Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 2 > Nursing 2 > Flashcards

Nursing 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Duagnostic tests For cv disease

A 
Blood tests 
Ecg
Thoracic radiography 
Blood pressure 
Echocardiography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do the ventricles do during diastole

A

Relax and fill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do the ventricles do during systole

A

Squeeze and pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Congenital heart disease

A

Young animqls
Abnormalities of heart development
Aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis, patent ductus arteriosus, ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aquired heart diseases

A

Adults
Dog- myxomatosis mitral valve disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, pericardium effusion
Cats - hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Typical fininhd of heart failure

A 
Reduced cardiac output - weak peripheral pulses, tachycardia, pale mm, prolonged crt
Weakness, exersise intolerance? Symcope 
Heart murmur 
Gallop sounds 
Arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Signs of comgestion in heart

A

Usually short history of clinnical signs
Leftside = lungs = pulmonary odema, tachypnoea, dyspneoa, cough
Rightsided = systemic = distended peripheral veins, pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Haematology tests for

A

Systemic diseases

Anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Biochrm tests fir

A

Kidney values

Electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cardiac biomarkers testing

A

Cardiac troponin

N.terminal proBtype natinetic peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does hypotension do

A

Increases cardiac output

Can contribute to progression of disaster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hypotension signs

A

Might decimpressed heart failure

250mmhg is concerning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Normal systolic

A

120-140 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Use of ECG

A 
Diagnose cardiac disease
Treatment options 
Severity od disease and prognosis 
Progression of dusease 
Response to treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thoracic radiographs

A 
Size of heart 
Cardiomyopathy 
Trachea 
Increased sternal contact 
For cough, tachypnoea, dyspnea, 2views of rigjt lateral, dorsoventral, congestive heart failure, lung pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most important congenital cardiac diseasses

A

Stenosis of great vessels- aortic- pulmonic
Patent ductus arteriosus
Ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Stenosis of great valves 3 types

A

Narrowing coukd be;
Subvalular (below valve)
Valvular (stiffening of vessel)
Supravavular (rigid tissue in vessel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

Subvalvular
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Lefr sided congesrivd heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pulmonic stenosis

A

Valvular
Right ventricukar hypertropy
Right sided xongestive heaet failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Clinnical signs and treatment of stenosis

A

Asymptomatic, arrhythmias, exersise intolerance, syncope, congestive heart failure
Beta blocker,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Patent ductus arterisus

A

Normal fetal cennection between pulmonary artery and aorta. Should close after birth when take first breath.
If remains patent
- blood flows from aorta to pulmonary artery
- loud continuous murmur left heart base
- incidental findings
- congestibe heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treatment of patent ductus arteriosus

A

Interventional closire
Surgical ligation
Congestive heart failure therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ventricular septal defect

A 
Most commin location
Usually asymptomatic 
Right sided systolic murmur 
(Small defect = loud murmur)
(Large defect = soft murmur)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of ventricular septal defect

A

Diagnoses ECG
Usually none neccessary
Heart failure treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Myxomatosis mitral valve disease

A 
Most common cardiac disease 
Idipathic = heridiatry 
Small breed dogs 
Adult onset
Mitral, tricuspid valve
Diagnosis - ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Symptoms of myxomatosis mitral valve disease

A 
Thickeming of valve leaflets 
- reguritation of blood 
- left atrial dilation 
- left ventricular dilation 
Prolapse of valve leaflets 
Left sided apical systolic heart murmur 
Slow progression
- long asymptomatic period
- murmur maybe incidental finding 
May progress to left sided congestive heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dilatef cardiomyopathy

A 
Frequent cardiac disease 
Idiopathic 
Large breed dogs 
Adult onset 
Left apical systolic murmur not always present
Disease of myocardium
- left ventricular dilation
- decreased systolic function
- Arrhythmias 
Diagnosis ECG
Long asymptomatic period 
Prognosis gaurded- progression may br rapid.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pericardual effusions

A 
Large breed, adult dogs 
Causes - idiopathic, neoplasia 
Fluid in sac around heart compromised filling. 
- decreased cardiac output 
- right sided heart failure 
Diagnosis ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pericardial effusion treatment

A 
Pericardiocentisus - drain 
Mild sedation, left lateral recumbency 
Large catheter 
Visualise window 
Check for clotting 
Check pcv of fluid 
Measure volume drained
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypotrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Most common cardiac disease in cats
Genetic causes adult onset
Exclude other causes of hypotrophy
- hyperthyroidism
- systemic hypertension
Increased myocardial thickness impairs fillinh in diastole
ECG diagnosis
Incidental finding
Heart murmur, gallop sound
Present with pulmonary oedema, pleural effusion
Preducted by stress, anaesthesia, fluid yherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Heart failure is xue to

A

Disease progression
Decompensation of previously stable heart failure
Development of impedence of cardiac filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Left sided heart failure

A

Congestion of pulmonary curculation; pulmonary oedema

Tachypnoea, dyspneoa, pulmonary crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Right sided heart failure

A

Congestion of systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment of heart failure

A 
Flurosemide 
Minimise stress
Oxygrn
ACE inhibitor
Water must be available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Whatdoes DUDE stand for

A

Defecating urinating drinking eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Horse defecating

A

4-13 piles a day

Approx 17g for a 500kg/d horse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How much should a horse drink

A

40-60ml/kg/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Horse eating

A

1.5-2.5 bodyweight of dry matter/day

18hr grazing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Horse auscultation

A

Lungs and trachea hard to hear
Heart clear left and right may hear ‘dropped beats’ may be murmurs.
Abdomen gut sounds in all quadrants.
Caecal emptying - right dorsal quadrant, toilet flushing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sick horse

A

Bright alert responsivd appear outwardly normal.
But usually.
Disinterested in surroundings/ less reaction to change. More static - stood sleepy / recumbent. Disengaged with others, stood alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Presenting signs of stomach pain (colic)

A 
Rolling
Looking at flank
Grinding teeth
Stretching
Anorexia/ inappetent
Recumbent 
Pawing
Digging bed
Reduced feacal output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Presenting signs of resp disease (horse)

A 
Excersise intolerance 
Extended head and neck position 
Increased abdominal effort. 
Heave line
Flared nostrils
Coughing
Nasal / ocular discharge
Epistaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Presenting signs of liver disease (horse)

A 
Dull
Inappetent
Weight loss
Photosensitisation
Jaundice 
Head pressing
Diarrhoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Presenting signs of dental disease (horses)

A

Dropping food
Weight loss
Slow to eat
Hallitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Presenting signs of lameness (horses)

A 
Recumbentcy
Abdominal posture
Resting limb
Slow to move
Sweating 
Lame with moving 
Poor performance 
Changed behaviour and excersise 
Inappetent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Equine routine vaccine

A

Influenza and tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Equine stud vaccines

A

Herpes, rotavirus, equine viral arterilis, equine infectious anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Equine influenza

A 
Im dose day 0 day 21-92 day 150-215
6 months for FEI competing horses 
Annual booster < or = 365day
Acute onset resp disease
- pyrexia, nasal duscharge, coughing 
- horse sick but rarely fatal 
Highly contagious 
Only 40% vaxxed in uk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tetanus

A 
Im injection 
- primary vaccine 4-6 weeks apart 
- 3rd vaccine 1 year 
- then every 2-3 year 
Uncommon, high motality 
Spastic paralysis 
- muscular contraction
- extended head, neck, spine, elevated tail
- flared nostrils
- wide open eyes
- erect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Equine dentistry

A

Routine exam

  • gag / speculum
  • every 6-12 months for healthy adult
  • remove sharp enamel points
  • removal of rostral/ caudal hooks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Equine worming

A 
Padlock maintenance 
Minimise shocking density 
Maintain consistent population 
Poopick 2x/week or more 
Rest+ rotate pasture 
Always turn foals out onto clean posture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Removing dried mud from horse

A

Dandy brush or curry comb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Horse body brush

A

Ised all over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Equine hoof care

A

Shoeing depends on growth and wear, comformation and hoof quality.
Routine trip and shoe every 4-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Horse shoes provide

A

Protection support gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Surgical treatment of boas

A

Soft palate resection
Tonsil resection
Removal of extended laryngeal sacules
Laser assisted tubotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pre surgical prep boas

A 
Full discussion will surgeon to inc ASA grade
Biochem
Oxygen kennel/ mask
Minimal stress via handling
Occular lube peri op 
Periop intemse monitoring is vital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Surgical prep boas

A

Ensure all equipment is prepared

Thoracic radiography ususlly performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Monitoring boas

A

Ox saturation > 98%
Capnography 35-45 mmHg
Use ippv or mechanival ventilator
Blood pressure mean not below 60mmHg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Laryngeal paralysis

A

Vocal cords unable to abduct (oprn) in response to excersise and resp demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Laryngeal tie back

A

Avoid excitemrnt and high temperature
Diagnosis under light lane of anaesthesia
Surgery performed on left side of neck
Left arytenoid cartilage permanently tied open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Congenital Palate defects

A

Clegt upper lip - surgery wt 3-4 months

Clinnical signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Aquired palate defects

A

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Common causes of resp failure

A 
Airway obstruction
Ruptured diaphragm 
Pulmonary oedma 
Pneumothorax 
Neoplaia 
Infection 
Toxic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Clinnical signs of upper resp diseases

A

Nasal discharge
Sneezing
Reverse sneezing
Stendor / snony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Non GA URT investigation

A

Toutine bloods
Tests for bkeeding disorders
Serology for fungal disease
Viral testing in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

GA investigations

A

Full oral exam
Dental probing
Nasopharyngeal swab in cats
Imaging endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Cough pathophysyology

A

Protective reflux to clear excess secretions
Cough receptors in large airways amd low density of cough receptors in nose sinus phynx and pleura
Cough arc reflex
P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Canine chronic bronchitis

A

Chronic bronchial inflammation woth secretion of mucous.

Middkr aged ti old dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Canine infectious tracheobronchitis

A 
Kennel cough
A complex of several viruses, bacteria snd other micro orgsnidms may be thr csuse. 
Highky contagious
Cough suppressants may be used 
Vaccine protocols
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How to position stable blovk

A

Avoid upwind dust sources
Trees = shelter but leaves block drainage
Southfacing= sunlight and warmth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Stable pollutants

A

Dust allergens irritants

Ammonia bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Mucking out

A 
Daily full clean 
Remove all faeces and soiled bedding 
Lift all bedding and place ckean
Sweep floor
Remove bedding add fresh
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What foes drying stable floor teduce

A

Ammonia and mould

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Tracheal collapse

A

Middle aged small and toy breeds
Degeneration of tracheal rings
Signs- harsh cough triggered by exhalent stridor buikd up over time.
Diagnose - right and lateral radiograoh at peak expiration
Bronchoscopic
Fluroscopy real time x rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Management of travheal collapse

A

Weight loss harness avoid smoke meducal surgical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Extraluminal ring prosthesis

A

Good outcome 75-89% of time
Invasive
Risk management
Complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Intraluminal stent plCement

A

Less invasive
Durable materual but can fatigue under pressure
Complicatioms
Vital yo control coughing post surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Bronchoscopy

A

Inflammation, mucous, airway narrowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pulmonary parasites

A

Intestinal wirms
Lung worms
Heart worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Advantages of standing sedation

A

Reduces ga risks
Msy reduce costs
Anatomical advantages
Less facilitues and experts required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Disadvantages of standing sedation

A

Not all horses have suitable temperment
Less control over situation
Need control of environment
Duration limmited so speed critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Horse standing surgery

A

Sedated but consious patient
Iv catheter
Rehional la

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Regurgitation

A

Passive return of food

Hallmark of oesophageal disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Reguritation secondary problems

A

Malnutrition
Dehydration
Anorexia
Aspiration pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Stages of vomiting

A

Prodromal phase- nausea (restless,agitated,hypersalivation,gulping,lip smackinh, licking)
Retchijh (inhibition of salivation, mixing of gastric contebtd, duodenal retroperistalsis)
Explusion
Relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

If diarrhoea is from the si itll be

A

Large volume, watery, notmal frequency, normal colour, +/- melana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

If diarrhoea is from thr li

A

Small volume, increased urgency and frequency, tenesmys, dyschezia, +/- mucous and blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Categories of acute v and d

A

1) non fatal, may or may not need treatment
2) severe and potentially life threateninh, acute haemorrhage
3) surgicsl disease, foreign body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Dietry advice vomiting

A

If acute rest gut but free access to water. 24-36 hours then reintroduce bland food. 2-5 day transitiom to normal diet. Not for neonates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Dietry advice diarrhoea

A

Feed through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Gi foreign body

A

No obstruction
- if small, smooth and gastric -> induce emesis
- intestinal -> natural passage woth radiograohic monitoring
- bones disolve in gastric acid
Obstructive
- surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Gastric dilation + volvulus (GDV)

A

Also gastric dilation. Acute dilation of stomach. May progres to torsion of stomach.
Impated venous return. Shock and desth.
Treatment
Aggressive fluid therapy. Immediate decompresion - stomach tube.
Iv antibiotics. Surgical correctuon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Colitis

A

Colonic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Gastric ulcers treatment

A

Evaluate fir and remove / treat underlying cayse. Acid blocks. Coating agents. Analgesic. Nsaid overdose. Surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Constipation

A

Impactipm of the colon or rectum eiyh feacal matter.

Excessivly hard/ dry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Causes abs treatment of constipatinb

A

Dietry. Dehydration and electrolyte disturbance. Drug remayed. Environmental.

Identify and correct underlying causr. Oral laxitives. Enemas. Surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Hepatic dysfunction

A

Prehepatic - heamolysis
Hepatic - failure of heoatic uptske
Post hepatic - failure of excretion of bile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Ascites

A

Fluid accumulation in the abdomen, typically refering to a watery fluif.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

RER

A

30 X BW(kg) + 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Possible consequences of obesity

A 
Hepatic lipidosis
Joint disease
Excersose intolerance
Diabetes
Skin disease
Cardio respiratory disease 
Flutd
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Outline a safe weight loss plan

A 
1-2% per week
Diet changes
E cerise plan
Behaviour changes
MER based on idea not current weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Choice of suture materials for GI surgery

A

Short duration absorption- monocryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Oral tumours

A

Usually older animals , may be poor prognosis, may be expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Oronasal fistulae

A

May be secondary to trauma, dental extraction or ruinous. Need surgical repair to stop foot materials impacting nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Pre and post op considerations specific to oral surgery

A

Pre - flush mouth of debris
Post - ensure patient can’t eat / drink - food needs to be soft but easy firmed so easy to swallow. Feeding tube may be required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Foreign body

A

Main sign is persistent or intermittent vomiting. May be removed endoscopically. May need surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Pyloric obstruction

A

Fb or thickening / neoplasia at outflow of stomach known as ‘ gastric outflow disease’ surgery may widen or even remove pylorus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Gastric neoplasia is

A

Often advanced by time of diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Gastric dilatation volvulus GDV

A

Food or gas accumulation in stomach. Stomach dilated with gas and rotates occluding oesophagus and venous drainage. Emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Tube gastromy

A

Surgical or endoscopic placement of tube for nutritional support or decompresssion of stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Gastric surgery specific nursing considerations

A

Pre and intra - treatment of dehydration / hypovolaemia as needed. Prep wide surgical site.
Post - feeding low fat bland diet. Liquid died in case of pyloric obstruction. Continued treatment of fluid + electrolyte losses. Monitor fir arrhythmias in GDV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Treatment plan for GDV

A

Treat shock - rapid admin of IV fluids
IV antibiotics
Decompression of stomach by passing stomach tube.
Right lateral radio graph taken to confirm volvulus.
ECG to check for ventricular dysrhyhmias
Surgery to decompress and derotate stomach and asses stomach wall viability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Why would you do an intestinal biopsy?

A

In cases of persistent or recurrent v or d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Enterotomy

A

Foreign body removal.

Can be simple (mass like) or linear (string line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Enterectomy

A

Where guy is necrotic or neoplastic - section is removed abs ends sutured together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Intussusseption

A

SI invaginates into itself and seen in young digs after d.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

SI surgery specific nursing considerations

A

Pre and intra - keep intestinal contents moist. Wide surgical site. Clamps.
Post - biopsy samples labelled. Encourage eating and drinking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What intestinal surgery is higher risk

A

Li

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Colectomy

A

Removal of colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Specific nursing considerations of li surgery

A

Pre + intra - avoid enemas- slurry is likely to spill. Antibiotics possible.
Post - label samples.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Horse abdominal pain signs

A

Rolling pawing flank watching lip curling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Abdominal exam

A

Auscultation 4 quadrants
Transabdominal ballottement
Look fir distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Rectal exam

A

Most useful
Can only feel part of abdomen.
Distension impaction displacement
Equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Stomach tubing horses

A

Gastric overfilling
Occurs mostly with small si obstruction
Can admit fluid and meds.
Most likely will cause big nose bleed. Need stomach tube 2 buckets, one with water. Funnel jug sedation and lube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Horse untraslund

A

Rectal or transabdominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Abdominoparacentesis

A 
Intestinal damage
Haemoperitoneum
Rupture 
Inflammatory / neoplastic cells 
Case select 
Fairly low risk. 
2 techniques
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

House gastroscopy

A

Starve at least 12 hours
Ulceration outflow obstruction impaction.
Biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Horse dental disease

A 
Eruption disorders 
Dental decay
Periodontal disease 
Fractured tooth 
Diastema 
Fillings , widenings , problems with removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Oesphagus choke clinical signs and diagnosis

A

CS- neck extended, food / discharge from nose, cough, gag. Dehydration, acid base imbalance, weight loss. Aspiration pneumonia.
Diagnoses- auscultation, bloods, gastroscopy, stomach tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What causes gastroduodensl ulceration in horses.

A

Imbalance between inciting and protective factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Clinical signs and diagnosis of horse gastroduodensl ulceration

A

CS - poor appetite, recurrent colic, tooth grinding, dog sitting , poor performance.
Diagnosis - gastroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Gastric dilation and rupture

A

Pulmonary, secondary, idiopathic.
Primary - gastric impaction, grain engorgement, acute or chronic colic.
Secondary - more common, small or large obstruction.
CS- overfilling of stomach, acute colic, tachycardia, fluid from nose, dehydration.
Diagnosis - reflux, colic work up and gastroscopy
Treatment- stomach tubing, underlying cause , Iv fluids, electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Are seizures more common in cats or dogs

A

Dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Normal cerebral activity

A

Neurones transmit info through chemical and electrical signals. This is regulated by large group of inhibiting cells called interneurones. If balance between excitation and inhibition input is altered a seizure occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Seizure

A

Clinical manifestations of excessive abs or hypersyndrones. Usually self limiting neuronal discharges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

3 diagnoses seizure and definition.

A

Isolated seizure - lasting less than 3 mins and only occurs once.
Cluster seizure - 2 or more within 24 hours with complete recovery in between.
Status epilepticus - seizure lasting longer than 5 mins. 2 seizures without complete recovery in between. Neorological emergancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Types of seizure

A

Partial / focal
Simple
Complex
Generalised (tonic / clonic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Partial / focal seizures

A

Asymmetric, one part of the brain affected
Facial twitching
Hyoersalivation
Consciousness maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Simple seizure

A

No change in mentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Complex seizure

A

Change in mentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Generalised seizure

A

Bilateral cerebral hemisphere involvement
Autonomic signs
Loss of consciousness
Pre ictal ictal and post ictal phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Seizure phases

A

Pre ictal
Ictal
Post ictal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Pre ictal

A

Minutes
Before actual seizure
Behaviour changes, altered mentation, attention seeking behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Ictal

A

Seizure itself
Less than 5 minutes
Loss of consciousness, muscle contraction, urination/defecation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Post ictal

A

Minutes to days after siezure

Abnormal neuro signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Extrac cranial seizures can be caused by

A

Toxins or metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Intracranial causes of seizures can be

A

Structural or functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Structural causes if sixties

A

Brain tumour
Inflammation
Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Functional causes of seizures

A

Idiopathic epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Toxin causes of seizures

A

Slug bait
Antifreeze
Human drugs
Permethrin in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Metabolic causes of seizures

A

Portosystemic shunt
Hypoglycaemia
Hypocalcalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Idiopathic epilepsy

A 
Most common cause of seizures 
Animal between 6m and 6y
Recurrent seizures 
Normal inter ictal neuro exam 
Normal metabolic investigation 
Normal mri scan of brain 
Normal csf
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Diagnostics of seizures

A 
History 
Bloods- haem, biochem, fasted blood glucose, pre and post bile acids
MRI 
Csf analysis 
Videos 
Monitoring and recording 
Retinal exam and bp measurement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Siezure mimics

A 
Narcolepsy/ cataplexy 
Fly catching 
Movement disorder 
Syncope
3rd degree AV block 
Canine epilogue cramping syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Narcolepsy / cataplexy

A 
Sleep / wake disorder 
Collapses are flaccid 
Inherited 
Lord of muscle tone 
No autonomic signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Flycatching syndrome

A 
Unknown cause 
Like chasing or trying to chase fly 
Mins- hours 
Normal mentation 
No autonomic signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Movement disorder

A

Episodic
Patient remains conscious
Involuntary movements that are spontaneous and uncontrolled
Neurologically normal between episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Syncope

A 
‘Fainting’
Temporary loss of consciousness 
Reduced oxygenation to the brain 
Cardiac related 
Neurological 
Hypoglycaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

3rd degree AV block

A

Prolonged hypoxic event

Partial seizure like episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Canine epileptoid cramping syndrome

A

Movement disorder
Common in border terriers
No autonomic signs
Normal mentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

If discovering a patient siezure then…

A 
…
Note time
Call clinician in charge for help 
Remove any dangers 
Dom lights 
Reduce noise 
Limit handling 
Monitor vital signs 
Follow seizure plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

When a siezure patient comes in…

A 
Reassure owner 
Triage 
Oxygen therapy 
Iv access 
Anticonvulsants
Check temp
Active cooling 
Mannitol 
Continuous rate infusion
Intubation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Nursing interventions of assisted feeding

A

Avoid food buffets in kennels. Avoid prescription diets. Try different textures. Antiemetics? Appetite stimulants? TLC. Offer food away from kennel. Painful? Warm food. Offer usual diet or favourite items. Is condition worsening?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

When is a feeding tube placed?

A

Anorexic for 48hrs or more.
If vet anticipates patient to be anorexic after procedure.
Trauma near head mouth or neck.
To administer oral hydration or meds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What are the 3 types of feeding tube?

A

Naso oesophageal
Oesophageal
Percutaneus endoscopic gastromy (PEG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Naso oesophageal tube placement equipment

A 
Surgical staples 
Feeding tube 
Syringe that fits the tube. 
LA
Sterile lube, gloves, water and tape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Duration of Naso oesophageal tube and how to remove

A

Up to 7 days
Remove by removing staples
Use non sterile gloves and pull gently from nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Equipment for oesophageal feeding tube

A 
Oesophageal feeeing tube 
Sterile gloves 
Non sterile gloves 
Curved artery forceps 
Surgical prep equipment 
Scalpel blade 
Bandaging material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

How long to have oesophageal feeling tube and how to remove

A

Weeks - months

Non sterile gloves to remove tube. Cut sutures abs gently pull away. Apply primary dressing to cover site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Can anyone be called an exotic specialist?

A

Only if they have a diploma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

How to transport rabbits and rodents

A

Secure box or carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

How to transport reptiles

A

Provide heating

Snakes in pillowcase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

How to transport fish

A

Double plastic bag in water proof box with second bag of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

How to transport birds

A

Cage or box.

Birds of prey can be held on hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Fish tuberculosis

A

Local non healing ulcers. Reduced appetite, weight loss and body deformities.

Zoonosis.

Cause localised lesions.

Prevention - wash hands, don’t have exposed wounds, don’t share sinks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Ringworm

A

Fungal infection, spread by contact.

Causes scaly itchy patches often but not always circular. Wear gloves when suspected. Wash hands after handling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Euthanasia in different species

A

Mammals IV or into liver/kidney
Rabbit ear vein
Rodents cranial vena cava
Reptiles Iv and check heart stopped with Doppler
Snake intracardiac or into liver
Lizard - tail vein
Chelonia - jugular
Birds gas down then iv jugular or tibiotarsal. Large birds then liver
Fish anaesthesia followed by injector into spinal cord behind gil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What type of breather is a rabbit

A

Nasal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Where to blood sample a rabbit

A 
Lateral saphenous 
Marginal ear vein 
Cephalic
Jugular 
Volume _ max 1ml per 100gms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Rabbit fluid therapy

A

Crystalloids first choice for fluid imbalance
Colloids may be used to bring up blood pressure or in case of blood loss.
Blood tramsfusuons may be preferred.
REM they have high metabolic rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Rabbit GI stasis

A

Emergency
Common
Reduced or stopped intestinal motility

Signs- anorexia, absence of droppings, bloated

Causes - stress, inappropriate diet, other disease

Treatment - pain relief, fluids, syringe feeding, fix underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Rabbits and blood glucose

A

Very useful ti assess pain
5-10 is normal
15-20 pain 20+ liklry GI obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Vestibular disease

A

Head tilt, circling, middle ear infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Why would rabbit have fecal blockage

A

Too many carbs
Obesity
Dental disease
Back pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Three S of wildlife rescue

A

Sure? Can you be sure before you try to rescue
Safety! Your own safety comes first
Stress! Minimise stress maximises survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Treating vs euthanising wildlife

A

Balance stres Of treatment against successful return to wild.
Some species have to be released by licences person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Anaesthetising fish

A 
Inhalation so as open system in constant exchange with environment. 
Penoxethanol 
Ms222Tricaninemethone
5 mins of anesthesia out of water. 
Remove when can’t hold itself upright.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Fish diagnostic tests

A 
Mucous scraping (dorsal or pectoral fin) 
Bacteriology 
Blood sampling 
Radiography 
Ultrasonography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Fish injection?

A

Under scale at 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

VPIS

A

Veterinary poisons information service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Information that’s important when suspect poisoning

A

What when dose
Up to date body weight
If asymptomatic, unknown or low risk product - call VPIS
Symptomatic or known ingestion of high risk product - immediate vet attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Owner instructions and advice when suspect poisoning

A

Owner should bring - product label or photo, sample of product. Approx time and quantity.
Advice - if dermal contamination prevent self grooming. Ensure other pets or children don’t have access. Don’t follow internet remedies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What to get while waiting for poisons patient to arrive

A

If dose of substance and bw already known then consult poisons service.
Prepare for triage and initial managed.
Get oneself, vet, hospital sheet, Cateter abs fluid therapy, oxygen, diagnostics samples, decontaminates, emetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Managing poisons

A

Remove / eliminate toxin. (Induce emesid, gastric lavage, cutaneous decontamination,haemodilalysus)
Reduce ongoing absorption.
Dilute toxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Induction of emesis

A

Emesis empties 40-60% gastric contents. May enhance effectiveness if feed small meal prior.
Indicated within 2-3 hrs after oral ingestion if non corrosive intoxicant.

Contraindicated if intoxicant is corrosive/ irritant

Dogs - apomorphine sc
Cats - xylazine Im

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Gastric lavage

A

Uncommon.

Known intoxication ingested within last hour and emesis unsuccessful or contraindicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Cutaneous decontamination

A

Wear appropriate ppe. Clip affected regions in long haired patients. Warm water. Mild shampoo / detergent. Avoid ocular contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Reducing ongoing toxin absorption

A

Enteric absorbents

Intralipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Enteric absorbents

A

Reduce ongoing absorbing.

Activated charcoal mixed with wet food or via stomach tubining following gastric lavage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Intralipid

A

Creates a ‘lipid sink’ in Iv space. Used for liphilic toxins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Nephrotoxins may cause…

A

… acute onset azotemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Acute onset azotemia

A

Sudden onset. Relate to AKI, inappetent, lethargy, vandd.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Neohrotixin management

A

Decontamination - induce emesis, activated charcoal.
Antidotes.
Nursing.
Prognoses depends on toxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Neurotoxin clinical signs

A 
Hyperexcitabikity 
Agitation 
Muscle tremors 
Risk of hypothermia 
Seizures 
Obtundation, coma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Respiratory arrest

A

Patent is not breathing, apnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Cardiac arrest, cardiopulmonary arrest

A

Patent has no cardiac output

Not breathing

208
Q

CPCR cardiac vs thoracic pump

A

Cardiac in cats abs small dogs

Thoracic in medium to large breed dogs

209
Q

Cardiac pump

A

Compression of thorax directly over heart

210
Q

Thoracic pump

A

Compression of widest point if thorax.

211
Q

Stored whole blood

A

> 8hr collection

No functional platelets, loss of clotting factors

212
Q

Packed red blood cells

A

Separated from plasma by centrifuging.
The PCV is higher than whole blood.
42 day expiry date

213
Q

Fresh frozen plasma

A

Stored at -18•c for less than a year.
Contains all coagulation factors.
Contains physiological concentration of albumin and other plasma proteins.

214
Q

Frozen plasma

A

Stable coagulation factor remains.
Labile factors will be lost.
Stored at

215
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A

Made by slowly and partially thawing fresh frozen plasma which is then centrifuged again.
Rich in fibrinogen

216
Q

It is ideal to use the blood product that most closely replaces what is missing because

A

It reduces likelihood of transfusion complications.

Allows blood products to be most effective.

217
Q

Blood type is determined by…

A

… proteins / antigens found on red blood cells

218
Q

Symptoms of a blood transfusion reaction

A

Fever, tachycardia, dysponea, muscle tremors, vomiting, weakness, collapse,

219
Q

Blood typing dogs

A

The dog erythrocyte antigen - DEA
Labs can type 1,3,4,5,7 each are positive and negative
Dogs posses no naturally occurring antibiotics against DEA1

220
Q

What blood type are Siamese cats usually

A

A

221
Q

What blood types are rag dolls usually

A

AB

222
Q

Cat blood types

A

A B AB

Naturally occurring alloantibodies are present in plasma.

223
Q

Major blood cross match

A

Recipients serum and donors rbc

224
Q

Minor blood cross match

A

Donors serum and requires rbc

225
Q

Crissmatching should be performed prior to blood transfusion when

A

Recipient has received transfusion >4 days ago
History of transfusion reaction
Transfusion histiry unknown
Ideally for all feline transfusion and all Dalmatian’s

226
Q

Open blood donation

A

One or more additional sites of potential bacteria entering

227
Q

Closed blood donation

A

Only exposure is uncapping the needle. Only suitable for large dogs.

228
Q

What blood donation techniques has a longer shelf life

A

Closed donation

229
Q

Blood sampling lizard

A

Ventral tail vein

Underside of tail go to bone then out slightly

230
Q

Blood sampling snakes

A

Ventral tail vein

Cardiocentesis

231
Q

Blood sampling tortoises

A 
Jugular sampling (right)
Subvertebral sinus.
232
Q

Fluid therapy of reptiles

A 
Soaking 
Oral 
Intracoelmic 
Subcut but not much discs 
Iv but hard to maintain access
Intraossrus
233
Q

Autonomy

A

When drops tail

234
Q

Metabolic bone disease

A

Imbalance between calcium and phosphorus abs lack of VAD3.

Symptoms - fractures rubber jaw weakness muscle tremors.

235
Q

ecdysis

A

Shedding problems.
Usually use to poor husbandry.
Provide humidity - shedding chamber.
Gently ease retained shed.

236
Q

Why do small mammals often require higher drug doses

A

They have higher metalbic rates

237
Q

Overflow incontinancs

A

Overflow occurs when patient is unaware bladder is full.

238
Q

What an happen if a bladder is constantly full

A

UTI

239
Q

Urine scalding

A

Around peritoneal area.

Keep clean and dry.

240
Q

Bladder management

A

Express 6-8 hours.
If passing urinary catherrr start by emptying bid as Ridk of trauma.
Undwelling catheter emptied 3-4 times a day.
Sterile procedure.

241
Q

Decubital ulcers

A

Open skin wound caused by continued pressure of skin on firm surface.
Tissue ischemia is skin causing injury.
Most likely on bony prominences.
Develop rapidly once formed.

Prevent by turning every 4 hours, more in honey breeds. Deep padded bedding and prop with pillows.

242
Q

Sims of physiotherapy

A

Promote recovery
Prevent further complications
Neuromuscular conditions
Spinal cord damage.

243
Q

Benefits of physio

A 
Pain management 
Improve range of motion
Reduce muzzle contraction and tension
Stimulate nervous system 
Improve blood perfusion 
Improve cardiorespiratory capacity
Encourage relaying of motor patterns
Weight management
244
Q

Define critical care nursing

A

Nursing that focuses on the care of critically I’ll or unstable patients.
Patents with life threatening or potentially life threatening problems.

245
Q

What patients require critical care nursing

A 
Cv unstable 
Resp distress
Neurological disease
Multiple trauma
Systemic disease 
Extensive wounds / burns
Electrolyte imbalances
Neonate
246
Q

How to triage

A

Quick physical assessment of 3 major body systems

Cv resp and neuro

247
Q

Critical patients that need constant monitoring

A

Critical patients and those likely to deteriorate

248
Q

Critical patients that need monitoring every 15-30 minutes

A

GA recover , starting blood transfusions

249
Q

Critical patient that needs monitoring every 1-2 hours

A

Needing meds. Monitoring rr. Hypoglycaemia patients.

250
Q

Critical patient that needs monitoring every 4-6 hours

A

Stable but clinical status may deteriorate

251
Q

What can a weak thready pulse indicate

A

Decreased systolic BP

252
Q

What can a bounding pulse indicate

A

Sepsis

253
Q

What can a snappy pulse indicate

A

Anaemia

254
Q

Doppler blood pressure

A

Manual reading of systolic bp

Uses sound waves to detect arterial blood flow as an audible sign

255
Q

Oscillometric blood pressure

A

Machine reading of systolic diastolic and map bp

Detects oscillations as blood flow returned to occluded artery

256
Q

Invasive blood pressure

A

Measured directly from artery
Very accurate, gold standard
Continuous measurement

257
Q

Causes of dysponea

A

Upper airway obstruction.
Pleural space disease.
Pulmonary parenchyma disease.
Upper airway disease.

258
Q

Anuria

A

No urine production

259
Q

Dysuria

A

Difficulty passing urine

260
Q

Oliguria

A

Reduced urine output

261
Q

Pollakiuria

A

Passing small amounts of urine often

262
Q

Stranguria

A

Straining to urinate

263
Q

Catheterisation is

A

I steering a urinary catheter into the urethra up to the level of the bladder

264
Q

Why would you catheterise a patient

A 
To empty the bladder prior to surgery 
To obtain a urine sample 
To put in contest media for x rays
To maintain patency or unblock 
To monitor urine output 
To divert urine 
Prevent urine scalding
265
Q

Alternatives to catheterisation

A

Manual expression
Free catch
Cystocentisus

266
Q

Types of urinary catheter

A

Portex - rigid, single use, side holes, not designed for indwelling
Foley - soft, silicone/latex, inflatable balloon filled with sterile water holds in place, proffered to indwelling
Jackson cat - Tom cat catheter, hoof gor unblocking, side holes can cause problems, not good for indwelling
Slippery Sam - good for unblocking obstructions, short term indwelling

267
Q

Risks of urinary catheterisation

A 
Urethral rupture 
Urethral trauma / inflammation
Urethral structure formation
Infection
Blockage or obstruction of catheter
268
Q

In a hospital setting how often would you typically measure urine output

A

Every 4 hours

269
Q

How to measure volume of urine patent has produced

A

Closed system collection

270
Q

Why would you monitor urine output

A

Tells us about renal function

Tells us if fluid therapy is appropriate

271
Q

Normal urine output of animal

A

1-2mls / kg / hour

272
Q

Which kidney is more cranial

A

The right

273
Q

Azotemia

A

Elevation of urea +/- creatinine in blood stream

274
Q

Uraemia

A

Clinical signs associated with azotemia

275
Q

Polydipsia

A

Excessive water intakr

276
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

Bacteria kidney infection

277
Q

Renal insufficiency

A

Measureablr reduction of kidney function

278
Q

AKI

A

Acute kidney injury

Sudden onset kidney disease

279
Q

CKD

A

Chronic kidney disease

Over 3 month duration of kidney disease

280
Q

What is one of the first readily measureAblr sign of kidney disease

A

Inability to concentrate urine

281
Q

Urinalysis

A 
USG - how concentrated 
Dipstick 
Microscopy 
Cytology 
Bacterial vulture
282
Q

Endogenous waste products excreted by the kidneys

A

Urea and creatinine

283
Q

What does azotemia indicate

A

Refuced glomerular filtration of blood

284
Q

Prerenal, renal and post renal azotemia

A

Prerenal - inadequate renal perfusion
Renal - reduced functional mass of kidneys
Postrenal - kidneys are functional but waste products are not excreted

285
Q

Normal response to Prerenal azotemia

A

To preserve at much water as possible = produce concentrated urine

286
Q

Renal azotemia signs

A

USG less than 10/30 in dogs or 10/35 in cats

287
Q

Diagnose post renal azotemia

A

Imaging

288
Q

Cystoscopy

A

Direct visualisation of lower urinary tract

289
Q

Acute kidney injury

A

Acute nephron damage / dysfunction

290
Q

Chronic kidney disease

A

Chronic nephron loss, gradual decline in renal function

291
Q

Intrinsic AKI

A

Toxins / drugs
Ischaemic - hypofusion
Infectious - lepto
Cutaneous and renal glomerular vasclopathy

292
Q

Clinical signs of AKD

A

Azotemia, uraemia, lethargic, depressed, inappetant, nauseas
Increase in posassium = cardiac arrhythmias/ death
Hyper/hypo perfusion

293
Q

AKI management

A 
Remove underlying cause  - stop nephrotoxic drugs, if recent ingestion gastric decontamination. 
Supportive management etc. 
specific treatment
Fluid therapy 
Treat hyperkapaemia
294
Q

Chronic kidney disease

A

More common in cats.
Typically older patients.
Functional or structural kidney disease.
Irreversible and progressive kidney damage abs dysfunction.
Management aimed at protecting remaining nephrons and managing clinical consequences.

295
Q

Historical findings of CKD

A 
Subtle and non specific 
PUPD
Weight loss
Lethargy weakness 
Inappetence
296
Q

Catabolic state

A

Reduced body / muscle condition

297
Q

Consequences of systemic hypertension

A

Target organ damage - ocular, renal, cardiac, neurological

High blood pressure

298
Q

Non invasive blood pressure

A

Doppler

Oscillometric

299
Q

Diagnosis of CKD

A

Concentrated urine with azotemia.
Lab findings.
Blood pressure.
Imaging.

300
Q

Cystitis

A

Urolithiasis
Neoplasia
Drug infused
Implants / indwelling devices

301
Q

Size of urolith

A

Macroscopic. Can be seen.

302
Q

Size of crystal

A

Microscopic

303
Q

Urinary crystals make up

A

Uroliths

304
Q

Crystalluria

A

Crystals in Uria

305
Q

Most common urinary stones

A

Struvite
Calcium oxalate
Urate

306
Q

The less dilute the urine the less risk of

A

Crystal and stone formation

307
Q

Symptomatic upper urinary uroliths

A

Nephroliths
Abdominal pain, anorexia, lethargy, haematuria
Uteroliths

308
Q

Symptomatic lower urinary uroliths

A

Obstruction - unproductive/ minimally productive urination.
Cystoliths = cystitis signs.
Maybe predispose to utis

309
Q

Can crystals predict stone type

A

No

310
Q

Best principal of urolith management

A

Dilute urine, encourage water intake and voiding.

311
Q

Feline idiopathic cystitis

A 
Young to middle aged cats. 
Overweight/ inactive/ indoor. 
Nervous disposition. 
Dry diet. 
Stressors. 
Autumn/ winter

A susceptible cat in provocative environment.

312
Q

Urogenic incontinence

A

Upper motor neurone lesion - spastic bladder, difficult to express
Lower motor neurone lesion - flaccid bladder, easy to express

313
Q

Non neurogenic incontinencs

A

Urethra sphincter mechanism incompetence.
Anatomical defects.
Urge incontinence.

314
Q

USMI - urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence.

A

Most common non neurogenic incontinence in dogs.
Common in larger breed spay bitches.
Leak during recumbency.

315
Q

Treatment of USMI

A

Tighten sphincter
Oestrogens
Urethral cuffs
Surgical repositioning of bladder

316
Q

Initial investsgoon of surgical diseases of urinary tract

A

Bloods
Urinalysis
Radiography
Ultrasonography

317
Q

Renal neoplasia

A

Carcinomas are the most common renal tumour in dogs.
Haematuria, palpapable abdominal mass as well as vague signs.
Pulmonary metastasis Is present in half of dogs.
In cats lymphoma I’d most common renal tumour

318
Q

Renal trauma

A

May follow RTA or bite injury

319
Q

Renal stones

A

Aetiology similar to other uroliths.
Often with those with chronic renal failure.
May be dissolved with diet or antibiotic therapy

320
Q

Surgical removal of renal stones

A

Nephrotomy - incision through the body of the kidney.

Risk of reduction in renal function short term.

321
Q

Kidney disease secondary to uteric disease

A

Ureters are at risk of trauma during spaying.

Uretal obstruction may Aldo be managed by nephrectomy

322
Q

Urethral ectopia

A

Congenital anomaly in dogs resulting in yesterdays opening into urethra.

323
Q

Bladder neoplasia

A

Not uncommon I’m elderly patients.
Present with haematuria, frequency/ urgency or obstruction.
Most are malignant.

324
Q

Incontinence

A

Various causes; congenital or acquired

More common in females because of anatomy - rare in cats

325
Q

FLUTD

A

Secondary to some kind of bladder disease.

Leads to urethral obstruction in some male cats.

326
Q

Urethral neoplasia

A

Rare cause of obstruction, but important in elderly bitches.
Most common form is transitional cell carcinoma.

327
Q

Prostatic disease

A

Prostate surrounds the urethra of the male.

Disease is rare in cats.

328
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A

Causes dyschezia or dysuria
Seen in older entire males
Managed with anti androgens
Often castration preferred as definitive treatment

329
Q

Prostatitis

A

Bacterial infection, often together with BPH.
Disease of entire males.
Managed with antibiotics or castration.

330
Q

Prostatic abscess

A

Variable systemic signs.

