with burns and sepsis
    C) Patients undergoing elective surgery
    D) Patients on oral diets
A

Answer: B) Patients with burns and sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
11. Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition because it: A) Reduces aspiration risk B) Provides higher calorie content C) Preserves gut integrity and reduces infections D) Eliminates the need for electrolyte monitoring
Answer: C) Preserves gut integrity and reduces infections
26
13. What percentage of total energy expenditure is resting energy expenditure? A) 50% B) 60% C) 75% D) 90%
Answer: C) 75%
27
14. A patient with chronic disease-related malnutrition typically experiences: A) No inflammation B) Mild to moderate chronic inflammation C) Acute, severe inflammation D) Overhydration
Answer: B) Mild to moderate chronic inflammation
28
15. Which screening tool is mandated within 24 hours of acute admission? A) BMI measurement B) Nutrition Screening and Assessment Tool C) Subjective Global Assessment D) Calorimetry
Answer: B) Nutrition Screening and Assessment Tool
29
16. Refeeding syndrome results in: A) Hypercalcemia B) Hypophosphatemia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypermagnesemia
Answer: B) Hypophosphatemia
30
2. Which factor increases resting energy expenditure in hospitalized patients? A) Chronic illnesses B) Acute illness or stress C) Overnutrition D) Sleep deprivation
Answer: B) Acute illness or stress
31
3. What are the primary macronutrients required for energy and tissue repair? A) Protein, carbohydrates, and vitamins B) Protein, amino acids, and fatty acids C) Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins D) Vitamins, minerals, and proteins
Answer: C) Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
32
4. What does the term "total energy expenditure" refer to? A) The amount of dietary energy required during rest B) The amount of energy consumed in maintaining fat stores C) The total dietary energy required for basal metabolic rate, physical activity, and thermogenesis D) The energy needed solely for metabolism
Answer: C) The total dietary energy required for basal metabolic rate, physical activity, and thermogenesis
33
5. What is a hallmark sign of starvation-related malnutrition? A) Acute systemic inflammation B) Skin thinning and muscle atrophy C) Hyperlipidemia D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: B) Skin thinning and muscle atrophy
34
6. Which type of malnutrition is associated with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? A) Starvation-related malnutrition B) Chronic disease-related malnutrition C) Acute disease-related malnutrition D) Subclinical malnutrition
Answer: C) Acute disease-related malnutrition
35
7. Which population is most likely to develop malnutrition due to food insecurity? A) Patients with liver failure B) Patients in food deserts C) Patients with advanced dementia D) Patients with polytrauma
Answer: B) Patients in food deserts
36
8. What is the main risk of untreated acute malnutrition in critically ill patients? A) Decreased length of hospital stay B) Improved gut integrity C) Increased risk of infection due to gut bacteria translocation D) Reduced inflammatory response
Answer: C) Increased risk of infection due to gut bacteria translocation
37
9. What is the primary purpose of nutrition screening? A) To provide definitive diagnosis of malnutrition B) To identify individuals at risk for malnutrition C) To calculate caloric requirements D) To initiate parenteral nutrition immediately
Answer: B) To identify individuals at risk for malnutrition
38
10. Which laboratory test is least reliable during acute illness for assessing nutrition? A) Albumin B) Prealbumin C) Retinol-binding protein D) Electrolytes
Answer: A) Albumin
39
11. Which nutrition screening tool is commonly used for hospitalized patients? A) Braden Scale B) Subjective Global Assessment Tool C) Geriatric Depression Scale D) CAM-ICU
Answer: B) Subjective Global Assessment Tool
40
12. What Joint Commission mandate applies to nutrition screening? A) Conduct a detailed nutrition assessment within 48 hours B) Ensure all hospitalized patients are screened within 24 hours of admission C) Limit calorie intake for obese patients D) Use parenteral nutrition for critically ill patients
Answer: B) Ensure all hospitalized patients are screened within 24 hours of admission
41
13. Which is the preferred method of nutritional support for hospitalized patients? A) Parenteral nutrition B) Enteral nutrition C) Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) D) Continuous glucose infusion
Answer: B) Enteral nutrition
42
14. What is the recommended protein requirement for critically ill patients with burns or polytrauma? A) 0.8–1.0 g/kg/day B) 1.0–1.5 g/kg/day C) 1.2–2.0 g/kg/day D) 2.5–3.0 g/kg/day
Answer: C) 1.2–2.0 g/kg/day
43
15. What is a common adverse effect of parenteral nutrition? A) Gastrointestinal bleeding B) Central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) C) Hypercalcemia D) Hyperalbuminemia
Answer: B) Central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI)
44
16. Why is enteral nutrition preferred over parenteral nutrition? A) It is less expensive B) It maintains gut integrity and reduces infection risk C) It avoids the need for protein supplementation D) It prevents electrolyte imbalances
Answer: B) It maintains gut integrity and reduces infection risk
45
18. Which intervention is recommended for managing diarrhea in patients receiving enteral nutrition? A) Switching to parenteral nutrition B) Administering fiber-enriched formulas C) Increasing bolus feeding frequency D) Adding prophylactic antidiarrheals
Answer: B) Administering fiber-enriched formulas
