NUR256 Weeks 8-14 Flashcards
A bacteriostatic substance is one that:
a) Directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact with
b) Directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
c) Prevents the growth of bacteria
d) Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
d) Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
The goal of antibiotic therapy is:
a) to eradicate all bacteria from the system
b) To suppress resistant strains of bacteria
c) To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection
d) To stop the drug as soon as the person feels better
c) To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection
The penicillins
a) Are bacteriostatic
b) Are bactericidal, interfering with bacteria cell walls
c) Are effective only if given intravenously
d) Do not produce cross-sensitivity within their class
b) Are bactericidal, interfering with bacteria cell walls
In general all people receiving antibiotics should receive teaching that includes which of the following points?
a) The need to complete the full course of drug therapy
b) The possibility of oral contraceptive failure
c) When to take the drug related to food and other drugs
d) The need for assessment of blood tests
e) Advisability of saving any leftover medication for future use
f) How to detect super infections and what to do if they occur
a) The need to complete the full course of drug therapy
b) The possibility of oral contraceptive failure
c) When to take the drug related to food and other drugs
While teaching the client about taking oral tetracycline, which of the following does the nurse advise the client to do?
a) Consume calcium rich products to decrease the duration of the antibacterial effect
b) Use a soft toothbrush and floss teeth gently to remove staining on teeth
c) Report any ringing in the ears or dizziness
d) Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sun block when outdoors.
d) Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sun block when outdoors.
The client is prescribed ciprofloxacin and is instructed to take each dose of medication as evenly spaced apart during the day as possible. The nurse recognizes that this instruction is essential because:
a) The medication can cause sleep pattern disturbances
b) Pathogenic bacteria have extremely rapid growth and reproduction rates
c) Super infections may develop if a dose of the medication is missed
d) Allergic reactions are more likely to occur if a dose is missed
b) Pathogenic bacteria have extremely rapid growth and reproduction rates
Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:
a) Can lead to addiction
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
c) Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
d) Should rely on the person’s request for medication
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
The nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving opioids for pain relief. Which client is at the highest risk of developing hypotension, respiratory depression, and mental confusion?
a) A 23 year old female, postoperative ruptured appendix
b) A 16 year old male, post-motorcycle injury with lacerations
c) A 54 year old female, post-myocardial infarction
d) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture
d) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture
The client asks you if paracetamol will help his arthritis like ‘ my aspirin does’. You base your response on the knowledge that the pharmacotherapeutic actions of paracetamol are:
a) Analgesic and antipyretic
b) Analgesic and anti-inflammatory
c) Anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet
d) Antipyretic and anti-inflammatory
a) Analgesic and antipyretic
Naloxone hydrochloride is classified as an:
a) Opioid analgesic
b) Opioid agonist
c) Opioid partial agonist
d) Opioid antagonist
d) Opioid antagonist
The parenteral opioid analgesic that carries the greatest risk for respiratory depression with its use is:
a) Fentanyl citrate
b) Morphine sulfate
c) Hydromorphone
d) pethidine
c) Hydromorphone
While a person is receiving a general anaesthetic, he or she must be continually monitored because:
a) The person has no pain sensation
b) Generalised CNS depression affects all body function
c) The person cannot move
d) The person cannot communicate
b) Generalised CNS depression affects all body function
Local anaesthetics are used to block feeling in specific body areas. If given in increasing concentrations, local anaesthetics can cause loss, in order, of the following:
a) Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone
b) Touch sensation, skeletal muscle tone, temperature sensation and proprioception
c) Proprioception, skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation and temperature sensation
d) Skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation, temperature sensation and proprioception
a) Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone
Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:
a) Can lead to addiction
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
c) Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
d) Should rely on the person’s request for medication
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because:
a) They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis
b) They can be stimulating
c) They are more likely to cause physical dependence than older anxiolytic drugs
d) They do not affect the neurotransmitters
a) They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis
The nurse or midwife would expect administration of a NMJ blocker as the drug of choice to accomplish which of the following
a) Facilitate endotracheal intubation
b) Facilitate mechanical ventilation
c) Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy
d) Relieve pain during labour and birth
e) Treat myasthenia gravis
f) Treat a person with a history of malignant hyperthermia
a) Facilitate endotracheal intubation
b) Facilitate mechanical ventilation
c) Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy
Suxamethonium has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity than the non-depolarising NMJ blockers because it:
a) Does not bind well to receptor sites
b) Rapidly crosses the blood-brain barrier and is lost
c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma
d) Is very unstable
c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma
Warfarin an oral anticoagulant, acts:
a) To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver
c) As a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
d) Immediately, so it is the drug of choice in emergency situations
b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver
The low-molecular-weight heparin of choice for preventing deep venous thrombosis after hip replacement therapy is:
a) tinzaparin
b) dalteparin
c) heparin
d) enoxaparin
d) enoxaparin
A thrombolytic agent could be safely used in:
a) CVA within the last 2 months
b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours
c) Recent, serious GI bleeding
d) Caesarian birth.
b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours
Evaluating a person who is taking an anticoagulant for blood loss would usually include assessing for which of the following?
a) The presence of petechiae
b) Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth
c) Dark-coloured urine
d) Yellow colour sclera or skin
e) The presence of ecchymotic areas
f) Loss of hair
a) The presence of petechiae
b) Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth
c) Dark-coloured urine
e) The presence of ecchymotic areas
The client with deep vein thrombosis is being treated with a heparin infusion. The nurse would monitor for therapeutic effectiveness by noting which of the following?
a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
b) Prothrombin time (PT)
c) Platelet counts
d) International normalised ratio (INR)
a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• A patient who is taking clopidogrel to prevent another stroke asks the nurse how the medication works. The nurse’s response should be based on an understanding that clopidogrel:
a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation
b) Activates antithrombin III and subsequently inhibits thrombin
c) Inhibits enzymes involved in the formation of vitamin K
d) Converts plasminogen to plasmin to dissolve fibrin clots
a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation
A nurse or midwife is about to administer digoxin to a person whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. She should
a) Give the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is low
b) Retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give the drug if the pulse has not changed
c) Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug is the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min.
d) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is below 60 beats/min
c) Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug is the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min.
