NURSING MANAGEMENT Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 T’s in postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Tone, Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin.

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2
Q

What does ‘Tone’ refer to in postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Uterine atony or failure of the uterus to contract.

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3
Q

What are examples of ‘Trauma’ in postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Lacerations or uterine rupture.

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4
Q

What is ‘Tissue’ in the context of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Retained placental fragments or membranes.

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5
Q

What does ‘Thrombin’ signify in postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Coagulopathies or clotting disorders.

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6
Q

What are first-line management steps for postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Fundal massage, IV fluids, uterotonics (e.g., oxytocin, misoprostol).

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7
Q

What are uterotonics used in postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Oxytocin, misoprostol, methylergonovine, carboprost.

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8
Q

What is premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?

A

Rupture of membranes before the onset of labor.

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9
Q

What is the management for PROM at term?

A

Induction of labor if no contractions within 24 hours.

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10
Q

What is preterm PROM (PPROM)?

A

Rupture of membranes before 37 weeks gestation.

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11
Q

What is the major risk associated with PROM?

A

Chorioamnionitis and neonatal infection.

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12
Q

What antibiotics are used to manage PROM with infection?

A

Ampicillin and gentamicin.

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13
Q

What is the key diagnostic test for PROM?

A

Nitrazine test or fern test.

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14
Q

What blood pressure level defines gestational hypertension?

A

≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks without proteinuria.

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15
Q

What is the primary management of gestational hypertension?

A

Monitoring, antihypertensives, and close follow-up.

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16
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

Seizures in a patient with preeclampsia.

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17
Q

What is the first step in managing an eclamptic seizure?

A

Administer magnesium sulfate to control seizures.

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18
Q

What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?

A

Calcium gluconate.

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19
Q

What are the key symptoms of preeclampsia?

A

Hypertension, proteinuria, edema, headache, and visual changes.

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20
Q

What blood sugar level defines gestational diabetes during an oral glucose tolerance test?

A

≥180 mg/dL at 1 hour or ≥140 mg/dL at 3 hours.

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21
Q

What is the first-line treatment for gestational diabetes?

A

Dietary modifications and exercise.

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22
Q

What medication is used if blood sugar is uncontrolled in gestational diabetes?

A

Insulin or metformin.

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23
Q

What is respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in neonates?

A

Lung immaturity causing insufficient surfactant production.

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24
Q

What is the first-line management for neonatal RDS?

A

Administer exogenous surfactant and provide respiratory support.

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25
Q

What maternal condition increases the risk of neonatal RDS?

A

Preterm delivery before 34 weeks.

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26
Q

What is mastitis?

A

Infection of breast tissue commonly during breastfeeding.

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27
Q

What are the symptoms of mastitis?

A

Breast pain, redness, warmth, and fever.

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28
Q

What is the treatment for mastitis?

A

Antibiotics (e.g., dicloxacillin) and continued breastfeeding.

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29
Q

What is the most common cause of mastitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus infection.

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30
Q

What is postpartum thrombosis?

A

Blood clots forming in veins post-delivery, often in the legs or lungs.

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31
Q

What are risk factors for postpartum thrombosis?

A

Cesarean delivery, obesity, immobility, thrombophilia.

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32
Q

What is the management of postpartum thrombosis?

A

Anticoagulation therapy, such as low-molecular-weight heparin.

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33
Q

What are placental abnormalities?

A

Conditions like placenta previa, placenta accreta, or placental abruption.

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34
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Placenta covering the cervical os partially or completely.

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35
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Abnormal attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall.

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36
Q

What is placental abruption?

A

Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.

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37
Q

What is the primary symptom of placental abruption?

A

Painful vaginal bleeding during pregnancy.

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38
Q

What is the treatment for severe placental abruption?

A

Emergency cesarean delivery and stabilization of the mother.

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39
Q

What is Rh incompatibility?

A

When an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.

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40
Q

What is the prevention for Rh incompatibility?

A

Administration of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM).

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41
Q

When is RhoGAM given during pregnancy?

A

At 28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery if the baby is Rh-positive.

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42
Q

What complications arise from untreated Rh incompatibility?

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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43
Q

What is the first step in assessing postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Evaluate the uterine tone and inspect for lacerations.

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44
Q

What is the main diagnostic test for gestational diabetes?

A

Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).

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45
Q

What are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity?

A

Hyporeflexia, respiratory depression, and lethargy.

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46
Q

What is the management for preeclampsia with severe features?

A

Delivery of the baby, magnesium sulfate, and antihypertensives.

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47
Q

What is the role of corticosteroids in preterm PROM?

A

Accelerating fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks.

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48
Q

What antihypertensives are safe in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol, nifedipine, and methyldopa.

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49
Q

What is the key lab test to diagnose mastitis?

A

Breast milk culture to identify causative bacteria.

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50
Q

How is placental abruption confirmed?

A

Ultrasound and clinical presentation.

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51
Q

Which medication is the first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Oxytocin (Pitocin).

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52
Q

What is the priority nursing action for uterine atony in postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Perform fundal massage to stimulate contractions.

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53
Q

What is the expected finding on a Nitrazine test for PROM?

A

Blue color indicating alkaline amniotic fluid.

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54
Q

What is the nurse’s priority assessment for a patient with PROM?

A

Signs of infection such as fever

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55
Q

What complication should a nurse monitor for in a patient with gestational hypertension?

A

Progression to preeclampsia or eclampsia.

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56
Q

Which lab value is most concerning in a patient with preeclampsia?

A

Platelet count <100

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57
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for an eclamptic seizure?

A

Maintain airway patency and administer magnesium sulfate.

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58
Q

Which vital sign should be closely monitored when administering magnesium sulfate?

A

Respiratory rate (risk of respiratory depression).

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59
Q

What is the therapeutic magnesium level for a patient on magnesium sulfate?

A

4-7 mEq/L.

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60
Q

What is the most important teaching point for a patient with gestational diabetes?

A

Monitor blood glucose levels and follow a diabetic diet.

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61
Q

Which complication is most associated with poorly controlled gestational diabetes?

A

Macrosomia (large for gestational age baby).

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62
Q

What is the nurse’s role during a fetal kick count test?

A

Instruct the patient to count at least 10 movements in 2 hours.

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63
Q

What is the primary concern for a neonate born at 28 weeks gestation?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) due to surfactant deficiency.

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64
Q

What intervention is critical for a neonate with RDS?

A

Administering surfactant therapy and providing ventilatory support.

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65
Q

What is the nursing action for a breastfeeding mother with mastitis?

A

Encourage continued breastfeeding to empty the breast.

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66
Q

What is the appropriate antibiotic for treating mastitis?

A

Dicloxacillin or cephalexin.

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67
Q

What is the priority nursing action for a postpartum patient with a suspected DVT?

A

Maintain bed rest and elevate the affected limb.

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68
Q

What is the most important teaching for a postpartum patient on anticoagulants?

A

Avoid activities that increase the risk of bleeding.

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69
Q

What is a critical nursing intervention for placenta previa?

A

Monitor for signs of bleeding and avoid vaginal exams.

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70
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for placental abruption?

A

Ensure maternal and fetal oxygenation and prepare for delivery.

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71
Q

What is the main complication of untreated Rh incompatibility?

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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72
Q

When should the nurse administer RhoGAM postpartum?

A

Within 72 hours of delivery if the infant is Rh-positive.

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73
Q

What is a key sign of placental abruption?

A

Sudden onset of painful vaginal bleeding.

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74
Q

What is the best initial intervention for hypertension during pregnancy?

A

Lifestyle modifications and monitoring.

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75
Q

What is the priority nursing action during a hypertensive crisis in pregnancy?

A

Administer IV antihypertensives such as hydralazine or labetalol.

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76
Q

What is the purpose of betamethasone in preterm labor?

A

To enhance fetal lung maturity.

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77
Q

Which lab test is used to confirm preeclampsia?

A

Urinalysis for proteinuria.

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78
Q

What is the primary assessment in a patient receiving magnesium sulfate?