331
Q

Prostatic cyst

A

Entire males

Treat with deroof and omentalisation and castration

332
Q

Prostatic neoplasia

A

Disease of elderly dogs
Usually very painful
Slightly more common in castrated animals
Poor prognosis

333
Q

Wound classification

A

Class 1: 0-6 hours old, clean laceration, minimal contamination
Class 2: 6-12 hours old, significant contamination
Class 3: older than 12 hours, gross contamination

334
Q

Wound contamination

A

Clean - created under sterile conditions
Clean contaminated - minimal contamination, easily removed, surgical, tract penetrated, minimal spillage, can close after appropriate treatment
Contaminated - gross contamination with foreign debris, can close after treatment
Dirty / infected - infection already exists, never close primarily

335
Q

Types of wounds

A

Incision - created by sharp objects, smooth edges, minimal surrounding trauma
Abrasion - created by blunt trauma / shearing force, damage to skin, included damage to epidermis
Avulsion - tearing of tissue from attachment, avuldion of limbs, degloving
Laceration - irregular wound created by tearing, variable damage to tissues
Puncture - penetrating wound by sharp object, minimal superficial damage but substantial deeper damage

336
Q

Stages of wound healing

A

Inflammatory phase
Proliferation phase
Maturation phase

337
Q

Inflammatory phase of injury

A

Occurs within 72 hours
Haemorrhage occurs within minutes of the injury
Vasoconstriction- reduced haemorrhage and allows clot to form
Vasodilation to release clotting elements into wound. Triggers healing process.
White blood cells leak from the blood vessels into the wound initiating through debridement phase.

338
Q

Early proliferate stage

A

Begins 3-5 days post injury
Reconstruction phase
Granulation tissue fills the wound
Fibroblasts lay network of collagen in the wound bed which gives strength to tissues
Epithelial cells from the wound margins migrate to cover wound

339
Q

Late proliferating stage

A

Wound contacts

Epithelisatiom

340
Q

Maturation stage

A

Behind 2-4 weeks post injury
Remodelling phase
Begins when wound has filled in and resurfaced
Collagen fibres reorganise, remodel and mature to give wound tensile strength forming scar tissue

341
Q

Goals of wound management

A 
Prevent further round contamination 
Remove foreign debris abs contamination 
Debride dead and dying tissue 
Promote viable vascular bed 
Promote drainage
Select appropriate method of cliure
342
Q

Asses viability of tissue

A 
Colour 
Warmth
Pain
Bleeding
Skin circulation
343
Q

How often should you change wound dressing

A

Depends on type of wound, volume of exudate, type of dressing in place, stage of found healing.

344
Q

How often should a wet to dry / dry to dry dressing be changed

A

Daily or twice daily

345
Q

Who often should a granulating wound dressing be changed

A

Every 2-3 days

346
Q

Surgical drains

A

Passive abs active drains available.
Depends on location, requirement abs also patient considerations when considering which one you use.
Think about anatomy abs how well drain will work.

347
Q

How often should a dressing be checked abs why

A 
4-6 hours 
Damp / wet 
Slipping 
Patient interference 
Tightening 
Check the toes for moisture / temp
Patients tolerance of dressing
348
Q

Abscess

A

Localised collection of purulent material lined with granulation and fibrous tissue.
Normally points and bursts leading to drainage.

349
Q

Signs of abscess

A 
Pyrexia 
Anorexia 
Vomiting 
Pain 
Swelling 
Discharge
350
Q

Treatment of abscess

A

Drain and flush
Maintain drainage
Treat with antibiotics

351
Q

Cellulitis

A

Arises from acute inflammation.
Distribution puss through tissue (not localised like abscess)
Painful, sensitive, pyrexia, swelling.

352
Q

Sinus

A

Infected blind ending tract leading from a focus of infection (deeper tissues) and I body surface or mucous membrane.
Not lined with epithelial tissue but lined with granulation tissue.

353
Q

Signs of sinus

A

Pyrexia pain sensitive disease specific

354
Q

Fistula

A

Abnormal tract between two epithelial surfaces or connecting an epithelial surface to the skin.
May arise as a result of injury or trauma.
Signs- chronic infection, visually abnormal, physically abnormal
Need surgical repair

355
Q

Ulcers

A

‘Lord of the epithelial surface if a tissue’ (skin / mm)
Shallow lesions caused by trauma aggravated by poor blood supply and or infection.
Often slow to heal.
Pain swelling visual appearance infection
Remove cause keep clean and dress wound care
Causes- pressure, poor blood supply, irritants, pathogens

356
Q

Corneal ulcer

A

Varies in depth
Causes - trauma, bacteria, eyelash or eyelid disorders
Signs - increased lacrimation, ocular pain, ocular discharge, blephrospasm

357
Q

Decubitus ulcer

A

Pressure sore

Pain, open wound, pyrexia, sensitivity, restricted movement

358
Q

Cysts

A

Abnormal sac filled with fluid or semi solid matter lined with epithelium.
Swelling, visual appearance, restriction of movement, secondary problems

359
Q

Haematoma

A

Blood Vessels burst and blood accumulate in tissues.
May occur anywhere.
Trauma? Surgery? Clotting? Blood vessel abnormalities?
Swelling, Pain, discolouration

360
Q

Ruptures

A

Protrusions of organs or sift tissue through an unnatural opening or tear.
Usually arises as results of trauma although may be weakness which predisposes tear.

361
Q

Hernia

A

Abnormal protrusion of organs or soft tissue through a natural opening.
Usually occurs through the abdominal wall.

362
Q

Classifications of hernias / ruptures

A

Reducible
Irreducible / incarcerated
Strangulated

363
Q

Reducible hernia or rupture

A

Contents can be repositioned to the original anatomical location.
Usually corrected under gentle pressure.

364
Q

Irreducible/ incarcerated hernia or rupture

A

Contents cannot be repositioned to the original anatomical location.
Due to adhesions it’s other complications.

365
Q

Strangulatdd hernia or rupture

A

Contents become devitalised for ti blood vessels being restricted.
Life threatening and serious emergency.

366
Q

Umbilical hernia

A

Common in puppies and kittens.
Mishandling at birth may be factor.
Usually just a little fat but sometimes some abdominal contents.

367
Q

Inguinal hernia

A

Occurs through imguinal canal.
Females- often see a swelling by groin extending to vulva.
Males- fat or intestine may herniate into scrotal sac.
Ultrasound or radiography used to determine severity.

368
Q

Perineal hernia

A

Most common in elderly dogs due to chronic constipation which leads to excessive straining. The muscle layers around the anal sphincter gradually break down.
May be either unilateral or bilateral.

369
Q

Diaphragmatic rupture

A

Usually arises due to trauma
Animal quickly becomes dysponeic especially if the tear is Large as the abdominal contents fall forward into chest.
Animal usually finds breathing easier if sitting up.
Repair involves ippv as once abdominal cavity is opened air will enter thoracic cavity

370
Q

Ventral or abdominal rupture

A

A general term which refers to a tear anywhere on the abdominal wall other than the umbilical or Inguinal areas. As there is no predisposition it usually arises due to trauma.

371
Q

Bacteria

A

Single celled organism.
Reproduce by binary fission.
Coccoid, bacillus, spiral
Different staining and cellular characteristics.

372
Q

Viruses

A

Sub microscopic organisms
Diverse morphologies
Requires a living cell to replicate

373
Q

Fungi

A

Eukaryotic
Multicellular
Heterophobic
Sexual or asexual reproduction

374
Q

Parasites

A

Worms, Protozoa, ectoparasited
Eukaryotic multiccelled organisms.
Host adapted.
Depends on host for survival.

375
Q

Protozoa

A

(Parasite)
Single celled organism
Eukaryotic
Capable of sexual and asexual reproduction
Often have cyst (dormant) and trophozoite (active) forms

376
Q

Infectious feline upper resp tract disease.

A 
‘Cat flu’ 
Common, esp in multi cat houses 
Feline herpesvirus 
Feline calico virus 
Chlamydia felis 
Secondary bacterial infections.
377
Q

Feline herpes virus 1

A

Enveloped DNA virus.
Post exposure / infection most cats become lifelong carriers.
Stressful event - reactive virus and get more clinical signs.
Lives in nerves - trigeminal ganglion
Fomite/ close contact transmission

378
Q

Feline calicivirus

A

Non enveloped single stranded RNA virus.
Carrier state.
Lifelong.
May be asymptomatic.

379
Q

FHV / FCV transmission

A

Direct / indirect contact
Infectious agents in resp secretions
Replicate in urt epithelial cells and lymphoid tissue
FCV also replicated in systemic tissues.
Incubation 2-6 days. Viral shedding occurs from 1 day post infection before CS

380
Q

CS of FHV / FCV

A

2-6 days post infection
Range from very mild to severe/ life threatening
Exacerbated by secondary opportunistic infections
Oral, nasal, ocular, systemic

Predisposes cat to gingivostomatisis and lingual ulcers

381
Q

Diagnoses of FHV / FCV

A

Swabs - PCR, virus isolation, culture

382
Q

Feline upper respiratory tract infections nursing care

A

Clean face, warm wet water, soft wipes , improved comfort and smell
Barrier creams , prevent scalding
Ocular lube
Nebulisation to loosen secretions

383
Q

FHV / FCV vaccination

A

Protection not complete.
Attenuated live or inactivated
Kittens from 6-8 weeks, every 3-4 weeks until 16 weeks old. Revax at 1-3 years after.

384
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus and feline leukaemia virus

A

Enveloped RNA viruses
Poor survival outside of host
Retroviruses

385
Q

FIV is similar to …

A

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) but it’s not zoonotic.

Infected cats may develop feline AIDS boy not all cats with FIV do.

386
Q

Is FeLV or FIV more pathogenic

A

FeLV , more direct associating with clinical disease

387
Q

FIV transmission

A

Bite wounds - high conc in saliva
Infected blood products
Venereal rare

388
Q

FeLV transmission

A 
Close contact 
Allogrooming, fomites
Vertical very effective 
Infected blood products 
Venereal rare
389
Q

FIV infection

A 
Clinical course is similar to AIDS 
Lifelong although prolonged asymptomatic phase common. 
Infection -> acute phase
Replicates In Local lymphoid tissue  
Peak viraemia 8-12 weeks post infection
Terminal phase
390
Q

FIV diagnosis

A

Common to screen sick cats
Screening tests detect antibodies.
False positives are rare.

391
Q

FeLV clinical manifestations

A

Anaemia / bone marrow disorders
Neoplasia
Immunosuppression

392
Q

FeLV associated immunosuppression

A

Various infections

Impaired response to vaccinations

393
Q

FeLV related anaemia / bone marrow disorders

A

FeLV anaemias are typically non regenerative but regenerative is possible.
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopaenia

394
Q

FeLV related neoplasia

A

Most commonly known lymphoma
Thymic lymphoma
Most lymphoma cats are FeLV negative

395
Q

FeLV diagnosis

A

Screening blood tests

396
Q

FIV and FeLV home management

A

Indoor only - no hunting
Ideally separate positive abs negative cats
Both viruses labile outside host
Regular health checks
Vaccinate against the core vaccinabkr disease

397
Q

FCoV feline coronavirus

A 
RNA viruses
Large 
Enveloped
Mistakes occur frequently during replication 
Virulence varies

Faeco orally transmitted
High prevalence of infection. Low clinical sign rate.

398
Q

What can feline coronary virus mutate into

A

Feline infectious peritonitis

399
Q

Feline infectious peritonitis can be

A

Wet or dry

400
Q

Wet FIP

A

More common
Development of effusions and associated clinical signs
Frequently jaundiced
Lethargy inappetance weight loss and pyrexia are all common

401
Q

Dry FIP

A

Development of pyo/ granulomatous lesions within multiple organs
No effusions they may develop over time
May be jaundiced
Lethargy inappetance eight loss abs pyrexia
Usually more chronic

402
Q

Is toxoplasmosis zoonotic

A

Yes

403
Q

What is the definitive host

A

The host in which parasitic sexual maturity and repro occurs

404
Q

What is the Intermediate host

A

The host in which one or more stages if parasitic development occurs

405
Q

What is the transport host

A

A host in which the parasites may survive but no parasitic development occurs. This host may be a vector / vehicle gif transmission to other hosts

406
Q

Typically route of cat to get toxoplasmosis

A

Ingestin of bradyzoites in prey tissue

407
Q

CS of toxoplasmosis

A

Non specific
Lethargy , anorexia
Ocular , neuro ,
Rarely GI signs

408
Q

Diagnosis of toxoplasmosis

A

No specific exam / routine diagnostic findings.
Look for response to organism.
Look for organism - cytology/ histology.
PCR.

409
Q

Treatment of toxoplasmosis

A

Clindamycin.
Supportive management.
Poor prognosis.

410
Q

Diagnostic approach of skin problems

A 
History 
Physical exam 
Problem list 
Differential diagnoses 
Diagnostic plan
411
Q

Diagnostic techniques of dermatology

A 
Acetate tape for cytology. 
Skin scrapings - deep / superficial.
Impressions smears. 
Flea comb.  
Trichogram.
412
Q

Skin biopsy indications

A

Neoplasia - suspected or obvious
Unusual or serious generalised dermatosis
Condition poorly responsive to therapy
Other diagnostic tests not helpful

413
Q

Do you prep skin surface for a skin biopsy

A

No

414
Q

Clinical signs of microbial infections

A

Intraepidermal pustules are easily disrupted by grooming, scratching or bathing.
Primary lesions may be transient abs secondary lesions if crusting, erosions may predominate.
Peripheral spread produces an annular lesion.

415
Q

Pyoderma cs

A

Lesions and sometimes pruritus are antibiotic responsive.

Disease tends to recur if underlying cause is not identified and managed.

416
Q

Pyoderma therapy

A

Usually responsive in 3-4 weeks.
Topical therapy useful in removing scale crust abs exudate from skin surface. Reducing number of bacteria. Promote drainage of deeper lesions reduce pain and pruritus.
Use 2-3 times weekly.

417
Q

What is malassezia

A

Opportunistic yeast pathogen.

Immune response of dogs to microbial allergens.

418
Q

Malassezia diagnosis

A

Impression smears with a dry swab of direct slide contact.
Acetate strip preps.
Culture.

419
Q

What can otitis externa be a major sign of

A

Malassezia infection

420
Q

Factors influencing efficacy of flea control

A 
Formulations 
Hair coat length 
Bathing / swimming 
Use of insecticidal products 
Insect growth development inhibitors
421
Q

How much flea larvae can you hoover

A

20%

422
Q

Why is carpet shampooing and steak not recommended for flea infestations

A

Residual humidity is ideal for larval development

423
Q

Treatment for cats and dogs with flea allergy dermatitis

A

On animal insecticide

An environmental insecticide

424
Q

Diagnostid of démodex

A

Deep skin scrapings
Hair plucks
Skin biopsy

Predisposition

425
Q

Life cycle of sarcoptes scabsiei is hoe long?

A

3 weeks

426
Q

Canine sarcoptes diagnosis

A

Skin scrapings
Skin biopsy
Elisa blood test
Mite transmission

427
Q

Cheyletiellosis

A

Hypersensitivity response to mites.

428
Q

CS of lice

A

Pruritus and scaling of dorsum
May develop severe self trauma
Common in young animals, debilitated animals and in over crowded households

429
Q

Pets travel scheme

A

Dogs cats ferrets
Control risk for rabies
Arthropod bourne diseases
Tapeworms

430
Q

Puppy worming protocol

A

Treat 2 weeks then 4.6.9,12 weeks thrn every 3 months

431
Q

Worming bitch

A

Daily from day 42 to 2 weeks after whelping.

432
Q

Worming I’m cats

A

No transplacental transmission

Treat kittens from 3-4 weeks.

433
Q

Parvovirus

A

Severe haemorrhaging coming abs or diarrhoea with leukopenia

Major cause of haemorrhagic gastroenteritis.

Faeco oral spread.

Inactivated by formalin and hypochlorite disinfectants.

Part of CORE vaccination.

434
Q

Parvovirus infects rapidly dividing tissue such as

A

Neonatal myocardium
Intestinal crypt
Bone marrow

435
Q

Signalment of parvovirus

A

Setverity exrreemly variable
Unvaccinated adult
Inadequately protected puppy

436
Q

What is the immunity gap

A

Gap between mothers colostrum antibodies wearing off and vaccination

437
Q

CS of parvovirus

A

Intestinal crypt necrosis - anorexic depressed abdominal pain
Bone marrow necrosis
Extreme risk of sepsis - uncerated GI tract and neutropenia
Pyrexia

438
Q

Diagnosis of parvovirus

A

Test every puppy with SI haemoragic diarrhoea abs or neutropenia
Anaemia
Electrolyte imbalances
Elisa in house test

439
Q

CPV treatment

A

Aggressive fluid therapy
Crystalloids
IO
Monitor electrolytes and supplement as necessary
NO trickle feeding once vomiting is controlled

440
Q

Leptospirosis

A

Active or chronic hepatic abs or renal insult.

Zoonotic.

Infected urine - environmental contamination.
Can’t replicate outside of host.
Replicated in blood stream.

441
Q

Clinical presentation of leptospirosis

A

Typically acute
Hepatic injury
Jaundice
Renal injury or failur

Pyrexia lethargy inappetance v and d

442
Q

Diagnosis of leptospirosis

A

Demonstration of serologic conversion.

Organism identification.

443
Q

Preferred antibiotic for leptospirosis

A

Doxycycline

444
Q

Canine distemper virus

A

Multi systemic especially resp GI neuro dermatology.

Enveloped. RNA.

Doesn’t survive well in environment.

Rare in uk due to vaccination.

Oronasal secretions.
Shed in all body secretions abs excretions before CS

445
Q

Acute presentation of distemper

A

Highly variable
Don’t show all signs.

Pyrexia lethargy respiratory GI neuro secondary infections common

Can recover from

446
Q

Chronic distemper

A

More progressive signs
Seizures ataxia myoclonus
Ocular signs dental dermatological

447
Q

Treatment of distemper

A

Only supportive care

Isolate/ barrier nurse

448
Q

Canine adenovirus

A

Vaccinated against so rarely see
Infectious canine hepatitis ‘blue eye’

CAV 1- infectious canine hepatitis
CAV 2 - resp pathogen, kennel cough vaccine.

Vaccination with CAV 2, protects against both.

449
Q

CAV1

A

Survived at room temp
Readily inactivated by disinfectants

Typically juvenile or unvaccinated

She’d in saliva urine or faeces
Replicates In tonsils
Cell injury and lysis

Pyrexia lethargy inappetance v and d

450
Q

Canine herepesvuris

A

Fading puppy syndrome

451
Q

Canine infectious resp pathogens

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica
Canine parainfluenza virus
Canine adenovirus

Typically consider KC complex

452
Q

Kennel cough

A

Harsh and hacking
Upper resp
Highly contagious

453
Q

Bacterial enterocolitis CS

A 
Haemorrhagic v and or d 
Purexia
Sepsis 
Maybe abdo pain 
Enterotoxaemia possible
454
Q

Acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea syndrome

A

AHDS
Mostly small breeds
Some suffer repeated events

Sudden onset

Abdominal pain obtundation

455
Q

Non invasive oxygen

A

Flow by oxygen
Oxygen cafe
Nasal prongs

456
Q

Invasive oxygen

A

Nasal catheters
Trans tracheal
Et tube
Ventilation

457
Q

Levels of consciousness

A

Normal - alert abs responds normally to stimuli
Obtunded - reduced alertness / consciousness easily roused with non noxious stimuli
Stupourous - unconscious only rousable with noxious stimuli
Comatose - unconscious no response to any stimuli including noxious

458
Q

Non surgical fixing of a fracture

A

External coaptation

Conservative

459
Q

Surgical management of fracture

A

Pin and wire
ESF / IN
Plate and screw

460
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of non surgical fracture management

A

Reduce / avoid anaesthesia
Avoid need for open surgical approach
Cheaper materials
Cheaper overall

Fracture disease
Insufficient stability leads to delayed or non union
Malunion
Cast sores / ischaemia

461
Q

Fractured suitable for non surgical management

A

Pelvis scapula vertebra

Minimally displaced fracrurez

462
Q

Layers of a cast

A

First layer stockinette
Primary layer soft ban
Cast material
Vet cast

463
Q

What increases the chances of thoracic / abdominal injuries?

A

Limb injuries

464
Q

Signs of orthopaedic injury

A 
Recumbency 
Limb wounds
Deformity 
Abdominal mobility
Crepitatipm
465
Q

Robert Jones bandage

A

Immobilise fracture / luxatipn
Controls swelling and oedema
Comfort

466
Q

Forelimb lamesness horse

A

Walking towards you

Head goes up as lame leg hits ground

467
Q

Bundling lameness

A

Asssessed as going away

468
Q

phases of laminitis

A

Developmental - between higher abs clinical signs
Acute - onset of clinical signs , 72 hours
Subacute
Chronic

469
Q

Periodontal disease

A

Inflammatory response To dental plaque
biofilm that accumulates on all surfaces of the mouth
Gingivitis earlies sign abs reversible
Periodontists is irreversible

470
Q

Calculus

A

Mineralised plaque
Always covered by plaque
Prime location for dental biofilm
Doesn’t cause gingivitis - the plaque does

471
Q

Gingivitis

A

Inflammation, reddening, often bleeding
Hallitus
Graded according to severity

Treat by removing accumulated calculus
Improve oral hygiene

472
Q

Periodontitis

A

May develop in untreated gingivitis
Inflammation involves gingiva but also surrounding etc.
eventually teeth fall out

473
Q

How many teeth do dogs have

A

42

474
Q

How many teeth do cats have

A

30

475
Q

Teeth attachment loss causes

A

Periodontal pockets
Gingival recession
Furcation exposure
Tooth mobility

476
Q

What dental cases would benefit from peri op antibiotics

A

When other surgery is carried out concurrently
Patients with congenital heart disease
Systemic disease

477
Q

Indications of dental extractions

A

Advanced periodontal disease
Retained deciduous teeth
Tooth trauma tooth pump exposure

478
Q

Most common endocrine condition in cats

A

Feline hyperthyroidism

479
Q

Feline hyperthyroidism aetiology

A

Spontaneous secretion of thyroid hormones

Escaping control of hypothalamus and pituitary gland

480
Q

Signalmemt of feline hyperthyroidism

A 
10-13 years
Lethargy 
Intermittent anorexia 
Voice changed 
Muscle weakness
Congestive heart failure 
Heat intolerance
Mild pyrexia
Dyspobea
481
Q

Hip dysplasia

A

Developmental disease
Laxity develops in joint capsule which allows hip to subluxate
Mainly large abs giant breeds.

482
Q

CS and diagnosis of hip dysplasia

A

Gait analysis and ortho exam

Imaging

483
Q

Treatment of hip dysplasia

A

Non surgical - OA management

Surgical - growth plate fusion, total hip replacement, femoralhead and neck excision

484
Q

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

A

Unilateral hindlimb lameness, pain on hip extension, muscle wastage
Diagnosis - imaging

485
Q

Hip luxation

A

Usually due to trauma.
Can be seen with hip dysplasia
X rays

486
Q

Patella luxation

A 
Displacement of patella from groove 
Often bilateral 
Common in small breeds 
Usually developmental 
Characteristic gait. Clinical exam. 
Imaging.
487
Q

Brainiac cruciste ligament disease

A

Most common cause of hind limb lameness in dogs.
Usually trauma or hyperextensipn.
Diagnosis - gait analysis, physical exam, cranial draw test, tibial thrust test.

488
Q

Crop tubing

A

Use largest diameter tube- metal for parrots
Palpate right side base of neck to confirm tube in crop.
2-8 hours depending on species

489
Q

Sinus flushing of birds

A

Infraorbital sinus
Flush for treatment or for diagnostic samples. Via Nares can be done conscious
Via needle into sinus

490
Q

Aetiology of diabetes

A

Destruction of pancreatic beta cells

Insulin resistance leading to beta cell exhaustion

491
Q

CS of diabetes

A 
PUPD
Polyphagia and weight loss. 
Cataracts 
Diabetic ketoacidosis 
Concurrent disease
492
Q

Diagnosis of diabetes

A

Glycosuria and persistent hyperglycaemia are necessary to confirm diagnosis

493
Q

Most commonly used insulin dogs

A

Lente caninsulin

494
Q

Why should intact females with diabetes be spayed

A

Progesterone is a cause of insulin resistance

495
Q

What may ketones on the urine indicate

A

Poor glycaemic control

496
Q

Insulin in cat

A

Prozinc

497
Q

Equine metabolic syndrome

A

Very common
Insulin dysregulation / resistance
Obesity

498
Q

What does in cuffing et tube prevent

A

Pressure necrosis in birds

499
Q

Ocular sinister

A

Left eye

500
Q

Ocular Dexter

A

Right eye

501
Q

Ocular Uterque

A

Both eyes

502
Q

Exophthalmos

A

Abnormal protrusion of eyeball

503
Q

Globe Proptosis

A

Keep eye moist and come in quickly

504
Q

Entropion

A

Eyelids inverted can be primary or secondary to trauma

505
Q

Breeding year of horses

A

Males are seasonally polyoestrous

Mares cycle from spring to autumn

506
Q

Mare pregnancy

A

11 months

507
Q

Two features to describe a tumour

A

The tissue of origin - epithelial cell, mesenchymal cell, round cell
Status - benign or malignant

508
Q

The grade of a tumour depends on

A

Mitotic rate

Cellular abs nuclear characteristics

509
Q

Metastatic potential

A

Ability to spread to distant tissues is a feature of malignancy

510
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes

A

PNS are signs arising from the indirect effect of tumours production and release of biologically active substances

511
Q

Clinical staging of tumour aims to identify

A

Cystological or histologivsk grade
Local invasion
Metastatic spread.

512
Q

Aims of tumour treatment depend on patient

A

Cure
Remission
Palliation

513
Q

Cardiac cachexia

A

Loss of Jean muscle mass despite good appetite. Linked to heart ossued

514
Q

When listening for heart murmurs what are you finding out

A

Timing and point of maximal intensity

515
Q

Heart failure is usually due to

A

Congestion

516
Q

Hypotension can indicate

A

Decomprnsated heart failure

517
Q

Thoracic radiographs indicated for

A

Cough
Dysponea
Tachyponea

Year 2 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions