Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oncology Nutrition > Nutrition and Diagnosis-Related Care > Flashcards

Nutrition and Diagnosis-Related Care Flashcards

1
Q

Cancer that starts in the glands

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Benign growth that may or may not grow into cancer

A

Adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Process of stopping a tumor from growing new blood vessels

A

Antiangiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common form of skin cancer - primary cause: sunlight exposure

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment to stimulate or restore the immune system to fight infection and disease and lessen side effects that may be caused by some cancer treatments

A

Biotherapy (also known as biological therapy or immunotherapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Abnormal, uncontrolled growth of cells in a lump or mass that also destroys normal tissue

A

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Encompasses 80-90% of all cancers; involves epithelial tissue and coverings of internal and external surfaces; includes skin, lungs, colon, stomach, breast, uterus, and tongue cancers

A

Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Use of medication to kill malignant cells

A

Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Permanent removal of cancer from the body

A

Curative therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

GI carcinoid tumor, pancreatic islet cell carcinoma, parathyroid cancer, pituitary tumor, and thyroid cancer are all examples of what types of cancers?

A

Endocrine system cancers (aka: adrenocortical carcinomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anal, bile duct, colon, esophageal, gallbladder, GI carcinoid tumor, liver, pancreatic, rectal, small intestine, and stomach cancers are all what type of cancer?

A

GI cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cervical, endometrial, ovarian, vaginal, and vulvar are all what type of cancer?

A

Gynecological cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cancer where bone marrow-produced abnormal WBCs crowd out normal WBCs, RBCs, and platelets

A

Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Penile, testicular, and prostate cancers all are what?

A

Male reproductive cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tumors affecting the meninges

A

Meningiomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rare cancer affecting the lining of the chest, heart, and abdominal cavity from exposure to abestos

A

Mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Transfer of disease from one organ to another that is not directly connected to it

A

Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Targeted therapy to locate and bind cancer cells; can be used to delivery drugs, toxins, or radioactive material directly to tumor cells.

A

Monoclonal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tumor composed of nerve cells

A

Neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common bone cancer, which develops in new tissue of growing bones, affecting young people

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment with high-energy rays to kill or damage cancer cells

A

Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cancer arising from bone or connective tissue

A

Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Key dietary message to prevent cancer: promote intake of 3 main things…

A

Fruits, vegetables, and whole grains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Type of fiber that increases stool bulk

A

Insoluble fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Type of fiber that has a cholesterol-lowering effect

A

Soluble fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dietary factors and physical inactivity contributes to what fraction of cancer patients?

A

1/3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In cancer patients, PIF (proteolysis-inducting factor), TNF (tumor necrosis factor), and LMF (lipid metabolizing factor) all promote _______.

A

Catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Supplementation with this has been shown to stabilize weight in some cancer patients on oral diets experiencing progressive, unintentional weight loss.

A

Omega-3 fatty acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cancer drugs (type): these drugs kill cancer cells by stopping their growth or by making it hard for cancer cells to repair damage (side effects: n/v/hyperuricemia)

A

Alkylating agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cancer drugs (type): prevents nutrients and oxygen from being delivered to the tumor by reducing the number of blood vessels, thus hindering its growth

A

Antiangiogenic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cancer drugs (type): DNA substrate analogs that lead to incorrect DNA synthesis affecting cancer cells (side effects: n/v/d/stomatitis)

A

Antimetabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cancer drugs (type): used to relieve n/v after chemotherapy (side effects n/d/increased gastric emptying/drowsiness)

A

Antiemetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Corticosteriods can cause 4 nutrition-related side effects:

A

1) hyperglycemia, 2) weight gain, 3) sodium/fluid retention, 4) calcium losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Methotrexate is a _____ antagonist - it may decrease the absorption of these 4 components in food.

A

Folate; 1) lactose, 2) fat, 3) vitamin B12, 4) folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cancer drugs (type): these drugs correct the abnormal enzyme that causes cancer cells to grow out of control

A

Monoclonal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bone cancer that most often occurs in the long bones of young people … and it most often spreads to ______.

A

Osteosarcoma, the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bone cancer staging:
Stage 1:
Stage 2:
Stage 3:

A

1: low-grade, no spread
2: high-grade, no spread
3: cancer of any grade that has spread beyond the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common method of treatment of bone cancer

A

Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most common drug used to treat bone cancer - helps to reduce bone breakdown, the risk of fracture/hypercalcemia, and bone pain

A

Bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hematopoietic stem-cell transplantation is _____ _____ transplantation.