46
19. What is the glucose target range for patients receiving nutritional support in the ICU? A) 80–100 mg/dL B) 100–140 mg/dL C) 140–180 mg/dL D) 180–220 mg/dL
Answer: C) 140–180 mg/dL
47
. What is the threshold gastric residual volume (GRV) to hold enteral tube feeding, according to updated guidelines? A) 250 mL B) 300 mL C) 400 mL D) 500 mL
Answer: D) 500 mL
48
21. What type of nutrient is essential for the repair of lean body mass in critically ill patients? A) Fats B) Proteins C) Vitamins D) Carbohydrates
Answer: B) Proteins
49
22. Which of the following is considered a micronutrient? A) Glucose B) Fatty acids C) Vitamins D) Proteins
Answer: C) Vitamins
50
23. What is the primary purpose of micronutrients in the body? A) Provide energy B) Maintain cellular functions and metabolism C) Increase resting energy expenditure D) Build muscle mass
Answer: B) Maintain cellular functions and metabolism
51
24. Which is a common clinical sign of chronic disease-related malnutrition? A) Starvation edema B) Muscle atrophy with mild inflammation C) Severe tissue injury D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: B) Muscle atrophy with mild inflammation
52
25. Which lab value is most reflective of acute malnutrition in the absence of systemic inflammation? A) Albumin B) Prealbumin C) Retinol-binding protein D) Transferrin
Answer: B) Prealbumin
53
26. What does a positive nutrition screening indicate? A) Immediate need for parenteral nutrition B) The presence of malnutrition C) The need for further nutritional assessment D) Adequate nutritional status
Answer: C) The need for further nutritional assessment
54
27. What is a relative contraindication for starting enteral nutrition? A) Coagulopathy B) Stable hemodynamic status C) Functional GI tract D) Normal phosphorus levels
Answer: A) Coagulopathy
55
28. What is the primary goal of enteral nutrition in critically ill patients? A) Prevent hyperglycemia B) Restore gut integrity and immune function C) Eliminate the need for physical activity D) Replace protein catabolism
Answer: B) Restore gut integrity and immune function
56
29. Which of the following is an advantage of continuous enteral feeding compared to bolus feeding? A) Reduced aspiration risk B) Increased protein absorption C) Improved patient satisfaction D) Higher calorie delivery
Answer: A) Reduced aspiration risk
57
30. What is the preferred time frame to start enteral nutrition in critically ill patients? A) Within the first 2–3 hours B) Within the first 12 hours C) Within the first 24–48 hours D) Within the first week
Answer: C) Within the first 24–48 hours
58
31. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly observed in refeeding syndrome? A) Hypernatremia B) Hypercalcemia C) Hypokalemia D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: C) Hypokalemia
59
32. What is the most important intervention when managing refeeding syndrome? A) Provide high-calorie feeding immediately B) Correct electrolyte imbalances before and during feeding C) Switch to parenteral nutrition D) Increase fluid intake
Answer: B) Correct electrolyte imbalances before and during feeding
60
33. What is the primary risk of abruptly stopping parenteral nutrition? A) Hypoglycemia B) Hypernatremia C) Protein deficiency D) Diarrhea
Answer: A) Hypoglycemia
61
35. Which patient population is at higher risk for developing malnutrition despite appearing well-nourished? A) Patients with advanced dementia B) Patients with liver failure C) Obese patients D) Patients with polytrauma
Answer: C) Obese patients
62
36. What is the preferred intervention for patients with advanced dementia who cannot safely eat? A) Start total parenteral nutrition immediately B) Optimize voluntary nutrition and assess goals of care C) Use high-calorie enteral formulas D) Administer appetite stimulants
Answer: B) Optimize voluntary nutrition and assess goals of care
63
37. Which guideline is followed for managing glycemic control in ICU patients receiving nutrition support? A) Maintain blood glucose between 100–140 mg/dL B) Target blood glucose of 140–180 mg/dL C) Aim for blood glucose below 80 mg/dL D) Avoid glucose monitoring to prevent interruptions
Answer: B) Target blood glucose of 140–180 mg/dL
64
38. Why is frequent phosphorus monitoring critical in patients receiving nutritional support? A) Prevents hyperglycemia B) Avoids hypophosphatemia-related respiratory failure C) Ensures gut integrity D) Reduces infection risk
Answer: B) Avoids hypophosphatemia-related respiratory failure
65
39. When should caloric requirements for patients on nutritional support be re-evaluated? A) Daily B) Every 48 hours C) Weekly D) Monthly
Answer: C) Weekly
66
40. What is a key measure to prevent complications in patients on enteral nutrition? A) Use prophylactic antidiarrheals B) Monitor tolerance through residual volumes every 2 hours C) Use postpyloric feeding for high aspiration risk D) Avoid bolus feeding for all patients
Answer: C) Use postpyloric feeding for high aspiration risk
67
24. What is a complication of untreated refeeding syndrome? A) Hyperkalemia B) Heart failure C) Bradycardia D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: B) Heart failure
68
A 55-year-old male with a BMI of 15 is admitted after prolonged fasting. After receiving 24 hours of enteral nutrition, he develops weakness, tachycardia, and hypophosphatemia. 1. What is the key pathophysiological change in refeeding syndrome? A) Hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance B) Cellular uptake of electrolytes due to insulin surge C) Dehydration due to osmotic diuresis D) Increased gluconeogenesis leading to hypoglycemia
Answer: B) Cellular uptake of electrolytes due to insulin surge