Nursing 120 exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q
) A client is brought to the emergency department (ED) after passing out in a local department store. The client has been fasting and has ketones in the urine. Which acid-base imbalance would the nurse expect to assess in this client?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) A client who is fasting is at risk for development of metabolic acidosis. The body recognizes fasting as starvation and begins to metabolize its own fatty acids into ketones, which are metabolic acids. Starvation would not result in respiratory acidosis or alkalosis or in metabolic alkalosis.

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2
Q
Which risk factors exhibited by the client presenting in the emergency department (ED) would place the client at risk for metabolic acidosis? Select all that apply.
A) Abdominal fistulas
B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C) Pneumonia
D) Acute renal failure
E) Hypovolemic shock
A

Answer: A, D, E
Explanation: A) Metabolic acidosis is rarely a primary disorder. It usually develops during the course of another disease; presence of abdominal fistulas, which can cause excess bicarbonate loss; acute renal failure; and hypovolemic shock. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and pneumonia place the client at risk for respiratory acidosis with the increased retention of carbon dioxide in the blood.

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3
Q
A child with acute asthma has a PaCO2 of 48 mmHg, a pH of 7.31, and a normal HCO3 blood gas value. The nurse interprets these findings as indicative of which condition?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) If the pH is decreased and the PaCO2 is increased with a normal HCO3, it is uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis has an increased pH, decreased PaCO2, and normal HCO3. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis has a decreased pH, normal PaCO2, and decreased HCO3. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis has an increased pH, normal PaCO2, and increased HCO3.

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4
Q
) The nurse is reviewing the latest arterial blood gas results for a client with metabolic alkalosis. Which result indicates that the metabolic alkalosis is compensated?
A) pH 7.32
B) PaCO2 18 mmHg
C) HCO3 8 mEq/L
D) PaCO2 48 mmHg
A

) The nurse is reviewing the latest arterial blood gas results for a client with metabolic alkalosis. Which result indicates that the metabolic alkalosis is compensated?
A) pH 7.32
B) PaCO2 18 mmHg
C) HCO3 8 mEq/L
D) PaCO2 48 mmHg
Answer: D
Explanation: A) A normal pH level is 7.35-7.45. A pH of less than 7.35 is acidosis. A PaCO2 level of 18 mmHg is low and is seen in respiratory alkalosis. A HCO3 level of 8 mEq/L is low and is most likely associated with metabolic acidosis. In metabolic alkalosis, there is an excess of bicarbonate. To compensate for this imbalance, the rate and depth of respirations decrease, leading to retention of carbon dioxide. The PaCO2 will be elevated.

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5
Q
A client has been admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Diagnostic tests have been ordered. Which of the tests will provide the most accurate indicator of the client's acid-base balance?
A) Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
B) Pulse oximetry
C) Sputum studies
D) Bronchoscopy
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) ABGs are done to assess alterations in acid-base balance caused by respiratory disorders, metabolic disorders, or both. A bronchoscopy provides visualization of internal respiratory structures. Sputum studies can provide specific information about bacterial organisms. Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive test that evaluates the oxygen saturation level of blood.

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6
Q

The nurse is instructing a client with a history of acidosis on the use of sodium bicarbonate. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed?
A) “I should contact the doctor if I have any gastric discomfort with chest pain.”
B) “I need to purchase antacids without salt.”
C) “I should use the antacid for at least 2 months.”
D) “I should call the doctor if I get short of breath or start to sweat with this medication.”

A

Explanation: A) The client should be instructed to immediately contact the primary healthcare provider if gastric discomfort occurs with chest pain or if dyspnea or diaphoresis occurs. The client should be instructed to use non-sodium antacids to prevent the absorption of excess sodium or bicarbonate into systemic circulation and to not use any bicarbonate antacid for longer than 2 weeks.

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7
Q

The client is receiving sodium bicarbonate intravenously (IV) for correction of acidosis secondary to diabetic coma. The nurse assesses the client to be lethargic, confused, and breathing rapidly. Which is the nurse’s priority response to the current situation?
A) Stop the infusion and notify the physician because the client is in alkalosis.
B) Decrease the rate of the infusion and continue to assess the client for symptoms of alkalosis.
C) Continue the infusion, because the client is still in acidosis, and notify the healthcare provider.
D) Increase the rate of the infusion and continue to assess the client for symptoms of ac

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The client receiving sodium bicarbonate is prone to alkalosis; monitor for cyanosis, slow respirations, and irregular pulse. The client’s symptoms do not indicate alkalosis so infusion should not be stopped. The client continues to exhibit signs of acidosis; symptoms of acidosis include lethargy, confusion, CNS depression leading to coma, and a deep, rapid respiration rate that indicates an attempt by the lungs to rid the body of excess acid, and the physician should be notified. The infusion should not be increased or decreased without a practitioner order.

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8
Q

The nurse is preparing to analyze a client’s arterial blood gas results. List the steps in the order that the nurse should follow when analyzing this laboratory test.

  1. Look at the PaCO2.
  2. Look at the pH.
  3. Evaluate the relationship between pH and PaCO2.
  4. Look for compensation.
  5. Evaluate the pH, HCO3, and base excess for a possible metabolic problem.
  6. Look at the bicarbonate.
  7. Evaluate oxygenation
A

Answer: 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4, 7
Explanation:
1. The second step is to look at the PaCO2. If the PaCO2 is <35, then more carbon dioxide is being exhaled. If the PaCO2 is >45, then more carbon dioxide is being retained.
2. The pH is the first step and is analyzed to determine if acidosis or alkalosis is present. A pH of <7.35 is acidosis. A pH of >7.45 is alkalosis.
3. The third step is to evaluate the relationship between the pH and the PaCO2. This relationship could indicate a respiratory problem. If the pH is acidotic and the carbon dioxide level is greater than 45, then the client could be experiencing respiratory acidosis. If the pH is alkalotic and the carbon dioxide level is below 35, then the client could be experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
4. The sixth step is to look for compensation. Two things can occur in renal compensation. In respiratory acidosis, the kidneys retain HCO3 to buffer the excess acid, so the HCO3 is >26 mEq/L. In respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys excrete HCO3 to minimize the alkalosis, so the HCO3 is <22 mEq/L. Two things can also occur in respiratory compensation. In metabolic acidosis, the rate and depth of respirations increase, increasing carbon dioxide elimination, so the PaCO2 is <35 mmHg. In metabolic alkalosis, respirations slow and carbon dioxide is retained, so the PaCO2 is >45 mmHg.
5. The fifth step is to evaluate the pH, HCO3, and base excess for a possible metabolic problem. If the pH is <7.35, the HCO3 is <22 mEq/L, and the BE is less than −3 mEq/L, then low bicarbonate levels and high H+ concentrations are causing metabolic acidosis. If the pH is >7.45, the HCO3 is >26 mEq/L, and the BE is greater than +3 mEq/L, then high bicarbonate levels are causing metabolic alkalosis.
6. The fourth step is to look at the bicarbonate level. If the bicarbonate level is <22, then the levels are lower than normal. If the bicarbonate level is > 26, then the bicarbonate levels are higher than normal.
7. The final step is to evaluate oxygenation. If the PaO2 is <80 mmHg, then the client is experiencing hypoxemia and possible hypoventilation. If the PaO2 is >100 mmHg, then the client is hyperventilating.

9) The nurse is identifying a diagram to use to explain a client’s acid-base balance. Which imbalance does the following diagram suggest is occurring with the client?

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9
Q

The nurse is caring for a comatose client with metabolic acidosis. For which intervention will the nurse need to collaborate when caring for this client?
A) Measuring vital signs
B) Measuring intake and output
C) The client’s recent eating behaviors
D) Identifying current oxygen saturation level

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) For clients in severe distress, family members may need to be consulted for critical information such as recent eating habits and history of vomiting. Measuring vital signs, measuring intake and output, and identifying current oxygen saturation level are independent nursing actions.

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10
Q

Answer: C
Explanation: A) For clients in severe distress, family members may need to be consulted for critical information such as recent eating habits and history of vomiting. Measuring vital signs, measuring intake and output, and identifying current oxygen saturation level are independent nursing actions.

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The pH measures the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the body. Sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl-) concentrations are not related to pH. Bicarbonate (HCO3) is a weak base that is used as a buffer to help maintain the proper pH, but it is not used to measure pH.

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11
Q
A client with a suspected acid-base imbalance has arterial blood gases tested. The test reveals a serum bicarbonate level of 22 mEq/L. The nurse understands that this bicarbonate level is
A) slightly high.
B) slightly low.
C) extremely high.
D) within normal range.
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The normal serum bicarbonate level is 24-28 mEq/L. Therefore, the nurse would understand that the client’s bicarbonate level is slightly low.

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12
Q
If a change in acid-base balance is due to hypoventilation or hyperventilation, the nurse will need to primarily focus on which concept related to acid-base balance?
A) Oxygenation
B) Perfusion
C) Cognition
D) Stress and coping
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Hypoventilation and hyperventilation are related to oxygenation. Respiratory rate helps regulate carbon dioxide pressures, which can contribute to acidosis or alkalosis. The nurse can help reverse respiratory acidosis or alkalosis by helping the client control their respiratory rate to restore normal oxygenation. Perfusion, cognition, and stress and coping do not directly relate to hypo- or hyperventilation.

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13
Q
When considering acid-base balance, health promotion should focus on
A) conducting yearly health screenings.
B) obtaining immunizations.
C) beginning an exercise regimen.
D) maintaining fluid balance.
A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Both overhydration and dehydration can result in acid-base imbalances. Therefore, health promotion should focus on maintaining fluid balance. Beginning an exercise regimen, obtaining immunizations, and conducting yearly health screenings are activities that can promote health in other areas.

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14
Q

The nurse performing a blood draw for arterial blood gases first performs a modified Allen test for what purpose?
A) To reduce the risk of bleeding or bruising of the arm
B) To determine if arterial puncture can safely be performed
C) To determine the oxygen saturation of the blood in the artery
D) To determine the pressure of the blood in the artery

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) A modified Allen test is a measure of ulnar patency. The patient elevates the hand and repeatedly makes a fist while the examiner places digital occlusive pressure over the radial and ulnar arteries of the wrist. The hand will lose its normal color. Digital pressure is released from one artery while the other remains compressed. The return of color indicates that the hand has good collateral supply of blood and that arterial puncture can safety be performed. The modified Allen test does not measure oxygen saturation or artery pressure, and it does not reduce the risk of bleeding or bruising.

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15
Q

) An intervention that can be implemented independently by the nurse caring for a client with an acid-base balance is
A) monitoring intake and output.
B) drawing blood for ABGs.
C) giving sodium bicarbonate infusions.
D) administering oxygen via nasal cannula.

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Monitoring intake and output is an independent nursing intervention that does not require a provider’s orders. Drawing blood for ABGs, giving sodium bicarbonate infusions, and administering oxygen via nasal cannula are all actions that can be performed by the nurse, but they must first be ordered by a provider.

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16
Q
Why should a nurse take daily weights of a client with acid-base balance?
A) It helps monitor oxygenation status.
B) It helps monitor perfusion of organs.
C) It helps monitor renal function.
D) It helps monitor fluid balance.
A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Fluid balance must be maintained to support acid-base balance. If a client rapidly gains weight, it is a sign of fluid overload. If a client rapidly loses weight, it is a sign of dehydration. Both of these conditions can alter the acid-base balance, so a client’s weight should be monitored daily. A client’s weight does not reflect oxygenation status or perfusion of organs. Daily weights can reflect renal function, but weight can fluctuate even if the kidneys are functioning properly.

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17
Q
The nurse is analyzing the client's arterial blood gas report, which reveals a pH of 6.58. The client has just suffered a cardiac arrest. Which consequences of this pH value does the nurse consider for this client?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Increase magnesium levels
C) Decreased free calcium in the ECT
D) Increased myocardial contractility
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The nurse knows that severe acidosis (pH of 7.0 or less) depresses myocardial contractility, which leads to decreased cardiac output. Acid-base imbalances also affect electrolyte balance. In acidosis, calcium is released from its bonds with plasma proteins, increasing the amount of ionized (free) calcium in the blood. Magnesium levels may fall in acidosis.

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18
Q
The nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with persistent diarrhea lasting 3 days. Which are appropriate nursing diagnoses for this client during the acute phase of the illness? Select all that apply.
A) Decreased Cardiac Output
B) Ineffective Airway Clearance
C) Overflow Urinary Incontinence
D) Knowledge Deficit
E) Risk for Injury
A

Answer: A, E
Explanation: A) Metabolic acidosis decreases cardiac output by decreasing contractility, slowing the heart rate, and increasing the risk for dysrhythmias. The client with metabolic acidosis is also at risk for injury due to altered mental status. Appropriate nursing diagnoses during the acute phase of illness are Risk for Injury and Decreased Cardiac Output. The client may have a knowledge deficit, but this is not an appropriate nursing diagnosis during the acute phase of the illness. The client with metabolic acidosis is not at risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance or Overflow Urinary Incontinence.

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19
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with metabolic acidosis. Which goals are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
A) The client will maintain a respiratory rate of 30 or more.
B) The client will describe preventative measure for the underlying chronic illness.
C) The client will maintain baseline cardiac rhythm.
D) The client will remain in a pH range from 7.25 to 7.35.
E) The client will take potassium supplements to increase potassium levels.

A

The nurse is caring for a client with metabolic acidosis. Which goals are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
A) The client will maintain a respiratory rate of 30 or more.
B) The client will describe preventative measure for the underlying chronic illness.
C) The client will maintain baseline cardiac rhythm.
D) The client will remain in a pH range from 7.25 to 7.35.
E) The client will take potassium supplements to increase potassium levels.

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20
Q
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with renal failure and metabolic acidosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate to the nurse that planned interventions to relieve the metabolic acidosis have been effective?
A) Decreased respiratory depth
B) Palpitations
C) Increased deep tendon reflexes
D) Respiratory rate of 38
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The client with metabolic acidosis will have an increased respiratory rate and depth, called Kussmaul respirations. Signs that care has been effective would include a decrease in the rate and depth of respirations. An increased respiratory rate, as indicated by a respiratory rate of 38, would indicate continued metabolic acidosis. Increased deep tendon reflexes and palpitations are not associated with metabolic acidosis.

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21
Q

) The nurse is caring for the client experiencing hypovolemic shock and metabolic acidosis. Which therapies would the nurse question if planned for this client? Select all that apply.
A) Monitor weight on admission and discharge.
B) Monitor ECG for conduction problems.
C) Limit the intake of fluids.
D) Administer sodium bicarbonate.
E) Keep the bed in the locked and low position.

A

Answer: A, C
Explanation: A) The treatment for hypovolemic shock would include the administration of fluids, not limiting fluids. Patients being treated for hypovolemia and metabolic acidosis will require daily weights, not a weight on admission and then discharge. Administering sodium bicarbonate and monitoring ECGs are appropriate for the client with metabolic acidosis. The client recovering from hypovolemic shock and metabolic acidosis is at risk for injury, so the bed should be kept in the locked and low position.

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22
Q

Answer: A, C
Explanation: A) The treatment for hypovolemic shock would include the administration of fluids, not limiting fluids. Patients being treated for hypovolemia and metabolic acidosis will require daily weights, not a weight on admission and then discharge. Administering sodium bicarbonate and monitoring ECGs are appropriate for the client with metabolic acidosis. The client recovering from hypovolemic shock and metabolic acidosis is at risk for injury, so the bed should be kept in the locked and low position.

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The client with metabolic acidosis may have symptoms of drowsiness, lethargy, confusion, and weakness. A priority of care would be preventing injury to the client. Medication administration is a physician order. Skin care would not be a priority on admission. The high-Fowler position would not be the safest position for the confused client.

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23
Q

The nurse is preparing to teach a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus on the mechanism behind the development of ketoacidosis. List the order in which the nurse should provide this information.

  1. Production of lactate and hydrogen ions
  2. Tissue hypoxemia
  3. Breakdown of fatty tissue
  4. Reduction in intracellular glucose
  5. Fatty acids converted to ketones
A

Answer: 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
Explanation:
Lactic acidosis develops due to tissue hypoxia and a shift to anaerobic metabolism by the cells. Lactate and hydrogen ions are produced, forming lactic acid. Starvation or lack of insulin leads to intracellular starvation of glucose. The lack of glucose or insulin to move glucose into the cells, causing the body to break down fatty tissue to meet metabolic needs. When fatty acids are broken down, these acids are converted to ketones, leading to the development of ketoacidosis.

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24
Q

The nurse identifies the diagnosis Risk for Injury as appropriate for a client with metabolic acidosis. Which strategies should the nurse use to support this diagnosis? Select all that apply.
A) Apply wrist restraints and secure to the bed frame.
B) Discuss chemical restraint use with the healthcare provider.
C) Keep the bed in the lowest position.
D) Keep bed side rails raised.
E) Place a clock and calendar at the bedside.

A

Answer: C, D, E
Explanation: A) To reduce the client’s risk for injury, the nurse should make sure the bed is kept in the lowest position and the side rails are raised. A clock and calendar at the bedside will help with orientation. Restraints are used in the event the client demonstrates harm to self or others. Confusion or a risk for injury is not a reason to use wrist or chemical restraints.

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25
Q

Upon entering a room, the nurse quickly scans the environment and then immediately assesses the client for manifestations of metabolic acidosis. Which did the nurse observe to precipitate this client assessment?
A) Client sleeping with the head of the bed flat
B) Half of the client’s lunch tray uneaten
C) One formed stool in the bedside commode
D) 2000 mL of intravenous 0.9% normal saline infused in 2 hours

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Excessive infusions of chloride-containing intravenous fluids can precipitate metabolic acidosis. The head of the bed’s being flat might influence a client’s oxygenation status; however, the client was not demonstrating a change in respiratory depth or rate. A reduction in oral intake does not cause metabolic acidosis. Eating half of a meal tray is not the same as starvation. Diarrhea can lead to the development of metabolic acidosis. One formed stool would not cause the nurse alarm.

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26
Q

During a home visit, the nurse evaluates care provided to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus and a history of metabolic acidosis. Which outcome indicates that the care of this client has been successful?
A) The client is injecting insulin into thigh muscle.
B) The client is taking laxatives three times a week to ensure adequate bowel movements.
C) The client is eating three balanced meals per day with two snacks.
D) The client is taking aspirin 325 mg every 6 hours to treat arthritis pain

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Adequate nutrition is necessary to prevent the buildup of acids in the blood. Incorrect administration of medication could cause a metabolic problem in the client with diabetes. The use of laxatives could cause diarrhea, which can lead to metabolic acidosis. Ingestion of high amounts of salicylate acid can lead to toxicity and the development of metabolic acidosis.

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27
Q

A common cause of metabolic acidosis is
A) hyperventilation in a client with anxiety.
B) high blood glucose in a client with type 1 diabetes.
C) vomiting in a client with a gastrointestinal infection.
D) opiate overdose in a client with depression.

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) High blood glucose that leads to diabetic ketoacidosis is a common cause of metabolic acidosis. Vomiting can lead to metabolic alkalosis, hyperventilation can lead to respiratory alkalosis, and opiate overdose can lead to respiratory acidosis.

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28
Q
A compensatory mechanism that may indicate to a nurse that a client is experiencing metabolic acidosis includes:
A) headache.
B) Kussmaul respirations.
C) vomiting.
D) decreased level of consciousness
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid respirations that are a compensatory mechanism during metabolic acidosis. Headache, vomiting, and decreased level of consciousness are all clinical manifestations of metabolic acidosis, but they are not compensatory mechanisms that the body uses to maintain acid-base balance during metabolic acidosis.

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29
Q
An alkalinizing solution often given intravenously to clients with severe acute metabolic acidosis is
A) sodium bicarbonate.
B) sodium chloride.
C) potassium chloride.
D) dextrose.
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Sodium bicarbonate is an alkalinizing solution often given intravenously to clients with severe acute metabolic acidosis. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride may worsen metabolic acidosis by increasing the chloride concentration. Dextrose may also worsen metabolic acidosis, especially in clients with type 1 diabetes, by increasing blood glucose levels and causing ketoacidosis

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30
Q
The nurse is caring for a 3-month-old infant who presented to the emergency department (ED) with fever, diarrhea, vomiting, and diaper rash over the past 48 hours. Which symptom puts this client most at risk for metabolic acidosis?
A) Fever
B) Diarrhea
C) Vomiting
D) Diaper rash
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Infants are more susceptible to metabolic acidosis from diarrhea due to significant losses of bicarbonate in the feces. Vomiting is more likely to result in metabolic alkalosis from loss of stomach acids. Fever and diaper rash do not directly contribute to metabolic acidosis

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31
Q

An older adult client has a history of heart disease and dementia and takes several medications. His wife states that sometimes he forgets to take his medications, or he takes multiple doses of his medications, due to his dementia. An accidental overdose of which medication could result in metabolic acidosis?
A) Losartan (an angiotensin II receptor blocker to reduce hypertension)
B) Simvastatin (a statin to reduce blood cholesterol levels)
C) Rivastigmine (a cholinesterase inhibitor to reduce symptoms of dementia)
D) Aspirin (a salicylate to decrease risk of heart attack)

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Aspirin is salicylic acid, which could decrease the blood pH if taken in high quantities. Diuretics, some antidepressants, antiseizure medications, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors could all affect the acid-base balance in an older adult, but acid-base balance is less affected by angiotensin II receptor blockers, statins, and cholinesterase inhibitors.

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32
Q

The client has been vomiting for several days. The nurse knows that the client is at risk for metabolic alkalosis because gastric secretions have which characteristic?
A) Gastric secretions are green in color.
B) Gastric secretions are alkaline.
C) Gastric secretions are acidic.
D) Gastric secretions have a foul smell.

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Metabolic alkalosis due to loss of hydrogen ions usually occurs because of vomiting or gastric suction. Gastric secretions are highly acidic (pH 1-3). When these are lost through vomiting or gastric suction, the alkalinity of body fluids increases. This increased alkalinity results from the loss of acid and from selective retention of bicarbonate by the kidneys as chloride is depleted. Gastric secretions are not alkaline. The color and odor of gastric secretions have no influence on the development of metabolic acidosis.

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33
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted to the hospital for congestive heart failure. Which data collected during the nursing assessment indicate that the client is at risk for metabolic alkalosis? Select all that apply.
A) The client takes furosemide (Lasix) daily.
B) The client takes a baby aspirin once daily.
C) The client takes metformin daily.
D) The client frequently uses calcium carbonate (Tums) for acid indigestion.
E) The client takes acetaminophen as needed for pain.

A

Answer: A, D
Explanation: A) Excessive use of calcium carbonate and daily use of furosemide can cause metabolic alkalosis. Use of metformin is not associated with alkalosis. Overuse of aspirin can be associated with metabolic acidosis. Occasional use of acetaminophen is not associated with metabolic alkalosis.

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34
Q

An adolescent is hospitalized following several days of vomiting due to food poisoning. The nurse is planning to include which points when teaching the client’s family at discharge? Select all that apply.
A) Immunizations for the adolescent
B) Nutritional patterns of the adolescent
C) Signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis
D) Proper food-handling techniques
E) Normal laboratory values of the adolescent

A

Answer: C, D
Explanation: A) The family of anyone experiencing prolonged vomiting should be taught the signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis. In this case, the nurse would include teaching about proper methods of food handling to prevent further episodes of food poisoning. Food patterns of the adolescent are not the precipitating factor of the food poisoning, and immunizations would not prevent this disease. Unless the family asks, it is not necessary to teach normal laboratory findings.

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35
Q
The nurse is planning care for the client who has been admitted with metabolic alkalosis. Which are appropriate nursing diagnoses for this client during the acute phase of the illness? Select all that apply.
A) Ineffective Health Maintenance
B) Risk for Hypothermia
C) Deficient Fluid Volume
D) Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange
E) Risk for Injury
A

Answer: C, D, E
Explanation: A) Respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis includes depression of the respiratory rate and reduction of the depth of respirations, leading to the retention of carbon dioxide. Patients with metabolic alkalosis often have an accompanying fluid volume deficit. With the fluid volume deficit, the client would experience hyperthermia. Ineffective health maintenance would not be a priority during the acute phase of the disease but, rather, a teaching opportunity before discharge depending on the cause of the metabolic alkalosis. The client is at risk for injury because of the associated muscle spasms and dizziness.

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36
Q

The nurse is planning care for the client with Cushing syndrome who has been admitted for complications related to the disease process. Which intervention should the nurse plan for this client to improve the impaired gas exchange?
A) Monitor serum electrolytes.
B) Schedule nursing activities to allow for periods of rest.
C) Assess input and output accurately.
D) Administer IV fluids per practitioner order

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The client with Cushing syndrome is at risk for developing severe metabolic alkalosis that causes hypoxemia and limits energy reserves. Spacing nursing activities throughout the day allows the client ample rest time. The other interventions are aimed at the deficient fluid volume that may occur with metabolic alkalosis

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37
Q

The nurse is preparing to discharge a client with congestive heart failure on furosemide (Lasix). The nurse determines that teaching has been effective if the client makes which statement?
A) “I will use only sodium bicarbonate as my antacid.”
B) “I will restrict my intake of fluids.”
C) “I will use potassium supplements while I am taking Lasix.”
D) “I will take antacids only for my gastric discomforts.”

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The client on furosemide (Lasix) may lose excess potassium, disposing the client toward metabolic alkalosis. The client is taught to refrain from the use of sodium antacids when prone to metabolic alkalosis. The client should consult with the primary care provider for gastric distress rather than self-medicate. The client who is prone to metabolic alkalosis is likely to have fluid deficits and would not be instructed to restrict fluids.

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38
Q

A client with severe metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the unit. Which is the priority for the client?
A) Administering medication for metabolic alkalosis
B) Monitoring oxygen saturation
C) Teaching the client the risk factors for metabolic alkalosis
D) Setting goals for the client with metabolic alkalosis

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The priority for this client is monitoring oxygen saturation. The depressed respiratory drive that often accompanies metabolic alkalosis can lead to hypoxemia and impaired oxygenation of the tissues. Administering medications will be needed as a treatment, but the priority is to discover the cause. Teaching the client and setting goals are important aspects of nursing care but are not the priority.

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39
Q
A client with hyperaldosteronism is admitted to the unit and is at risk for impaired gas exchange. In which position should this client be placed to enhance gas exchange?
A) Fowler position
B) Prone position
C) Left side-lying position
D) Right Sims position
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The client with hyperaldosteronism with metabolic alkalosis will likely have reduced oxygenation. The Fowler position will facilitate alveolar ventilation with improved oxygenation. Side-lying and prone positions do not facilitate needed lung expansion.

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40
Q

While reviewing laboratory results, the nurse notes that a client’s potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L and chloride level is 100 mEq/L. Based on this data, which intervention does the nurse plan for this client?
A) Preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride infusion
B) Measuring for nasogastric tube insertion
C) Discussing potassium chloride replacement therapy with the healthcare provider
D) Reviewing implications of transfusing with ammonium chloride

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Treatment of metabolic alkalosis includes restoring normal fluid volume and administering potassium chloride. The potassium restores serum and intracellular potassium levels, allowing the kidneys to conserve hydrogen ions more effectively. Because the chloride level is within normal limits, an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is not indicated. A nasogastric tube is not indicated for this client. There is not enough information to support the use of ammonium chloride for this client, as it is indicated to treat severe metabolic alkalosis.

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41
Q
The nurse identifies the diagnosis Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange to guide the care of a client with metabolic alkalosis. Which assessment data supports this nursing diagnosis? Select all that apply.
A) Respiratory rate 8 per minute
B) Oxygen saturation 89%
C) Urine output 25 mL/hr
D) Restlessness and agitation
E) Weight loss of 3 kg overnight
A

Answer: A, B, D
Explanation: A) Respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis depresses the respiratory rate and reduces the depth of breathing to promote carbon dioxide retention. The depressed respiratory drive associated with metabolic alkalosis can lead to hypoxemia and impaired oxygenation of tissues. Oxygen saturation levels of less than 90% indicate significant oxygenation problems. Changes in mental status or behavior may be early signs of hypoxia. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr would indicate fluid volume deficit. Weight is used as an indicator of fluid balance. A rapid weight change would indicate fluid volume deficit.

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42
Q

A client is admitted with manifestations of metabolic alkalosis. Which diagnostic test findings support the admitting diagnosis? Select all that apply.
A) Serum glucose level 142 mg/dL
B) Blood pH 7.47 and bicarbonate 34 mEq/L
C) Intravenous pyelogram shows kidney stones
D) Bilateral lower lobe infiltrates noted on chest x-ray
E) Electrocardiogram changes consistent with hypokalemia

A

Answer: B, E
Explanation: A) In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH will be greater than 7.45 and the bicarbonate level greater than 26 mEq/L. The ECG pattern shows changes similar to those seen with hypokalemia. Serum glucose levels, kidney stones, and lower lobe infiltrates are not associated with metabolic alkalosis.

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43
Q

During an assessment, the nurse becomes concerned that a client is at risk for developing metabolic alkalosis. What did the nurse assess that caused this concern?
A) Daily ingestion of a banana with breakfast
B) Daily weight consistent
C) Daily use of sodium bicarbonate for gastric upset
D) Daily use of prescribed nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritic pain

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Excess bicarbonate usually occurs as a result of ingesting antacids that contain bicarbonate, such as sodium bicarbonate or Alka-Seltzer. Daily ingestion of a banana would prevent the development of hypokalemia from the daily use of sodium bicarbonate. Consistent daily weights would indicate fluid balance. Daily use of NSAIDs would not support the development of metabolic alkalosis.

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44
Q

During a home visit, the nurse evaluates teaching provided to a client recently hospitalized for metabolic alkalosis. Which observation indicates that additional teaching is required?
A) Drinks 2 cups of black coffee each day.
B) Consumes one orange each day with breakfast.
C) Ingests bicarbonate of soda after each meal.
D) Monitors and tracks daily weights.

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The indiscriminate ingestion of sodium bicarbonate is a risk factor for the development of metabolic alkalosis. Black coffee is not associated with the development of metabolic alkalosis. Oranges contain potassium, which is beneficial to prevent the development of metabolic alkalosis. Tracking of daily weights would help detect a fluid imbalance, which is associated with metabolic alkalosis.

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45
Q
Clinical manifestations of metabolic alkalosis are similar to signs of
A) hypocalcemia.
B) hypokalemia.
C) hypercalcemia.
D) hyperkalemia.
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Manifestations of metabolic alkalosis result from decreased calcium ionization and are similar to those of hypocalcemia. They include numbness and tingling around the mouth, fingers, and toes; dizziness; Trousseau sign; and muscle spasm. Clinical manifestations of metabolic alkalosis are not similar to those of hypercalcemia or hyper- or hypokalemia.

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46
Q

A newborn with pyloric stenosis has symptoms of projectile vomiting, leading to significant weight loss, dehydration, and metabolic alkalosis. What client teaching is necessary for the parents in caring for the infant until surgery to correct the defect?
A) Monitoring for hyperventilation to detect changes in health status
B) Breastfeeding techniques to reverse weight loss and dehydration
C) Positioning of the infant to prevent aspiration
D) Performing percussion and postural drainage to clear the airways

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Complications related to aspiration of vomitus can be prevented by correct positioning of the infant. Parents should be taught correct positioning so they can care for the infant at home or when the nurse is not in the room. Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis and is usually unrelated to pyloric stenosis. Because pyloric stenosis blocks passage of food from the stomach to the small intestines, increasing oral intake will not be beneficial to the infant, so breastfeeding techniques are irrelevant at this time. Percussion and postural drainage are more relevant to lung diseases such as cystic fibrosis, not a gastrointestinal (GI) disorder such as pyloric stenosis.

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47
Q
The nurse assumes care for a client who was brought to the hospital after a morphine overdose. What acid-base imbalance does the nurse expect to observe in this client?
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Metabolic acidosis
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Morphine is a narcotic and generally acts to decrease or suppress respirations; therefore, this client is probably hypoventilating. The expected acid-base imbalance would be respiratory acidosis. Respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, and metabolic alkalosis are caused by many conditions, none of which are related to this client’s morphine overdose.

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48
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted to the unit with respiratory failure and respiratory acidosis. Which data from the nursing history would the nurse suspect contributed to the client’s current state of health?
A) Use of ibuprofen for the control of pain
B) A recent trip to South America
C) Aspiration pneumonia
D) Recent recovery from a cold virus

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Aspiration of a foreign body and acute pneumonia would put the client at risk for respiratory acidosis. A recent trip to South America would not constitute a respiratory risk factor. Recent recovery from a cold would not likely put the client at risk. Ibuprofen does not pose a threat to the respiratory health of the client.

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49
Q
A school-age client is admitted to the hospital with respiratory acidosis. Which chronic lung illness in the client's health history does the nurse suspect is causing the current diagnosis?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Aspiration
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Pneumonia
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Chronic lung disease such as asthma and cystic fibrosis put the child at risk for respiratory acidosis. Pneumonia and aspiration are both acute lung conditions. Hyperthyroidism is a disorder that results in metabolic acidosis.

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50
Q
A client is admitted to the unit with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gas analysis indicates respiratory acidosis. Based on this data, the nurse plans care based on which priority diagnosis?
A) Impaired Gas Exchange
B) Ineffective Airway Clearance
C) Impaired Mobility
D) Anxiety
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Impaired Gas Exchange is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client with respiratory acidosis. Interventions are aimed at restoring effective alveolar ventilation and gas exchange. Anxiety and Ineffective Airway Clearance are both appropriate nursing diagnoses but not priority for the client with respiratory acidosis. There is no evidence to support the nursing diagnosis Impaired Mobility for this client.

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51
Q

The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for an older adult client recovering from respiratory acidosis caused by restrictive lung disease and pneumonia. Which topics should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this client? Select all that apply.
A) Obtain annual influenza immunization.
B) Engage in frequent hand washing.
C) Avoid crowds.
D) Cover the nose and mouth when coughing.
E) Restrict fluids.

A

Answer: A, B, C, D
Explanation: A) For the client with a history of chronic lung disease and pneumonia, the nurse should instruct on the importance of receiving annual influenza immunizations, frequent hand washing, avoiding crowds, and covering the nose and mouth when coughing. Fluids should be encouraged to ensure that respiratory secretions are thin.

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52
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is being mechanically ventilated. The current ventilator settings are: respiratory rate, 25 breaths per minute; tidal volume, 600 mL; FiO2, 30%; humidification 30 mg H2O/L. After being ventilated for 2 hours, arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.20 and a PaCO2 of 49 mmHg. Which change in ventilator settings should the nurse anticipate?
A) Increase in humidification of inspired air
B) Decrease of FiO2 from 30% to 25%
C) Increased respiratory rate to 30 breaths per minute
D) Decreased tidal volume of each breath

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) This client is exhibiting respiratory acidosis that is not corrected by the current ventilator settings. This client needs to “blow off” more CO2; therefore, the respiratory rate would be increased. Both decreasing the FiO2 and decreasing the tidal volume would decrease the amount of CO2 expelled. Humidification has no effect on the amount of CO2 expelled.

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53
Q

The nurse is preparing to admit a client with acute pneumonia who is experiencing severe respiratory acidosis. Which treatments does the nurse anticipate as appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
A) Administer oxygen prn.
B) Administer digoxin for heart failure.
C) Encourage up to 3 L of fluids per day.
D) Place in a prone position.
E) Reposition frequently.

A

Answer: A, C, E
Explanation: A) The client with acute pneumonia and respiratory acidosis may require oxygen administration to improve gas exchange, increased fluid intake to thin secretions, and frequent repositioning to preventing the pooling of respiratory sections. There is not enough evidence to know whether the client is experiencing heart failure as a result of the acute pneumonia. The client should be placed in the Fowler or semi-Fowler rather than the prone position.

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54
Q

The nurse is providing care to a client recently extubated for treatment of aspiration pneumonia and respiratory acidosis. Which action by the nurse provides an optimum environment for this client?
A) Allowing family members to remain with client as much as possible
B) Restraining the client
C) Placing the client in a side-lying position
D) Administering narcotics for pain

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The client with respiratory acidosis often experiences anxiety. This client would benefit from having a family member in the room to provide reassurance. Restraining the client will increase levels of agitation. The client with respiratory failure would benefit most from the semi-Fowler or Fowler position to increase ventilation. Narcotics will depress the respirations and increase respiratory acidosis. A nonnarcotic pain reliever would be considered if this client were experiencing pain.

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55
Q

The nurse is reviewing prescriptions written for a client with chronic respiratory acidosis. Which prescription should the nurse question prior to implementation?
A) Keep head of the bed elevated to 40-degree angle.
B) Dextrose 5% and 0.45% normal saline at 100 mL per hour
C) Consult Respiratory Therapy for breathing treatments four times a day.
D) Oxygen 6 liters per minute per nasal cannula

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) In clients with chronic respiratory acidosis, oxygen is administered cautiously to prevent carbon dioxide narcosis. Adequate hydration such as intravenous fluids is important to promote removal of respiratory secretions. Pulmonary hygiene measures such as breathing treatments may be instituted. Elevating the head of the bed promotes oxygenation.

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56
Q

A client with pneumonia develops respiratory acidosis. Based on provider’s orders, which medications should the nurse prepare to administer to this client? Select all that apply.
A) The loop diuretic furosemide (Lasix), 20 mg by mouth twice a day
B) The antibiotic amoxicillin, 1 gram intravenous every 6 hours
C) The bronchodilator albuterol, inhaler 2 puffs every 4 hours
D) The anxiolytic diazepam (Valium), 2 mg by mouth at bedtime for sleep
E) Potassium chloride 20 mEq in 100 mL 0.9% normal saline intravenous every day

A

Answer: B, C
Explanation: A) Bronchodilator drugs such as an albuterol inhaler may be administered to open the airways, and antibiotics such as amoxicillin may be prescribed to treat respiratory infections. Benzodiazepines such as diazepam are central nervous system depressants and would adversely affect this client’s respiratory rate, adversely affecting respiratory acidosis. Potassium chloride is indicated in the treatment of metabolic alkalosis.

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57
Q
A client is admitted to the emergency department (ED) for treatment of an overdose. The client's arterial blood gas results indicate acute respiratory acidosis. Which substance found on the nurse's review of the toxicology analysis is most likely the cause for the client's current condition?
A) Cocaine (a stimulatory anesthetic)
B) Marijuana (a cannabinoid)
C) Oxycodone (a narcotic)
D) PCP (a dissociative anesthetic)
A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Oxycodone is an opiate narcotic. Excessive use or overdose of narcotic substances can lead to respiratory depression and respiratory acidosis. Cocaine is a stimulant. Marijuana does not depress the central nervous system or respiratory center. PCP is a hallucinogenic agent.

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58
Q
The nurse suspects a client with one functioning lung is developing chronic respiratory acidosis. Which manifestation did the nurse most likely assess in this client?
A) Warm, flushed skin
B) Daytime sleepiness
C) Irritability
D) Blurred vision
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The manifestations of acute and chronic respiratory acidosis differ. The client with chronic respiratory acidosis will demonstrate daytime sleepiness. The client with acute respiratory acidosis may demonstrate warm, flushed skin, irritability, and blurred vision from the acute decline in oxygenation.

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59
Q

The nurse instructs a client with a history of acute respiratory acidosis and lung infections on ways to prevent further episodes of the health problem. Which client statement indicates that teaching has been effective?
A) “I will limit drinking alcohol to the evening hours only.”
B) “I will limit my intake of bananas and oranges.”
C) “I will take prescribed antibiotics until my symptoms subside.”
D) “I will receive the annual influenza vaccination.”

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) The nurse should discuss ways to avoid future episodes of acute respiratory infections by encouraging the client to receive immunization against pneumococcal pneumonia and influenza. Alcohol is a central nervous system depressant, which can adversely affect respiratory status and lead to the development of respiratory acidosis. The ingestion of bananas and oranges will not promote the development of respiratory acidosis. The client should be instructed to complete a full course of antibiotics prescribed to treat infections.

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60
Q

The nurse is planning care for an older client with respiratory acidosis. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
A) Administer prescribed intravenous fluids carefully.
B) Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
C) Maintain adequate hydration.
D) Reduce environmental stimuli.

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) In respiratory acidosis, there are a drop in the blood pH, a reduced level of oxygen, and retention of carbon dioxide. The body needs to be well-hydrated so that pulmonary secretions can be removed to improve oxygenation. Careful administration of intravenous fluids is important in the older client with metabolic alkalosis because older clients are at risk because of their fragile fluid and electrolyte status. Sodium bicarbonate is indicated in the treatment of metabolic acidosis. Reducing environmental stimuli would be appropriate for the client with respiratory alkalosis.

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61
Q
Acute respiratory acidosis can lead to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which affects neurological function and the cardiovascular system.
A) hypercapnia
B) carbon dioxide narcosis
C) hypoventilation
D) hyperventilation
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) In acute respiratory acidosis, increased carbon dioxide levels, also called hypercapnia, can affect neurological function and the cardiovascular system. Carbon dioxide narcosis occurs in chronic respiratory acidosis. Hypoventilation causes respiratory acidosis; it doesn’t result from respiratory acidosis. Hyperventilation is related to respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis

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62
Q
Decreased level of consciousness in acute respiratory acidosis is often due to hypercapnia causing:
A) decreased pulse rate.
B) hyperventilation.
C) cerebral vasodilation.
D) neurotransmitter disturbances
A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Hypercapnia causes cerebral vasodilation, which results in headache, blurred vision, irritability, mental cloudiness, and decreased level of consciousness. The pulse rate is elevated in acute respiratory acidosis, not decreased. Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation, not hyperventilation. Neurotransmitter disturbances are unrelated to respiratory acidosis.

63
Q

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Hypercapnia causes cerebral vasodilation, which results in headache, blurred vision, irritability, mental cloudiness, and decreased level of consciousness. The pulse rate is elevated in acute respiratory acidosis, not decreased. Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation, not hyperventilation. Neurotransmitter disturbances are unrelated to respiratory acidosis.

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Acute pain usually causes hyperventilation, which causes the PaCO2 to drop and the client to experience respiratory alkalosis. The pH would denote alkalosis and would be higher than 7.45. HCO3 would trend downward as the kidneys begin to compensate for the alkalosis by excreting HCO3. The PaO2 is likely to be normal unless the client has been hyperventilating for a long time and is beginning to tire.

64
Q
) The client is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with symptoms of a panic attack, including hyperventilation. Based on this data, the nurse plans care for which health problem?
A) Hypoventilation
B) Vomiting
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Memory loss
A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Anxiety disorders increase the risk for the acid-base imbalance respiratory alkalosis, due to hyperventilation that accompanies anxiety and panic attacks. The client with anxiety does not necessarily have vomiting or memory loss as risk factors. Anxiety and panic attacks will lead to hyperventilation, not hypoventilation.

65
Q

The nurse is providing care to an older adult client diagnosed with respiratory alkalosis. The nurse states to the client, “Look into my eyes and breathe with me so that we can slow down your breathing rate.” The client continues to look down and refuses to make eye contact with the nurse. The client’s daughter later asks you to teach her how to help her mother to control her breathing. When documenting this client’s care, which statement is appropriate for the nurse to include?
A) “The client is noncompliant with suggested treatment plan.”
B) “The client is unable to understand and follow directions.”
C) “The client did not feel comfortable making eye contact during nursing care.”
D) “The client’s daughter may be abusive.”

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) A method that is often used to control breathing for client’s experiencing hyperventilation is eye contract with the nurse during breathing exercises. However, some clients may feel uncomfortable making eye contact for personal reasons. Documenting this finding in the medical record is appropriate. Saying the client is noncompliant is nontherapeutic and labels the client. There is no indication that the client does not understand the instructions. The client’s daughter wishes to help her mother control her breathing. This is not indicative of abuse.

66
Q
) The nurse is planning care for a client who has been admitted to the unit with a salicylate overdose. When preparing the plan of care, the nurse considers which to be a priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Ineffective Breathing Pattern
B) Powerlessness
C) Risk for Injury
D) Impaired Mobility
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The client with a salicylate overdose is at risk for hyperventilation, which can lead to respiratory alkalosis. There is not enough information to know whether the client’s mobility is impaired. Risk for Injury and Powerlessness are diagnoses to be considered for this client, but the highest priority is respiratory function.

67
Q

) The client with an anxiety disorder is ready to be discharged from the unit. What should the nurse plan to teach this client and family in preparation for discharge? Select all that apply.
A) Refer the client for counseling.
B) Instruct the client to eat foods high in acid.
C) Teach the client the signs of impending panic attack.
D) Advise the client to breathe into a paper bag when feeling anxious.
E) Instruct the client to breathe slowly.

A

Answer: A, C, E
Explanation: A) Teaching the client to breathe slowly helps the client manage hyperventilation at home. The client with an anxiety disorder should be referred to counseling to assist with management of the disorder and should be taught signs of an impending panic attack. Eating foods high in acid will not counteract the results of hyperventilation. The use of paper bags has been a recommended treatment for hyperventilation; however, it can also cause hypoxia.

68
Q

The nurse has completed discharge teaching for a client with an anxiety disorder. Which client statement indicates that client teaching about respiratory alkalosis has been effective?
A) “I will see my counselor on a regular basis.”
B) “I will breathe faster when I am feeling anxious.”
C) “I will eat more bananas at breakfast.”
D) “I will not take antacids when I have heartburn.”

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The client understands that reducing anxiety can reduce hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. Seeing a counselor can help the client develop alternative strategies for dealing with anxiety. Eating bananas is more appropriate for the client at risk for metabolic alkalosis who is on diuretics. Breathing faster will increase hyperventilation. Taking too many antacids is associated with metabolic alkalosis.

69
Q

The nurse is reviewing new orders written for a client experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which orders would be appropriate for this client’s care needs? Select all that apply.
A) Oxygen 2 liters via face mask
B) Restrict fluids to 2 liters per day.
C) Admit to a private room.
D) Infuse 1 ampule of sodium bicarbonate now.
E) Draw arterial blood gases.

A

Answer: C, E
Explanation: A) The client has respiratory alkalosis, which is caused by hyperventilation. Additional oxygen is not required. A fluid restriction is not required in the treatment of respiratory alkalosis. Management of respiratory alkalosis focuses on correcting the imbalance and treating the underlying cause. It is important to create a calm, quiet, low-stimulation environment to reduce the client’s anxiety or panic. Sodium bicarbonate is used in the treatment of respiratory and metabolic acidosis. Arterial blood gases must be ordered prior to beginning medication or oxygen therapy.

70
Q

The nurse is caring for the client with a history of anxiety who is experiencing chest pain, palpitations, and dyspnea. Which intervention would be a priority for this client?
A) Providing educational material for the client’s medical diagnosis
B) Ordering a regular diet for the client
C) Reassuring the client that symptoms will resolve
D) Asking Respiratory Therapy to set up a mechanical ventilator

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The client will require reassurance from the nurse that the symptoms being experienced are not those of a heart attack and that the symptoms will resolve when the breathing pattern returns to normal. Ordering the diet and instructing the respiratory therapist are done by the healthcare provider. Providing teaching for the client becomes a priority when the client is recovering from the illness.

71
Q

A client with metabolic alkalosis is experiencing numbness around the mouth and tingling of the fingers. What should the nurse explain as the reason for these manifestations?
A) “Because you are breathing so fast, the oxygen is not getting to your nerve endings.”
B) “Your health problem affects calcium in your body, which causes the tingling around your mouth and fingers.”
C) “You have a buildup of carbon dioxide in your blood.”
D) “You don’t have enough potassium in your body, so the tingling around your mouth and fingers will occur.”

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Alkalosis increases binding of extracellular calcium to albumin, reducing ionized calcium levels. As a result, neuromuscular excitability increases, and manifestations similar to hypocalcemia develop. These manifestations include circumoral and distal extremity paresthesias. Rapid breathing is not reducing the amount of oxygen reaching the nerve endings. Excessive carbon dioxide would lead to acidosis. Respiratory alkalosis is not caused by an imbalance of serum potassium.

72
Q

A client with injuries from a motor vehicle crash is intubated for respiratory support. The nurse notes that the client is fighting the ventilator and attempting to pull out the endotracheal tube. What should the nurse do to reduce this client’s risk of developing respiratory alkalosis?
A) Administer a sedative as prescribed.
B) Apply wrist restraints.
C) Teach the client to take slow, deep breaths.
D) Discuss removing the endotracheal tube with the healthcare provider.

A

Answer: A

Explanation: A) For a client being mechanically ventilated, the only way to reduce rapid respirations might be to provide a sedative. Applying wrist restraints to a client who is demonstrating anxiety with an endotracheal tube might increase the client’s anxiety. The client is being mechanically ventilated, which means there is a problem with maintaining the airway. The client will not be able to take slow, deep breaths at this time. The reason for the endotracheal tube is to maintain the client’s airway after chest trauma. Removing the tube could lead to a collapse of the airway and a life-threatening situation.

73
Q
The nurse is evaluating care provided to a client with respiratory alkalosis. Which outcomes indicate that nursing care has been effective for this client? Select all that apply.
A) Respiratory rate 18 and regular
B) Sleeping through the night
C) Gait steady
D) Consistent body weight
E) Using prescribed bronchodilators
A

Answer: A, B, C, D
Explanation: A) Appropriate outcomes for the care of a client with respiratory alkalosis include normal respiratory rate and rhythm, no episodes of injuries, and maintenance of fluid balance. Ability to sleep through the night would indicate a reduction in anxiety, which is a risk factor for the development of respiratory alkalosis. Bronchodilators are not used to treat this acid-base imbalance.

74
Q
A client is brought to the emergency department (ED) with rapid breathing after learning of a family member being killed in a house fire. What should the nurse do first to help this client?
A) Coach to slow the breathing.
B) Move to a quiet, calm environment.
C) Provide a sedative.
D) Ask for a psychiatric consultation.
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Nursing care is focused on reducing anxiety through manipulation of the environment to reduce stimuli and to create a sense of peace. This restful environment will help the client breathe more slowly and effectively. Once the environment is controlled, the nurse can begin to implement interventions to help the client slow the breathing rate. A sedative may be prescribed; however, this would not be the first intervention. A psychiatric consult might be indicated for someone with a history of anxiety or panic attacks that lead to the development of respiratory alkalosis. Because this client has had a shock, a psychiatric consultation would not be indicated at this time.

75
Q
A client begins to hyperventilate after learning that a breast biopsy was positive for cancer. After a few minutes, the client loses consciousness. Which action by the nurse is the priority?
A) Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
B) Raise the side rails on the bed.
C) Notify the physician.
D) Insert an intravenous access device.
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The nurse should protect the client from injury. If hyperventilation continues to the point where the client loses consciousness, respirations will return to normal, as will acid-base balance. The nurse should ensure the client’s safety and raise the side rails on the bed. The client does not need cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The physician may need to be notified; however, the client’s safety is a priority. The client is not critically ill, and an intravenous access device is not indicated at this time.

76
Q
14) The most common disorder that increases a client's risk for respiratory alkalosis is:
A) a respiratory disorder.
B) an anxiety disorder.
C) a cardiovascular disorder.
D) a congenital disorder.
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Anxiety with hyperventilation is the most common cause of respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, anxiety disorders increase the risk for respiratory alkalosis. Respiratory disorders are more likely to lead to respiratory acidosis. Cardiovascular disorders and congenital disorders do not usually lead to respiratory alkalosis

77
Q
A 2-month-old infant has been diagnosed with pneumonia with respiratory alkalosis. The provider also suspects that the infant is suffering from paresthesias of the hands and feet, because the infant pulls away and cries when his extremities are touched. What client teaching can the nurse provide the parents to comfort the infant with paresthesias?
A) Postural drainage techniques
B) Massage techniques
C) Breastfeeding techniques
D) Swaddling techniques
A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Comfort measures that may be successful for infants experiencing paresthesias include swaddling, calming touch, and speaking with a quiet voice. A mother of a 2-month-old infant likely already understands breastfeeding techniques if she breastfeeds the infant. Massage techniques will likely cause additional discomfort for the infant; calming touch is needed instead. Postural drainage techniques are used to clear the airway, not comfort the infant.

78
Q
The family of an older adult client is concerned about the changes in the client's behavior. The client used to be a wonderful cook but now cannot even remember how to use a blender. For which causes of impaired cognitive function should the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply.
A) Obesity
B) Nutritional deficiencies
C) Medication reactions
D) Stroke
E) Snoring
A

Answer: B, C, D
Explanation: A) Any change or deviation from normal in an individual’s cognitive function should be evaluated. Dementia can be caused or exacerbated by other conditions and variables, including metabolic problems, nutritional deficiencies, infections, poisoning, medications, and any conditions that compromise oxygenation and perfusion. Snoring and obesity are not conditions noted to result in impaired cognitive functioning.

79
Q
The nurse is assessing an older adult client and observes that the client is having several cognitive problems, including memory and attention deficits and fluctuating levels of orientation. The nurse confirms with the family that the client's symptoms developed over a several-year period. The client's symptoms are commonly observed with which condition?
A) Depression
B) Dementia
C) Intellectual disability
D) Delirium
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Dementia is a chronic progressive disorder characterized by memory impairments that develop slowly over a longer period of time. Depression is a mood disorder that is characterized by a dysphoric mood or loss of interest in usual activities. Delirium is an acute, abrupt-onset condition characterized by prominent disorientation, impaired attention, and memory deficits. Intellectual disability is defined as significant limitation in intellectual functioning and adaptive behaviors that occurs before the age of 18.

80
Q

An older adult client comes into the clinic for a pneumonia vaccine. During the client interview, the client reports occasionally having difficulty remembering some words, but denies any other concerns. The client is alert and oriented to time, person, and place, and most responses are appropriate. How should the nurse describe this client’s cognitive changes?
A) Memory impairment that may be related to cerebral ischemia
B) Normal signs of aging
C) Indicators of depression in the elderly
D) Early symptoms of dementia

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Older adults typically have more difficulty with cognitive functions, such as word retrieval and episodic memory; however, the impact on overall cognitive function should be minimal. The changes described for this client are normal signs of aging and not symptoms of dementia, depression, or ischemia. Dementia may present with additional symptoms of memory loss related to orientation and completing day-to-day tasks. Depression would show signs of flat affect, or withdrawal, and ischemia may show additional neurologic deficits.

81
Q

While assessing the cognitive status of a school-age child, the nurse notes that the child was unable to perform basic mathematical problems and unable to name several former presidents of the United States. Prior to considering the possibility that this client has cognitive issues, which factor should be reviewed?
A) The child’s age and developmental status
B) The child’s living arrangements with separated parents
C) The child’s currency of vaccinations
D) The child’s hobbies performed in leisure time

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The nurse must consider a pediatric client’s level of cognitive development before asking questions that involve calculation, judgment, or abstract thought. Even children with normal cognition will be unable to respond appropriately if they have not yet achieved the level of development necessary for these activities. The child’s home environment, currency of vaccinations, and hobbies will not explain why the child is unable to correctly respond to questions having to do with complicated math or history.

82
Q

A client with dementia is prescribed donepezil (Aricept). Which should the nurse consider when teaching this client about the medication?
A) Donepezil shortens the early stages of Alzheimer disease.
B) Donepezil is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that has a modest effect in slowing the progression of Alzheimer disease.
C) Donepezil is an anticholinergic and has been known to eradicate some of the symptoms associated with Alzheimer disease.
D) Donepezil should be taken on an empty stomach.

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors reduce acetylcholine breakdown and have a modest effect in slowing an individual’s rate of cognitive decline in Alzheimer disease. Symptoms are not eradicated, but progression is slowed. These medications should be taken on a full stomach, and antiemetic medications may also be needed.

83
Q
Which cognitive development theory proposes that all children progress through the same stages of development?
A) Piaget
B) Vygotsky
C) Information-processing
D) Erickson
A

Explanation: A) Piaget’s cognitive development theory proposes that all children progress through the same stages of development. Vygotsky’s theory, on the other hand, discards the idea that all children progress through the same stages of development. Instead, Vygotsky theorized that skill development is influenced by the child’s environment and culture. The information-processing theory views the mind as a computer that is always changing and evolving and takes in information, operates on it, and converts it to answers. Erickson’s theory is not a cognitive development theory, but rather is a behavioral development theory.

84
Q

Which is true regarding the aging process and cognition?
A) Generally, older adults’ short-term memory changes significantly.
B) Generally, many older adults have increased difficulty finding and rapidly listing words.
C) The ability to use and understand word combinations declines steadily with age.
D) The ability to acquire practical information declines steadily with age.

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Older adults typically have more difficulty with cognitive functions, such as word retrieval and episodic memory. However, in general, older adults’ short-term memory remains intact and the ability to use and understand word combinations remains intact as well. Most older adults are able to acquire practical information until their death.

85
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with perceptual disturbances who is becoming agitated. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Distract client by taking into the dayroom to watch television with other clients.
B) Administer medications to sedate client before violent behaviors occur.
C) Request client to go back to room and dim lights.
D) Do nothing, as this is a normal manifestation of disturbed cognition

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The nurse who observes a client demonstrating visual disturbances and/or psychotic behaviors should intervene by decreasing the environmental stimulus. If overstimulated, the client with visual disturbances or psychosis may display agitation. The use of physical and pharmacologic restraints should be avoided. Taking the client into the dayroom to watch television with others may overstimulate the client, further increasing agitation, which may increase risk of violence toward others

86
Q

The nurse walks into the client room, and the client is confused and disoriented. Ten minutes prior, the client was oriented to person, place, and time and was not confused. Which nursing action is priority?
A) Position client in supine position
B) Assess vital signs and pulse oxygenation
C) Ambulate client to encourage lung expansion
D) Obtain urine for urinalysis

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Decreased O2 reaching the brain may lead to cognitive impairment, coma, and death. A client demonstrating a rapid onset of confusion and disorientation will need to have vital signs, pulse oximetry, and airway assessed for signs of impaired perfusion. Ambulating a client demonstrating these symptoms would be premature and could cause additional harm if there is impaired oxygen perfusion. Although urinary tract infections may cause acute mental status changes, the priority action would not be to obtain urine for a urinalysis.

87
Q

A 7-year-old child presents to the primary care office for a routine physical. Which question should the nurse include during the interview to identify the need for education related to preventing potential cognitive disorders?
A) “Do you wear a helmet when you ride a bicycle or skateboard?”
B) “How many times per day do you brush your teeth?”
C) “How are your grades in school?”
D) “How many hours per day do you watch television?”

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Nurses accomplish prevention and protective measures through teaching and providing anticipatory guidance. An example of an independent intervention is ensuring that children wear their bicycle helmets to aid in prevention of head trauma that could lead to cognitive abnormalities. The other options are important to assess but are irrelevant to impaired cognition.

88
Q

The spouse of a client with Alzheimer disease does not understand why the client developed the disorder because no one else in the family has the health problem. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) “Alzheimer disease develops because of smoking and alcohol intake.”
B) “Someone in your family must not have been correctly diagnosed with the disorder.”
C) “Alzheimer disease does not have the same course in every individual.”
D) “There are genetic and environmental factors in the development of Alzheimer disease.”

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Researchers are not sure why most cases of Alzheimer disease (AD) arise, although a variety of genetic and environmental factors appear to be involved. Alzheimer disease is not directly linked to smoking and alcohol intake. It is inappropriate to assume that other family members had the disorder but were misdiagnosed. Alzheimer disease has a predictable course with distinct phases or stages.

89
Q
An adult child brings a parent in to be evaluated and is told the client has Alzheimer disease. The adult child asks the nurse if he is also at risk for the disease. Which risk factors should the nurse include when responding? Select all that apply.
A) Genetic predisposition
B) Age
C) History of hypertension
D) Hearing deficits
E) Gender
A

Answer: A, B, C, E
Explanation: A) The most prominent risk factor for Alzheimer disease is advancing age. Individuals with a family history of AD are more likely to develop the disease, even in the absence of known genetic factors that predict or increase the risk of the disease. Research has identified risk factors of AD to include cardiovascular risks such as diabetes, mid-life obesity, mid-life hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. AD is almost three times more common in women than men. There is no indication that hearing deficits play a role in the development of Alzheimer disease

90
Q

A client diagnosed with Alzheimer disease becomes agitated during an activity involving simultaneous music playing and a craft project. The client starts shouting, “No! No! No!” and runs from the room. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?
A) Administer a prn anti-anxiety medication.
B) Restrict participation in any group activities.
C) Call security and prepare physical restraints.
D) Reassure the client and then redirect to a quiet area.

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Environmental stimuli should be kept at a minimum for clients with dementia. A quiet environment will prevent sensory overload. Once the client is less agitated, the client can be directed to a less stimulating activity. Use of physical and pharmacologic restraints should be avoided.

91
Q

A nurse is preparing an educational program for clients in a long-term care facility regarding protective factors for Alzheimer disease (AD). Which information should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
A) Becoming involved in activities such as reading that keep the mind active
B) Incorporate a high-calorie, high-carbohydrate diet to decrease formation of amyloid plaques
C) Remain socially active
D) Including modest exercise into daily regimen
E) Begin drinking a glass of wine each night before bed

A

Answer: A, C, D
Explanation: A) Evidence demonstrates that cognitive activities such as reading, completing puzzles, and learning new information or tasks build cognitive resilience and protect against cognitive decline. There is some evidence to suggest that the heart-healthy diets that include antioxidant- and polyphenol-rich foods such as tea, cocoa, grapes, and colorful fruits and vegetables may interrupt formation of amyloid plaques and prevent AD. Social engagement may improve cognitive function and have some protective effects against AD. Modest levels of exercise have been demonstrated to improve cognitive function. Moderate alcohol consumption may be protective against AD. However, evidence is insufficient to suggest that individuals who

92
Q

The nurse is planning care for a client with stage 1 Alzheimer disease. Which are the priority nursing diagnoses for the client and family?
A) Impaired Memory and Caregiver Role Strain
B) Hopelessness and Functional Family Processes
C) Knowledge Deficit and Ineffective Coping
D) Pseudohostility and Ineffective Coping

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Appropriate nursing diagnoses may depend on the stage of Alzheimer disease (AD). Impaired Memory is an appropriate nursing diagnosis in stage 1 AD. Caregiver Role Strain is appropriate for any stage of AD. Functional Family Processes and Ineffective Coping are not diagnoses related to cognitive behavioral assessment. Pseudohostility is not a nursing diagnosis

93
Q

The nurse is planning care to address safety needs for an older adult client who has recently been diagnosed with early Alzheimer disease. Which interventions are appropriate to address safety needs? Select all that apply.
A) Use of a restraint belt at night to prevent wandering behaviors
B) Check shoes for fit and support.
C) Contact the department of motor vehicles to have the client’s license suspended.
D) Keep all familiar objects in the home.
E) Remove throw rugs and electrical cords.

A

Answer: B, E
Explanation: A) All older clients, including those with Alzheimer disease (AD), are at increased risk for injuries such as falls. Shoes should fit and be supportive. Simplifying the home environment while keeping familiar furniture in the same space will reduce confusion and promote safety. Rugs and cords should be removed to prevent falls. The use of physical and pharmacologic restraints should be avoided. In early stages of dementia, clients with Alzheimer disease may continue to drive.

94
Q

The nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing stage 1 Alzheimer disease. Which intervention will best promote cognitive function?
A) Ensure there is background music or sound from the television.
B) Dim the lights during waking hours.
C) Maintain a daily routine.
D) Keep social interaction to a minimum

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The client with dementia benefits from a routine schedule of activities, including meal times. The client typically is better oriented when it is quiet. It is important keep the room lit during waking hours; the lights should not be dimmed during this time.

95
Q

The nurse is educating the family and client, who was recently diagnosed with Alzheimer disease (AD), regarding long-term care placement. Which is the rationale for providing this information to the family at this time?
A) It often takes 6 to 12 months for an individual with AD to establish a successful transfer to a facility, and this will allow adequate time.
B) It’s better to address the issue of placement now instead of later.
C) Early introduction to long-term options will allow the client and family time to make a more informed decision.
D) Long-term care placement is inevitable with this diagnosis

A

Explanation: A) Although placement in a long-term care facility is not going to be the fate of all individuals with Alzheimer disease, it is a common one. Providing the information early in the disease process allows the family to make an informed choice. Nurses will need to provide reinforced education and referrals throughout the disease process, not just during the initial hospitalization. There is no plan to transfer the client at this time; adjustment would occur after the transfer.

96
Q

A client is diagnosed as having stage 1 Alzheimer disease. Which are appropriate goals for the client and family at this time? Select all that apply.
A) Resolving grief over the diagnosis
B) Deciding on the desired treatment and selecting a healthcare proxy; sharing the treatment decision with the healthcare proxy
C) Beginning cognitive-enhancing medication, such as Aricept
D) Setting up a protective physical environment—such as removing throw rugs
E) Making provisions for assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs)

A

Answer: A, B, C, D
Explanation: A) Grieving over the diagnosis and loss of functioning and mental abilities will be an ongoing process for the client and the family members and is therefore a goal. While the client is still cognizant, it is important that the client and family discuss the desired treatment and designate a healthcare proxy to carry out the client’s wishes regarding the treatment. Clients with early Alzheimer disease should start the cholinesterase inhibitor medication as soon as possible to extend the early stage of the disease. During this time period, the home environment should be modified to balance safety with client autonomy. Clients in stage 1 of Alzheimer disease continue to be proficient with ADLs and do not require assistance.

97
Q

A client with Alzheimer disease is scheduled to attend occupational therapy three times a week. Which is the purpose of the client attending this type of therapy?
A) Improve language deficits
B) Improve muscle tone
C) Ability to perform activities of daily living
D) Improve access to community organizations

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Individuals who are starting to experience language deficits may be able to slow this decline by working with a speech therapist. Physical therapy can help individuals improve their muscle tone, maintain coordination, and maintain their range of motion. Occupational therapy helps the client maintain the ability to perform many activities of daily living. Access to community organizations is facilitated through the use of social workers.

98
Q

The nurse plans a class about Alzheimer disease for a caregiver support group. Which should the nurse include when teaching this class of caregivers? Select all that apply.
A) Glutamatergic inhibitors are the most common class of drugs for treating Alzheimer disease.
B) Alzheimer disease accounts for about 80% of all dementias.
C) Chronic inflammation of the brain may be a cause of the disease.
D) Depression and aggressive behavior are common with the disease.
E) Memory difficulties are an early symptom of the disease.

A
Answer:  B, C, D, E
Explanation:  A) Memory difficulties are an early symptom of Alzheimer disease. It is suspected that chronic inflammation and excess free radicals may cause neuron damage, which contributes to the disease. Depression and aggressive behavior are common symptoms of the disease. Alzheimer disease accounts for about 80% of all dementias. The acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, not the glutamatergic inhibitors, are the most widely used class of drugs for treating the disease.
99
Q

The nurse is reviewing pharmacologic treatments with a caregiver of an individual with Alzheimer disease. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?
A) “There are effective drugs, but they cannot be used over a long period.”
B) “There aren’t any drugs that are effective in treating this disease.”
C) “The earlier the drugs are started, the greater the likelihood they will have benefits.”
D) “There are drugs that can control symptoms for many years.”

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The earlier the medications are started, the greater the effect they will have on the symptoms of Alzheimer disease. Current medications will only decrease symptoms for a short period of time. Drugs will not control symptoms for many years. The drugs for treatment of Alzheimer disease are no more dangerous than other drugs used for a long period of time.

100
Q

A home health nurse visits a client with stage 2 Alzheimer disease who lives at home with a spouse. Which action by the nurse enhances the spouse’s ability to meet the needs of the client?
A) Encouraging the caregiver to obtain rest and eat a healthy diet
B) Providing the client a list of daily activities to complete
C) Making arrangements for the client to visit the local senior citizen center in the afternoon
D) Finding placement in a long-term care facility

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Stage 2 clients are generally more confused, can demonstrate repetitive behavior, are less able to make simple decisions and to adapt to environmental changes, and are often unable to carry out activities of daily living. The spouse needs opportunities to obtain the sleep and nutrition necessary to preserve personal health. Because the stage 2 client does not adapt well to changes in the environment, it would be best to have someone come into the home, rather than to have the client go out. An outing or a list of activities would be better suited for the client in stage 1. Recommending placement in long-term care might be premature and is not up to the nurse.

101
Q
A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer disease (AD) who has receptive aphasia. Which area of the brain is likely damaged from AD?
A) Temporal lobe
B) Limbic system
C) Frontal lobe
D) Occipital lobe
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Damage to the client’s temporal lobe manifests as impaired memory, difficulty learning new things, and receptive aphasia. Damage to the limbic system manifests as loss of memory, fluctuating emotions, depression, and difficulty learning new information. Damage to the frontal lobe manifests as problems with intentional movement, fluctuating emotions, and loss of the ability to walk. Frontal lobe damage also causes loss of the ability to talk and the ability to swallow. Damage to the occipital lobe results in loss of reading comprehension and hallucinations.

102
Q

Which is true regarding the pathophysiology and etiology of Alzheimer disease? Select all that apply.
A) Damage to the limbic system results in speech decline and slowed movements.
B) Familial Alzheimer disease (eFAD) is also called delayed-onset Alzheimer disease.
C) Sporadic Alzheimer disease usually manifests before age 65.
D) Sporadic Alzheimer disease is more common than familial Alzheimer disease.
E) In Alzheimer disease, neuronal cells die in a characteristic order.

A

Answer: D, E
Explanation: A) In Alzheimer disease, the neuronal cells die in a characteristic order, beginning with neurons in the limbic system, including the hippocampus. There are two basic types of AD: familial and sporadic. Familial AD (eFAD) has a strong inherited component and is also called early-onset AD because it usually manifests before age 65. Sporadic AD shows no clear pattern of inheritance, although genetic factors may be involved. Because it typically develops after age 65, sporadic AD is sometimes referred to as late-onset AD. Damage to the limbic system from AD results in memory loss and emotional problems.

103
Q
A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with Alzheimer disease (AD) in which the family reports that the client recently lost the ability to live independently and is unable to perform certain activities of daily living (ADLs) such as selecting appropriate clothing or preparing meals. The family's report indicates that the client has progressed to which stage of AD?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) This client is in stage 2 (moderate AD) because the client has lost the ability to live independently. In this stage, the client may be unable to choose appropriate clothing or prepare food and is at increased risk of someone taking advantage of him or her because of loss of cognition and lack of safety awareness. A client in stage 1 (mild cognitive impairment) is able to maintain living independently, but the client’s memory lapses are apparent to others. In stage 3 (severe AD), individuals become unable to perform even basic activities of daily living (ADLs).

104
Q

The nurse is educating a client who is diagnosed with stage 1 Alzheimer disease (AD) and the client’s spouse. Which suggestion best promotes maintaining functional ability at this stage?
A) Obtain round-the-clock care at home
B) Prepare liquid nutrition
C) Assist client with ADLs
D) Begin making “to-do” lists and use of a calendar

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Use of cuing devices such as to-do lists, calendars, written schedules, and verbal reminders can aid in maintaining client’s highest level of functioning. The other options are interventions for a client diagnosed with stage 3 AD.

105
Q

) A client presents with signs and symptoms of early Alzheimer disease. What would be used to confirm this client’s diagnosis?
A) Abnormal CT scan findings of plaques and tangles in the brain
B) Client history and physical examination
C) Positive blood tests for beta-amyloid and tau proteins
D) Blood test for amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The diagnosis of Alzheimer disease is based on the client history and physical examination. There is currently no one test or procedure that makes the diagnosis of Alzheimer disease. As AD progresses and more neurons die, two characteristic abnormalities develop in the brains of affected individuals. The first is thick protein clots called neurofibrillary tangles, and the second is insoluble deposits known as amyloid plaques, but these changes are found at autopsy, not by a CT scan or blood test.

106
Q

The nurse is teaching the family of a client who has just been diagnosed with dementia. The family asks if there are treatments available that will cure the client. What would be the nurse’s best response to the family?
A) “There are no treatments that will cure dementia at this time.”
B) “Treatments to cure dementia include the use of vitamin E.”
C) “Treatments to cure dementia involve hormone replacement therapy.”
D) “There are no treatments that can slow the progression of the disease.”

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Currently no treatment has been found to reverse or stop the pathologic process in progressive dementia. Studies on the use of dietary supplements such as antioxidant vitamins, gingko biloba, resveratrol, omega-3 fatty acids, and medical food such as tramiprosate (Vivimind) and caprylic acid for the management of AD are inconclusive at best and associated with risks such as interaction with other drugs and toxicity. There are two classes of medications used to slow the progression of the disease.

107
Q
Damage to which region of the brain may result in loss of recent memory?
A) Neuron
B) Hippocampus
C) Cerebrum
D) Neurotransmitter
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The structure that plays a role in memory is the hippocampus, located in the limbic system of the brain. A neuron carries and processes information within the nervous system. The cerebrum is the largest region of the brain. A neurotransmitter is a chemical messenger within the nervous system.

108
Q

An older adult client complains of periods of confusion and forgetfulness, but reports clear thought process at most times of the day. Which is the appropriate response from the nurse?
A) “Are you having trouble hearing?”
B) “You probably have nothing to worry about. It’s most likely stress-related.”
C) “Everybody has a few problems with memory as they get older.”
D) “You should probably have an MRI of your brain.”

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) People who cannot hear or see well often appear confused. The nurse should assess whether the client is having difficulty with these prior to moving on in the assessment process. Determine the degree of impairment and explore the possibility that this hearing impairment may be contributing to the client’s confusion. A nurse should never discount the client’s concerns, and memory loss with confusion and forgetfulness is not part of the normal aging process. The nurse needs to explore further before an expensive diagnostic study is considered. It would be beyond the scope of practice for the nurse to recommend this testing.

109
Q
An older adult client with no history of cognitive impairment is suddenly showing signs of increased confusion and possible delirium. Which health problem should the nurse suspect is causing this client's confusion?
A) Cataracts
B) Hypertension
C) Urinary tract infection
D) Lower back strain
A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Delirium is often the most prominent manifestation of conditions such as dehydration, respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and urinary retention, and adverse drug events may occur in the absence of symptoms such as fever or discomfort. Hypertension, lower back strain, and cataracts are not conditions that are known to cause signs of confusion in older adults.

110
Q
The nurse is caring for a client who becomes confused and agitated every evening. Medical reasons for the change in mental status have been ruled out. The nurse correctly communicates to the other healthcare team members that the client is experiencing which phenomenon?
A) Delirium
B) Sundowning
C) Aphasia
D) Chronic psychosis
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Sundowning is understood as confusion that intensifies in the evening or at bedtime. The client can become increasingly agitated, disoriented, or even aggressive/paranoid or impulsive and emotional later in the day and at night. Delirium is a rapid-onset type of confusion. Aphasia is the inability to use or understand language. Psychosis is a mental disorder, and this client is not exhibiting signs of psychosis.

111
Q

The family of an older adult client is informed that the client has delirium. Which statement indicates that the family understands the diagnosis?
A) “It’s sad that dad is getting dementia.”
B) “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly, which may be the result of an underlying medical condition.”
C) “Our father is going to need long-term psychiatric care.”
D) “Confusion is normal in older adults, and it goes away on its own.”

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Delirium is characterized by a rapid and abrupt onset of symptoms and caused by an underlying medical condition. Once the medical condition is treated, the delirium resolves. Although delirium is more common in older individuals, aging is not a cause of delirium. Impairments in short-term memory are more indicative of dementia. The fact that he had been independent has no bearing on his current symptoms.

112
Q

An older adult client, hospitalized post-surgery, wakes up in the middle of the night very confused. The nurse reorients the client to the surroundings and gets the client to return to sleep. Which should the nurse consider as a source for the client’s confusion?
A) Ambien (zolpidem), a hypnotic/sedative, taken at bedtime for sleep
B) The client’s age
C) The death of the client’s husband last month
D) History of cardiac disease

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Certain medications, such as hypnotics/sedatives, anxiolytics, antidepressants, anti-Parkinson drugs, anticonvulsants, or antispasmodics, also increase symptoms of delirium. Therefore, the client’s medication must be reviewed to determine the effects of drugs and cognitive changes. Although loss of a loved one may result in depression, it is unlikely to be the source of confusion. Age alone does not cause confusion, and cardiac disease alone would not cause confusion.

113
Q

A school-age client is hospitalized with encephalitis and is experiencing delirium. Which intervention promotes a therapeutic environment for this child and family?
A) Making sure the parents perform all treatments for their child
B) Encouraging the family to remain at the bedside with the client
C) Making sure the child comes back for the follow-up appointment
D) Providing written instructions before discharge

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Besides the prevention and management of the underlying medical condition, the presence of parents and family members has been found to reduce the incidence of delirium. All of the other interventions are important for the discharge planning of this client.

114
Q
A hospitalized older adult client suddenly does not recognize an adult daughter and states, "Why hasn't my wife come to see me?" The client's spouse has been deceased for 5 years. Prior to the hospitalization, the client was oriented to person, place, time, and reality. Which nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
A) Risk for Autonomic Dysreflexia
B) Anxiety
C) Acute Confusion
D) Risk for Injury
E) Ineffective Coping
A

Answer: C, D
Explanation: A) The client is experiencing acute confusion and is also at risk for injury according to the scenario presented. The scenario does not indicate the client is experiencing anxiety or ineffective coping. Autonomic dysreflexia is a syndrome of clients with spinal cord damage, which is not indicated for this client.

115
Q

The staff on a care area that has a high percentage of clients with confusion attends an educational program on delirium management. Which statement, made by a staff nurse, indicates that teaching has been effective?
A) “It is important to provide education for family members as needed.”
B) “Sensory deprivation and overstimulation can worsen the symptoms the client exhibits.”
C) “Decreasing all stimulation in the client’s room is essential.”
D) “The family should involve the client in all conversations and interactions involving care.”

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The structure of the client’s environment should support cognitive functions. Aids for hearing or vision are necessary to prevent sensory loss or distortion. Familiar objects from home, such as slippers, robe, and photographs, may help with orientation. Easily read clocks, orientation boards, and a structured routine that includes physical activity and socialization without sensory overload will also help with orientation. Clients with delirium can exhibit hyperactivity when overstimulated.

116
Q

The nurse is explaining the difference between delirium and dementia to a family member of a client with confusion. Which statement is appropriate for the nurse to include?
A) “The cause of delirium is always unknown.”
B) “Dementia develops suddenly.”
C) “Delirium is a serious but common occurrence in older adult clients who are hospitalized.”
D) “Delirium is often confused with depression in older adult clients.”

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Hospitalized clients are much more likely to experience delirium because of the presence of predisposing illnesses, exposure to multiple medical interventions that may contribute to cognitive changes, and being in an environment that is unfamiliar, stimulating, and not conducive to maintaining normal diurnal rhythms. Delirium is an acute rapid-onset condition with an etiology that can usually be traced to a known cause. The cause of delirium can often be determined, and removal of the cause will usually result in complete recovery. The symptoms of delirium are not similar to those of depression

117
Q

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Injury for a client who is disoriented. Which is an expected outcome for this client’s care?
A) The client does not sustain injuries during wanderings.
B) The client remains continent of bowel and urine.
C) The client receives culturally appropriate care.
D) The client sleeps through the night and stays awake most of the day.

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The client “does not sustain injury during wanderings” is the correct answer because it relates to the diagnosis and is measurable. The client “maintains continence on four out of five voidings” does not relate to the diagnosis. The client “sleeps through the night and stays awake most of the day” does not relate to the diagnosis. The client “receives culturally appropriate care” is an incorrect answer because expected outcomes are unknown and not measurable.

118
Q

The nurse is caring for a school-age client who was admitted with pneumonia and high fever. The parents are very upset because the child is now unable to recognize them. Which statements should the nurse include while educating the parents on their child’s symptoms? Select all that apply.
A) Reorient the client to time and place as much as possible.
B) Encourage the family remain at the bedside as much as possible.
C) Explain that high fevers can cause delirium.
D) Reassure that the confusion will not last very long.
E) Teach the family how to care for the child upon discharge.

A

Answer: B, C
Explanation: A) The nurse will want to explain that any febrile illness may cause symptoms of delirium and that this symptom will abate when the temperature returns to normal. The presence of parents and family members has been found to reduce the incidence of delirium as well as decrease family stress. Teaching the family how to care for the child during the hospitalization or upon discharge will not necessarily decrease their anxiety. Telling the family the confusion will not last long is not helping them to understand the nature of the symptom.

119
Q

Which is true regarding the Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)?
A) It consists of five parts and is a lengthy test.
B) It measures the severity of the client’s delirium.
C) It is also effective in screening for depression.
D) It is effective in screening for cognitive impairment and reversible confusion.

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) is a tool the nurse can use to differentiate between delirium and dementia. It consists of two parts; the first part screens for cognitive impairment and the second part screens for reversible confusion. Although it is effective in differentiating between delirium and dementia, it does not measure the severity of the client’s delirium and it does not screen for depression.

120
Q

A nurse manager is educating a group of staff nurses on recognizing the differences between confusion and delirium. Which statements should be included in the teaching? Select all that apply.
A) “Delirium is seen only in older adults.”
B) “Delirium is a reversible condition while dementia is not.”
C) “Older adults are at higher risk for developing delirium.”
D) “Younger adult females are at higher risk for developing delirium.”
E) “Adolescents are more prone to developing delirium than young children.”

A

Answer: B, C
Explanation: A) Delirium is a reversible condition caused by an acute problem, such as infection, and can occur at any age. Dementia is a cognitive decline generally associated with an aging adult. Older adults are at higher risk for developing delirium, not younger adult females. Also, young children are at greater risk for developing delirium than adolescents because children’s bodies are less equipped to cope with insults such as fever, infection, and toxin exposure.

121
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia whose symptoms of psychosis have resolved. The client’s family complains that the client’s hygiene remains poor and he lacks motivation and initiative. Which conclusion by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) The client is experiencing negative symptoms.
B) The client is experiencing disordered thinking.
C) The client was misdiagnosed.
D) The client is most likely hearing voices

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Negative symptoms are those that subtract from normal behavior. These symptoms include a lack of interest, motivation, responsiveness, pleasure in daily activities, or the ability to care for self. Positive symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and a disorganized thought or speech pattern. There isn’t any evidence to support that the client is hearing voices. There isn’t any evidence to support that the client is very depressed.

122
Q
The nurse is educating an adolescent client diagnosed with schizophrenia on predisposing risk factors. Which significant risk factor should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Summer birthdate
B) Parents recently divorced
C) Positive family history
D) Lives in rural setting
A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The most significant risk factor for schizophrenia is a positive family history. There is evidence that individuals born in late winter may be at greater risk of developing the illness, possibly due to exposure to infection. Although stress can trigger the illness in certain susceptible individuals, it is not a risk factor itself. Living in a rural area is not a risk factor for schizophrenia.

123
Q

The nurse is teaching techniques to improve communication skills to a family with a member with schizophrenia. Which techniques should be included? Select all that apply.
A) Use active listening.
B) Making positive, specific requests for change.
C) Use “I” language to express feelings.
D) Encourage client to communicate with only family.
E) Use “you” statements to point out negative behavior.

A

Answer: A, B, C
Explanation: A) Increasing communication in a safe setting with family and friends helps to stimulate both self-confidence and the fostering of important relationships. Use “I” language to express positive feelings (e.g., “I am happy when you decide to sit down for dinner with us”). Engage in active listening (e.g., asking questions and nodding in agreement when another person speaks). Make positive, specific requests for change that are linked to emotions (e.g., “I would really like it if you could play a game with us tonight”). Express negative feelings with “I” rather than “you” language (e.g., saying “I’m worried that you may not be getting enough sleep” instead of “You never get enough sleep at night”).

124
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
A) Disturbed Thought Processes
B) Individual Ineffective Coping
C) Impaired Verbal Communication
D) Risk for Violence, Self-Directed or Other-Directed

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Maintaining a safe environment is the priority diagnosis. When hallucinating or interpreting others’ actions and statements from the standpoint of delusions, the client may believe herself to be in danger, regardless of whether there is a factual basis for her fear. Under such circumstances, both the client and perceived aggressors may be at risk for injury. Although the client has impaired thought processes, this is not the priority diagnosis at this time. Individual Ineffective Coping and Impaired Verbal Communication are also correct diagnoses, but the key word here is “priority,” and this client has a potential or risk for harm to self or others.

125
Q
The nurse is providing education related to improving family dynamics for the family of an adolescent diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which topics should be included in the teaching? Select all that apply.
A) Establish boundaries
B) Identify coping mechanisms
C) Discuss childhood memories
D) Prevent future episodes
E) Improve communication
A

Answer: A, B, E
Explanation: A) The goal is to help clients and families cope, improve their communication and interpersonal skills, establish boundaries, and moderate family cohesion and flexibility. The family may not be able to prevent future psychologic episodes. Discussing childhood memories is irrelevant to treatment.

126
Q

The healthcare provider prescribes aripiprazole (Abilify) for the client with schizophrenia. Which is the priority outcome for the client?
A) The client will report a decrease in auditory hallucinations.
B) The client will report symptoms of restlessness.
C) The client will consume adequate fluids and a high-fiber diet.
D) The client will adhere to the medication regime.

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Medication compliance is a priority for clients with schizophrenia. Relapse of symptoms will occur without the medications. The symptom of restlessness is known as akathisia. This would be important to report, but it is not the priority outcome. Adequate fluids and fiber will decrease the side effect of constipation, but this is not the priority outcome. A decrease in auditory hallucinations is an expected effect of aripiprazole (Abilify), but this is not the priority outcome.

127
Q

The nurse is running a group therapy session for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which interventions address the cognitive deficits associated with this disorder?
A) Have clients wear name tags.
B) Provide a highly stimulating environment.
C) Encourage open-ended activities.
D) Use humor.

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Facial agnosia is a cognitive alteration frequently associated with schizophrenia. Name tags assist clients to remember other group members’ names and may foster social interaction. Decreased stimuli would address deficits in focus and attention. Structured activities and cues are required to address lack of spontaneity in speech. Individuals with schizophrenia may have concrete thinking and may not respond well to humor.

128
Q

The client is receiving risperidone (Risperdal) for the treatment of schizophrenia. Which client statement indicates the medication is effectively treating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
A) “I promise not to skip breakfast anymore.”
B) “I am not hearing the voices anymore.”
C) “I will start going to group therapy.”
D) “I feel better and I am ready to go home.”

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) Among the therapeutic effects of risperidone (Risperdal) is the remission of a range of psychotic symptoms that include delusions, paranoia, auditory hallucinations, and irrational behavior. A client stating he feels better and is ready to go home, stating he will go to group therapy, or stating he will not skip breakfast does not indicate the remission of any psychotic symptoms.

129
Q
The nurse is caring for the client prescribed thorazine. Which assessment findings alert the nurse to the possibility that the client has developed tardive dyskinesia? Select all that apply.
A) Wormlike motions of the tongue
B) Lip smacking
C) Unusual facial movements
D) Muscle spasms of the neck
E) Shuffling gait
A

Answer: A, B, C
Explanation: A) Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by unusual tongue and face movements such as lip smacking and wormlike motions of the tongue. Severe muscle spasms of the back, neck, and tongue are known as acute dystonia, not tardive dyskinesia.

130
Q

An adolescent client is admitted to the hospital for the treatment of schizophrenia. The client’s mother is confused and wants to know what she did to cause this to occur. Which responses by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.
A) “Schizophrenia is a biological brain disorder.”
B) “Research indicates that schizophrenia is a genetic disorder.”
C) “Research indicates that a very stressful environment causes schizophrenia.”
D) “Schizophrenia is due to too much dopamine in certain parts of the brain.”
E) “Schizophrenia is linked to drinking alcohol during pregnancy.”

A

Answer: A, B, D
Explanation: A) Theories explaining the cause of schizophrenia include a genetic component, imbalances in neurotransmitters in specific areas of the brain, and overactive dopaminergic pathways in the basal nuclei. There is no evidence to support a link between schizophrenia and alcohol consumption during pregnancy. A stressful environment will exacerbate the symptoms of schizophrenia but does not cause the illness.

131
Q

Which statement regarding the pathophysiology and etiology of schizophrenia is correct?
A) “Brain imaging shows that there is reduced blood flow to the thalamus, frontal lobe, and temporal lobes.”
B) “There is an increased number of nicotinic receptors in the hippocampus, which makes it harder to form new memories and interpret sensory stimuli.”
C) “Genetics does not seem to factor into the cause of the disease.”
D) “The ventricles and sulci of the brain are decreased in size.”

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) There are many abnormalities of the central nervous system in a client with schizophrenia. Brain imaging studies of individuals with schizophrenia consistently reveal a pattern of structural abnormalities that include decreased volumes of gray matter in the prefrontal cortex, temporal lobes, hippocampus, and thalamus; enlarged ventricles and sulci; and decreased blood flow to the frontal lobe, thalamus, and temporal lobes. A decreased number of nicotinic receptors in the hippocampus makes it harder for the client with schizophrenia to form new memories and interpret sensory stimuli. Genetics seems to factor into the cause of the disease, as familial patterns of the disease are noted. In the client with schizophrenia, the ventricle and sulci of the brain are increased in size.

132
Q
A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is caring for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who manifests positive symptoms of the disease. Based on this data, which manifestation does the nurse expect to identify when providing care?
A) Social withdrawal
B) Hallucinations
C) Anhedonia
D) Concrete thinking
A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The major manifestations of schizophrenia are described as either positive symptoms or negative symptoms, depending on whether they involve the presence of unusual behaviors or the absence of typical behaviors. Hallucinations are a positive symptom; all other choices are negative symptoms

133
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who requires extensive wound care. The client has consented to participate in a nursing research study regarding the wound care. Which client statement indicates understanding of the research goal?
A) “This research will not influence my care.”
B) “Nursing care is based solely on research.”
C) “I will be paid to participate in the research project.”
D) “I will be helping to validate nursing care.”

A

The nurse is caring for a client who requires extensive wound care. The client has consented to participate in a nursing research study regarding the wound care. Which client statement indicates understanding of the research goal?
A) “This research will not influence my care.”
B) “Nursing care is based solely on research.”
C) “I will be paid to participate in the research project.”
D) “I will be helping to validate nursing care.”

134
Q

A nurse researcher is preparing to give a presentation about evidence-based practice (EBP) to a group of nursing students. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for the nurse researcher to include in this presentation?
A) “EBP focuses solely on research-based evidence, and it assumes that best practices for nursing care exist independent of client preferences.”
B) “EBP involves integrating research evidence, the nurse’s own clinical expertise, and client values and preferences.”
C) “EBP is sometimes also referred to as translational research.”
D) “EBP is typically only associated with complex nursing tasks, such as preparing clients for surgery and monitoring for adverse effects.”

A

Answer: B
Explanation: A) The nurse researcher should be sure to tell students that EBP involves integrating research evidence, the nurse’s own clinical expertise, and client values and preferences. Although translational research helps in the development of EBP, the two terms are not synonymous. EBP informs nursing procedures of all types, from simple to complex.

135
Q

The nurse working in a community hospital is caring for a client who does not seem to be responding well to the current plan of care that has been implemented by the nursing team. Given this information, which actions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.
A) Accessing research journals for evidence that would support a change in the plan of care
B) Proposing a nursing research project to the unit manager
C) Networking online with other nurses who are giving similar care
D) Asking the doctor for a new nursing approach to care
E) Trying a different approach to care even though it breaches hospital policy

A

Answer: A, C
Explanation: A) A nurse in a community hospital may not have immediate access to the latest in nursing research. In order to improve care, this nurse might access research journals or network with other nurses to determine whether there is any evidence that would support changes in the client’s nursing care. The nurse should not breach hospital policy even if the client were to benefit. Proposing a research project is an excellent way to improve client care, but this nurse needs a more immediate solution to the client’s problems. The physician is not involved in solving nursing problems.

136
Q

A client in the clinic is being asked to participate in a research study. The client asks why a nursing research study is necessary given that research on this subject has already been published by the American Medical Association (AMA). Which of the following responses should the nurse offer in reply to the client’s question?
A) “This study is useful because it supports the medical profession.”
B) “This study is useful because it validates nursing through medical research.”
C) “This study is useful because it supports products used in nursing care.”
D) “This study is useful because it validates nursing care, not medical care.”

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Many people do not understand that nursing is a separate profession from the medical profession. One reason that nursing research is undertaken is to ensure the credibility of the nursing profession as separate from medicine with the potential to make valuable contributions to client care. Nursing research validates nursing, not medicine. Nursing research is not established to support products but to improve client care. Nursing research does not seek to support the medical profession but the nursing profession.

137
Q

The nurse manager for a medical-surgical nursing unit is talking to a group of nursing students. The nurse manager is explaining the types of nursing research studies that are conducted on the unit. Which statement by the students indicates understanding of the nature of nursing research?
A) “Nursing research does not include nursing education or nursing leadership.”
B) “Nursing research does not include the study of nurses themselves.”
C) “Nursing research impacts nursing by adding knowledge and changing nursing practice.”
D) “Nursing research is used to enhance medical treatment.”

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The student who states that nursing research impacts the profession by adding knowledge and changing nursing practice understands what nursing research is. Nursing research includes the study of nurses themselves. Nursing research does not enhance medical treatment but enhances nursing care. Research also includes the educational aspects of nursing and nursing leadership.

138
Q

A nursing preceptor is working with a novice nurse on a medical-surgical unit. During client care, the novice nurse shares an evidence-based wound care technique that is being used with much success. Which of the following is being encouraged when the novice nurse shares this information with the preceptor?
A) Use of trial and error to gain knowledge
B) Use of existing unit modes of care
C) Use of new knowledge gained through research
D) Use of medical knowledge to perform care

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The novice nurse is sharing evidence learned through research that may enhance client care. The novice nurse is not encouraging the preceptor to use existing modes of care, medical knowledge, or trial and error in this example.

139
Q

) The head nurse in a pediatrician’s office is interested in incorporating more aspects of evidence-based practice (EBP) into the facility’s regular nursing procedures and protocols. Which of the following resources would be most useful in helping the nurse achieve this goal?
A) An American Nurses Association (ANA) report about best practices for reducing the incidence of pressure ulcers
B) Documentation from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention regarding recommended vaccinations for individuals who plan to travel abroad
C) A report from the National Institutes of Health (NIH) describing a new sickle cell screening protocol
D) A journal article discussing the perceived versus actual effectiveness of various approaches to smoking cessation

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Of the resources listed, the NIH report about a new sickle cell screening protocol would be of greatest use to a nurse in a pediatrician’s office. Screening for conditions that often become apparent during childhood, such as sickle cell disease, is an important responsibility of healthcare providers who work with infants, children, and adolescents, and it directly supports the Healthy People 2020 goal of reducing child mortality. Although all of the other resources listed above could be used in support of EBP, they would be more appropriate for nurses who work with older populations.

140
Q

Which of the following resources would be of least value to a nurse who hopes to employ evidence-based practice (EBP) in support of the Healthy People 2020 objectives for pregnant women?
A) A research study linking regular exercise during pregnancy with a reduced likelihood of cesarean section
B) A report from the American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists describing best practices for screening for gestational diabetes
C) A document from the National Institutes of Health describing newly identified benefits of receiving vaccines during pregnancy
D) A report from the American Cancer Society regarding changes in the recommended schedule for mammograms

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Healthy People 2020 objectives for pregnant women include reducing mortality rates among this population, reducing the rate of pregnancy-related complications, and reducing the occurrence of cesarean births among women who are at low risk for complications. Of the listed resources, the only one that doesn’t directly support these objectives is the report about changes in mammogram screening recommendations. This resource would be appropriate for a nurse who is interested in using EBP to support Healthy People 2020 objectives for older adult populations, however.

141
Q

A nurse educator is interacting with a group of nurses who are working toward their graduate degrees. The members of the group are interested in replication studies. Which of the following replication studies would be most appropriate given the changing demographics in the United States?
A) A study examining the ability of families to adapt to acute health problems
B) A study examining how effective use of supplies affects the cost of care
C) A study examining the ability of an aging population to care for itself
D) A study examining how new technology affects client care

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) The U.S. population is aging as the baby boomers begin to retire. In light of this demographic shift, an important replication study would be to examine how well the aging population is able to care for itself, in hopes of identifying cost-effective measures that can be instituted to provide care for this expanding group. Studying how effective use of supplies affects the cost of care is usually an ongoing project conducted in most hospitals as healthcare costs increase. Studying a family’s ability to adapt to acute health problems is not a demographic issue. New technology is not a demographic issue.

142
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with a chronic disease process. The client tells the nurse he recently read an article about funding for the National Institute of Nursing Research (NINR). He then asks the nurse why the U.S. Congress would fund such an organization. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) “The government is looking to the NINR for information about promoting health.”
B) “Funding the NINR is one cause of health cost increases in the country.”
C) “The government is interested in preventing chronic disease.”
D) “Nursing research is focused on prevention and health promotion, which will decrease healthcare costs.”

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) The U.S. government’s goal in funding organizations like the NINR is to help contain healthcare costs while also increasing the quality of care. Nursing research frequently focuses on prevention and health promotion, which means it directly supports these two goals. Funding the NINR does not increase healthcare costs but rather seeks to reduce costs. The government does know how to promote healthcare; the purpose of partnering with the NINR is to further that goal from a nursing perspective. Chronic disease cannot always be prevented, but research can help improve care and reduce costs.

143
Q

The nurse is working with a client who has agreed to participate in a research study. Which actions would constitute a violation of the client’s right to full disclosure? Select all that apply.
A) Giving the client false information about his or her participation in the study
B) Telling a mutual friend about the client’s involvement in the study
C) Withholding information about the study from the client
D) Providing the client’s name as a participant in the study
E) Suggesting that participating in the study would greatly benefit the client’s financial situation

A

Answer: A, C
Explanation: A) Withholding information and giving false information would both violate the client’s right to full disclosure. Telling a mutual friend about the client’s involvement would violate the client’s right to confidentiality, as would providing the client’s name as a study participant, but neither of these actions would affect the client’s right to full disclosure. Suggesting that study participation would benefit the client financially could be viewed as a form of coercion or undue influence and thus be considered unethical, but it would not affect the client’s right to full disclosure.

144
Q

A nurse working in a home health agency is asked to participate on a committee that is looking to incorporate evidence-based nursing care. What should be the committee’s first step in implementing evidence-based practice (EBP)?
A) Compile a list of questions.
B) Research evidence-based practices that can be implemented.
C) Evaluate the results of different research projects.
D) Suggest that individual staff members try new means of delivering care.

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Following committee formation, the next step in the EBP implementation process would be to compile a list of clinical questions that are relevant to nursing practice within the agency. Suggesting that staff nurses try new methods of care may violate the agency’s policies; also, new care methods should be tried and evaluated in an orderly fashion. It is not appropriate to research specific nursing practices until pertinent clinical questions have been asked. Results cannot be evaluated until research has been reviewed and practice has been changed.

145
Q
A nurse is planning a research project comparing the use of fingerstick blood glucose testing with the use of alternative sites for adult male clients. Which elements of the PICOT formulation of the clinical question still need to be defined? Select all that apply.
A) People
B) Issue
C) Comparison
D) Outcome
E) Time
A

Answer: D, E
Explanation: A) The people in this study are adult men with diabetes. The issue is effective testing for blood glucose levels. The comparison is between adult men using different testing sites. According to the PICOT formulation, the clinical question still needs to specify an outcome (i.e., it needs to state a hypothesis about the two groups) and a time frame for the study.

146
Q
A nurse is preparing to conduct a research study and wants to do a literature search for relevant articles. Which of the following sections should the nurse expect to find in each search result? Select all that apply.
A) Abstract
B) Methods
C) Funding
D) Results
E) References
A

Answer: A, B, D, E
Explanation: A) The abstract provides a summary of the entire content of the journal article. The methods section describes in detail all aspects and methods of the study. The results section reports statistical data. The references section lists source materials and other resources for additional information. Funding information is not a necessary element of a research article.

147
Q
A nursing student who is providing care for an assigned client knows that the information documented in the client's nursing care plan could potentially be used in research to optimize client care. Which type of research is used to convert research knowledge into healthcare applications for improved outcomes?
A) Translational research
B) Transformational research
C) Quantitative research
D) Qualitative research
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Translational research is a systematic approach of converting research knowledge into applications of healthcare for improved client outcomes. When scientific evidence is translated into practical applications, human health can be improved. Information can flow back and forth between researchers and clinicians to further investigate diseases and human response to them.

148
Q

A nurse manager is encouraging staff on the unit to go back to school and “become professionals, not just workers” by “increasing” their knowledge through education and networking. Which criteria for nursing to be recognized as a profession is the nurse manager highlighting? Select all that apply.
A) Joining professional organizations
B) Following a code of ethics
C) Having specialized education requirements
D) Conducting ongoing research
E) Having autonomy

A

Answer: A, C, E
Explanation: A) Although all of the answer choices are criteria for nursing to be recognized as a profession, in this situation, the nurse manager is highlighting the importance of specialized education and joining professional organizations through networking. Having autonomy is implied, because more education leads to more autonomy.

149
Q
A home health nurse who is visiting a client to complete a wound dressing notes that the client has a flat affect and is not as responsive as during previous visits. The nurse calls the client's primary healthcare provider for a psychiatric referral. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of possible depression, the nurse is exhibiting which concept associated with evidence-based practice?
A) Clinical decision making
B) Advocacy
C) Professional behaviors
D) Accountability
A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) Here, the nurse is engaging in clinical decision making informed by evidence from the research. The nurse’s decision to seek a psychiatric referral reflects familiarity with the signs and symptoms of depression, as widely documented in the literature. It also reflects an understanding that psychiatric care may be necessary to achieve the best possible outcomes for this client.

150
Q
Which type of research investigates a question through narrative data that explores the subjective experiences of human beings and can provide nursing with a better understanding of clients' perspectives?
A) Quantitative research
B) Thematic research
C) Qualitative research
D) Clinical research
A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Qualitative research investigates a question through narrative data that explores the subjective experiences of human beings and can provide nursing with a better understanding of the subjects’ perspective. Goals of qualitative research include the identification of patterns and themes. In comparison, quantitative research uses precise measurement to collect data and analyze the data statistically for a summary and a description of the resulting findings or to test relationships among variables. Clinical research refers to any type of research (qualitative or quantitative) that seeks answers to questions that will ultimately improve patient care.

151
Q

Prior to conducting research, nurse researchers must have their research protocols approved by which of the following bodies?
A) The American Nurses Association
B) The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services
C) The journal in which the researchers plan to publish their results
D) An institutional review board

A

Answer: D
Explanation: A) Prior to undertaking research, nurse researchers must have their protocols reviewed and approved by an institutional review board (IRB). The IRB is responsible for ensuring that the research protocols adhere to ethical standards. Although an IRB’s decision may be influenced by ANA recommendations or Department of Health and Human Services policies and regulations, neither of these groups is required to review research protocols. Journals are interested in research after it has been conducted, not before.

152
Q

Which of the following measures would be most directly aimed at upholding the principle of respect for persons?
A) A policy requiring that any research involving pediatric subjects undergo an extra level of ethical scrutiny prior to approval
B) A policy stating that all data gathered during research must be stripped of information that links it to individual research subjects
C) A policy stating that a research project must be immediately suspended should any of the participants experience an unexpected adverse event
D) A policy requiring that all participants in a research effort receive financial compensation

A

Answer: A
Explanation: A) The principle of respect for persons involves acknowledging and protecting the autonomy of all individuals, including individuals whose capacity to exercise autonomy is diminished because of disability, illness, circumstances that restrict liberty, or immaturity. Thus, this principle would underlie a policy providing extra protection for pediatric research subjects. A policy requiring the removal of personally identifying information would be more closely linked to the concept of justice, and a policy requiring the suspension of a research project following unforeseen adverse effects would be more closely linked to the principle of beneficence. It is unlikely that an organization would have a policy requiring financial compensation for all research subjects, as this might be considered a form of undue influence.

153
Q

Which of the following would be considered a foreground question when included in a nursing research project?
A) “Who is at greatest risk for the development of gestational diabetes?”
B) “What are the side effects of this class of antipsychotic medications?”
C) “How does use of behavioral interventions compare to use of pharmacological therapies in treating hypertension?”
D) “What organisms most commonly cause bacterial pneumonia?”

A

Answer: C
Explanation: A) Foreground questions are somewhat narrow in focus and are about specific clinical issues. They are useful for finding nursing interventions that improve patient outcomes; in other words, they identify useful information about direct patient care. Of the questions listed, only the one comparing behavioral and pharmacological interventions for hypertension would be considered a foreground question. All the other choices are examples of background questions, which are general questions that seek more information about a topic, such as diseases or medications. These questions serve to fill gaps in knowledge about a specific topic and often take the form “What is. . . ?” or “What does. . . ?”