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5002 Advanced Patho > NURS5002 - Exam 3 > Flashcards

NURS5002 - Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which condition involves an abnormally enlarged gas-exchange system and the destruction of the lung’s alveolar walls?

A

Emphysema

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2
Q

A patient has a lung problem caused by dysfunction in the pores of Kohn. What action by the healthcare professional is best?

A

Have the patient do breathing exercises.

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3
Q

A patient reports needing to sit up at night in order to breathe. What term does the healthcare professional document about this condition?

A

Orthopnea

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4
Q

Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs?

A

Ventilation

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5
Q

What medical term is used for a condition that results from pulmonary hypertension, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle?

A

Cor pulmonale

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6
Q

Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air?

A

Obstructive

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7
Q

Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?

A

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

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8
Q

A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient does the professional assess for pulmonary emboli (PE) as the priority?

A

Deep venous thrombosis

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9
Q

How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

A

By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction

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10
Q

A patient comes to the Emergency Department with inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea. What treatment does the healthcare professional anticipate for this patient as the priority?

A

Inhaled bronchodilator

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11
Q

Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?

A

Infants are obligatory nose breathers.

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12
Q

What electrocardiogram (ECG) change would the healthcare professional assess for when a patient’s myocardial infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?

A

ST elevation

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13
Q

A newborn has alveolar collapse, decreased lung expansion, increased work of breathing, and severe gas-exchange abnormalities and the student asks the healthcare professional for an explanation of what is happening. What response by the professional is best?

A

Lack of surfactant leading to increased alveolar surface tension and fluid collection

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14
Q

Kussmaul respirations as a respiratory pattern may be associated with which characteristic(s)?

A

Slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause

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15
Q

Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

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16
Q

A healthcare professional is educating a community parent group and informs them that which type of croup is most common?

A

Viral

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17
Q

What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?

A

Injury to the endothelial cells that line the artery walls

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18
Q

Which condition is capable of producing alveolar dead space?

A

Pulmonary emboli

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19
Q

Which immunoglobulin (Ig) may contribute to the pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma?

A

IgE

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20
Q

Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?

A

Alveolocapillary membrane

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21
Q

Parents bring a 5-year-old to the Emergency Department and report sudden onset of high fever, drooling, and they describe a “hot potato voice.” What action by the healthcare professional takes priority?

A

Allow the child to remain in the parent’s lap.

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22
Q

A baby has been born with Down syndrome. What congenital heart defect does the healthcare professional assess this baby for?

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

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23
Q

What physical sign does the healthcare professional relate to the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel?

A

Murmur heard on auscultation

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24
Q

A healthcare professional is educating a patient on asthma. The professional tells the patient that the most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action?

A

Avoidance of the causative agent

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25
The student asks a professor to explain how tuberculosis (TB) can remain dormant in some people. What explanation by the professor is best?
The bacilli can become isolated within tubercles in the lungs.
26
Deep breathing during atelectasis is important because it:
allows air to pass thru the pores of Kohn to the obstructed alveoli
27
In Acute Respiratory Syndrome, inflammatory mediators such as oxygen free-radicals, prostaglandins, leukotrienes and platelet-activating factor are released by:
Neutrophils
28
A patient may demonstrate a respiratory pattern of alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing which is most likely caused by:
decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata
29
Hypoventilation causes retention of carbon dioxide which stimulate _____________ in an attempt to maintain normal homeostasis.
central receptors
30
Which of the following prevents overstimulation of the heart?
β3 adrenergic receptors
31
Congestive heart failure can lead to: (select all that apply)
increased preload release of aldosterone ventricular remodeling
32
What alteration contributes to atherosclerosis when endothelial cells are injured?
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize LDLs
33
Which condition is not a cause of chest wall restriction?
Pneumothorax
34
_________________ is a valvular disorder that is predominantly seen in females and is thought to be associated with connective tissue disease and have an autosomal dominant inheritance.
Mitral Valve Prolapse
35
Which statement is true regarding ventilation?
Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.
36
During aging, ______________ is an expected change of the cardiovascular system that occurs without the effect of high blood pressure but can contribute to systolic hypertension and dementia.
Arterial stiffening
37
What abnormalities lead to the mucus plugging seen in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?
Defective chloride secretion and excess sodium absorption thicken the mucus.
38
What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Surfactant deficiency
39
A patient is diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and has elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which complication would the health care professional assess the patient for?
Right heart failure
40
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
C-reactive protein
41
The release of __________________ is increased by nicotine.
Epinephrine
42
Respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn is caused by a deficiency of _______________ which eventually leads to _________________.
surfactant; respiratory acidosis
43
Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by which mechanism?
impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion
44
What are the defects that make up the congenital heart condition Tetrology of Fallot?
1. A large ventricular septal defect that is high in the septum 2. An overriding aorta that straddles the ventricular septal defect 3. Pulmonary stenosis 4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
45
Which of the following statements best describes cystic fibrosis?
Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas sweat ducts and vas deferens
46
The Frank-Starling law states that a direct relationship exists between the ________ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _________ of contraction during the next systole.
Volume; strength
47
Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means?
Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder
48
How are glucose and insulin used to treat hyperkalemia associated with acute renal failure?
When insulin transports glucose into the cell, it also carries potassium with it.
49
An 85-year-old person has a urinary tract infection. What clinical manifestation does the healthcare professional expect to see in this person?
Confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort
50
A patient’s urinalysis came back positive for glucose. What does the healthcare professional expect the patient’s blood glucose to be at a minimum?
180 mg/dL
51
Pyelonephritis is usually caused by which type of organism?
Bacteria
52
What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?
Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
53
What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?
Sodium excretion
54
A child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is voiding smoky, brown-colored urine and asks the healthcare professional to explain what causes it. What explanation by the professional is best?
Presence of red blood cells
55
A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who could have either pyelonephritis or cystitis. Which differentiating sign would assist the professional in making this diagnosis?
Urinalysis confirmation of white blood cell casts
56
What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the autoimmune disorder of hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?
Verotoxin from Escherichia coli is absorbed from the intestines and damages erythrocytes and endothelial cells.
57
What is the functional unit of the kidney called?
Nephron
58
When renin is released, it is capable of which action?
Formation of angiotensin I
59
Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?
Streptococcus
60
What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
Immune complexes
61
What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis?
Hypospadias
62
_____________ stimulates renal hydroxylation in the process of producing Vitamin D.
Parathyroid hormone
63
What is Immunoglobulin A nephropathy caused inflammation to glomerular blood vessels called?
Berger Disease
64
Usually affects kidneys bilaterally; rare; hours of flank pain and anuria followed by polyuria
Post-renal kidney injury
65
Syndrome of renal failure including increased blood urea and creatinine accompanied by fatigue, pruritis, nausea, neurologic changes
Uremia
66
Infection of one or both upper urinary tracts causing medullary infiltration of WBCs with renal inflammation, renal edema and purulent urine
Pyelonephritis
67
What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the autoimmune disorder of hemolytic-uremic syndrome?
Shiga toxin from E. coli is absorbed from the intestines and damages erythrocytes and endothelial cells
68
Urine formation and excretion begin by the ______ month of gestation.
third
69
Which of the following is associated with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor?
Aniridia
70
Which statement is false about the causes of enuresis?
Excessive nocturnal levels of vasopressin may cause enuresis.
71
What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates?
Inhibits renin and aldosterone
72
What is the mechanism for developing Wilms tumor?
It involves tumor-suppressor genes located on chromosome 11.
73
Hypothyroidism, edema, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria characterize which kidney disorder?
Nephrotic syndrome
74
How are glucose and insulin used to treat hyperkalemia associated with acute renal failure?
When insulin transports glucose into the cell, it also carries potassium with it.
75
Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct?
Antidiuretic hormone
76
What is the effect of Triamterene on potassium?
Hyperkalemia
77
What is the effect of Furosemide on potassium?
Hypokalemia
78
What is the effect of Mannitol on potassium?
Hypokalemia
79
What is the effect of Thiazides on potassium?
Hypokalemia
80
What is the effect of Spironolactone on potassium?
Hyperkalemia
81
Which antibiotics are considered “major culprits” in causing nephrotoxic acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
Gentamicin and tobramycin
82
What causes vesicoureteral reflux to occur in children?
The submucosal segment of a child’s ureter is short, making the antireflux mechanism inefficient.
83
In order to differentiate pyelonephritis from cystitis which of the following characteristics will confirm a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?
urinalysis showing white blood cell casts
84
Which symptoms would be seen in a child with nephrotic syndrome?
Hyperlipidemia, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, & edema

5002 Advanced Patho (3 decks)

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