A

Deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) to monitor for toxicity.

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79
Q

What is the nurse’s priority for a patient with a blood sugar of 50 mg/dL during pregnancy?

A

Provide a fast-acting carbohydrate and reassess glucose.

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80
Q

What fetal complication is associated with gestational diabetes?

A

Neonatal hypoglycemia after birth.

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81
Q

What is the nurse’s role in managing PROM before 34 weeks?

A

Monitor for infection

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82
Q

What is the key sign of uterine inversion?

A

Profuse vaginal bleeding and a visible uterine mass.

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83
Q

What is the nursing intervention for uterine inversion?

A

Manual replacement by the provider and administration of uterotonics after repositioning.

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84
Q

What condition is a contraindication for methylergonovine (Methergine)?

A

Hypertension due to the risk of a hypertensive crisis.

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85
Q

What is the nursing action if the fundus is boggy despite massage and medications?

A

Assess for retained placental fragments and prepare for possible manual removal.

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86
Q

What is the first step in neonatal resuscitation for RDS?

A

Provide positive pressure ventilation (PPV).

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87
Q

What is the most common cause of mastitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus infecti

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88
Q

What is the primary nursing management for puerperal infection?

A

Administer prescribed antibiotics and monitor vital signs regularly.

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89
Q

What symptom is most indicative of a puerperal infection?

A

A fever of 100.4°F (38°C) or higher on two separate occasions within the first 10 postpartum days.

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90
Q

What nursing intervention is essential for preventing puerperal infection?

A

Encourage proper perineal hygiene and handwashing.

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91
Q

What is a key complication of cesarean section (CS) to monitor for postoperatively?

A

Infection at the incision site or endometritis.

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92
Q

What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient post-CS to prevent deep vein thrombosis?

A

Encourage early ambulation and use of compression stockings.

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93
Q

What should the nurse assess for in a patient recovering from a vacuum-assisted delivery?

A

Monitor for perineal trauma or hematoma formation.

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94
Q

What newborn complication is associated with vacuum-assisted delivery?

A

Cephalohematoma or scalp bruising.

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95
Q

What is the primary indication for forceps-assisted delivery?

A

Prolonged second stage of labor with fetal distress.

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96
Q

What complication should the nurse monitor for after a forceps delivery?

A

Maternal perineal lacerations or hematoma.

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97
Q

What is the primary type of miscarriage associated with cervical dilation and passage of some fetal tissue?

A

Incomplete miscarriage.

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98
Q

Which type of miscarriage involves no fetal tissue passage and a closed cervical os?

A

Missed miscarriage.

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99
Q

What is the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating miscarriage?

A

Ultrasound to assess fetal viability and products of conception.

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100
Q

What are two primary causes of infertility in women?

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and endometriosis.

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101
Q

What is the first-line treatment for male infertility caused by low sperm count?

A

Lifestyle changes and possible hormonal therapy.

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102
Q

What type of abortion is associated with cramping and bleeding but a closed cervix?

A

Threatened abortion.

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103
Q

What is the key nursing intervention after a surgical abortion?

A

Monitor for signs of excessive bleeding or infection.

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104
Q

What complication should the nurse monitor for in a patient undergoing medical abortion?

A

Incomplete abortion or heavy bleeding.

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105
Q

What type of IV fluid is typically used to replace blood loss during labor and delivery?

A

Lactated Ringer’s solution or normal saline.

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106
Q

What is a priority nursing assessment during IV therapy?

A

Monitor for signs of infiltration, phlebitis, or fluid overload.

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107
Q

What is the appropriate nursing action for a suspected IV infiltration?

A

Stop the infusion and remove the IV catheter.

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108
Q

What is the first nursing action if a patient develops chills and fever during IV therapy?

A

Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

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109
Q

What complication can result from rapid IV infusion of fluids in postpartum women?

A

Pulmonary edema or fluid overload.

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110
Q

What is a priority assessment for a patient receiving IV antibiotics postpartum?

A

Monitor for allergic reactions or anaphylaxis.

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111
Q

What is the purpose of Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) postpartum?

A

To prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive infants.

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112
Q

What nursing assessment is critical after a vacuum delivery?

A

Assess the newborn’s head for cephalohematoma or scalp injuries.

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113
Q

What is the typical indication for vacuum or forceps delivery?

A

Prolonged second stage of labor or maternal exhaustion.

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114
Q

What complication can arise from prolonged use of vacuum or forceps during delivery?

A

Maternal or fetal trauma.

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115
Q

What are key nursing interventions after a cesarean section?

A

Monitor incision site, manage pain, and encourage ambulation.

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116
Q

What is the most common maternal complication after cesarean delivery?

A

Endometritis or surgical site infection.

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117
Q

What are signs of puerperal infection that require immediate nursing intervention?

A

High fever, foul-smelling lochia, or abdominal tenderness.

118
Q

What is the key nursing action for a patient with suspected puerperal infection?

A

Obtain blood cultures and administer prescribed antibiotics.

119
Q

What is the primary focus of nursing care for a patient with infertility?

A

Provide emotional support and educate about diagnostic and treatment options.

120
Q

What is the primary nursing goal after a first-trimester miscarriage?

A

Prevent infection and provide emotional support.

121
Q

What is the recommended position for a patient receiving a vacuum-assisted delivery?

A

Lithotomy position with adequate support.

122
Q

What is the primary nursing action during forceps-assisted delivery?

A

Assist the healthcare provider and monitor fetal heart rate continuously.

123
Q

What nursing care is essential after a forceps delivery?

A

Monitor the mother for perineal tears and urinary retention.

124
Q

What should the nurse teach a patient about preventing infection after a cesarean section?

A

Keep the incision clean and dry, and report any redness or discharge.

125
Q

What is a nursing priority for managing recurrent miscarriage?

A

Support emotional well-being and coordinate diagnostic testing.

126
Q

What is the recommended nursing intervention for a patient with an incomplete miscarriage?

A

Prepare the patient for dilation and curettage (D&C) if indicated.

127
Q

What are the signs of an inevitable miscarriage?

A

Cervical dilation and uterine contractions without passage of tissue.

128
Q

What complication is associated with retained products of conception after miscarriage?

A

Infection or heavy bleeding.

129
Q

What is the priority nursing action for postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Initiate IV fluids and notify the healthcare provider.

130
Q

What is the purpose of administering oxytocin postpartum?

A

To promote uterine contractions and prevent hemorrhage.

131
Q

What is the most common maternal risk factor for puerperal infection?

A

Prolonged labor or rupture of membranes.

132
Q

What nursing care is essential for a patient undergoing IVF therapy for infertility?

A

Monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) and provide emotional support.

133
Q

What complication should be monitored for after an abortion procedure?

A

Heavy bleeding, infection, or retained products of conception.

134
Q

What is the primary nursing intervention for a postpartum patient with signs of thrombophlebitis?

A

Encourage bed rest and elevate the affected leg.

135
Q

What nursing assessment is critical after administration of Rh immunoglobulin?

A

Verify correct dosage and ensure administration within 72 hours postpartum.

136
Q

What is the primary goal of nursing management for puerperal infection?

A

Prevent complications like sepsis and support maternal recovery.

137
Q

What is a common sign of uterine atony postpartum?

A

Boggy uterus with excessive vaginal bleeding.

138
Q

What is a nursing priority for a patient with postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Massage the fundus and administer uterotonic agents as prescribed.

139
Q

What is the nursing management for mastitis in breastfeeding mothers?

A

Encourage frequent breastfeeding

140
Q

What is the recommended nursing action for a patient reporting severe abdominal pain after a vacuum delivery?

A

Assess for uterine rupture or internal trauma.

141
Q

What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia?

A

Prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular irritability.

142
Q

What are signs of magnesium toxicity to monitor for during IV therapy?

A

Decreased reflexes

143
Q

What is the nursing intervention for a postpartum patient with a retained placenta?

A

Prepare for manual removal or surgical intervention.

144
Q

What is the key nursing intervention for fetal bradycardia during vacuum delivery?

A

Reposition the mother and administer oxygen as needed.

145
Q

What is the most common fetal injury during vacuum-assisted delivery?

A

Scalp lacerations or cephalohematoma.

146
Q

What is the purpose of a nonstress test (NST) during pregnancy?

A

To assess fetal well-being by monitoring heart rate patterns.

147
Q

What type of miscarriage involves heavy bleeding

148
Q

What nursing intervention is critical for preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after cesarean delivery?

A

Encourage early ambulation and use sequential compression devices (SCDs).

149
Q

What is the most important nursing action for a postpartum patient with endometritis?

A

Administer prescribed antibiotics and monitor for signs of sepsis.

150
Q

What should the nurse assess in a patient after forceps-assisted delivery?

A

Assess for urinary retention and perineal lacerations.

151
Q

What is the recommended care for a patient with recurrent pregnancy loss?

A

Perform diagnostic tests to identify underlying causes and provide emotional support.

152
Q

What is a common side effect of oxytocin administration during labor?

A

Uterine hyperstimulation leading to fetal distress.

153
Q

What is the most common maternal complication of cesarean delivery?

A

Infection at the incision site or endometritis.

154
Q

What nursing action is essential during an amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes)?

A

Monitor fetal heart rate immediately after the procedure.

155
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing postpartum depression?

A

Provide emotional support and refer to mental health resources if needed.

156
Q

What is the primary indication for a D&C after miscarriage?

A

Incomplete miscarriage with retained products of conception.

157
Q

What is the nursing priority for a postpartum patient with a temperature of 101°F?

A

Assess for signs of infection and notify the healthcare provider.

158
Q

What are signs of fetal distress during vacuum or forceps delivery?

A

Prolonged bradycardia or late decelerations on the fetal heart monitor.

159
Q

What should the nurse do if the newborn has bruising or swelling on the scalp after vacuum delivery?

A

Document findings and monitor for signs of jaundice.

160
Q

What is a contraindication for vacuum-assisted delivery?

A

Fetal head not fully engaged or unknown fetal position.

161
Q

What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient with postpartum urinary retention?

A

Encourage voiding and consider catheterization if needed.

162
Q

What nursing intervention reduces the risk of infection after a cesarean section?

A

Maintain aseptic technique during dressing changes.

163
Q

What is the nursing care for a postpartum patient with suspected retained placental fragments?

A

Monitor for bleeding and prepare for possible D&C.

164
Q

What is a key nursing intervention for infertility treatments?

A

Provide accurate information and emotional support throughout the process.

165
Q

What should the nurse monitor for after administering methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Signs of abdominal pain

166
Q

What is the primary purpose of an ultrasound in early pregnancy?

A

Confirm gestational age and rule out ectopic pregnancy.

167
Q

What are common side effects of hormonal treatments for infertility?

A

Weight gain

168
Q

What is a nursing priority for a patient experiencing heavy bleeding post-abortion?

A

Monitor vital signs and prepare for fluid resuscitation if needed.

169
Q

What is the most common type of miscarriage in the first trimester?

A

Spontaneous miscarriage due to chromosomal abnormalities.

170
Q

What nursing intervention can help prevent infection after an abortion?

A

Educate on proper hygiene and signs of complications.

171
Q

What is the nursing priority for a patient with an incomplete abortion?

A

Monitor for excessive bleeding and prepare for surgical intervention.

172
Q

What is the purpose of administering RhoGAM to Rh-negative mothers?

A

Prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies.

173
Q

What is the priority nursing care for a patient with severe preeclampsia?

A

Monitor blood pressure

174
Q

What is the recommended care for a patient with mastitis?

A

Encourage continued breastfeeding and apply warm compresses.

175
Q

What is a major maternal complication of forceps delivery?

A

Injury to the pelvic floor or perineum.

176
Q

What nursing care should be provided to a patient with a hematoma after forceps delivery?

A

Monitor size and provide pain management or surgical intervention if needed.

177
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for postpartum infection?

A

Obtain cultures and start prescribed antibiotics.

178
Q

What is the primary nursing assessment for IV therapy in postpartum patients?

A

Monitor for signs of fluid overload or phlebitis.

179
Q

What is the purpose of administering terbutaline in obstetrics?

A

To delay preterm labor by relaxing the uterus.

180
Q

What are signs of endometritis in the postpartum period?

A

Foul-smelling lochia

181
Q

What is the nursing management for postpartum urinary incontinence?

A

Encourage pelvic floor exercises and monitor for urinary retention.

182
Q

What complication can occur with rapid IV infusion of oxytocin postpartum?

A

Water intoxication or hyponatremia.

183
Q

What is a nursing priority for a patient receiving IV antibiotics postpartum?

A

Monitor for allergic reactions and ensure timely administration.

184
Q

What is the most appropriate vein to select for IV therapy in an adult patient?

A

The cephalic or basilic vein in the forearm.

185
Q

What should the nurse do first if an IV site is swollen and cool to the touch?

A

Stop the infusion immediately and assess for infiltration.

186
Q

Which type of IV fluid is considered isotonic?

A

0.9% Normal Saline or Lactated Ringer’s.

187
Q

What is the priority nursing action for a patient exhibiting signs of fluid overload during IV therapy?

A

Slow the IV rate and notify the healthcare provider.

188
Q

What gauge needle is commonly used for blood transfusion?

A

18-20 gauge.

189
Q

What is the recommended infusion time for one unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs)?

A

2-4 hours.

190
Q

What should the nurse do if a patient develops a fever and chills during a blood transfusion?

A

Stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider.

191
Q

What is the purpose of priming the IV line with normal saline before a blood transfusion?

A

To prevent hemolysis and ensure compatibility.

192
Q

How often should IV tubing for continuous infusion be changed?

A

Every 72-96 hours according to hospital policy.

193
Q

What is the first step in troubleshooting an IV pump alarm?

A

Check the IV site and tubing for kinks or obstructions.

194
Q

What is a common sign of phlebitis at an IV site?

195
Q

What laboratory value is most important to monitor during blood transfusion therapy?

A

Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

196
Q

What is the maximum time a peripheral IV catheter should remain in place before replacement?

A

72-96 hours.

197
Q

What is the appropriate nursing action if a patient has an air embolism during IV therapy?

A

Place the patient in Trendelenburg position on the left side and administer oxygen.

198
Q

Which blood component is given to a patient with a low platelet count?

A

Platelets.

199
Q

What is the first step in starting an IV on a patient?

A

Verify the provider’s order and gather supplies.

200
Q

What is the purpose of using a transparent dressing on an IV site?

A

To allow for visualization of the site while protecting it from contamination.

201
Q

What is the priority nursing action for extravasation of a vesicant medication?

A

Stop the infusion and follow institutional policy for extravasation management.

202
Q

How can the nurse prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs) during IV therapy?

A

Use aseptic technique and perform hand hygiene before accessing the IV site.

203
Q

What complication is indicated by crackles in the lungs and increased jugular vein distention during IV therapy?

A

Fluid overload.

204
Q

What should the nurse assess before administering IV potassium chloride?

A

Urine output and renal function.

205
Q

What is the priority nursing action if blood transfusion reaction is suspected?

A

Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open with normal saline.

206
Q

What is the purpose of a central line over a peripheral IV?

A

To administer large volumes of fluid or medications that are irritating to veins.

207
Q

How should the nurse confirm blood product compatibility before transfusion?

A

Check with another licensed healthcare professional.

208
Q

What is a key nursing action during TPN (total parenteral nutrition) infusion?

A

Monitor blood glucose levels regularly.

209
Q

What is a common sign of catheter embolism during IV therapy?

A

Sudden chest pain or dyspnea.

210
Q

What is the purpose of using an IV filter during blood transfusions?

A

To remove clots and debris from the blood product.

211
Q

What nursing action reduces the risk of air embolism when discontinuing a central line?

A

Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver.

212
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for an IV site with purulent drainage?

A

Remove the IV catheter and obtain a culture of the drainage.

213
Q

What is the most accurate method to calculate IV drip rates manually?

A

Use the formula: [(Volume to be infused × Drop factor) ÷ Time in minutes].

214
Q

What is the best way to assess patency of a saline lock?

A

Flush with normal saline and check for resistance.

215
Q

Which solution is contraindicated with blood transfusions?

A

Dextrose-containing solutions.

216
Q

What is a major complication of rapid IV fluid administration?

A

Pulmonary edema.

217
Q

What is the correct way to discontinue an IV line?

A

Clamp the tubing

218
Q

What should the nurse do if a patient complains of burning during IV potassium infusion?

A

Slow the infusion rate and assess the IV site.

219
Q

What complication should the nurse monitor for during albumin administration?

A

Fluid overload and pulmonary edema.

220
Q

What is the nurse’s role during blood transfusion?

A

Monitor vital signs and assess for signs of reaction.

221
Q

What is the appropriate IV fluid for a patient with severe dehydration?

A

Lactated Ringer’s or 0.9% Normal Saline.

222
Q

What is the nurse’s first action when setting up an IV pump?

A

Prime the tubing to remove air bubbles.

223
Q

What should the nurse do if an IV catheter breaks during removal?

A

Apply a tourniquet above the site and notify the provider immediately.

224
Q

What is the correct angle to insert an IV catheter?

A

15-30 degrees.

225
Q

What is the primary indication for administering fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A

To correct clotting factor deficiencies.

226
Q

What type of tubing is required for blood transfusions?

A

Tubing with a filter.

227
Q

How often should the nurse monitor a patient during a blood transfusion?

A

At least every 15 minutes during the first hour.

228
Q

What is the first step in verifying a blood transfusion order?

A

Check the order against the patient’s ID and blood product.

229
Q

What is the nursing priority when a patient develops urticaria during a blood transfusion?

A

Stop the transfusion and administer antihistamines as prescribed.

230
Q

What is the recommended action if IV therapy causes pain or swelling at the site?

A

Discontinue the IV and select a new site.

231
Q

Which IV fluid is hypertonic?

A

3% Normal Saline.

232
Q

What is the correct method to flush a central line?

A

Use a 10 mL syringe and push-pause technique.

233
Q

Define infertility.

A

Inability to conceive after 12 months of unprotected intercourse.

234
Q

What is primary infertility?

A

Inability to conceive in a woman who has never been pregnant.

235
Q

What is secondary infertility?

A

Inability to conceive after a previous successful pregnancy.

236
Q

Name one common cause of female infertility.

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

237
Q

What is the most common cause of male infertility?

A

Low sperm count (oligospermia).

238
Q

What is anovulation?

A

Failure of the ovary to release eggs.

239
Q

How does age affect female fertility?

A

Fertility decreases significantly after age 35.

240
Q

Name a diagnostic test for tubal patency.

A

Hysterosalpingography (HSG).

241
Q

What is the role of FSH in fertility?

A

FSH stimulates ovarian follicle growth.

242
Q

What is a semen analysis?

A

A test to assess sperm count

243
Q

Name one condition that may cause male infertility.

A

Varicocele.

244
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

A condition where uterine lining grows outside the uterus.

245
Q

How does obesity affect fertility?

A

Obesity can disrupt hormonal balance and ovulation.

246
Q

What is Clomid (clomiphene citrate) used for?

A

To induce ovulation in women with ovulatory dysfunction.

247
Q

Name one lifestyle change that can improve fertility.

A

Maintaining a healthy weight.

248
Q

What is intrauterine insemination (IUI)?

A

A procedure that places sperm directly into the uterus.

249
Q

What is in vitro fertilization (IVF)?

A

A procedure where eggs are fertilized outside the body and implanted in the uterus.

250
Q

What hormone is tested to confirm ovulation?

A

Progesterone.

251
Q

How does smoking affect fertility?

A

Smoking reduces sperm quality and ovarian reserve.

252
Q

What is the function of LH in fertility?

A

LH triggers ovulation.

253
Q

What is ovarian reserve?

A

A measure of the quantity and quality of a woman’s remaining eggs.

254
Q

What is the role of progesterone in pregnancy?

A

Progesterone prepares the uterine lining for implantation.

255
Q

What is a basal body temperature (BBT) chart?

A

A method to track ovulation by monitoring daily temperature changes.

256
Q

What is the effect of stress on fertility?

A

Stress can disrupt ovulation and sperm production.

257
Q

What is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)?

A

A hormonal disorder that affects ovulation and fertility.

258
Q

What is a follicular study?

A

An ultrasound to monitor the growth of ovarian follicles.

259
Q

What is unexplained infertility?

A

Infertility with no identifiable cause after standard tests.

260
Q

Name one risk factor for infertility.

A

Advanced maternal age.

261
Q

What is the impact of thyroid disorders on fertility?

A

Thyroid imbalances can disrupt menstrual cycles and ovulation.

262
Q

What is a luteal phase defect?

A

A condition where the uterine lining does not develop properly after ovulation.

263
Q

What is hyperprolactinemia?

A

Elevated prolactin levels that can inhibit ovulation.

264
Q

What is the role of AMH (anti-Müllerian hormone) in fertility?

A

AMH levels indicate ovarian reserve.

265
Q

What is azoospermia?

A

The absence of sperm in ejaculate.

266
Q

How does caffeine consumption affect fertility?

A

High caffeine intake can reduce fertility in both men and women.

267
Q

What is sperm motility?

A

The ability of sperm to move efficiently.

268
Q

What is a laparoscopy in infertility diagnosis?

A

A surgical procedure to view and treat pelvic conditions like endometriosis.

269
Q

What is donor sperm?

A

Sperm from a donor used for artificial insemination or IVF.

270
Q

What is ovulation induction?

A

The use of medications to stimulate ovulation.

271
Q

What is the effect of diabetes on fertility?

A

Diabetes can affect sperm quality and ovulation.

272
Q

What is preimplantation genetic testing (PGT)?

A

A test to screen embryos for genetic disorders before implantation.

273
Q

What is the impact of alcohol on fertility?

A

Alcohol can reduce sperm quality and disrupt ovulation.

274
Q

What is the role of GnRH agonists in fertility treatment?

A

They suppress natural hormone cycles to control timing of ovulation.

275
Q

What is testicular sperm extraction (TESE)?

A

A procedure to retrieve sperm directly from the testicle.

276
Q

What is endometrial biopsy?

A

A test to evaluate the uterine lining for implantation readiness.

277
Q

How does pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) affect fertility?

A

PID can cause scarring and blockages in the fallopian tubes.

278
Q

What is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?

A

A complication of fertility treatments causing swollen ovaries and fluid buildup.

279
Q

What is cryopreservation in fertility?

A

Freezing eggs

280
Q

What is the significance of a short luteal phase?

A

It can prevent implantation and lead to infertility.

281
Q

How does anemia affect fertility?

A

Anemia can disrupt ovulation and implantation.

282
Q

What is the purpose of an ovulation predictor kit?

A

To detect the LH surge and predict ovulation.

283
Q

How does cervical mucus change during ovulation?

A

It becomes thin

284
Q

What is the role of hCG in fertility treatments?

A

hCG triggers ovulation and supports early pregnancy.

285
Q

What is the function of the corpus luteum?

A

It produces progesterone after ovulation to maintain the uterine lining.

286
Q

What is the effect of chemotherapy on fertility?

A

Chemotherapy can damage eggs

287
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome and its impact on fertility?

A

A genetic condition in males causing low testosterone and infertility.

288
Q

How does excessive exercise affect fertility?

A

It can disrupt ovulation and menstrual cycles.

289
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

A pregnancy implanted outside the uterus

290
Q

What is a common side effect of fertility medications?

A

Multiple pregnancies or ovarian hyperstimulation.

291
Q

What is the role of antioxidants in male fertility?

A

They reduce oxidative stress and improve sperm quality.