Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

5002 Advanced Patho > NURS5002 - Exam 3 > Flashcards

NURS5002 - Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which condition involves an abnormally enlarged gas-exchange system and the destruction of the lung’s alveolar walls?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A patient has a lung problem caused by dysfunction in the pores of Kohn. What action by the healthcare professional is best?

A

Have the patient do breathing exercises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A patient reports needing to sit up at night in order to breathe. What term does the healthcare professional document about this condition?

A

Orthopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs?

A

Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What medical term is used for a condition that results from pulmonary hypertension, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle?

A

Cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air?

A

Obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?

A

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient does the professional assess for pulmonary emboli (PE) as the priority?

A

Deep venous thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

A

By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient comes to the Emergency Department with inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea. What treatment does the healthcare professional anticipate for this patient as the priority?

A

Inhaled bronchodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?

A

Infants are obligatory nose breathers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What electrocardiogram (ECG) change would the healthcare professional assess for when a patient’s myocardial infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?

A

ST elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A newborn has alveolar collapse, decreased lung expansion, increased work of breathing, and severe gas-exchange abnormalities and the student asks the healthcare professional for an explanation of what is happening. What response by the professional is best?

A

Lack of surfactant leading to increased alveolar surface tension and fluid collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Kussmaul respirations as a respiratory pattern may be associated with which characteristic(s)?

A

Slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A healthcare professional is educating a community parent group and informs them that which type of croup is most common?

A

Viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?

A

Injury to the endothelial cells that line the artery walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which condition is capable of producing alveolar dead space?

A

Pulmonary emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which immunoglobulin (Ig) may contribute to the pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?

A

Alveolocapillary membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Parents bring a 5-year-old to the Emergency Department and report sudden onset of high fever, drooling, and they describe a “hot potato voice.” What action by the healthcare professional takes priority?

A

Allow the child to remain in the parent’s lap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A baby has been born with Down syndrome. What congenital heart defect does the healthcare professional assess this baby for?

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What physical sign does the healthcare professional relate to the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel?

A

Murmur heard on auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A healthcare professional is educating a patient on asthma. The professional tells the patient that the most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action?

A

Avoidance of the causative agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The student asks a professor to explain how tuberculosis (TB) can remain dormant in some people. What explanation by the professor is best?

A

The bacilli can become isolated within tubercles in the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Deep breathing during atelectasis is important because it:

A

allows air to pass thru the pores of Kohn to the obstructed alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In Acute Respiratory Syndrome, inflammatory mediators such as oxygen free-radicals, prostaglandins, leukotrienes and platelet-activating factor are released by:

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A patient may demonstrate a respiratory pattern of alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing which is most likely caused by:

A

decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hypoventilation causes retention of carbon dioxide which stimulate _____________ in an attempt to maintain normal homeostasis.

A

central receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following prevents overstimulation of the heart?

A

β3 adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Congestive heart failure can lead to: (select all that apply)

A

increased preload
release of aldosterone
ventricular remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What alteration contributes to atherosclerosis when endothelial cells are injured?

A

The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize LDLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which condition is not a cause of chest wall restriction?

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

_________________ is a valvular disorder that is predominantly seen in females and is thought to be associated with connective tissue disease and have an autosomal dominant inheritance.

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse

35
Q

Which statement is true regarding ventilation?

A

Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.

36
Q

During aging, ______________ is an expected change of the cardiovascular system that occurs without the effect of high blood pressure but can contribute to systolic hypertension and dementia.

A

Arterial stiffening

37
Q

What abnormalities lead to the mucus plugging seen in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?

A

Defective chloride secretion and excess sodium absorption thicken the mucus.

38
Q

What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

A

Surfactant deficiency

39
Q

A patient is diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and has elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which complication would the health care professional assess the patient for?

A

Right heart failure

40
Q

Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?

A

C-reactive protein

41
Q

The release of __________________ is increased by nicotine.

A

Epinephrine

42
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn is caused by a deficiency of _______________ which eventually leads to _________________.

A

surfactant; respiratory acidosis

43
Q

Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by which mechanism?

A

impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion

44
Q

What are the defects that make up the congenital heart condition Tetrology of Fallot?

A
  1. A large ventricular septal defect that is high in the septum
  2. An overriding aorta that straddles the ventricular septal defect
  3. Pulmonary stenosis
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
45
Q

Which of the following statements best describes cystic fibrosis?

A

Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas sweat ducts and vas deferens

46
Q

The Frank-Starling law states that a direct relationship exists between the ________ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _________ of contraction during the next systole.

A

Volume; strength

47
Q

Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means?

A

Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder

48
Q

How are glucose and insulin used to treat hyperkalemia associated with acute renal failure?

A

When insulin transports glucose into the cell, it also carries potassium with it.

49
Q

An 85-year-old person has a urinary tract infection. What clinical manifestation does the healthcare professional expect to see in this person?

A

Confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort

50
Q

A patient’s urinalysis came back positive for glucose. What does the healthcare professional expect the patient’s blood glucose to be at a minimum?

A

180 mg/dL

51
Q

Pyelonephritis is usually caused by which type of organism?

A

Bacteria

52
Q

What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?

A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

53
Q

What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?

A

Sodium excretion

54
Q

A child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is voiding smoky, brown-colored urine and asks the healthcare professional to explain what causes it. What explanation by the professional is best?

A

Presence of red blood cells

55
Q

A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who could have either pyelonephritis or cystitis. Which differentiating sign would assist the professional in making this diagnosis?

A

Urinalysis confirmation of white blood cell casts

56
Q

What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the autoimmune disorder of hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?

A

Verotoxin from Escherichia coli is absorbed from the intestines and damages erythrocytes and endothelial cells.

57
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney called?

A

Nephron

58
Q

When renin is released, it is capable of which action?

A

Formation of angiotensin I

59
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?

A

Streptococcus

60
Q

What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Immune complexes

61
Q

What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis?

A

Hypospadias

62
Q

_____________ stimulates renal hydroxylation in the process of producing Vitamin D.

A

Parathyroid hormone

63
Q

What is Immunoglobulin A nephropathy caused inflammation to glomerular blood vessels called?

A

Berger Disease

64
Q

Usually affects kidneys bilaterally; rare; hours of flank pain and anuria followed by polyuria

A

Post-renal kidney injury

65
Q

Syndrome of renal failure including increased blood urea and creatinine accompanied by fatigue, pruritis, nausea, neurologic changes

A

Uremia

66
Q

Infection of one or both upper urinary tracts causing medullary infiltration of WBCs with renal inflammation, renal edema and purulent urine

A

Pyelonephritis

67
Q

What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the autoimmune disorder of hemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Shiga toxin from E. coli is absorbed from the intestines and damages erythrocytes and endothelial cells

68
Q

Urine formation and excretion begin by the ______ month of gestation.

A

third

69
Q

Which of the following is associated with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor?

A

Aniridia

70
Q

Which statement is false about the causes of enuresis?

A

Excessive nocturnal levels of vasopressin may cause enuresis.

71
Q

What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates?

A

Inhibits renin and aldosterone

72
Q

What is the mechanism for developing Wilms tumor?

A

It involves tumor-suppressor genes located on chromosome 11.

73
Q

Hypothyroidism, edema, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria characterize which kidney disorder?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

74
Q

How are glucose and insulin used to treat hyperkalemia associated with acute renal failure?

A

When insulin transports glucose into the cell, it also carries potassium with it.

75
Q

Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct?

A

Antidiuretic hormone

76
Q

What is the effect of Triamterene on potassium?

A

Hyperkalemia

77
Q

What is the effect of Furosemide on potassium?

A

Hypokalemia

78
Q

What is the effect of Mannitol on potassium?

A

Hypokalemia

79
Q

What is the effect of Thiazides on potassium?

A

Hypokalemia

80
Q

What is the effect of Spironolactone on potassium?

A

Hyperkalemia

81
Q

Which antibiotics are considered “major culprits” in causing nephrotoxic acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

A

Gentamicin and tobramycin

82
Q

What causes vesicoureteral reflux to occur in children?

A

The submucosal segment of a child’s ureter is short, making the antireflux mechanism inefficient.

83
Q

In order to differentiate pyelonephritis from cystitis which of the following characteristics will confirm a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?

A

urinalysis showing white blood cell casts

84
Q

Which symptoms would be seen in a child with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hyperlipidemia, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, & edema

5002 Advanced Patho (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions