NURSERY DZ Flashcards

1
Q

piglets are separated from sow at what age?

A

24-28 d/o (6 kg) → 78-84 d/0 (18-20 kg)

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2
Q

epidemic triangle

A

Agent
Host
Environment

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3
Q

T/F: vax pigs have a low likelihood of diarrhea

A

T

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4
Q

nursery pigs age

A

weaning up to 80d

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5
Q

why piglets are the most susceptible to dz?

A
  • unable to thermoregulate
  • developing bodily fx (immune system, GIT)
  • rely on maternal Abs
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6
Q

disadvantages of solid wet concrete

A
  • poor insulator
  • more exposed to stress factors
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7
Q

advantages of wooden slat (impractical in PH)

A
  • higher resistance
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8
Q

_____________ concrete is used in the PH

A

metal

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9
Q

cold stress dz can lead to?

A

diarrhea and respi dz

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10
Q

feeds are not properly digested if these enzymes are low

A

amylase and lipase

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11
Q

T/F: vax against dz not present in your area is practical

A

T - should be skipped

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12
Q

swine blood collection site

A
  • aorta (risky)
  • jugular v. (favored)
  • ear v. (collapses easily)
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13
Q

how long do piglets stay in the farrowing pen?

A

5-7d

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14
Q

ideal time for transferring piglets to nursery

A

cooler time of the day (early morning or late afternoon)

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15
Q

condition where piglets after weaning refuse to eat and can be depressed resulting to decreased feed and water intake, and weight gain

A

weaning lag

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16
Q

water intake after weaning:
Day 1 = ?
Day 2-3 = ?

A
  1. drop
  2. increase
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17
Q

if diarrhea is observed, dry feed should be withdrawn and wet feeding should be done during _____________

A

morning

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18
Q

gruel combination

A

1 kg feed + 8 L water + 50 g electrolytes

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19
Q

PRRS effects on early mid-term and late-term sows

A

early = little adverse
late = SMEDI

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20
Q

T/F: piglets that have PRRS and survived in utero infxn die early due to respi distress

A

T

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21
Q

Infected piglets with PRRS in womb are not expected to live long due to _________

A

interstitial pneumonia

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22
Q

MOT of PRRS

A

direct contact, feces, oral and nasal secretions, semen, fomites, aerosol

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23
Q

3 stages of PRRS

A
  1. acute - viremia target cells attacked (LO, MO)
  2. persistence - subclinical, decreased shedding and viremia stops
  3. extinction - end of shedding, cleared, body manages to fight the virus
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24
Q

persistent infxn whrein the virus is eventually cleared (_________ DPI)

A

chronic persistent infxn (100-145 DPI)

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25
Q

where does PRRS virus replicate?

A

MO and lymphoid tissue

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26
Q

mechanisms to subvert immune response

A
  1. inhibit caspase-dependent apoptosis
  2. suppress type-1 interferon response - for cell death
  3. use of decoy epitopes (limits neutralizing Ab response)
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27
Q

PRRS characteristic lesion

A

interstitial pneumonia + LN enlargement

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28
Q

PRRS diagnosis

A

CS, ELISA, immunohistochem, RT-PCR, VN (virus neutralization) assay

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29
Q

how long is herd (infected w/ PRRS) closure

A

26 weeks

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30
Q

T/F: total depopulation should be done to farms infected w/ PRRS

A

F - partial (test and remove)

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31
Q

T/F: pigs who recovered from PRRS are typically immune

A

T

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32
Q

PRRS virus are susceptible to?

A

phenols, glutaraldehyde, phenolics, quaternary

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33
Q

T/F: PRRS virus is easily destroyed in dry fomites

A

T

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34
Q

other term for PRRS

A

mystery pig dz, blue ear pig dz

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35
Q

causative agent of mycoplasma pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

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36
Q

other term for mycoplasma pneumonia

A

porcine enzootic pneumonia
- lethal pneumonia affecting piglets
- coughing, dyspnea, wasting

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37
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia lesions are concentrated on the _________ portions of the lungs (w/out necrotic areas)

A

apical

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38
Q

T/F: mycoplasma pneumonia can be transmitted horizontally and vertically

A

T

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39
Q

T/F: mycoplasma pneumonia is prone to secondary infxn

A

T - Haemophilus, Pasteurella

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40
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia diagnosis

A

CS, isolation, serology, PCR

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41
Q

waste materials can accumulate _______

A

ammonia - can destroy galvanized iron

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42
Q

causative agent of porcine pleuropneumonia

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae or Haemophilus pleuropneumoniae

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43
Q

other term for porcine pleuropneumoniae

A

APP (actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae) - causing fatal fibrinous, hemorrhagic, necrotizing pneumonia, lung hemorrhaging, fibrinous exudation

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44
Q

APP is eradicated in ______

A

North America

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45
Q

APP CS

A

bloody exudates

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46
Q

MOT of APP

A

direct contact, droplets, subclinical carriers

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47
Q

APP virulence factors

A
  • RTX and APX toxin
  • capsular factors
  • fimbriae
  • adhesins
  • LPS
  • hemolysin
  • cytotoxin
  • permeability factors
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48
Q

O antigen inhibits _____

A

phagocytosis

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49
Q

virulence factors can cause

A
  • pores in CM
  • damage capillaries and alveolar walls
  • vascular leakage
  • thrombosis
  • impaired phagocytic fxn
  • failure of clearance mechanisms
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50
Q

T/F: Mycoplasma infxn can cause necrotic lesions

A

F

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51
Q

APP diagnosis

A

CS, necropsy, serology, isolation

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52
Q

APP vax at what age

A

45-50 d/o then repeat at finisher farms

53
Q

APP antibiotics

A

enrofloxacin, tiamulin, lincomycin, tilmicosin

54
Q

T/F: Spanish flu is related to Swine flu

A

T

55
Q

Swine influenza causative agent

A

influenza virus A

56
Q

swine flu related to humans

A

H1N1

57
Q

IAV subtypes are defined by their ________________ and _____________ gycoproteins

A

hemagglutinin (H1-18) and neuraminidase (N1-10)

58
Q

w/c is more dangerous antigenic drift or antigenic shift?

A

anti shift

59
Q

MOT of swine flu

A
  • animal movement
  • contact w/ oronasal secretions
  • aerosols
60
Q

swine flu virus is shed mainly thru __________

A

respi tract

61
Q

T/F: swine flu can cause rubbery, meaty lungs

A

T

62
Q

_____________ lead to typical lung inflam and dz

A

cytokine storms

63
Q

T/F: swine flu is not zoonotic

A

F

64
Q

Swine flu diagnosis

A

HI test, isolation, serology, RT-PCR

65
Q

T/F: vax pigs against swine flu

A

T - especially in high risk areas

66
Q

species of rotavirus that affect swine

A

A, B, C

67
Q

T/F: sow can be the source of rotavirus upon depletion of protective IgA in milk

A

T

68
Q

main target cell of rotavirus

A

epithelial cells of SI (jejunal and ileal)

69
Q

rotavirus IP

A

24-48 hr

70
Q

rotavirus virus is mainly shed on _______

A

feces

71
Q

rotavirus diagnosis

A

CS, isolation, serology, PCR, necropsy

72
Q

T/F: pigs infected rotavirus are ideally removed

A

F - pathogen is ubiquitous; immune system may fight it off

73
Q

causative agents of necrotic enteritis

A

Clostridium perfringens/difficile

74
Q

most potent Clostridium species

A

Type C

75
Q

necrotic enteritis MOT

A

feco-oral

76
Q

main virulence factor of C. perfringens type C

A

CPB toxin

77
Q

piglets develop hemorrhagic diarrhea __________ after exposure

A

8-22 hr

78
Q

necrotic enteritis antibiotics

A

penicillin, ceftiofur

79
Q

T/F: Clostridium pores may be dormant

A

T

80
Q

causative agent of neonatal hemorrhage and necrotic enteritis

A

C. perfringens type C

81
Q

presumptive cause of necrotizing enteritis

A

C. perfringens type A

82
Q

causative agent of neonatal necrotic enterityplocolitis

A

C. diffficile

83
Q

T/F: gas gangrene is neurotoxic

A

F - histotoxic

84
Q

T/F: blackleg, tetanus, botulism is histotoxic

A

F - neurotoxic

85
Q

causative agent of porcine coccidiosis

A

Isospora suis or Cytoisospora suis

86
Q

T/F: coccidiosis is high risk in facilities using concrete floor

A

T

87
Q

coccidiosis can cause _________ diarrhea

A

yellowish-gray

88
Q

coccidiosis can cause _________ diarrhea

A

yellowish-gray

89
Q

infective stage of Coccidia

A

sporozoites

90
Q

antiprotozoal for coccidiosis

A

amprolium

91
Q

T/F: pigs are accidental host of Toxoplasma

A

T - not produce lesions

92
Q

T/F: Sarcocystis spp is not pathogenic in pigs

A

T - no negative effects/CS

93
Q

T/F: Giardia is zoonotic

A

T (tx: metronidazole)

94
Q

intestinal roundworms = ?
tapeworm = ?
stomach worm = ?
nodular worm = ?
lung worm = ?

A
  1. Ascaris suum
  2. Taenia solium
  3. Hyostrongylus rubidus
  4. Oesophagostomum dentatum
  5. Metastrongylus

*all are zoonotic

95
Q

T/F: endoparasite infxn can cause milk spots on liver

A

T - due to migration of ascaris larvae

96
Q

endoparasites tx

A
  1. avermectin - effective for everything except tapeworm
  2. praziquantel - tapeworm
  3. benzimidazole
97
Q

causative agent of staphylococcal infxn

A

Staphylococcus hyicus

98
Q

other term for staphylococcal infxn

A

greasy pig dz, exudative epidermitis

99
Q

T/F: toxigenic S. hyicus is commonly found in clinical cases

A

T

100
Q

exfoliative toxins of Staph infxn

A

ExhA, B, C, D
ShetA, B

101
Q

T/F: Staph infxn is commonly seen in >6 wk old

A

F: <6 wk old

102
Q

Staph infxn MOT

A
  • farrowing
  • contact (fighting among piglets)
  • horizontal
  • vertical
103
Q

fleas, lice =?
mites = ?
tick =?

A
  1. Haematopinus suis
  2. Sarcoptes, Demodex
  3. Ornithodorus - biological vectors
104
Q

T/F: stable flies (Stomoxys) is asscociated w/ ASF spread

A

T

105
Q

drug for exoparasite

A

Amitraz (powder form)

106
Q

causative agent of peudorabies

A

Suid Herpesvirus 1

107
Q

other term for pseudorabies

A

Aujeszky

108
Q

mortality rate of PRV on sows and piglets

A

sow = 50% SMEDI
piglets = 100% CNS

109
Q

secondary hosts of PRV

A

dog, cattle, rat

110
Q

coronavirus affecting swine

A
  1. pHEV
  2. PRCv

diarrhea -causing:
3. PED
4. TGE
5. PDCov

111
Q

TGE infxn form where most animals are seronegative and susceptible; quick spread on all ages

A

epidemic

112
Q

form of TGE infxn where there is viral persistence in herd; piglet mortality = 10-20%

A

endemic

113
Q

T/F: PEDv infxn in breeder farm is self-limiting

A

T - lactating sows develop Abs (lactogenic immunity)

114
Q

way to address TGE or PEDv

A

backfeeding

115
Q

country where ASF is discovered

A

Kenya

116
Q

target cells of ASF

A

macrophage, platelets

117
Q

T/F: splenomegaly is common in ASF infxn

A

T

118
Q

other term ofr colibacillosis

A

edema dz (creamy fluid), white scour

119
Q

5 strains of E. coli

A
  1. ETEC
  2. EPEC
  3. STEC
  4. EDEC
  5. coliform mastitis E. coli
120
Q

ammonia build up is caused by:

A
  • poor ventilation
  • poor hygiene
  • poor environmental management
121
Q

dangerous ammonia level

A

> 15 PPM

122
Q

deficiency in musculature in a body cavity w/c leads to external displacement of internal organs

A

hernia

123
Q

types of hernia

A
  1. abdominal
  2. inguinal
  3. umbilical
124
Q

T/F: hernias grow larger as the animal age

A

T

125
Q

surgical repair of hernia must be done at _________

A

7-10 d/o

126
Q

T/F: piglets w/ recurrent hernia is repaired

A

F - culled

127
Q

cannibalism is due to what deficiency

A

salt deficiency

128
Q

T/F: sizing up prevents bullying

A

T

129
Q

congenital defect where in large areas of skin did not develop properly

A

aplasia cutis