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Leukemias, lymphomas, and multiple myeloma are all:

A

Hematological cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The preparative regimen for bone marrow transplantation includes: ______ and _______ in order to: ______

A

High-dose chemotherapy and may also include total-body radiation; suppress immune reactions post-transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common indication for stem-cell transplantation

A

Hematological cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Post stem-cell transplantation - what diet would be most appropriate and why?

A

Neutropenic diet (low-bacteria)because the immune system is compromised and would not want to expose to a high-bacteria diet in an effort to reduce the risk of food-borne illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Post stem-cell transplantation - Provide _ - _ kcal/kg

A

30-35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Post stem-cell transplantation - Provide _ - _ g/kg protein

A

1.5-2.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Neutropenic diet after bone marrow transplantation - follow for __ months or until immunosuppressive therapies are complete.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Neutropenic diet guidelines - name 5 things it entails

A

Hand washing, safe food temperatures
Avoid unpasteurized milk and juices, raw or undercooked foods containing heme protein, yogurt with active cultures, hot dogs/bacon/sausage/lunch meat, soft or mold-containing cheeses, unwashed produce, picked fish, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most common symptom of a brain tumor:

A

Headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Headaches are the most common symptom of brain tumors because they:

A

Produce inflammation in the brain, compressing other parts of the brain as the tumor grows, causing swelling and pressure inside the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Non-neuronal cells in the brain that support and protect neurons in the the brain

A

Glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A _____ is a tumor of neurological origin which constitutes over 50% of all brain cancers.

A

Glioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

_________ is the most frequent and devastating primary malignant brain tumor in adults.

A

GBM (glioblastoma multiforme)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Standard of treatment for GBM patients includes:

A

Surgical intervention, followed by radiation with chemotheraphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Type of brain tumor that may be classified as benign or malignant and surgical excision is curative for most patients

A

Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The meninges covers and protects ____ and ____.

A

the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Brain cancer protein needs: for surgery =s _ - _ g/kg and RTX =s _ - _g/kg

A

1.2-1.5; 1.0-1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why may you want to limit sodium in brain tumor patients?

A

to correct cerebral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which are more common: primary or secondary brain tumors?

A

Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Diagnosis of cancer is done by:

A

Biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The process of measuring the amount that the cancer has spread or grown using medical imaging techniques

A

Staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q 
Stages of colon cancer:
Stage 1:
Stage 2:
Stage 3:
Stage 4:
A

1: Cancer is small, localized, and limited
2: Local spreading occurs within the organ and lymph nodes
3: Cancer cells invade through the organ and lymph nodes
4: Mets of the tumor occurs in other tissues of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Patients with ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are at a higher risk for this type of cancer.

A

Colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Risk factors of ______ cancer include: age >50, excessive alcohol intake, overweight or obese, smoking, western-style diet (high in red meat & fat and low in vegetables), family history, and inflammatory cytokines (cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) and prostaglandin).

A

Colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A fecal occult blood test and sigmoidoscopy are used to help in diagnosis of ______ cancer.

A

Colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In cancer of the small intestine, malignancy is generally found in the lower ______ and _______ with a ____ rate of mortality and ___ early symptoms.

A

Duodenum, Ileum, high, few

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Common symptoms of ______ cancer include bloody bowel movements, pain, and irregular bowel habits.

A

Rectal

68
Q

In colon cancer, slow-growing malignancies are usually found in these 3 sections of the colon. Few early symptoms are found but the prognosis is optimistic.

A

Cecum, lower ascending colon, sigmoid colon

69
Q

The ______ (_________) colon absorbs fluids and salts and the _______ (_________) colon stores feces. Which one tends to cause obstruction?

A

Right (ascending), Left (descending), Left (descending)

70
Q

Category of cancers that affect esophageal, hypopharyngeal, laryngeal, lip and oral cavity; nasopharyngeal, oropharyngeal, paranasal sinus and nasal cavity; and parathyroid and salivary glands

A

Head and neck cancers

71
Q

Head and neck cancers – the highest incidence rate is in this group of people…

A

Black males

72
Q

85% of head and neck cancers is linked to _______.

A

Tobacco use

73
Q

Damage from acid reflux may contribute to ________ cancer.

A

Esophageal

74
Q

Odynophagia

A

Painful swallowing w/ or w/o dysphagia

75
Q

Odynophagia, dysphagia, muscositis, esophagitis, xerostomia, dental caries, wt loss, taste changes, and decreased appetite are all side effects of ________ treatment.

A

Radiation

76
Q

Treatment for localized thyroid cancer

A

Surgical removal of the thyroid gland

77
Q

Thyroid cancer: MUST UNDERSTAND: pituitary gland produces ______ which causes the ________________ to produce thyroid hormones and release thyroidglobulin. Patients who undergo surgical resection of the thyroid gland must take Thyroxine medications to keep ________ low.

A

TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), thyroid gland, TSH

78
Q

MNT for esophageal cancers:

1) Symptom control
2) Avoid refeeding syndrome
3) Diet high in energy (- kcal/kg) and protein (- g/kg)
4) Dysphagia/texture-modified diets as needed
5) ENS as needed via g- or j-tube for maintaining gut integrity
6) Increase fluid intake (dehydration is common)
7) MVI

A

30-35, 1.0-1.5

79
Q

Medication: _____ can lower esophageal cancer risk by 90% by reducing prostaglandin production

A

Aspirin

80
Q

Medication: What is Pilocarpine used for?

A

Saliva substitute for xerostomia

81
Q

Gastric cancer is most commonly found in what part of the stomach?

A

Pylorus

82
Q

Over 90% of gastric cancers begin in the ….

This type of gastric cancer is known as

A

Glandular cells; adenoma

83
Q

A gastric lymphoma begins in the _______

A

Immune system

84
Q

Gastric carcinoid syndrome starts in the _________

A

Hormonal system

85
Q

Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) begin in the ________

A

Nervous system

86
Q

H. pylori infection can commonly play a role in development of what kind of cancer?

A

Gastric cancer

87
Q

Most common treatment method for gastric cancer

A

Surgery

88
Q

Stage of gastric cancer limited to the inside of the lining of the stomach. Since the tumor is small, it can be removed via endoscopy.

A

Stage 1

89
Q

Procedure where only the part of the stomach having the cancer is removed.

A

Subtotal gastrectomy

90
Q

In stage 3 or 4 gastric cancer, it may be necessary to undergo this procedure and connect the _____ to the ______.

A

Total gastrectomy; esophagus; small intestine

91
Q

Before or following surgical intervention for gastric cancer, ______ may be used to shrink the tumor or kill any remaining malignant cells respectively.

A

Radiation

92
Q

After surgical resection of the stomach: review MNT

A

Small meals and snacks with fluids in between meals
Foods that are nutrient/energy/protein-dense
Manage symptoms of dumping syndrome (avoid concentrated carbohydrates, alcohol, and carbonated beverages)
MVI daily (to correct anemia/malabsorption issues plus supplementation specially with selenium, vit E, and beta-carotene has been shown to decrease mortality)

93
Q

Prior to surgical resection of the stomach, what should be considered to help optimize nutrition status post-op?

A

J-tube placement

94
Q

Cancer: HCC stands for:

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

95
Q

Alcohol abuse and Hep B/C causes chronic inflammation of the ______, increasing the risk of this type of cancer.

A

Liver, HCC

96
Q

Patients with HCC may have problems with significant abdominal fluid retention, a condition known as ______.

A

Ascites

97
Q

Renal cell cancer, Wilm’s tumor, and bladder cancer are all what type of cancer?

A

Urinary tract cancers

98
Q

Blood in the urine and increased frequency of urination are common symptoms of this type of cancer.

A

Renal cell cancer

99
Q

HTN, long-term dialysis, smoking, obesity, and occupational exposure to dyes, rubber, and leather products specifically increase the risk for this type of cancer.

A

Renal cell cancer

100
Q

A highly malignant tumor occurring almost exclusively in children younger than 6 years of age; common treatment includes nephrectomy and chemotherapy.

A

Wilm’s tumor

101
Q

The two main types of lung cancer

A

SCLC (small-cell lung cancer, 15%) and NSCLC (non-small cell lung cancer, 85%)

102
Q

What specific cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related death in the U.S.?

A

NSCLC

103
Q

3 major subtypes of NSCLC

A

Adenocarcinoma (40%), squamous carcinoma (30-35%, slow growing), large-cell carcinoma (5-15%)

104
Q

Type of cancer that accounts for 15% of all lung cancer patients and is more aggressive but usually responds well to specific chemo protocols.

A

SCLC

105
Q

1 cause of lung cancer (accounts for 85% of all cases)

A

Smoking (increases susceptibility by 25 times)

106
Q

Lung cancer’s 5-year survival rate is only … ___ %

A

15

107
Q

Cancer cells of the lung often spread to these four areas…

A

Brain, bone, skin, liver

108
Q

Toxicity is far less when docetaxel is taken with these two supplements:

A

Vitamin B12 & folate

109
Q

An infection of the common bile duct, the tube that carries bile from the liver to the gallbladder and intestines

A

Cholangitis

110
Q

Nearly all pancreatic cancers are primary or secondary?

A

Primary

111
Q

About 50-70% of pts with pancreatic cancer have it in the ____ region of the pancreas while about 50% have it in the ______ and ______ regions.

A

head; body and tail

112
Q

Development of this cancer progresses over many years and common symptoms include: cholangitis, nausea, anorexia, weight loss, new-onset diabetes, light-colored stools, dark urine, steatorrhea, jaundice & pruritus (itching)

A

Pancreatic cancer

113
Q

Thrombophlebitis (spontaneous blood clots in the portal blood vessels) may be associated with this type of cancer and is called…

A

Pancreatic cancer; the Trousseau sign

114
Q

A diet high in ________ may mitigate pancreatic precancer by inhibition of cellular proliferation through induction of cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. However, the Academy does not recommend routine use of it in supplement form.

A

Omega-3 fatty acids

115
Q

When pancreatic cancer has spread to the liver, common mode of treatment is ________.

A

Chemotherapy

116
Q

The Whipple procedure often involves the surgical removal of:

A

The duodenum, the head of the pancreas, the gallbladder, and the spleen; it may also include the pylorus part of the stomach

117
Q

After the Whipple procedure, the diet can be liberalized after __ -__ days, adding one new food at time

A

10-14

118
Q

For pancreatic insufficiency: name 4 minerals that may become deficient unless supplemented … and what vitamins?

A

Calcium, zinc, selenium, and iron; ADEK (fat-soluble vitamins)

119
Q

After the Whipple’s procedure: what kind of diet should be followed?

A

1) low fat (40-50g/day)
2) low lactose
3) omit fried foods; nut and seeds
4) small, frequent meals
5) avoid simple sugars/CCD to help manage hyperglycemia

120
Q

Usual chemotherapy drug for pancreatic cancer is:

A

Gemcitabine

121
Q

Pancrelipase and pancreatin are _________ used for _________ and should not be used if the patient has a _____ allergy (food).

A

Pancreatic enzymes, pancreatic insufficiency, pork

122
Q

The most common cancer in the US

A

Skin cancer

123
Q

Name the 3 types of skin cancers.

A

Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma

124
Q

Excessive UVB light exposure in childhood promotes the development of what particular type of skin cancer?

A

Melonomas

125
Q

This particular skin cancer starts as a small, shiny, firm nodule that enlarges slowly, bleeds and scabs, then heals and repeats; originates in the deepest layer of the epidermis

A

Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)

126
Q

This particular skin cancer originates in the middle layer of the epidermis and begins as a reddened area with a scaly, crusted surface that does not heal.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

127
Q

The deadliest form of skin cancer and originates in the melanocytes (cells that make melanin in the deepest layer of the epidermis). Most begin as black or brown.

A

Melanoma

128
Q

Early warning signs of ______ are identified by this acronym: ABCDE which stands for _____.

A

Melanoma; Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolving

129
Q

Type of breast cancer characterized by breast cancer cells having a high proportion of estrogen receptors in the nucleus

A

ER-positive breast cancer

130
Q

Early exposure in early childhood/adolescence to phytoestrogens may be protective of _______.

A

Breast cancer

131
Q 
Stages of breast cancer: 
Stage 0: 
Stage 1:
Stage 2:
Stage 3:
Stage 4:
A

0: in situ; limited to lining or duct; has not spread to surrounding fatty tissue
1: spread to surrounding fatty tissue but not to lymph nodes
2: spread to lymph nodes
3: spread extensively into the axillary (underarm) lymph nodes
4: highly metastasizing to other parts of the body

132
Q

_________ is a highly malignant neoplasm of the placenta with a secretion of hCG which stands for:

A

Choriocarcinoma; human chorionic gonadotropin

133
Q

Define a molar pregnancy.

A

Instead of a fetus developing during pregnancy, a tumor develops instead.

134
Q

Choriocarcinoma can develop in molar pregnancies, miscarriages, or full term deliveries as well as in men, presenting as a _______ neoplasm.

A

testicular

135
Q

This enzyme is found in all choriocarcinomas.

A

Fatty acid synthase

136
Q 
Prostate cancer stages
Stage 1:
Stage 2: 
Stage 3:
Stage 4:
A

1: cancer located only in the prostate
2: locally-advanced cancer (larger) still within prostate
3: cancer has spread to outside the prostate but not to the lymph nodes
4: cancer has spread to lymph nodes/other regions of the body

137
Q

Name the term: Internal radiation therapy in which small radioactive pellets are inserted or transplanted into the prostate gland

A

Brachytherapy

138
Q

Red fruits/vegetables like grapes and red wine contain this antioxidant.

A

Resveratrol

139
Q

Red/pink fruits/vegetables like tomatoes, pink grapefruit and watermelon contain this antioxidant.

A

Lycopene

140
Q

Red/purple fruits/vegetables like pomegranates, grapes, plums, and berries contain this antioxidant.

A

Anthocyanins

141
Q

Orange fruits/vegetables like carrots, mangoes, apricots, cantaloupes, pumpkin, and sweet potato contain this antioxidant.

A

Alpha and beta carotenes

142
Q

Orange/yellow fruits/vegetables like oranges, peaches, papaya, and nectarines contain this antioxidant.

A

Beta-cryptoxanthin

143
Q

Yellow/green fruits/vegetables like spinach, collard greens, yellow corn, green peas, avocado and honeydew contain these antioxidants.

A

Lutein and zeaxanthin

144
Q

Green fruits/vegetables like broccoli, Brussels sprouts, cabbage, bok coy and kale contain these antioxidants.

A

Sulforaphane, isothiocyantes, indoles

145
Q

White/green fruits/vegetables like garlic, onion, asparagus, leeks, shallots, and chives contain this antioxidant.

A

Allyl sulfides

146
Q

Cancer that involves the uncontrolled proliferation of leukocytes and their precursors in blood-forming organs, with infiltration into other organs. The blood has a grayish-white appearance.

A

Leukemia

147
Q

This type of leukemia progresses rapidly, with an accumulation of immature, fractionless cells in the marrow and blood so that the bone marrow stops producing enough normal red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets and anemia develops.

A

Acute leukemia

148
Q

This type of leukemia progresses slowly.

A

Chronic leukemia

149
Q

The most common childhood cancer.

A

Leukemia

150
Q

ALL stands for what type of cancer? Obesity is a well-known problem with children with this. It accounts for ___ percent of all childhood leukemias.

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia; 50%

151
Q

Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-1) and insulin act to promote cell proliferation (associated with high birth weight) and inhibit cell apoptosis, increasing risk of this type of cancer.

A

Childhood leukemia

152
Q

Limiting exposure to cured/smoked meats/fish, nitrites, and nitrosamines can decrease the risk of childhood/adolescent _______.

A

Leukemia

153
Q

Primary treatment of leukemia is ________ to kill attacking abnormal RBCs.

A

Chemotherapy

154
Q

Stages of medical treatment of acute leukemia:
Stage 1 called _______ : destroy as many cancer cells as quickly as possible to bring about a remission
Stage 2 called _______: the goal is to get rid of leukemia cells where they reside
Stage 3 called _______: lower doses of chemotherapy are given over __ years

A

Induction; Consolidation; Maintenance; 2

155
Q

ALL affects ____ and _____. It often spreads to _____ and _____.

A

Bone marrow and lymph nodes; the covering of the brain and spinal cord

156
Q

AML stands for? It starts in the ______ but moves into the blood and to the lymph nodes, liver, spleen, central nervous system, and testes. It consists of the proliferation of myeloblasts , which are immature polynuclear _______.

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia; bone marrow; leukocytes

157
Q

CLL stands for? It involves the crowding out of normal leukocytes in the ______, interfering with the body’s ability to produce other blood cells. It is common more in adults or children? It is more or less common than CML?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia; lymph glands; adults; more (twice)

158
Q

CML stands for? It mainly affects children or adults?

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia; adults

159
Q

T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia (T-PLL) is characterized by overproduction of ________ in the _______. It is ____ common than other types and is _____ to treat and does not respond well to _________.

A

WBCs; bone marrow; less; difficult; chemotherapy

160
Q

Name two types of lymphoma. Which one is more common?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL); NHL

161
Q

Treatment of HL involves ______ and _______ and the survival rate is _____ (high/low).

A

Radiation and chemotherapy; high

162
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with a prior infection with ________.

A

the Epstein-Barr virus

163
Q

The distinction between Hodgkin’s disease and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is made upon examination of the cancerous material (from a biopsy or aspiration of the tumor tissue). The type of _______ identified in the sample determines whether a lymphoma is classified as Hodgkin’s disease or non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

abnormal cells

164
Q

This type of cancer is a rare form of high-grade, T-cell NHL of the upper small intestine. It is specifically associated with this disease.

A

Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL)

165
Q

Most common type of treatment for NHL

A

Radiation

166
Q

Multiple myeloma is a malignant cancer in which ________ proliferate and invade bone marrow.

A

Plasma cells

Oncology Nutrition (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions