NURSING CARE OF MALE AND FEMALE Flashcards
(251 cards)
1
Q
Most abundant male sex hormone
A
Testosterone
2
Q
Normal acidic pH of vagina
A
4-5
3
Q
Oviduct is aka
A
Fallopian Tube
4
Q
Common Fertilization Site
A
Ampulla
5
Q
Not being pregnant after at least one year of unprotected sex
A
Infertility
6
Q
Inability to conceive because of a known condition
A
Sterility
7
Q
Normal BMI Range
A
18.5-24-9
8
Q
_______ is a noncancerous condition resulting from fibrous scar tissue that develops on the penis and causes curved, painful erections
A
Peyronie’s (pay-roe-NEEZ) disease
9
Q
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that has a vasoconstricting effect
A
Viagra
10
Q
Most common cause of subfertility in women
A
Anovulation
Absence of ovulation
11
Q
A belief that the human body is not something one should be ashamed of but should be exposed in the public
A
Nudism
12
Q
On what part of the testes is sperm made?
A
Convoluted seminiferous tubules
13
Q
It is where the sperm is stored
A
Epididymis
14
Q
How many days does the sperm stay in the epididymis before moving to the vas deferens?
A
2-10 days
15
Q
Vas deferens aka
A
Ductus Deferens
16
Q
Secrete a viscous alkaline liquid with a high sugar, protein, and prostaglandin content.
A
Seminal vesicles
17
Q
Secretes a thin, alkaline fluid, which further protects sperm by increasing the naturally low pH level of the urethra.
A
Prostate Gland
18
Q
Bulbourethral Glands are aka
A
Cowper’s glands
19
Q
Supplies one more source of alkaline fluid to help ensure the safe passage of spermatozoa
A
Bulbourethral Glands
20
Q
Consists of the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland, and the bulbourethral glands
A
Accessory Glands
21
Q
- Nourishes the sperm
- Protects the sperm from the acidic environment of the woman’s vagina
- Enhances the motility (movement) of the sperm
A
Accessory Glands
22
Q
Is a tubular structure made of muscle and membranous tissue that connects the external genitalia to the uterus
A
Vagina
23
Q
Normal Acidic pH of the vagina
A
4-5
24
Q
- Provides a passageway for sperm to enter the uterus
- Allows drainage of menstrual fluids and other secretions
- Provides a passageway for the infant’s birth
A
Vagina
25
is a hollow muscular Organ in which a fertilized ovum is implanted, an embryo forms, and a fetus develops
Uterus
26
3 parts of the Uterus
Fundus
Corpus
Cervix
27
The neck of the uterus
Cervix
28
Inner or mucosal layer that is functional during menstruation and implantation of the fertilized ovum
Endometrium
29
The fallopian tube is aka ____ and _____
Uterine Tube
Oviduct
30
4 sections of the fallopian tube
Interstitial portion
31
Section of the fallopian tube that extends into the uterine cavity and lies within the wall of the uterus
Interstitial portion
32
Section of the fallopian tube which is a narrow area near the uterus
Isthmus
33
Section of the fallopian tube which is the wider area of the tube and is the usual site of fertilization
Ampulla
34
Section of the fallopian tube which is the funnel-like enlarged distal end of the tube
Infundibulum
35
How frequent does one ovum mature and released from the ovary?
Every month
36
Are two almond-shaped glands, each about the size of a walnut
Ovaries
37
* Production of hormones, chiefly estrogen and progesterone
- Stimulation of an ovum’s maturation during each menstrual cycle
Ovaries
38
Inability to conceive a child or sustain a pregnancy to birth
Infertility
39
A couple is said to be ____if they have not become pregnant after at least 1 year of unprotected sex
infertile
40
Infertility is considered to be a diagnosis for couples who have not achieved pregnancy after 1 year of regular, unprotected intercourse when the woman is less than ____years of age or after____ months when the woman is older than ____
35
6
35
41
Term more often used rather than Infertility
Subfertility
42
Type of subfertility when there have been no previous conceptions
Primary Subfertility
43
Type of subfertility for when there has been a previous viable pregnancy but the couple is unable to conceive at present
Secondary Subfertility
44
The chance of achieving pregnancy and subsequent live birth within one menstrual cycle
Fecundity
45
Is a condition related to infertility and refers to women who have difficulty getting pregnant or carrying a pregnancy to term.
Impaired fecundity
46
If a woman is younger than 35 years of age, it is usually suggested she have an evaluation after ____ of subfertility
1 year
47
If a woman is older than 35 years, she should be seen after ____ of subfertility
6 months
48
Fertility testing can be scheduled, such as not before age ___years and not after age ___years
18
45
49
3 Assessments for Subfertility Investigation (SOT)
Semen analysis (M)
Ovulation monitoring (F)
Tubal patency (F)
50
sperm count is the number of sperm in a single ejaculation or in a ____ of semen
milliliter
51
The minimum sperm count considered normal has: ___ to ___ million sperm per ml of seminal fluid, or ___million per ejaculation
46
50
52
The minimum sperm count considered normal has:
____ of sperm that are motile
50%
53
The minimum sperm count considered normal has:
___ of sperm that are normal in shape and form
30%
54
The minimum sperm count considered normal has:
___ of sperm that are normal in shape and form
30%
55
Type of sperm motility where the sperm swims in mostly straight line or large circles.
Progressive Motility
56
Type of sperm motility where the sperm do not travel in straight lines or that swim in very tight circles.
Non-Progressive Motility
57
Healthy sperm motility -sperm with forward progressions of at least ___micrometers per second
25
58
Is diagnosed when less than 32 percent of the sperm are able to move efficiently
Poor sperm motility or asthenozoospermia
59
* absence of sperm
- absence of spermatozoa in the semen or the inability to ejaculate semen.
Aspermia
60
fewer than 20 million sperm per milliliter
Oligospermia-
61
Basic test for male infertility
Semen Analysis
62
In semen analysis, a male should produce a minimum of ___ to ____ of semen
1.4-1.7 mL
63
Medical treatment for premature ejaculation
Dapoxetine
64
2 phosphodiesterase inhibitors for the treatment of Premature ejaculation
Sildenafil (Viagra)
Tadalafil (Cialis)
65
Most common cause of subfertility in women
Anovulation
66
The most frequent cause of anovulation is the naturally occurring variations in _____ or _____
Ovulatory patterns
Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
67
a sonographic examination of the fallopian tubes and uterus using an ultrasound contrast agent introduced into the uterus through a narrow catheter inserted into the uterine cervix followed by intravaginal scanning
Sonohysterosalpingogram
68
a radiopaque contrast medium is used and the fallopian tubes are revealed by X-ray
Hysterosalpingogram
69
allows direct visualization of the female peritoneal cavity
Transvaginal Hydrolaparoscopy
70
most effective therapy in younger women with distal tubal damage
laparoscopic surgery
71
fibroids that grow within the muscular uterine wall
Intramural fibroids
72
Intramural fibroids
fibroids that bulge into the uterine cavity
Submucosal fibroids
73
fibroids that project to the outside of the uterus.
Sub serosal fibroids
74
refers to the implantation of uterine endometrium, or nodules, that have spread from the interior of the uterus to locations outside the uterus
Endometriosis
75
most common type of abnormal uterine development
Septate Uterus
76
therapy to increase mucus production during days 5 to 10 of the cycle
low-dose estrogen therapy
77
is the instillation of sperm from a masturbatory sample into the female reproductive tract by means of a cannula to aid conception at the time of ovulation
IUI
78
Instead of waiting for fertilization to occur in the laboratory, both ova and sperm are instilled, within a matter of hours, using a laparoscopic technique, into the open end of a patent fallopian tube.
Gamete intrafallopian transfer
79
the egg is fertilized in the laboratory, and the fertilized egg is transferred by laparoscopic technique into the end of a waiting fallopian tube.
zygote intrafallopian transfer
80
the oocyte is fertilized in the laboratory by the recipient woman’s partner’s sperm (or donor sperm) and placed in the recipient woman’s uterus by embryonic transfer
surrogate embryo transfer
81
Donor sperm are used to inseminate the female partner.
Therapeutic donor insemination (TDI)
82
One sperm cell is selected to be injected directly into the egg to achieve fertilization. It is used with IVF
Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
83
The zona pellucida is penetrated chemically or manually to create an opening for the dividing embryo to hatch and implant into the uterine wall.
Assisted hatching
84
an individually expressed and highly personal phenomenon that evolves from life experiences.
Sexuality
85
how one values oneself as a sexual being
Sexual self-concept
86
a central part of the sense of self
Body image
87
one’s self-image as a
female or male
88
Gender identity is the outward expression of a person’s sense of maleness or femaleness as well as the expression of what is perceived as gender-appropriate behavior
Gender-role behavior
89
flexibility in gender roles is the belief that most characteristics and behaviors are human qualities that should not be limited to one specific gender or the other.
Androgyny
90
one’s attraction to people of the same sex, other sex, or both sexes
Sexual orientation
91
strong and persistent feelings of discomfort with one’s assigned gender or gender identity disorder
gender dysphoria
92
involves emotionally committed romantic partners engaging in sex with others, typically in the presence of one’s partner
swinging
93
constant, unremitting burning that is localized to the vulva with an acute onset.
Vulvodynia
94
causes severe pain only on touch or attempted vaginal entry
Vestibulitis
95
Counseling for Altered sexual Function (PLISSIT)
P -Permission giving
LI -Limited information
SS -Specific suggestions
IT -Intensive therapy
96
more frequent chlamydia screening at __ intervals is indicated for MSM,
3-month
97
all pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia at their __prenatal visit
first
98
pregnant women under 25 and those at increased risk for chlamydia (e.g., women who have a new or more than one sex partner) should be screened again in their __trimester
third
99
pregnant women with chlamydial infection should be retested __weeks and __months after completion of recommended therapy.
3 …3
100
an inflammation of the liver capsule and surrounding peritoneum, which is associated with right upper quadrant pain
PID that develop perihepatitis, or “Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome”
101
triad of symptoms (reactive arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis)
Reiter’s Syndrome
102
caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum
Syphilis
103
transmitted from person to person by direct contact with a sore, known as a chancre
Syphilis
104
Type of Syphilis has a sore or sores at the original site of infection
Primary Syphilis
105
Type of Syphilis: sores are usually firm, round, and painless.
Primary Syphilis
106
Type of Syphilis: sore usually lasts 3 to 6 weeks and heals regardless of whether or not the person received treatment
Primary Syphilis
107
Type of Syphilis: the rash can look like rough, red, or reddish brown spots on the palms of hands and/or the bottoms of feet
Secondary Syphilis
108
Type of Syphilis: the rash usually won’t itch and it is sometimes so faint, fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, patchy hair loss, headaches, weight loss, muscle aches, and fatigue (feeling very tired)
Secondary Syphilis
109
is a period of time when there are no visible signs or symptoms of syphilis
Latent Stage
110
Type of Syphilis: can affect many different organ systems (heart and blood vessels, and the brain and nervous system) very serious and would occur 10–30 years after the infection began damages the internal organs and can result in death
Tertiary Syphilis
111
most common curable STD
Trichomoniasis
112
Trichomoniasis is caused by infection with a protozoan parasite called _____
Trichomonas vaginalis
113
white, yellowish, or greenish copious watery, frothy vaginal discharge. is a sign of ____ in females
Trichomoniasis
114
Trichomoniasis is treated with ___ or ____
Metronidazole
Tinidazole
115
thick, white, cheesy or curd-like discharge in females is a sign of ___
candidiasis
116
plaque of cheesy material under foreskin of males is __
candidiasis
117
type of VVC which is not usually acquired through sexual intercourse
Uncomplicated VVC
118
type of VVC can occur concomitantly with STDs
Uncomplicated VVC
119
Vaginal cultures should be obtained from women with complicated VVC to confirm clinical diagnosis and identify unusual species, including nonalbicans species, particularly ___
Candida glabrata
120
first line maintenance regimen for RVVC
Fluconazole
121
Oral herpes is usually caused by the virus ____
HSV-1
122
Gonorrhea an STD caused by infection with the _____
Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacterium
123
white, yellow, or green discharge from the penis that usually appears one to fourteen days after infection is a sign of
Gonorrhea
124
urethritis with watery white discharge, which may become purulent. in men is a sign of ___
Gonorrhea
125
yellowish vaginal discharge painful or burning sensation when urinating vaginal bleeding between periods is a sign of
Gonorrhea
126
most common sexually transmitted infection (STI)
human papillomavirus infection
127
most recognized sign of genital human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
Genital warts
128
Genital warts is aka
Condyloma Acuminatum
129
HPV types___and ___are usually associated with genital warts
6
11
130
on dry skin areas, lesions are hard and yellow-gray in males
HPV
131
on moist areas, lesions are pink orred and soft with a cauliflower-like appearance in males
HPV
132
caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovarsL1, L2, or L3
