Nursing Exam

Question 1

A prescribed drug of 400 mg is to be infused at a rate of 100 ml over 15 minutes. What is the amount that would be infused in an hour.

A. 400 ml
B. 4 ml
C. 250 ml
D. 125 ml

Answer 1

A. 400 ml

Question 2

A resident in an aged care facility frequently apologies for being so much trouble to the staff. Your best response would be to?

A. Talk to them about something else to distract them
B. Listen to them and acknowledge their concerns
C. Contact their family to visit them and keep them company
D. Tell them they don’t need to apologies because they are no trouble.

Answer 2

B. Listen to them and acknowledge their concerns.

Question 3

Ondansetron 2mg has been prescribed for a child who weighs 13.6kg. The safe dose if this drug is 0.15mg/kg. Is 2mg a safe dose?
A. No, a safe dose would be 0.3mg
B. No, a safe dose would be 0.6mg
C. No, a safe dose would be 1.02mg
D. Yes, 2mg is a safe dose

Answer 3

D. Yes, 2mg is a safe dose

Question 4

A patient tells you they do not want to have the prescribed enoxaparin sodium injection. You respond by?

A. Informing them they must have the injection as it has been prescribed
B. Reassuring them that it is prescribed for everyone who has a surgical procedure
C. Saying it is their choice, which you will respect
D. Asking what concerns them about having the injection

Answer 4

D. Asking what concerns them about having the injection

Question 5

A person with asthma arrives at the emergency department and is visibly distressed, coughing and with audible wheeze. Why are they prescribed Salbutamol (beta-adrenergic agonist)?

A. To dilate the airways
B. To reduce secondary infections
C. To decrease postnasal drip
D. To reduce airway inflammation

Answer 5

A. To dilate the airways

Question 6

A child weighs 22.4kg, and the prescription is for 24mg/kg of body weight. The medication comes at the strength of 50mg/ml. How many mL (to one decimal place) of the medication should the child receive?

A. 7.5 mL
B. 8.5 mL
C. 9.8 mL
D. 10.8 mL

Answer 6

D. 10.8 mL

Question 7

A relative arrives at the hospice and is informed their family member has died. They are angry and ask why they were not informed. You should?

A. Acknowledge their distress but indicate that the confidentiality policy prevented sharing information.
B. Acknowledge their feelings and show support for their distress.
C. Suggest they make an appointment to talk to the doctor because they are the most appropriate person to discuss this
D. Listen to them but say that the death was unexpected

Answer 7

B. Acknowledge their feelings and show support for their distress

Question 8

Prior to surgery a patient is to have nothing to eat or drink. This is necessary to?

A. Assist in the proper absorption of the anesthetic
B. Prevent nausea and vomiting immediately after surgery
C. Avoid the danger of inhaling the stomach contents
D. Avoid incontinence during surgery

Answer 8

C. Avoid the danger of inhaling the stomach contents

Question 9

One of your responsibilities when caring for a patient in the post- operative phase is to observe for signs if haemorrhage. The type of shock resulting from haemorrhage is?

A. Hypovolemic
B. Vasogenic
C. Neurogenic
Cardiogenic

Answer 9

A. Hypovolemic

Question 10

A patient is prescribed 250mg of antibiotics in 200 mL if intravenous fluid over 30 minutes. The correct rate in mL per hour to set the infusion device is.

A.100mL per hour
B. 200mL per hour
C. 400mL per hour
D. 500mL per hour

Answer 10

C. 400mL per hour

Question 11

An analgesic medication has been prescribed for a persistent headache. The prescriber has not signed the chart. You should?

A. Double check the analgesic with the nurse manager
B. Contact the prescriber to sign the prescription
C. Give the analgesic, sign for it and inform the nurse manager
D. Phone the prescriber to ensure the prescription is correct and then give it

Answer 11

B. Contact the prescriber to sign the prescription

Question 12

What may a person experience in a hypomanic phase of bipolar mood disorder?

A. Hallucinations, fatigue, anhedonia
B. Social withdrawal, decreased self- esteem, obsessive thoughts
C. Elevated mood, reduced need for sleep, irritability
D. Increased activity, increased need to for sleep, pressured speech

Answer 12

C. Elevated mood, reduced need for sleep, irritability

Question 13

You are visiting a person at their home. A neighbour stops you and askes for information about the person’s condition. Your best response is to?

A. Tell them how the person is, then inform the person you have talked to their neighbour
B. Tell them how the person is, as long as the disclosure is not contrary to the person’s wishes
C. Ask the person to contact their neighbour so they can give them an update
D. Explain that you can’t disclose any information for privacy reasons.

Answer 13

D. Explain that you can’t disclose any information for privacy reasons

Question 14

The best position to assist with gaseous exchange for a person experiencing an asthma attack is?

A. In a supine position
B. Sitting upright
C. Reclining on the left side
D Resting with the chest extended

Answer 14

B. Sitting upright

Question 15

A patient’s intravenous normal saline infusion of 1000mL is to be completed in 8 hours’ time. The drop factor is 15 drops per mL. How many drops per minute (dpm) are required to finish the infusion on time?

A. 11dmp
B. 15dmp
C. 31dpm
D. 35dpm

Answer 15

C. 31dpm

Question 16

Which of these is a legal right of a person admitted under the Mental Health (Compulsory Assessment and Treatment) Act 1992?

A. Right to refuse treatment and care
B. Right to receive information about their status
C. Right to self-discharge against medical advice
D. Right to choose their healthcare provider and clinician

Answer 16

B. Right to receive information about their status

Question 17

While admitting a patient for a surgical procedure, they ask you why they need to be weighed. Your best reply would be:

A. Surgery is not carried out on people above the ideal body weight
B. We need to compare your weight on admission with that on your discharge
C. Some drug doses are calculated according to body weight
D. It is routine for all admissions to this unit

Answer 17

C. Some drug doses are calculated according to body weight

Question 18

A person’s response to surgery is influenced by many factors. When a person is admitted for surgery, you should explore?

A. Their perceptions and expectations for admissions
B. The risk they exposed to during surgery
C. The reason for the surgery instead of more conservative treatment
D. How psychological stress affects their long-term prognosis

Answer 18

A. Their perceptions and expectations for admission

Question 19

A patient experiences major post-operative bleeding. After you ring the bell for help you should?

A. Lay the patient in a prone position
B. Raise the head of the patient’s bed
C. Lower the head of the patient’s bed
D. Ensure the patient’s airway is clear

Answer 19

A. Ensure the patients airway is clear

Question 20

A patient tells you they are worried about their surgery. You can most effectively help to relieve their concerns by?

A. Explaining what will happen before the surgery
B. Explaining how pain will be controlled after the operation
C. Encouraging them to discuss their perceptions of the operation
D. Explaining how post-operative complications can be prevented

Answer 20

C. Encouraging them to discuss their perceptions of the operation

Question 21

While at work you answer a phone call from a person who is very distressed but won’t give you their name. You should?

A. Tell them to ring back whey are less upset
B. Introduce yourself and tell them to talk properly
C. Explain that you need to see them to talk properly
D. Establish a rapport to obtain useful information

Answer 21

D. Establish a rapport to obtain useful information

Question 22

What is 400 mcg in g?

A. 0.004
B. 0.04
C. 0.4
D. 0.0004

Answer 22

D. 0.0004

Question 23

Jack is prescribed Rivotril 8 mg daily. He weighs 68 kg. The initial dose for 2–3 days should not exceed 0.01 mg/kg/day. Your nursing responsibility is to: 8 mg exceeds the initial safe dose limit of 0.68 mg/day, the correct nursing responsibility would be?

A. Observe for any side effects after giving the drug
B. Contact the doctor to reassess the dose prescribed
C. Consider his weight loss and administer the dose prescribed
D. Check with the charge nurse prior to administration

Answer 23

B. Contact the doctor to reassess the dose prescribed

Question 24

Under what circumstances must
permission from the court be sought to treat a minor

A. When the parent or guardian refuses treatment
B. In the case of parental absence, abandonment or incompetence
C. When the minor is seriously injured
D. In the case of parental separation

Answer 24

A. When the parent or guardian refuses treatment

Question 25

A person is admitted to the emergency room with trauma and has an estimated blood loss of 1200 to 1400 mL, has a blood pressure of 110/70mmg and a heart rate of 120 beats minute. The best explanation for these observations would be that?

A. The person’s actual blood loss was less than the originally estimated loss
B. The person was normally hypertensive and hence did not have as great a drop in blood
pressure as a normotensive person
C. The cause of the bleeding is now under control and the increased heart rate is due to anxiety
D. An increase in heart rate is compensating for the loss of blood volume

Answer 25

D. An increase in heart rate is compensating for the loss of blood volume

Question 26

1. Which class of Antipsychotic emerged in the 1960s?

A. Anxiolytic
B. Typical Antipsychotics
C. Atypical Antipsychotics
D. Mood Stabilisers

Answer 26

B. Typical Antipsychotics

Question 27

Which of the following would support a diagnosis of chickenpox

A. Chills, headache, malaise
B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
C. Koplik’s spots, photophobia, fever
D. Sore throat, chills, fever

Answer 27

A. Chills, headache, malaise

Question 28

During the primary assessment of a trauma victim, the nurse determines that Mrs. T has a patent airway. The next assessment the nurse makes includes?

a) The level of consciousness
b) Observation for external bleeding
c) The status of the patient’s respiration
d) The rate and character of carotid or femoral pulse

Answer 28

C. The status of the patient’s respiration

Question 29

The role of the Nursing Council of New Zealand is?

A. To protect the unregulated and regulated health workforce.
B. To regulate doctors to protect public safety.
C. To regulate nursing to protect public safety.
D. To protect the nursing workforce.

Answer 29

C. To regulate nursing to protect the public safety

Question 30

For eight hours following surgery your patient has had an intravenous infusion
running but they are having difficulty passing urine. Your most appropriate action
would be to

A. Offer adequate analgesia so that they are able to use their abdominal muscles.
B. Assist the patient to stand and pass urine.
C. Increase oral fluids to counteract any dehydration.
D. Contact the house surgeon and prepare a tray for catheterisation.

Answer 30

B. Assist the patient to stand and pass urine.

Question 31

To form a basis of trust in your professional relationship with a patient it is essential for you to?

a) show an interest in the patient’s problems.
b) be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient.
c) make a special time each day to meet with the patient.
d) be open to any activity that the patient wishes to be involved in.

Answer 31

b) be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient.

Question 32

A patient’s partner is worried that the patient is not getting enough to eat. They want to feed them. Your most appropriate response is?

a) “I’m sure your partner would appreciate you doing this for them.”
b) “What makes you think they are not getting enough to eat?”
c) “We want to encourage your partner’s independence.”
d) “I will discuss your partner’s dietary needs with the dietician.”

Answer 32

b) What makes you think they are not getting enough to eat?

Question 33

A patient has been prescribed morphine 8 mg 2-3 hourly PRN for pain. Unit stock of morphine is 10 mg in 1 mL. How much morphine should be drawn up for the
patient?
a) 0.08 mL.
b) 0.25 mL
c) 0.75 mL.
d) 0.80 mL.

Answer 33

d) 0.80 mL

Question 34

A patient is given morphine sulfate. What is the most important action?

A. Come back every shift to check IV site
B. Assess patients heart rate
C. Observe patient’s blood pressure
D. Document all medications given and time given in patients notes

Answer 34

C. Observe patient’s blood pressure

Question 35

You have received a handover from the night nurse, what is your priority?
A. Patient who is going for a mega surgery later in the morning
B. post-op patient with oozing wound
C. post-op patient who is transferring to another hospital
D. Patient who had difficulty breathing on the shift before

Answer 35

D. Patient who had difficulty breathing on the shift before

Question 36

A patient has a painful left calf and coughing blood sputum; what signs are these of?

A. Fat embolism
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Cellulitis
D. DVT

Answer 36

B. Pulmonary embolism

Question 37

An EN is working with you. You delegate a task to the EN. What must you do as the RN?

A. Follow up with the EN
B. Ensure task are done satisfactorily
C. Note down the task then check if all tasks have been done
D. Don’t need to check as EN is responsible enough

Answer 37

B. Ensure task are done satisfactorily

Question 38

Michael aged 25 is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in a treatment clinic with moderate lacerations to both wrists. Accompanied with broken glass he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should the nurse approach Michael initially

a) Enter the room quietly and move beside Michael to assess his injuries
b) Call for staff backup before entering the room and restraining Michael
c) Move as much glass away from Michael as possible and quietly sit next to his
d) Approach Michael slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling his name and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

Answer 38

D. Approach Michael slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling his name and telling him that the nurse is here to help him ???

Question 39

What is the first action of the nurse who is about to give an 8-year-old, his pre-medication when she notices crumbs around his mouth

a) Check for any food in his locker
b) Ask him when he last had something to eat
c) Give the pre medication and then report your observation Report your observation before giving the pre medications
d) Report your observations before giving the pre medication

Answer 39

b) Ask him when he last had something to eat

Question 40

Mrs. Adams suffers from dementia and requires a dressing to a shin wound. The nurse suspects the wound is the result of a non-accidental injury. What is the main cause of non-accidental injury in an elderly person suffering from dementia

a) A dependent person being more prone to injury
b) A long-standing pattern of domestic violence
c) The home not being a suitable place for a dependent person
d) The increased stress in caring for a dependent person at home

Answer 40

d) The increased stress in caring for a dependent person at home

Question 41

During the last days of life, vitals sign monitoring should be:

A) Discontinued
B) prescribed by a medical officer
C) Continued at 4 hourly intervals
D) Discuss with the patient’s family?

Answer 41

D) Discuss with the patient’s family

Question 42

A patient who is under the MHA with mania is disruptive and starting to annoy other patients. What is your best response?

A) Leave them in a room alone
B) Tell them this was unacceptable and set boundaries
C) Get them to express how they are feeling
D) Give PRN medication.

Answer 42

C) Get them to express how they are feeling

Question 43

What is an advance directive?

A. A legal document that states what the patient wants in care when they cognitively decline
B. A document detailing emergency contact information
C. A plan for diet and exercises
D. A legal document for financial planning

Answer 43

A. A legal document that states what the patient wants in care when they cognitively decline

Question 44

What does DNR mean?

A. No comfort cares
B. Do not actively resuscitate
C. Do not refer
D. Do not relocate

Answer 44

B. Do not actively resuscitate

Question 45

A student nurse is told to conduct oral care on a dementia patient but declines. What do you do?

A. The patient has the right to refuse
B. Go back and offer when they feel more comfortable
C. Force the patient to accept care
D. Ignore the refusal and proceed

Answer 45

B. Go back and offer when they feel more comfortable

Question 46

What is an early warning sign of increased ICP (Intracranial Pressure)

A. Loss of consciousness
B. Severe headache
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Dilated pupils

Question 47

What are the signs and symptoms of hypoxia?

A. Cyanosis, confusion, shortness of breath
B. High blood pressure, dry skin, fever
C. Vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain
D. Excessive sweating, rapid pulse, headache

Answer 47

A. Cyanosis, confusion, shortness of breath

Question 48

Exacerbation of COPD: What signs and symptoms should you expect?

A. Increased breathlessness, wheezing, chest tightness
B. Fever, chills, cough with phlegm
C. Sudden weight gain, swollen ankles, fatigue
D. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

Answer 48

A. Increased breathlessness, wheezing, chest tightness

Question 49

What is dabigatran?

A. Anticoagulants
B. Antihypertensives
C. Antibiotics
D. Antidepressants

Answer 49

A. Anticoagulants

Question 50

A child who is very sick with a temperature of 39.2°C and their whanau wants to hold a spiritual meeting. What is your best response?

A. Move the patient to a single room
B. Ask the family if they need anything / ask the whanau what they need for the spiritual meeting
C. Take the whanau to the whanau room
D. Tell the whanau only two people are allowed

Answer 50

B. Ask the family if they need anything / ask the whanau what they need for the spiritual meeting

Question 51

Parents of a terminally ill Māori child would like to assist with the care of their child. You can best support them by?

A. Allowing them to stay by the bedside
B. Offering food and drinks during their stay while they care for their child
C. Teaching them how to administer subcutaneous pain relief
D. Advising them to rest and leave the care to the nurses

Question 52

A child has no ID bracelet before administering meds. What should you do?

A. Ask the parents for the child’s name and date of birth
B. Contact the prescriber
C. Administer the medication and update the ID later
D. Refuse to administer the medication

Question 53

What are the side effects of ceftriaxone?

A. Vomiting and diarrhea
B. Hypertension and headache
C. Rash and itching
D. Dry mouth and blurred vision

Answer 53

A. Vomiting and diarrhea

Question 54

A patient is getting discharged from the MH unit, the dad wants his son to stay at home, but the patient wants to go flatting. What is your best response?

A. Tell the patient he has the right to be independent
B. Encourage the patient to discuss with his dad about his living options
C. Help the patient look for a flat
D. Advise the patient to listen to his father

Answer 54

B. Encourage the patient to discuss with his dad about his living options

Question 55

40 mmol of potassium in 1000ml over 8 hours; the patient develops phlebitis, and you stop the infusion after 2.5 hours. How much potassium was used?

A. 12.5 mmol
B. 10 mmol
C. 20 mmol
D. 15 mmol

Answer 55

A. 12.5 mmol

Question 56

A reaction during a blood transfusion where the patient begins to itch?

A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion
C. Continue and monitor
D. Administer antihistamines and continue

Answer 56

B. Stop the infusion

Question 57

What do you expect from a pre-surgery patient regarding perceptions and expectations of surgery?

A. Anxiety and fear
B. Excitement and eagerness
C. Apathy and disinterest
D. Joy and happiness

Answer 57

A. Anxiety and fear

Question 58

What is a vacuum drain wound dressing?

A. A dressing that uses suction to remove fluid and promote healing
B. A dressing that seals the wound with glue
C. A dressing that keeps the wound dry
D. A dressing that applies pressure to stop bleeding

Answer 58

A. A dressing that uses suction to remove fluid and promote healing

Question 59

A child in PACU wants their parents. What should you do?

A. Offer a phone call
B. Ignore the request
C. Tell the child to wait
D. Sedate the child

Answer 59

A. Offer a phone call

Question 60

The patient needs an urgent procedure, has signed the consent form but doesn’t understand the procedure. What would you do?

A. Reassure them they need to go immediately
B. Send them to theatre and rush them off
C. Explain what informed consent is
D. Explain the procedure in detail

Answer 60

D. Explain the procedure in detail

Question 61

What are the precautions for MRSA pneumonia?

A. Protective
B. Contact
C. Droplet
D. Isolated

Question 62

If a child in the care of Oranga Tamariki needs a blood transfusion, who do you gain consent from?

A. Legal Guardian of the child
B. OT caregivers
C. Doctor
D. Parent

Answer 62

A. Legal Gurdian of the child

Question 63

What are commonly expressed symptoms in someone diagnosed with schizophrenia?

A. Hallucinations, delusions, disorganised thinking
B. Fever, chills, muscle aches
C. High blood pressure, headaches, blurred vision
D. Cough, chest pain, shortness of breath

Answer 63

A. Hallucinations, delusions, disorganised thinking

Question 64

What is the purpose of folic acid?

A. Prevent neural tube defects
B. Improve bone density
C. Enhance muscle strength
D. Increase iron levels

Answer 64

A. Prevent neural tube defects

Question 65

Pre-eclampsia management?

A. Provide them with a urine spec and check BP before contacting LMC or doctor
B. Immediate administration of insulin
C. Encourage fluid intake
D. Monitor blood sugar levels

Answer 65

A. Provide them with a urine spec and check BP before contacting LMC or doctor

Question 66

Signs and symptoms of gonorrhea?

A. Discharge, pain during urination, pelvic pain
B. High fever, chills, cough
C. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
D. Rash, itching, dry skin

Answer 66

A. Discharge, pain during urination, pelvic pain

Question 67

Signs and symptoms of asthma?

A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Increased appetite
C. Skin rash
D. High fever

Answer 67

A. Bronchoconstriction

Question 68

Mother of a child encounters their child with impetigo (school sores). What should they do?

A. Avoid sharing bedding and towels
B. Use a humidifier
C. Increase fluid intake
D. Avoid physical activity

Answer 68

A. Avoid sharing bedding and towels

Question 69

What is a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?

A. Bleeding on the brain
B. Occurs within 24 hours
C. More severe symptoms and outcome than a TIA
D. Minor symptoms resolving quickly

Answer 69

C. More severe symptoms and outcome than a TIA

Question 70

Signs and symptoms of internal bleeding?

A. Increased respiratory rate, decreased heart rate
B. Decreased respiratory rate, increased heart rate
C. Increased heart rate and increased respiratory rate
D. Decreased heart rate and decreased respiratory rate

Answer 70

C. Increased heart rate and increased respiratory rate

Question 71

Blood transfusion to a child whose family is Jehovah’s Witness. What do you do?

A. Under no circumstances will they receive blood
B. Only use donor plasma
C. Can get a court order in an emergency
D. Do nothing and respect their wishes

Question 72

A patient is post-op and internally bleeding. What are the signs of internal bleeding?

A. Increased respiratory rate and increased pulse
B. Increased respiratory rate and decreased pulse
C. Decreased respiratory rate and increased pulse
D. Decreased respiratory rate and decreased pulse

Answer 72

A. Increased respiratory rate and increased pulse

Question 73

Post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy, what is something to look out for?

A. Delayed hemorrhage
B. Increased appetite
C. Enhanced sense of taste
D. Improved sleep patterns

Answer 73

A. Delayed hemorrhage

Question 74

What is pneumonia?

A. Infected mucus sitting in bronchioles
B. Blood infection
C. Inflammation of the liver
D. Kidney infection

Answer 74

A. Infected mucus sitting in bronchioles

Question 75

Why do you teach deep breathing post-op?

A. To prevent lung complications and promote oxygenation
B. To reduce nausea
C. To increase appetite
D. To help with digestion

Answer 75

A. To prevent lung complications and promote oxygenation

Question 76

Which blood group would match with B+?

A. B+ and O+
B. A+ and AB+
C. O- and A-
D. AB- and B-

Answer 76

A. B+ and O+

Question 77

How to prevent DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) post-op?

A. Early mobilisation
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Avoid physical activity
D. High-protein diet

Answer 77

A. Early mobilisation

Question 78

Why can’t you take insulin orally?

A. Because insulin doesn’t come in pill form
B. Takes longer in pill form
C. It would be broken down by digestive enzymes
D. It has an unpleasant taste

Answer 78

C. It would be broken down by digestive enzymes

Question 79

Signs and symptoms of type 1 diabetes?

A. Increased thirst, frequent urination, unexplained weight loss
B. Rash, itching, dry skin
C. High blood pressure, headaches, blurred vision
D. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

Answer 79

Increased thirst, frequent urination, unexplained weight loss

Question 80

How does diabetes differ from type 2 diabetes?

A. Type 1 is usually diagnosed in childhood and requires insulin
B. Type 1 is less severe
C. Type 2 is usually diagnosed in childhood
D. Type 1 is managed with diet alone

Answer 80

A. Type 1 is usually diagnosed in childhood and requires insulin

Question 81

Development of a 2-year-old child: How many words are they expected to know?

A. 50-100 words
B. 200-300 words
C. 500-600 words
D. 700-800 words

Answer 81

B. 200-300 words

Question 82

A patient in PACU has a respiratory rate of 8 and low BP. Do you give morphine?

A. Withhold morphine and contact the anesthetist
B. Administer morphine as prescribed
C. Give a lower dose of morphine
D. Increase the rate of morphine

Answer 82

A. Withhold morphine and contact the anesthetist

Question 83

What increases the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A. Smoking, high cholesterol, high blood pressure
B. Low-fat diet
C. Regular exercise
D. Moderate alcohol consumption

Answer 83

A. Smoking, high cholesterol, high blood pressure

Question 84

A patient complains of hip pain and has non-blanchable erythema. What is your priority?

A. Reposition and give pain relief
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Apply a cold compress
D. Administer antibiotics

Answer 84

A. Reposition and give pain relief

Question 85

A normal bowel motion for a baby on its 4th day would be?

A. Small and dark green
B. Pale yellow and smell slightly offensive
C. Soft bright yellow and a tinge of green
D. Black, tarry and soft

Answer 85

C. Soft bright yellow and a tinge of green???

Question 86

You witness a nurse humiliate a patient. After ensuring the patient is okay, what must you do?

A. Tell the nurse their behavior was unacceptable, then report to the charge nurse or manager
B. Tell the nurse their behavior was unacceptable, if this continues you will have to report it to the nurse or manager
C. Tell the nurse their behavior was unacceptable and that they should inform the charge nurse
D. Don’t do anything as the patient must have provoked it

Answer 86

A. Tell the nurse their behavior was unacceptable, then report to the charge nurse or manager

Question 87

Repeated strep A infection can cause?

A. Rheumatic fever
B. High blood pressure
C. Diabetes
D. Asthma

Answer 87

A. Rheumatic fever

Question 88

Why is monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance important in children?

A. Because they are at risk for dehydration
B. To ensure they get enough vitamins
C. To monitor their calorie intake
D. To prevent obesity

Answer 88

A. Because they are at risk for dehydration

Question 89

You are a circulating nurse, and you notice the scrub nurse has broken the sterile field. What do you do?

A. Notify the nurse
B. Notify the surgeon
C. Do nothing
D. Ignore the incident

Answer 89

B. Notify the surgeon

Question 90

An older adult says his family is financially abusing him. What do you do?

A. Validate the finding and refer to the appropriate agency
B. Inform the police
C. Do nothing as it’s a family matter
D. Advise him to talk to his family

Answer 90

A. Validate the finding and refer to the appropriate agency ?

Question 91

Common side effects of morphine?

A. Nausea, constipation, drowsiness
B. High blood pressure, headache, blurred vision
C. Rash, itching, dry skin
D. Fever, chills, muscle aches

Answer 91

A. Nausea, constipation, drowsiness

Question 92

The doctor calls you over the phone and informs you that he would like to give a verbal order of a prescription. Your next action would be to?

A. Ask the doctor to wait while you get a second nurse to receive the verbal order with you
B. Tell the doctor you cannot accept the verbal order until he has assessed the patient himself
C. Receive the verbal order and administer the medication as prescribed
D. Inform the patient immediately

Answer 92

A. Ask the doctor to wait while you get a second nurse to receive the verbal order with you

Question 93

Features of anorexia nervosa?

A. Intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, severe weight loss
B. High blood pressure, headaches, blurred vision
C. Increased appetite, weight gain, fatigue
D. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

Answer 93

A. Intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, severe weight loss

Question 94

You are assisting a patient to mobilise for the first time post abdominal surgery. What actions would you take?

A. Sit them up on the bedside and explain to them how to hold their abdomen when mobilising
B. Give pain relief and oxygen
C. Provide support with a pillow to hold the abdomen and guide them in taking slow, controlled steps
D. Encourage deep breathing and assess for signs of dizziness or discomfort during mobilization

Answer 94

A. Sit them up on the bedside and explain to them how to hold their abdomen when mobilising

Question 95

The symptoms of early stage shock (compensatory) are:

a. Hypotension, pale, clammy
b. Normal or abnormal blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnoea
c. Irritability, hypotension, diarrhea
d. Increased thirst, confusion, weak pulse

Answer 95

b. Normal or abnormal blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnoea

Question 96

You are nursing a patient with COPD. The most effective recommendation to the patient would be?

A. Reduce physical activity
B. Stop smoking and vaping
C. Monitor oxygen saturation level
D. Use a bronchodilator before exercising

Answer 96

B. Stop smoking and vaping

Question 97

A patient was admitted to ED due to dairy allergy. To prevent the patient going into anaphylactic shock, you would?

A. Document all food and medication they are allergic to
B. Have adrenaline ready
C. Ask the family member what they had eaten all day
D. Access a list of the patient’s known allergies from the medical records

Answer 97

B. Have adrenaline ready

Question 98

Hypoglycemic signs and symptoms include?

A. Fever and lethargy
B. Dizziness, sweating, confused
C. Warm, dry and flushed skin
D. Rapid heart rate and trembling

Answer 98

B. Dizziness, sweating, confused

Question 99

When teaching a patient about caring for their stoma bag, which appearance would warrant a visit to the GP?

A. Regular fully formed stools
B. Regular loosely formed stools
C. Stoma appears pale, dusky, or discolored
D. Stoma appears swollen and inflamed

Answer 99

C. Stoma appears pale, dusky, or discolored

Question 100

Side effects of Cephalexin include:

A. Low libido and tachycardia
B. Vomiting and diarrhea
C. Hypotension and altered level of consciousness
D. Rash and itching

Answer 100

B. Vomiting and diarrhea

Question 101

A patient just had a right total hip replacement surgery. What is the best position to place them in during recovery?

A. On their back and avoiding the right leg crossing over the midline
B. Have both legs extended at a 90-degree angle
C. On their right side with a pillow between the legs
D. On their right side with the left leg crossed over the midline

Answer 101

A. On their back and avoiding the right leg crossing over the midline

Question 102

A patient who just had surgery only passed 20mls of urine in the past two hours. What is your next crucial step?

A. Wait another hour and see if the patient passes 50mls of urine
B. Inform the doctor
C. Commence a bag of IV fluids
D. Give the patient a cup of water

Answer 102

B. Inform the doctor

Question 103

Which is the correct statement about a TIA?

A. It is more serious than a stroke
B. It can last no more than 24 hours
C. It is caused by bleeding in the brain
D. It is caused by a blood clot in the vein

Answer 103

B. It can last no more than 24 hours

Question 104

A patient is requiring an urgent blood transfusion, but you noticed the initials of the blood type are incorrect. What is your next immediate step?

A. Give the blood and monitor for signs of allergy
B. Withhold and document the incident
C. Withhold the infusion and contact the blood bank to get another bag that is a match
D. Inform the charge nurse to find out whether it should be withheld or not

Answer 104

C. Withhold and contact the blood bank to get another bag that is a match

Question 105

What are the signs of hypoxia?

A. Increase heart rate and decreased respiration rate
B. Decreased heart rate and increased respiration rate
C. Decreased heart rate and decreased respiration rate
D. Increased heart rate and increased respiration rate

Answer 105

D. Increased heart rate and increased respiration rate

Question 106

How does an osmotic laxative work?

A. Increases peristalsis
B. Draws fluid into the large intestine to soften stool
C. It lubricates the large intestine
D. Increases fluid absorption in the colon

Answer 106

B. Draws fluid into the large intestine to soften stool

Question 107

What is the purpose of giving a low-dose anticoagulant?

A. To help treat pain
B. To prevent infection in the body
C. To prevent exacerbation of asthma
D. To prevent thrombus formation

Answer 107

D. To prevent thrombus formation

Question 108

What is the primary mechanism of asthma?

A. Collection of fluid in the pleural space
B. Destruction of alveoli
C. Bronchiole dysplasia
D. Bronchi muscle spasm

Answer 108

D. Bronchi muscle spasm

Question 109

When administering medication, you must be aware of:

A. The half-life and rate of excretion
B. Drug action and what the body does to the drug
C. The patient’s diet and fluid intake
D. The time of day the medication should be taken

Answer 109

B. Drug action and what the body does to the drug

Question 110

Angina is caused by?

A. Complete obstruction of coronary arteries
B. Restricted blood flow to the coronary arteries
C. Partial obstruction of coronary vein
D. Reduced blood flow to coronary vein

Answer 110

B. Restricted blood flow to the coronary arteries

Question 111

What is the correct way of taking off PPE (doffing)?

A. Gown, eyewear, mask, gloves
B. Gloves, gown, eyewear, mask
C. Gown, mask, gloves, eyewear
D. Eyewear, mask, gown, gloves

Answer 111

B. Gloves, gown, eyewear, mask

Question 112

A patient tells you they had a fall in the shower. What do you do?

A. Document the fall in their nursing notes
B. Do nothing
C. Assess the patient for injuries and continue monitoring for the next 24 hours
D. Immediately inform the doctor without assessing the patient

Answer 112

C. Assess the patient for injuries and continue monitoring for the next 24 hours

Question 113

A patient appears to have lost consciousness on arrival to the hospital, what is your first action?

A. Call for help and commence CPR
B. Assess for responsiveness and call for help
C. Check for pulse and commence CPR
D. Maintain airway

Answer 113

B. Assess for responsiveness and call for help

Question 114

What is important to note down during a seizure?

A. Timing and frequency of limb movements
B. Limb positions
C. Vital signs and position
D. Any changes in skin color or breathing pattern

Answer 114

A. Timing and frequency of limb movements

Question 115

A 16-year-old patient is admitted to the mental health inpatient unit for psychosis. He expresses he thinks he has a sexually transmitted infection (STI) as he had unprotected sex. He tells you he does not want his parents to know. What is your next action?

A. Keep his confidentiality
B. Say I have to tell your parents
C. Book him into the sexual health clinic
D. Admit him under the MHA for assessment and treatment

Answer 115

A. Keep his confidentiality

Question 116

A patient on a mental health inpatient unit appears irritable and isolating himself in his room. He keeps shouting “they are out to get me; they are going to come hurt me”. Your most appropriate response would be?

A. Ask him who is out to get him and how are they planning to hurt him
B. Tell him that he is safe here and no one is going to hurt him
C. Tell him that you can see that he is upset and ask him if he would like to talk more about it
D. Tell him that he is safe and offer him his PRN medication

Answer 116

C. Tell him that you can see that he is upset and ask him if he would like to talk more about it

Question 117

A patient you are caring for is exhibiting signs of alcohol withdrawal 24 hours after admission. After completing your vital observations, your next most appropriate action would be to?

A. Inform the doctor
B. Commence a bag of IV fluids
C. Take an electrocardiogram (ECG) reading and monitor their fluid balance
D. Commence alcohol withdrawal scale

Answer 117

D. Commence alcohol withdrawal scale

Question 118

The most common feature of Benzodiazepine is that?

A. Taking it too long can cause dependence
B. Taking it too long can cause tolerance
C. It is safe to take it as long as the patient does not use alcohol to self-medicate
D. It does not cause dependence or tolerance

Answer 118

A. Taking it too long can cause dependence

Question 119

A mental health patient is recovering well with their condition and is about to be discharged into the community. When creating a wellness plan with them, you must take into consideration:

A. Where they will live
B. Their strengths and personal resources
C. Their employment status and support network
D. Their medical history and current medications

Answer 119

B. Their strengths and personal resources

Question 120

A mental health patient who is under the MHA with mania is disruptive and starting to annoy other patients. What is the best response?

A. Reestablish acceptable behavior standards
B. Take them to a quiet, low-stimulus room and stay with them
C. Get them to express their feelings and thoughts
D. Leave them alone or give PRN medication (I can’t remember which one)

Answer 120

B. Take them to a quiet, low-stimulus room and stay with them ?? Or A?

Question 121

How soon after birth can a woman experience postnatal depression?

A. Within the first week
B. Within the first 6 months
C. Within 1 year
D. Within the first 3 months

Answer 121

D. Within the first 3 months

The signs and symptoms of postnatal depression usually appear in the first one to three months following delivery, but onset can occur at any time in the first year. The early postpartum checks provide an opportunity for practitioners to screen and identify most cases of postnatal depression.
https://bpac.org.nz

Question 122

What age can you introduce complementary (solid) foods to a child?

A. When the child is 1 years old
B. 4 months after delivery
C. When the child is able to sit up independently
D. 6 months after delivery

Answer 122

D. 6 months after delivery

Question 123

What is the best advise to give parents to avoid otitis media?

A. Encourage a smoke free home
B. Use nasal decongestants regularly
C. Place toddler in supine position when feeding
D. Avoid other children with otitis media

Answer 123

A. Encourage a smoke free home

Question 124

A parent asks you for advice on how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome. What would be your advice?

A. Place baby in the same bed as the parents
B. Place baby in prone position in the cot
C. Place baby in supine position in the cot with no coverings and pillows and ensure the room is smoke-free
D. Use a baby monitor and ensure the baby sleeps with a nightlight on

Answer 124

C. Place baby in supine position in the cot with no coverings and pillows and ensure the room is smoke-free

Question 125

An elderly patient at an aged care facility has gone missing. After looking for the patient in the surroundings of the facility, your next appropriate action would be to:

A. Call the elderly’s family and tell them that he is missing
B. Document the incident and call the police
C. Follow the facility’s protocol and guidelines for missing patients
D. Conduct a full search of the facility before informing others

Answer 125

C. Follow the facility’s protocol and guidelines for missing patients

Question 126

A patient you are looking after is a high falls risk. What would be your first nursing intervention?

A. Adjust the bed to the lowest position
B. Place a sensor mat next to the bed
C. Do regular intentional rounding
D. Offer the patient a walking aid

Answer 126

A. Adjust the bed to the lowest position

Question 127

What is the importance of vitamin D for elderly in the prevention of falls?

A. It helps increase absorption of calcium
B. It helps increase absorption of iodine
C. It helps increase absorption of magnesium
D. It helps increase absorption of potassium

Answer 127

A. It helps increase absorption of calcium

Question 128

What is the most important information when assessing the falls risk of an elderly?

A. Hypertension
B. Genetic factors
C. Having had a fall in the last 12 months
D. Use of medication that affects balance

Answer 128

C. Having had a fall in the last 12 months

Question 129

An elderly person with memory impairment was recently admitted to your aged care facility. After introducing yourself, your next most appropriate step would be to?

A. Introduce the elderly to the other residents
B. Ensure the elderly person has their belongings so they can make their room look more familiar
C. Explain the facility’s meal times and arrangements in detail
D. Introduce the elderly person to the facilities weekly activities

Answer 129

B. Ensure the elderly person has their belongings so they can make their room look more familiar

Question 130

An elderly patient is refused their nighttime medication. What would be your most appropriate nursing response?

A. Leave it on their bedside table so they can take it when the feel like it
B. Document their reason for refusing the medication and dispose of the medication
C. Tell them they must take it as it is their prescribed medication
D. Reassure them that the medication is safe, and they must take it as it is prescribed

Answer 130

B. Document their reason for refusing the medication and dispose of the medication ?

Question 131

An elderly patient with dementia keeps mistaking you for their relative. What would be your best response?

A. Continue pretending that you are and ask questions
B. Reiterate that you are not
C. Say “your relative would be upset if they knew you were saying this”
D. Give plenty of reassurance and engage in an activity

Answer 131

D. Give plenty of reassurance and engage in an activity

Question 132

Elderly patients are more prone to post-surgical complications because they have?

A. Increased immune response
B. Decreased muscle mass and mobility
C. Increased cardiovascular resilience
D. Reduced renal function and slower drug metabolism

Answer 132

B. Decreased muscle mass and mobility

Question 133

What signs are indicative of Alzheimer’s disease in an elderly patient?

A. Short-term memory loss, impaired cognition, impaired executive function
B. Memory loss, increased paranoia, increased delusional thinking
C. Ataxia and akathisia
D. Difficulty with speech, disorientation, and mood swings

Answer 133

A. Short-term memory loss, impaired cognition, impaired executive function

Question 134

A 10-week pregnant woman visits your clinic, stating that her neighbor’s daughter has rubella. What would you advise her to do?

A. Advise her to get the rubella vaccine as soon as possible
B. Stay away from the daughter
C. Advise her to book an appointment with her midwife to discuss this

Answer 134

C. Advise her to book an appointment with her midwife to discuss this

Question 135

The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis is?

A. Emotional stress
B. Infection
C. Inadequate insulin intake
D. Inadequate food intake

Answer 135

C. Inadequate insulin intake

Question 136

Diabetes affects the metabolism of?

A. Carbohydrates only
B. Protein and fats only
C. Carbohydrates and fats only
D. Carbohydrates, protein and fats

Answer 136

D. Carbohydrates, protein and fats

Question 137

What is Glycosuria?

A. A blood glucose test done 6 hours after fasting
B. An absence of glucose in the urine after eating
C. The amount of filtered glucose that exceeds the kidney’s absorption rate

Answer 137

C. The amount of filtered glucose that exceeds the kidney’s absorption rate

Question 138

How is hepatitis B spread?

A. Eating food that is not cooked properly
B. Not washing hands thoroughly
C. Through blood and bodily fluids of an infection person

Answer 138

C. Through blood and bodily fluids of an infection person

Question 139

After rinsing a burn wound with cool water, what first aid dressing would you use?

A. Dry gauze
B. Cling film (gladwrap)
C. Hydrocolloid dressing
D. Tubi grip

Answer 139

B. Cling film (gladwrap)

Question 140

A woman came to your clinic to receive her human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Afterwards, she asked you where the still needs a pap smear even though she has received the vaccine. What would be your response?

A. You should book an appointment at the sexual health clinic and speak to the doctor or nurse there about it
B. No, a pap smear is no longer needed once you are vaccinated
C. Yes, you still need to have pap smears as there are different strains of HPV virus

Answer 140

C. Yes, you still need to have pap smears as there are different strains of HPV virus

Question 141

Text messages between nurse and patient?

A. Is appropriate when delivering bad news
B. Can only be done by doctors
C. Are never appropriate
D. Are appropriate in a professional manner

Answer 141

D. Are appropriate in a professional manner ?

Question 142

There is a fire on the unit, and you are asked to evacuate the patients. What is the correct procedure?

A. Move all the patients from the fire zone to the adjacent non-fire zone
B. Ask the mobile patients to help move the non-mobile patients to the non-fire zone
C. Move the immobile patients first and ask the mobile patients to evacuate themselves
D. Leave the immobile patients for the fire service to rescue them

Answer 142

C. Move the immobile patients first and ask the mobile patients to evacuate themselves

Question 143

At a social gathering, a former patient comes up to you and tells you that they did not understand their diagnosis when they discharged him from the hospital. He gave you his NHI number and asked you to access his records so you can explain it to him. Your most appropriate action would be?

A. Access his records and give them to him
B. Give them his records and ask him to see his GP to explain the diagnosis
C. Advise him to make an application to the ward to retrieve his records

Answer 143

C. Advise him to make an application to the ward to retrieve his records

Question 144

What is a multidisciplinary team meeting?

A. A meeting to improve patient safety on the ward
B. A meeting between doctors and nurses going over individual cases
C. A meeting between doctors and whanau going over individual cases
D. A meeting between health professionals going over individual cases

Answer 144

D. A meeting between health professionals going over individual cases

Question 145

You come across a nurse who is accessing records of a patient in a different clinical area. What do you think of this situation?

A. Only Doctors can access patient records in a different clinical area
B. This breaches professional standards and practice
C. This is appropriate as long as the nurse knows the patient

Answer 145

B. This breaches professional standards and practice

Question 146

A patient says that’s a different colour to my usual tablet. What would be your next action?

A. Tell the patient that you will go and re-check the medication and come back
B. Tell the patient that sometimes the pharmacist substitutes brands but it is the same medication
C. Reassure the patient that it is the same medication as prescribed by the doctor
D. Tell the patient that there is nothing to worry about

Answer 146

A. Tell the patient that you will go and re-check the medication and come back

Question 147

How do you know if a patient fully understands their treatment plan or surgery?

A. They are able to repeat what they understood using their own words
B. They repeat what you said word for word
C. They ask multiple questions about the plan or surgery
D. They express confidence in the plan, even without asking questions

Answer 147

A. They are able to repeat what they understood using their own words

Question 148

A patient tells you that they do not want “young female nurses” to care for them. What would be your most appropriate response?

A. Tell them that they cannot choose who cares for them
B. Ask them about their preference and accommodate them as best you can
C. Assign them the most senior nurse to care for them

Answer 148

B. Ask them about their preference and accommodate them as best you can

Question 149

Who determines when culturally safe care has been delivered?

A. The patient and/or their whanau
B. The nurse
C. The doctor
D. Hospital policy and guidelines

Answer 149

A. The patient and/or their whanau

Question 150

A Māori patient who has just finished his surgery arrives at the post anesthetic care unit. He tells you that his whanau are waiting outside the unit, and he would like to come see him. Your most appropriate action would be?

A. Offer to call them on the phone and let him speak to them
B. Tell him that there is no room on the unit
C. Tell him that it breaches the confidentiality of the other patients
D. Tell him that they can visit him when he is on the ward

Answer 150

D. Tell him that they can visit him when he is on the ward

Question 151

A Māori patient in a mental health setting expresses to you that the is immersed in his Maoritanga. How would you best provide support to meet his needs?

A. Ask kaumatua about Maoritanga values
B. Ask a Māori colleague to assist with his needs
C. Follow the hospital’s tikanga best practices

Answer 151

C. Follow the hospital’s tikanga best practices

Question 152

A patient has been given a terminal diagnosis. They are struggling to cope and ask you “am I going to die?”. Your most appropriate nursing response would be?

A. Everything will be fine
B. Let me get the doctor for you to discuss your diagnosis
C. Acknowledge the concern and encourage to discuss their understanding of their diagnosis

Answer 152

C. Acknowledge the concern and encourage to discuss their understanding of their diagnosis

Question 153

A recently diagnosed diabetic patients tells you that they are scared about giving themselves an injection. What would be your best response?

A. Don’t worry, you will get used to it
B. What is it about the injection that concerns you?

Answer 153

B. What is it about the injection that concerns you?

Question 154

You and a student nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient. The student expresses to you that they have not come across a dying patient before and do not know what to do. Your most appropriate nursing response would be to?

A. Tell the student that it is a normal part of the job
B. Acknowledge the student’s concerns and help prepare them on what they can expect
C. Tell the student that you have never come across this situation before and don’t know what to do yourself

Answer 154

B. Acknowledge the student’s concerns and help prepare them on what they can expect

Question 155

A client recovering from diabetic ketoacidosis asks the nurse how acidosis occurs. The best response by the nurse is that?

A. Excess glucose in the blood is metabolized by the liver into acetone, which is acidic in nature
B. An insulin deficit promotes metabolism of triglycerides, which produces large amounts of acidic ketones
C. Insufficient insulin leads to cellular starvation, and as cells rupture they release acids into the blood stream
D. When an insulin deficit causes hyperglycaemia then proteins are destroyed by the liver, causing acidic by-products

Answer 155

B. An insulin deficit promotes metabolism of triglycerides, which produces large amounts of acidic ketones

Question 156

Following the delivery of a shock with the AED the immediate nursing action is to.

a) Reassess for a pulse
b) Do chest compressions only
c) Resume CPR
d) Do ventilation only

Answer 156

C) Resume CPR

Question 157

When the nurse performs oral hygiene for josie, whilst she is still unconscious, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

A. Use manual instead of mechanical ventilation
B. Keep suction apparatus available
C. Place josie in a prone position
D. Wear sterile gloves

Answer 157

B. Keep suction apparatus available

Question 158

A pregnant woman at 30 weeks’ gestation exhibits a rise in her baseline systolic blood pressure of 32mmHg, a weight gain of 4 kgs since last week and difficulty removing rings she normally wears. This is suggestive of?

a) Gestational hypertension
b) Pre-eclampsia
c) Eclampsia
d) Elevated liver enzymes

Answer 158

B. Pre-eclampsia

Question 159

Which of the following represents a positive change of pregnancy?

a) Morning sickness
b) Quickening
c) Positive pregnancy test
d) Foetal heart beat auscultated with Doppler

Answer 159

b) Quickening

Question 160

Newly expectant parents, ask the nurse how they can prepare their 3yr old preschool daughter for the new baby. All of the following would be useful except?

a) Tell the child about the pregnancy as soon as mother begins to look pregnant
b) Arrange for a few sleepovers with the person who will care for the child at the time of the birth
c) Transfer their child to her new room and bed just before the expected birth of the baby
d) Introduce their child to preschool as soon as possible

Answer 160

c) Transfer their child to her new room and bed just before the expected birth of the baby

Question 161

Which of the following statements can be used as a guideline for planning diets during pregnancy?

a) An increase of 300 calories per day beginning in the first trimester
b) A ten percent increase in protein above daily requirements
c) Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron
d) The requirement for folic acid is increased by 50 percent

Answer 161

d) The requirement for folic acid is increased by 50 percent

Question 162

Which of the following represents a recommended weight gain during pregnancy?

a) 6-11 kgs
b) 11-16 kgs
c) 13-18 kgs
d) 18-20 kgs

Answer 162

b) 11-16kgs

Question 163

Larry and Mary Smith had planned their first pregnancy for some time, but when it is confirmed, Mary feels conflicting emotions. She comes to the clinic for her first prenatal (antenatal) visit at ten weeks gestation. Mary shares her mixed feelings about the pregnancy with the midwife.
The midwifes best response would be to?

a) Encourage her to consider abortion
counselling
b) Encourage her to seek support from Larry
c) Reassure her that when she feels the baby move, her mixed feelings will disappear completely
d) Reassure her that most women experience some mixed feelings in early pregnancy, even when their pregnancies are planned

Answer 163

d) Reassure her that most women experience some mixed feelings in early pregnancy, even when their pregnancies are planned

Question 164

Mary’s last menstrual period was 11 April. Her EDD (expected date of delivery) would be?

a) 4 January
b) 18 January
c) 25 January
d) 4 February

Answer 164

b) 18 January

Question 165

Tui is 22 years old and has missed two of her regular menstrual periods. Her doctor confirms she is pregnant. This is her first pregnancy. Tui can expect to experience all the following signs in the early stages of her pregnancy except
a) Chadwick‟s sign
b) Goodell’s sign
c) Homans sign
d) Frequency of micturition

Answer 165

c) Homans sign

Question 166

During Tui’s sixth week of pregnancy she experienced a small episode of vaginal bleeding. You should suspect

a) Placenta previa
b) Urinary tract infection
c) Threatened abortion
d) Abruption placenta

Answer 166

c) Threatened abortion

Question 167

Four purposes of chromosomal studies, amniocentesis is most commonly performed
a) Anytime in early pregnancy
b) Usually not until after the 12th week
c) Usually not until after the 20th week
d) Anytime during pregnancy

Answer 167

b) Usually not until after the 12th week

Question 168

Traditional Māori health practices were outlawed by which of the following acts of parliament?

a) Suppression of rebellion act 1860
b) Native lands act 1865
c) Suppression of tohunga act 1908
d) Constitution act 1852

Answer 168

c) Suppression of tohunga act 1908

Question 169

You are a public health nurse, who has completed a project on diabetes involving Māori clients. You are to visit the local marae to share the results. You are working in a bicultural relationship with the local Māori health initiative on diabetes. Which statement would best describe your role within this initiative?

a) To set up a structure that allows access to funds
b) To teach the Māori initiative about health reforms
c) To provide resource materials and information
d) To promote partnership, protection and participation in Māori health

Answer 169

d) To promote partnership, protection and participation in Māori health

Question 170

You have invited Raewyn your supervisor to attend. As part of the preparation for the visit what is essential for Raewyn to know?

a) Learn Māori greetings so she can communicate with the marae committee
b) Learn about the Treaty of Waitangi so she can be culturally safe
c) Learn about marae protocol, so she can behave appropriately
d) Learn about the history of the marae

Answer 170

c) Learn about marae protocol, so she can behave appropriately

Question 171

A home care nurse begins caring for a 25 year old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).Lydia asks the nurse, ‘how could this have happened?” the nurse responds to the question based on the most frequent mode of HIV transmission, which is?

a) Hugging an HIV positive sexual partner without using barrier precautions
b) Inhaling cocaine or other recreational drugs
c) Sharing a drink bottle with an HIV positive person
d) Sexual intercourse with an HIV positive person without using a condom

Answer 171

d) Sexual intercourse with an HIV positive person without using a condom

Question 172

The physician prescribes zidovudine (AZT) a drug that acts to help?

a) Destroy the virus
b) Enhance the bodys antibody production
c) Slow replication of the virus
d) Neutralise toxin; produced by the causative organism

Answer 172

c) Slow replication of the virus

Question 173

The primary reason that a herpes simplex infection is a serious concern to a client with HIV infection is that herpes simplex?

a) Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness
b) Is curable only after 1 year of antiviral therapy
c) Can lead to cervical cancer
d) Causes severe electrolyte imbalances

Answer 173

a) Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness

Question 174

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Code of Ethics (2019) for healthcare professionals in New Zealand?

A. To provide a framework for legal compliance in healthcare settings
B. To outline the ethical standards and principles guiding nursing practice
C. To establish the educational requirements for nursing professionals
D. To define the roles and responsibilities of healthcare administrators

Answer 174

B. To outline the ethical standards and principles guiding nursing practice

Question 175

What is the primary role of the Nursing Council of New Zealand (NCNZ) in relation to nursing practice?

A. To provide direct patient care and treatment
B. To oversee the registration and competence of nurses in New
Zealand
C. To conduct research on nursing practices
D. To manage healthcare facilities and resources

Answer 175

B. To oversee the registration and competence of nurses in New
Zealand

Question 176

What is the primary purpose of the Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act (HPCAA, 2003) in New Zealand?

A. To establish a framework for the registration of health practitioners
B. To ensure health practitioners maintain their competence and provide safe care
C. To outline the ethical responsibilities of health practitioners
D. To regulate the pricing of healthcare services

Answer 176

B. To ensure health practitioners maintain their competence and provide safe care

Question 177

Newborns with heart disease are frequently brought to health professionals initially because the infant is having?

a) Difficulty sleeping
b) Irritability and restlessness
c) Difficulty feeding
d) Cyanotic spells

Answer 177

c) Difficulty feeding

Question 178

According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development that generally characterises pre-school children is the?

a) Preoperational stage
b) Sensorimotor stage
c) Oral stage
d) Psychosocial stage

Answer 178

a) Preoperational stage

Question 179

Pediculosis is common childhood infestation. It is commonly known as?

a) Pin worms
b) Foot eczema
c) Head lice
d) Scabies

Answer 179

c) Head lice

Question 180

Generally, the child most likely to ingest a poison is?

a) 10 months to 18 months
b) 1 to 4 years
c) 4 to 5 years
d) 13 to 15 years

Answer 180

b) 1 to 4 years

Question 181

Which of the following would the nurse explain to the mother of a child receiving digoxin (lanoxin) as the primary reason for giving this drug?

a) To relax the walls of the hearts arteries
b) To improve the strength of the heartbeat
c) To prevent irregularities in ventricular contractions
d) To decrease inflammation of the heart wall

Answer 181

b) To improve the strength of the heartbeat

Question 182

The causative organism for rheumatic fever is?

a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Staphylococcus bacteria
c) Syncytial virus
d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

Answer 182

d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

Question 183

The causative organism for rheumatic fever is?

a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Staphylococcus bacteria
c) Syncytial virus
d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

Answer 183

d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

Question 184

The most serious complication of rheumatic fever is?

a) Endocarditis
b) Pneumonia
c) Arthritis
d) Meningitis

Answer 184

a) Endocarditis

Question 185

When preparing the teaching plan for the mother of a child with asthma, which of the following would the nurse include as signs to alert the mother that her child is having an asthma attack?

a) Secretion of this, copious mucous
b) Tight, productive cough
c) Wheezing on expiration
d) Temperature of 37.4C

Answer 185

c) Wheezing on expiration

Question 186

An 8 year old child with asthma states, I want to play some sports like my friends. What can I do. The nurse responds to the child based on the understanding of which of the following?

a) Physical activities are inappropriate for children with asthma
b) Children with asthma must be excluded from team sports
c) Vigorous physical exercise frequently precipitates an asthmatic episode
d) Most children with asthma can participate in sports if the asthma is controlled

Answer 186

d) Most children with asthma can participate in sports if the asthma is controlled

Question 187

Male circumcision has been shown to?

a) reduce transmission of HIV
b) increase the risk of contracting a STI
c) reduce sexual pleasure
d) increase risk of UTI

Answer 187

a) reduce transmission of HIV

Question 188

When teaching a mother to care for her newborn’s umbilical cord, your instructions would be to?

1. keep it dry
2. wash it with soap and water
3. apply petroleum jelly to it daily
4. cover it with dry gauze

Answer 188

1. keep it dry

Question 189

A primipara, 48 hours after a vaginal delivery, is to be discharged with a prescription for vitamins with iron because she is anaemic. To maximise absorption of the iron, the nurse instructs the client to take the medication with which of the following?

1. orange juice
2. herbal tea
3. milk
4. grape juice

Answer 189

1. orange juice

Question 190

A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse understands that lisinopril belongs to which class of medications?

A. Beta-blockers
B. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

Answer 190

D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

Question 191

The best time frame for taking the Emergency Contraceptive Pill to achieve a 96-99% efficacy rate is?

a) Within 1-12 hours
b) Within 24 hours
c) At 6 hourly intervals
d) Within 72 hours

Answer 191

b) Within 24 hours

Question 192

At what age can a child obtain contraception without consent from parents/caregivers?

a) Any age
b) Over the age of 16 years
c) Over the age of 13 years
d) Not at all

Answer 192

a) Any age

Question 193

The importance of a cervical screen is to?

a) Detect a sexually transmitted infection
b) Detect abnormal cell changes
c) To prevent infertility
d) all of the above

Answer 193

b) Detect abnormal cell changes

Question 194

The correct name for shingles is?

a) herpes zoster virus
b) herpes simplex type 1
c) herpes simplex type 2
d) fever blisters

Answer 194

a) herpes zoster virus

Question 195

Another Mother has heard that several children have been diagnosed with mononucleosis (glandular fever). She asks the nurse what precautions should be taken to prevent this illness occurring in her child?

Which of the following would the nurse advise the mother to do?
a) Advise her child not to share drink bottles at school
b) Sterilise the child’s eating utensils before they are reused
c) Wash the child’s linens separately in hot, soapy water
d) Wear a mask when providing direct personal care

Answer 195

a) Advise her child not to share drink bottles at school

Question 196

A father asks the nurse how he would know if his child had developed mononucleosis. The nurse explains that in addition to fatigue, which of the following would be most common?

a) Liver tenderness
b) Enlarged lymph glands
c) Persistent non-productive cough
d) A blush-like generalised skin rash

Answer 196

b) Enlarged lymph glands

Question 197

You are asked by a student of a school you are visiting about the measles as they have heard there has been an outbreak in their area. The scientific name for measles is?

a) Herpes Zoster
b) Rubeola
c) Pertussis
d) Varicella

Answer 197

b) Rubeola

Question 198

The student then asks you how measles is transmitted. The best response is?

a) It is spread person to person by direct contact with body fluids particularly blood products.
b) It is only transmitted in non-vaccinated communities.
c) It is spread person to person through the air.
d) It is only transmitted during the flu season when people sneeze and cough.

Answer 198

c) It is spread person to person through the air.

Question 199

What is the infectious period for measles is. The correct information about the infectious period?

a) Once the rash appears until the spots are no longer red and inflamed.
b) 10 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 14 days after the rash appears.
c) During the entire time the rash is evident.
d) 5 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 5 days after the rash appears.

Answer 199

d) 5 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 5 days after the rash appears.

Question 200

The student tells you her family doesn’t believe in vaccinations. What is the most appropriate response to this statement?

a) “Are you aware of the serious consequences of not vaccinating”
b) “Do you have some questions about this decision?”
c) “There are articles and pamphlets available about this. Would you like them?”
d) “That seems like an irresponsible decision to make”

Answer 200

b) “Do you have some questions about this decision?”

Question 201

How does the measles vaccination work. The correct response to this is?

a) The vaccination causes the person to produce antibodies that will recognise and bind to measles virus particles in the blood.
b) The vaccination introduces antibodies that will inactivate measles virus particles.
c) The vaccination introduces the measles virus so the monocytes can learn to engulf them.
d) The vaccination causes the person to produce antigens that recognise and destroy measles virus particles.

Answer 201

a) The vaccination causes the person to produce antibodies that will recognise and bind to measles virus particles in the blood.

Question 202

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted for treatment of cellulitis in her left leg. Her white cell count is abnormally high?

When planning for this client, the nurse should expect to
a) see an increase in the blood glucose concentration
b) see a decrease in the blood glucose concentration
c) Decrease the insulin dosage
d) Withhold all insulin

Answer 202

a) see an increase in the blood glucose concentration

Question 203

What should you do first if someone has a blood glucose level of 1.5 mmol/L?

a) Give glucose gel
b) Increase insulin by 50%
c) Give a sandwich for lunch
d) Give six jellybeans

Answer 203

a) Give glucose gel

Question 204

Type 1 diabetes differs from type 2 diabetes in that?

a) Type 2 diabetes only affects the adult population
b) Insulin is never required for type 2 diabetes
c) Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease
d) Type 1 diabetes is only acquired in childhood

Answer 204

c) Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease

Question 205

After a stroke a client develops dysphasia.
Which assessment finding most simplifies dysphasia?

a) Arm and leg weakness
b) Absence of gag reflex
c) Difficulty with swallowing
d) Inability to speak clearly

Answer 205

d) Inability to speak clearly

Question 206

Mrs Khan is an 80-year-old female who lives with her son, his wife and their three children.
She has had type 2 diabetes for many years, which used to be well-managed using oral hypoglycaemic medications, but now requires exogenous insulin. Her family report that she is requiring more assistance with her personal care.
Why is insulin given as an injection, rather than orally?

a) Gastric juices digest insulin
b) Mucous membranes are sensitive to insulin
c) It is slower acting if administered orally
d) It is easiest to administer by injection

Answer 206

a) Gastric juices digest insulin

Question 207

Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about one of the ways oral hypoglycaemic medications act?

a) They assist the facilitated transport of glucose into skeletal muscle cells
b) They stimulate glycogenolysis
c) They increase insulin resistance in skeletal muscle and adipose cells
d) They stimulate the release of glucagon to reduce blood glucose concentration

Answer 207

a) They assist the facilitated transport of glucose into skeletal muscle cells

Question 208

Mrs Khan’s blood glucose concentration is greater than 10 mmol/L, and when you test her urine it is positive for glucose. This is because?

a) Kidney tubules secrete excess glucose.
b) Antidiuretic hormone allows glucose to diffuse into the renal collecting ducts.
c) Kidney tubules cannot resorb the glucose fast enough.
d) Glucose diffuses directly from the capillaries’ into the bladder.

Answer 208

c) Kidney tubules cannot resorb the glucose fast enough.

Question 209

When visiting Mrs Khan at 0800 her son tells you she has been feeling unwell for the last hour, and that she is complaining of blurred vision, and a headache. Her son also states that she has been up to the toilet a number of times this morning.
The potential problem here is?

a) Hyperglycaemia
b) Alcohol intake
c) Hypoglycaemia
d) Hypertension

Answer 209

a) Hyperglycaemia

Question 210

Why do people with diabetes have an increased risk of getting urinary tract infections?

a) They require increased amounts of fluids
b) The loop of Henle is associated with the production of insulin in the body
c) They have altered urine output
d) Glucose in urine assists bacterial reproduction

Answer 210

d) Glucose in urine assists bacterial reproduction

Question 211

Billy, aged 22 years is diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. He periodically looks intently towards the ceiling and cocks his head to one side while tugging at his ear. In assessing this behaviour, the nurse should consider that Billy?

a) Has peculiar mannerisms
b) May be hearing voices
c) Is avoiding the nurse
d) Is daydreaming

Answer 211

b) May be hearing voices

Question 212

Billy is prescribed Clozapine.(Clozaril) this is an atypical antipsychotic medication which acts on?

a) positive symptoms related to excess dopamine and decreased GABA.
b) positive symptoms related to decreased dopamine.
c) both positive and negative symptoms related to activity of both serotonin and dopamine.
d) negative symptoms related to excess dopamine and decreased GABA.

Answer 212

c) both positive and negative symptoms related to activity of both serotonin and dopamine.

Question 213

Freda is admitted to your ward following the death of her mother 12 weeks ago. She is withdrawn and isolates herself in her bedroom, where she sits huddled on her bed and stares at the floor. You suspect that Freda is having suicidal ideation. What would be your best approach?

a) Ask Freda directly about your concern
b) Avoid direct questioning, but observe her carefully
c) Institute suicide precautions and record these in Freda’s notes
d) Record your suspicion in Freda’s notes

Answer 213

a) Ask Freda directly about your concern

Question 214

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Code of Ethics (2019) for healthcare professionals in New Zealand?

A. To provide a framework for legal
compliance in healthcare settings
B. To outline the ethical standards and principles guiding nursing practice
C. To establish the educational requirements for nursing professionals
D. To define the roles and responsibilities of healthcare administrators

Answer 214

B. To outline the ethical standards and principles guiding nursing practice

Question 215

What is the primary role of the Nursing Council of New Zealand (NCNZ) in relation to nursing practice?

A. To provide direct patient care and treatment
B. To oversee the registration and competence of nurses in New Zealand
C. To conduct research on nursing practices
D. To manage healthcare facilities and resources

Answer 215

B. To oversee the registration and competence of nurses in New Zealand

Question 216

What is the primary purpose of the Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act (HPCAA, 2003) in New Zealand?

A. To establish a framework for the registration of health practitioners
B. To ensure health practitioners maintain their competence and provide safe care
C. To outline the ethical responsibilities of health practitioners
D. To regulate the pricing of healthcare services

Answer 216

B. To ensure health practitioners maintain their competence and provide safe care

Question 217

Which principle of the NCNZ Code of Conduct emphasises the importance of recognizing and valuing the cultural identities and needs of health consumers in nursing practice?

A. Maintaining professional boundaries
B. Respecting cultural safety
C. Ensuring informed consent
D. Promoting health literacy

Answer 217

B. Respecting cultural safety

Question 218

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Privacy Act (PA, 2020) in New Zealand’s healthcare sector?

A. To ensure that healthcare providers can share patient information without consent
B. To establish guidelines for the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information
C. To mandate that all healthcare services are provided free of charge
D. To regulate the qualifications required for healthcare practitioners

Answer 218

B. To establish guidelines for the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information

Question 219

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Code of Conduct for nurses as established by the Nursing Council of New Zealand?

A. To provide a framework for nurses to manage their personal finances effectively.
B. To outline the expected professional behavior and ethical standards for nurses in their practice.
C. To serve as a marketing tool for promoting nursing careers in New Zealand.
D. To establish guidelines for the administration of medications in healthcare settings.

Answer 219

B. To outline the expected professional behavior and ethical standards for nurses in their practice.

Question 220

In the context of nursing ethics, which principle emphasises the obligation of healthcare providers to act in the best interest of the patient while balancing potential benefits and harms?

A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Non-maleficence

Answer 220

B. Beneficence

Question 221

Which of the following best describes the importance of recognizing the cultural backgrounds of health consumers in nursing practice?

A. It ensures that all patients receive the same treatment regardless of their background.
B. It allows healthcare providers to impose their own beliefs on patients for better outcomes.
C. It fosters a therapeutic relationship by acknowledging and valuing individual cultural identities.
D. It simplifies the healthcare process by standardising care for all patients.

Answer 221

C. It fosters a therapeutic relationship by acknowledging and valuing individual cultural identities.

Question 222

What is the primary purpose of the NCNZ Strategic Plan 2022-2024?

A. To establish new nursing schools across New Zealand
B. To outline the Nursing Council’s focus and intent during a two-year period
C. To provide a detailed history of nursing practices in New Zealand
D. To create a framework for international nursing collaborations

Answer 222

B. To outline the Nursing Council’s focus and intent during a two-year period

Question 223

What is a primary factor that contributes to maintaining health consumer trust in nursing practice?

A. Providing care without any oversight
B. Ensuring adherence to established safety and competency standards
C. Minimising communication with health consumers
D. Focusing solely on technical skills

Answer 223

B. Ensuring adherence to established safety and competency standards

Question 224

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the NCNZ Code of Conduct (2012) for nurses in New Zealand?

A. To outline the legal requirements for nursing practice in New Zealand
B. To provide a framework for ethical decision-making in healthcare
C. To specify the expected behaviors and standards for nurses
D. To establish the educational requirements for nursing professionals

Answer 224

C. To specify the expected behaviors and standards for nurses

Question 225

NCNZ requires a RN to demonstrate competence to practice in all four domains of the registered nurse scope of practice. Which of the below are correct:

A. Interprofessional Skills, Professional Responsibility, Cultural Safety, Management of Nursing Care
B. Professional Responsibility, Management of Nursing Care, Treaty of Waitangi and Collaboration with Colleagues
C. Professional Responsibility, Management of Nursing Care, Interpersonal Relationships and Interprofessional Healthcare and Quality Improvement
D. Professional Development, Cultural Safety, Interpersonal Relationships and Collaboration with Colleagues

Answer 225

C. Professional Responsibility, Management of Nursing Care, Interpersonal Relationships and Interprofessional Healthcare and Quality Improvement

Question 226

What is the primary educational requirement for a Registered Nurse (RN) to practice in New Zealand?

A. Completion of a Diploma in Nursing
B. Successful completion of a Bachelor of Nursing degree
C. Certification in First Aid and CPR
D. Completion of a master’s degree in nursing

Answer 226

B. Successful completion of a Bachelor of Nursing degree

Question 227

How does the whakatauki ‘Te tõia, tē haumatia’ relate to effective nursing practice in New Zealand?

A. It emphasises the need for nurses to work independently without collaboration.
B. It highlights the necessity of having structured approaches and teamwork in delivering healthcare.
C. It suggests that planning is less important than spontaneous decision-making.
D. It indicates that nursing practice should focus solely on individual patient care without considering broader strategies.

Answer 227

B. It highlights the necessity of having structured approaches and teamwork in delivering healthcare.

Question 228

One of society’s expectations is ethical practice. What does that mean?

A. That the nurse will provide care even under not customary conditions.
B. That the profession will incorporate knowledge development from the humanities and scientific advances.
C. That nursing and nurses will be accountable and responsible for practice, transparent when lapses occur, and engage in self-regulation and peer review.
D. That the profession will promulgate, affirm, and uphold a code of ethics, to which individual nurses are expected to adhere.

Answer 228

D. That the profession will promulgate, affirm, and uphold a code of ethics, to which individual nurses are expected to adhere.

Question 229

Which of the following best describes the role of nurses in collaborating with health consumers to improve health outcomes?

A. Providing care without involving the patient in decision-making.
B. Encouraging patients to take an active role in their own health management.
C. Making unilateral decisions about patient care without consultation.
D. Focusing solely on clinical tasks without considering patient preferences.

Answer 229

B. Encouraging patients to take an active role in their own health management.

Question 230

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Code of Health and Disability Services Consumers’ Rights (1996) in New Zealand?

A. To outline the responsibilities of healthcare providers in delivering services.
B. To establish a framework for the ethical conduct of health practitioners.
C. To provide a set of legal standards that protect the rights of health consumers.
D. To regulate the licensing of health practitioners in New Zealand.

Answer 230

C. To provide a set of legal standards that protect the rights of health consumers.

Question 231

Which of the following best describes the concept of ethics in the context of nursing practice?

A. A set of personal beliefs that guide individual behavior.
B. A framework of moral principles that govern professional conduct.
C. A collection of laws that dictate healthcare regulations.
D. An informal guideline based on cultural norms.

Answer 231

B. A framework of moral principles that govern professional conduct.

Question 232

Which of the following best illustrates the principle of respecting the dignity and individuality of health consumers in nursing practice?

A. Providing standardised care plans for all patients without considering their personal backgrounds.
B. Engaging in open communication with patients to understand their unique needs and preferences.
C. Prioritising efficiency over patient comfort during medical procedures.
D. Assuming all patients have the same cultural beliefs and practices.

Answer 232

B. Engaging in open communication with patients to understand their unique needs and preferences.

Question 233

What is personal morality?

A. Those virtues, values, and character traits of who you are.
B. Shared beliefs about values and duties of society.
C. Religious and philosophical beliefs of social context.
D. Laws, customs, and policies of the healthcare profession.

Answer 233

A. Those virtues, values, and character traits of who you are.

Question 234

When initiating oral feedings for Barry West after his stroke, the registered nurse determines that Barry has an “intact gag reflex” and then:

a. assesses Barry’s ability to move his tongue
b. suctions Barry’s oral cavity to prevent aspiration of secretions.
c. places Barry in a high-Fowler position with the head flexed forward.
d. offers semi-solid food that is easiest for the patient to swallow

Answer 234

c. places Barry in a high-Fowler position with the head flexed forward.

Question 235

How soon after birth can a woman experience postnatal depression?

a. Within the first week
b. Within the first 6 months
c. Within 1 year
d. Within the first 3 months

Answer 235

We all have different answers on this one so go with what you choose :)

Question 236

What is the recommended time to receive the Boostrix during pregnancy?

A. 20-30 weeks
B. 16-26 weeks
C. 13-18 weeks
D. 30-40 weeks

Answer 236

B. 16-26 weeks

Note: It can be given from 13 weeks but It is most effective when given from 16-26 weeks

Question 237

What vaccine is recommended during pregnancy to protect against Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Whooping Cough?

a) Flu Vaccine
b) Tdap Boostrix
c) MMR
d) PCV13

Answer 237

b) Tdap Boostrix

Question 238

At what age is the first dose of the Rotavirus vaccine (Rotarix) given?

a) 3 months
b) 6 weeks
c) 5 months
d) 9 months

Answer 238

b) 6 weeks

Question 239

The Shingles vaccine (Shingrix) is recommended at what age?

a) 9 years
b) 11/12 years
c) 45 years
d) 65 years

Answer 239

d) 65 years

Question 240

At what can a child have the flu vaccine?

a) 9 months
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months

Answer 240

c) 6 months

Question 241

What vaccine is given at 6 weeks to protect against Pneumococcal infections?
a) Hib
b) Pneumococcal (PCV13)
c) Rotavirus
d) Meningococcal B

Answer 241

b) Pneumococcal (PCV13)

Question 242

At what age is the chickenpox (Varicella) vaccine given?

a) 12 months
b) 15 months
c) 3 months
d) 6 weeks

Answer 242

b) 15 months

Question 243

What is the primary purpose of the Hib vaccine?

a) Protect against Haemophilus influenzae type B infections (which can cause meningitis)
b) Protect against Whooping Cough
c) Prevent Measles, Mumps, Rubella
d) Prevent Meningococcal infections

Answer 243

a) Protect against Haemophilus influenzae type B infections (which can cause meningitis)

Question 244

What are all the live vaccines in the immunisation schedule?

a) MMR, Rotavirus, Varicella
b) MMR, DTaP, Pneumococcal
c) Rotavirus, Hepatitis B, Shingles
d) HPV, DTaP, MenB

Answer 244

a) MMR, Rotavirus, Varicella

Question 245

When is the Rotavirus vaccine given?

a) 6 weeks and 5 months
b) 3 months and 6 months
c) 6 weeks and 3 months
d) 6 weeks and 12 months

Answer 245

c) 6 weeks and 3 months

Question 246

When is the DTaP vaccine given to children?
(Purpose: Protects against Diphtheria, Tetanus, Whooping Cough (Pertussis), Polio, Hepatitis B, and Hib)

a) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 12 months
b) 6 weeks, 3 months, and 4 years
c) 6 weeks, 3 months, and 5 months
d) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 4 years

Answer 246

c) 6 weeks, 3 months, and 5 months

Question 247

When is the Pneumococcal (PCV13) vaccine given?
(Purpose: Protects against Pneumococcal disease, which can cause pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections)

a) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 12 months
b) 3 months, 6 months, and 9 months
c) 12 months, 4 years, and 9 years
d) 6 weeks, 3 months, and 6 months

Answer 247

Answer: a) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 12 months

Question 248

When is the MenB vaccine given?
(Purpose: Protects against Meningococcal B, which can cause serious infections like meningitis)

a) 6 weeks and 12 months
b) 3 months , 5 months and 12 months
c) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 12 months
d) 6 weeks, 9 months, and 4 years

Answer 248

b) 3 months , 5 months and 12 months

Question 249

According to eriksons theory of emotional development, infants will develop a sense
of trust when

a) They can identify their mother and father
b) They feel a sense of belonging, accepted as part of the family
c) They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met
d) Nutritional and hygiene needs are provided on a daily basis

Answer 249

c) They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met

Question 250

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with angina. When entering the room, the nurse should be most concerned about which finding?
1. Lunch tray unotuched
2. He is laughing loudly at a television program
3. He is transacting business with his computer while in bed
4. He is resting with eyes closed and TV on at moderate volume

Answer 250

3. He is transacting business with his computer while in bed

Question 251

A 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia is admitted for exacerbation of psychotic symptoms. The patient is refusing medications and has a history of non-compliance. You are tasked with ensuring they receive treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action?

a) Administer the medication against the patient’s will under the Mental Health (Compulsory Assessment and Treatment) Act.
b) Assess the patient’s decision-making capacity and provide education about the benefits of the medication.
c) Notify the family and have them convince the patient to take the medication.
d) Wait for the patient to request treatment voluntarily before administering the medication.

Answer 251

b) Assess the patient’s decision-making capacity and provide education about the benefits of the medication.???

Question 252

Why might Paracetamol be given alongside the MenB (Bexsero) vaccine in infants?

A. To reduce nausea after the shot
B. To manage fever that may occur
C. To enhance immunity against meningitis
D. To avoid allergic reactions to the vaccine

Answer 252

Answer: B. To manage fever that may occur

Question 253

Which of the following is the most common STI in New Zealand?

a) Gonorrhoea
b) Syphilis
c) Chlamydia
d) Genital herpes

Answer 253

c) Chlamydia

Question 254

What is the main way STIs are transmitted?

a) Sharing food or drinks
b) Sexual contact, including oral, vaginal, or anal sex
c) Sneezing or coughing
d) Using public toilets

Answer 254

b) Sexual contact, including oral, vaginal, or anal sex

Question 255

Which STI can be prevented by vaccination in New Zealand?

a) Chlamydia
b) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c) Gonorrhoea
d) Syphilis

Answer 255

b) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Question 256

Which of these STIs can cause long-term complications such as infertility if left untreated?

a) Chlamydia
b) Genital herpes
c) Pubic lice
d) HPV

Answer 256

a) Chlamydia

Question 257

What is the standard treatment for gonorrhoea in New Zealand?

a) Antiviral medication
b) Antibiotics
c) Surgery
d) Vaccination

Answer 257

b) Antibiotics

Question 258

What is a common symptom of trichomoniasis in females?

a) Painful sores
b) Frothy, greenish vaginal discharge
c) Yellowing of the skin
d) A painless ulcer

Answer 258

b) Frothy, greenish vaginal discharge

Question 259

How can untreated HIV progress in the body?

a) It causes no long-term issues
b) It resolves on its own after a few years
c) It can progress to AIDS
d) It only affects the respiratory system

Answer 259

c) It can progress to AIDS

Question 260

What is the government-subsidized programme in New Zealand for providing HPV vaccinations?

a) Free Immunisation for All
b) National Cervical Screening Programme
c) HPV Immunisation Programme
d) Vaccinate NZ

Answer 260

c) HPV Immunisation Programme