Lymphogranuloma Venereum
133
Most common clinical manifestation among heterosexuals is tender inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy that is typically unilateral
Lymphogranuloma Venereum
Pathognomonic Sign
134
LGV rectal exposure in women or MSM can result in ___mimicking inflammatory bowel disease (mucoid and/or hemorrhagic rectal discharge, anal pain, constipation, fever, and/or tenesmus)
proctocolitis
135
if it is not treated early, LGV proctocolitis can lead to ___and ___
chronic colorectal fistulas
strictures
136
What stage of LGV?- a self-limited painless papule in the genital mucosa or in the rectum, which can often go unnoticed
Initial Stage
137
What stage of LGV? a florid and painful inguinal or femoral lymphadenopathy, or an acute hemorrhagic proctitis
Secondary
138
What stage of LGV? rectal discharge or pain, feel an urge to defecate or incomplete defecation, or have rectal bleeding and anal itching
Secondary
139
What stage of LGV? Systemic symptoms such as fevers, chills or malaise
Secondary
140
What stage of LGV? chronic inflammatory changes, such as lymphatic obstruction causing genital elephantiasis
Tertiary
141
Jaundice that begins after the first 24 hours of life
Physiologic jaundice
142
Jaundice that begins within the first 24 hours of life
Pathologic Jaundice
143
Jaundice related to hemolytic diseases such as Rh and ABO incompatibility
Pathologic Jaundice
144
Form of Bilirubin that can be excreted by the body
Conjugated/Direct Bilirubin
145
Factors such as Dehydration, Pregnanediol, Infection, Cephalhematoma, and Sepsis increase risk of _____
Physiologic Jaundice
146
Another term for Physiological Jaundice of the Newborn
Icterus Neonaturum
147
Physiologic Jaundice lasts for __ - __ days in full-term babies
7-10
148
Physiologic Jaundice lasts for ___ days in pre-term and breastfed babies
14
9
149
An accumulation of blood under the scalp that leads to hemolysis and thus, buildup of bilirubin
Cephalhematoma
150
Kernicterus is a _______ Jaundice
pathologic
151
A type of brain damage wherein excessive bilirubin reaches the brain and damages the brain cells. It may lead to deafness, severe developmental disabilities and unusual form of cerebral palsy.
kernmicterus
152
What gender of babies have higher risk of jaundice?
boys
153
Rh Incompatibility aka
Isoimmunization
154
Rh incompatibility happens when the Mom is Rh ___ and the Father/Fetus is Rh___
(-), (+)
155
The _____ child is severely affected related to degree of sensitization to Rh(+)RBC
4th
156
ABO Incompatibility happens when mother is Type ____ and fetus is type ___________
O, A, B, AB
157
O, A, B, AB
O-A
158
Most severe ABO Incompatibility
O-B
159
The ____ child can be severely affected with ABO incompatibility
1st
160
Hemolysis during ABO incompatibility starts upon ______ ________
Uterine Contractions
161
Uterine Contractions
1.3-1.5 mg/dl
162
Guess the Condition:
Concentrated dark urine
Jaundice on forehead, sternum, sclera, palms, and soles
Enlarged liver and spleen
Hyperbilirubinemia
163
3 Diagnostic Tests for Hyperbilirubinemia
Total Direct Bilirubin
Hematocrit
Hemoglobin
164
Normal Range of Direct Bilirubin
0-0.3 mg/dl
165
Normal Range of Indirect Bilirubin
0.1-1mg/dl
166
Normal Value of Total Bilirubin
<1.5mg/dl
167
Gold Standard of treatment for hyperbilirubinemia
Phototherapy
168
SIDS is also commonly known as ____
Crib Death
169
Sudden Unexpected Early Neonatal Death (SUEND) occurs in the ______ week of life
1st
170
Sudden unexpected infant death (SUID) occurs during the______ period
Postneonatal
171
SIDS usually happens during the age range of _______ months
2-4
172
3 Nursing Interventions for Hyperbilirubinemia
Frequent Feedings
Phototherapy
Exchange Transfusions
173
3rd leading cause of infant mortality in the US
SIDS
174
Two Hypothesis for SIDS etiology
H1: Brain Abnormalities
H2: Prolonged Sleep Apnea
175
2 Parental Risk Factors for SIDS
Young Age
Smoking
176
2 Infant Risk Factors for SIDS
BPD (Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia)
Twins
177
3 Environmental Risk Factors for SIDS
Prone position
Soft Bedding
Hyperthermia
178
Imperforate Anus aka ______ and ___________
Anorectal Malformation
Anal Atresia
179
On the _______ week of intrauterine life two pouches meet to form the anal passageway
7th
180
Imperforate anus is common in what gender?
males
181
3 Etiologies for Imperforate Anus
Spinal Cord Disorders
Membrane between 2 pouches do not dissolve
Genetics
182
Type of Imperforate Anus where no opening is present and the bowel ends above the muscles
at the bottom of the pelvis
High
183
Type of Imperforate Anus where there may be an opening and the bowel ends below the muscles at the bottom of the pelvis.
Low (There is often an opening present, but it is in an abnormal position or is covered by a membrane.)
184
1st Sign of Imperforate Anus
1st Sign of Imperforate Anus
185
3 Nursing Interventions for Imperforate Anus
Colostomy Care
Side-lying/Prone Positioning
Anal Dilation
186
Surgical procedure for Imperforate Anus
Anastomosis
187
5 Etiologies for Cleft lip and Cleft palate
Maternal Diet
Teratogens
Viral Infections
Multiple Gene Transmission
Environment
*MTV - ME
188
3 Assessments for Cleft lip and Cleft palate
Sonogram
Inspection
Tongue Blade
189
A congenital anomaly when the maxillary process fails to fuse with the nasal process
Cleft Lip
190
Nasal and Maxillary processes normally fuse between ____ weeks of IU life
5-8
191
Cleft lip is more prevalent on what gender?
Boys
192
Cleft lip happens ___ in every____ live births
1...750
193
3 Nursing Interventions for Cleft Lip
Supine/Side-Lying position (Post-op)
Prepare for Cheiloplasty
Feeding with Large, Soft nipples, Breck feeder, or dropper
*Lippy uses SPF sunscreen
194
Condition where Anterior Hard and/or Posterior Soft palate fails to fuse
Cleft Palate
195
Cleft Palate
Girls
196
Cleft palate occurs ___ in every ____ births
1…1000
197
4 Nursing Interventions for Cleft Palate
Prepare for Uraroplasty or Palatoplasty
Use Cup (Post-op)
Prone positioning (Post-op)
Soft Diet (Post-op)
*PUPS
198
5 Nursing Interventions for Cleft Lip and Cleft Palate
Small, Frequent Feedings
Prevent Colic, Burp every 1 oz.
Encourage breastfeeding
Avoid Sharp Objects in mouth
Keep suction/syringe at bedside
*SPEAK
199
ESSR method of feeding
Enlarge (crosscut) the nipple
Stimulate Sucking
Swallow
Rest
200
Surgery for Soft Palate can be as early as between ______ months or between ______ months
3-6…12-18
201
Surgery for Hard Palate can be as early as between ______ months
15-18
202
Is defined as long, difficult or abnormal labor.
Dystocia
203
5P’s during Labor and Delivery
Power
Passenger
Passageway
Psyche
Position
204
During hypotonic uterine contraction s resting tone of uterus remains at less than _____
10 mmHg
205
10 mmHg
15 mmHg
206
Hypotonic contraction occurs at the ___ phase of labor while hypertonic contractions occur at the __ phase of labor
Active
Latent
207
Is a constriction ring between a woman’s thickened
upper contractile uterine segment and thinned lower
uterine segment.
Pathologic uterine (Bandl’s ring)
208
Occurs when uterine contractions are so strong a woman gives birth with only a few ,rapidly occurring contractions, a labor that is completed in fewer than 3 hrs.
Precipitate Labor
209
-cervical dilatation that occurs at a rate of 5cm or more/hour in primipara or 10 cm/hour in multipara
Precipitate Dilatation
210
Is the chemical or mechanical initiation of uterine contractions before their spontaneous onset
Induction of labor
211
is the stimulation of uterine contractions after labor has started spontaneously but progress is not effective
Augmentation of labor
212
What should be the woman’s Bishop score indicating that the cervix is ready for birth and should respond to induction of labor
8 or greater
213
Term for when the cervix is ready for dilatation
Ripe cervix
214
Hormones used to ripen the cervix (20
Prostaglandin E1 and E2
215
Is an artificial rupture of membranes (AROM); it is used when the condition of cervix is favorable (ripe)
or used to augment labor if the progress begins to
slow.
Amniotomy
216
Preterm birth is any birth that occurs before the completion of _____weeks of pregnancy or uterine contractions and cervical changes occurring between ___weeks of pregnancy.
37
20 and 37
217
A biochemical marker to predict preterm labor. This are glycoproteins found in plasma and produced during fetal life. They appear in the cervical canal early in pregnancy and then again in late pregnancy. Their appearance between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation predicts labor.
Fetal fibronectins
218
Is a form of estrogen produced by the fetus that is present in plasma at 9 weeks of gestation. Levels have been shown to increase before preterm birth.
Salivary Estriol
219
Agents that inhibit contractions of myometrial smooth muscles
Tocolytics
220
Examples are betamethasone and dexamethasone, given as intramuscular injections to the mother
to accelerate fetal lung maturity.
Antenatal glucocorticoids
221
A post term, postmature or postdate pregnancy is one that extends beyond the end of ___ weeks gestation.
42
222
Occurs when uterus undergoes more strain than it is capable of sustaining
Uterine rupture
223
2 primary presenting signs of uterine inversion
Hemorrhage, shock and pain
224
What type of uterine inversion? a smooth mass will be palpated through the dilated cervix Inverted fundus may lie within the uterine cavity or vagina
Partial
225
What type of uterine inversion? A large, red, rounded mass protrudes from the vagina
Complete
226
Occurs when amniotic fluid containing particles of
debris (vernix , hair, skin cells or meconium )is forced
into an open maternal uterine blood sinus through
some defect in the membranes or after membranes
rupture or partial premature separation of placenta.
Amniotic fluid embolism
227
In the process of fusion, or in one of the first cell
divisions, the zygote divides into two identical
individuals.
These twins have one placenta, one chorion,
two amnions, and two umbilical cords.
Monozygotic Twins
228
Known as nonidentical or fraternal twins.
Accounts for two thirds of twin births
This result from fertilization of two separate
ova by two separate spermatozoa.
Double ova twins have two placentas. two
chorions, two amnions, and two umbilical
cords
Dizygotic twins
229
Term for when a fetal head presenting at a different angle than expected.
Asynclitism
230
Macrosomia is when the fetus weighs more than
4000 to 4,500 grams (9 10lbs)
231
When the head appears on the perineum crowning ) but the head retracts with each contractions instead of protruding with each contraction, a manifestation of anencephaly
Turtle sign
232
A technique where pressure is applied directly
posteriorly and laterally above the symphysis
pubis
Mazzanti technique
233
A technique where pressure is applied obliquely posteriorly against the anterior shoulder
Rubin technique
234
A maneuver where the woman’s legs are
flexed apart, with her knees on her abdomen.
This maneuver causes the sacrum to straighten,
and the symphysis pubis rotates toward the
mother’s head; the angle of pelvic inclination is decreased, freeing the shoulder. Suprapubic
pressure then can be applied at this time.
Mc Robert’s Maneuver
235
A maneuver having the woman move to a hands and knees position
Gaskin maneuver
236
Is the placenta that has one or more accessory
lobes connected to the main placenta by blood
vessels.
Placenta succenturiata
237
The fetal side of the placenta is covered with chorion
Placenta circumvallata
238
A placenta where the cord is inserted marginally rather than centrally.
Battledore placenta
239
Battledore placenta
Velamentous insertion of the cord
240
______, the umbilical vessels of a
Velamentous cord insertion cross the cervical os
and therefore deliver before the fetus.
Vasa previa
241
Is an unusually deep attachment of the placenta
to the uterine myometrium so deeply the
placenta will not loosen and deliver.
Placenta accreta
242
Is the narrowing of the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvis
Contracted inlet
243
It is the narrowing of the transverse diameter of the pelvis
Contracted outlet
244
Is an attempt to turn the fetus from breech or shoulder to cephalic presentation before birth.
External Cephalic version
245
Comprises a series of maneuvers performed prior to breech extraction to deliver the fetus within a persisted
transverse lie in the second stage of labor.
Internal podalic version
246
forceps are applied after the fetal head is at a +2 station or more
Low Forceps birth
247
forceps are applied after the fetal head is engaged but at less than +2 station
Mid forceps birth
248
Forceps applied when the fetal head has
reached the perineal floor and its scalp is visible
between contractions.
Outlet forceps delivery
249
Forceps performed when the baby’s head is not yet engaged
High forceps delivery
250
Type of CS where the incision is made vertically through both the abdominal skin and the uterus.
Classic Cesarean Incision
251
Classic Cesarean Incision
Low segment Cesarean Incision
