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IFR > Numbers > Flashcards

Numbers Flashcards

1
Q

Filing flight for IFR

A

I

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2
Q

Filing flight for IFR to VFR

A

Y

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3
Q

Filing flight VFR to IFR

A

Z

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4
Q

Filing flight VFR

A

V

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5
Q

VFR met minima

Within a control zone day and night

A

Ceiling 1500ft, 5km vis

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6
Q

VFR met minima

SVFR

A

Controlled airspace/ day only/ clear of clouds

600ft ceiling, 1500m vis

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7
Q

VFR met minima

Uncontrolled day

A

600 ft ceiling, 1500m vis

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8
Q

VFR met minima

Uncontrolled night

A

1500ft ceiling, 8km vis

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9
Q

Where are IFR take off minimas published

A

In the Operational data pages in the Vol 2 and 3

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10
Q

IFR take off minima heights

A

Ceiling is in feet AGL and vis in meters

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11
Q

If there is no take off minima published, what do you use

A

The ceiling must be at least 300ft (AGL) and vis at least 1500m

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12
Q

To nominate an IFR alternate

A

At the time if lodging the flight plan:

  • the AD of intended landing has a standard instrument approach
  • for at least 1 hour either side of ETA a combination of wax reports and forecasts indicate that:
  • the ceiling will be at least 1000ft above the minima prescribed
  • the vis will be greater than 5km or 2km more than prescribed, whichever is greater
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13
Q

Where can you find the alternate met conditions for nomination

A

ENR 1.5-45

Heights are in feet AGL and RNAV approaches are not included

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14
Q

What are the met conditions required to nominate an alternate

A

The forecast for the aerodrome at the time of lodging the flight plan must indicate that at ETA (at the alternate) the ceiling and vis are at or above the prescribed minima. Since it is in feet AGL it can be read straight off the TAF

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15
Q

No prescribed alternate minima for precision approach

A

Ceiling not lower than 600ft AGL or 200ft above DA/DH, whichever is higher
Vis not less than 3000m or 1000m more than prescribed, whichever is higher

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16
Q

No alternate minima prescribed: non-precision approach

A

Ceiling not lower than 800ft AGL or 200ft above MDA/MDH, whichever is higher
Vis not less than 4000m or 1500m more than prescribed, whichever is higher

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17
Q

Alternate without an instrument approach met minima

A

Equal to or better than VFR minima

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18
Q

Is a standard hold left or right hand

A

Right hand

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19
Q

What is the limiting factor in a hold

A

1 min legs or a distance

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20
Q

Terrain buffer in a hold

A

5nm

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21
Q

Maximum holding IAS, at 14,000ft and below

A

170kts (Cat A and B) for both normal and turbulent conditions

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22
Q

Max AOB in the holding pattern

A

No more than 25° AOB or a rate of 3°/second (rate 1) or less, so as not to exceed 25 degrees AOB

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23
Q

What holding entry procedures can an aircraft do on a DME arc

A

Sector 1 (parallel) or sector 3 (direct)

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24
Q

What are the holding times

A

One minute when at or below 14,000ft

1.5 minutes when above 14,000ft

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25
Q

When do you need to make a position report when holding in controlled airspace?

A
  • first crossing the aid/fix to carry out a sector 1 or 2 entry
  • established in the holding pattern after carrying out a sector 1 or 2 entry
  • first crossing the aid/fix and carrying out a sector 3 entry
  • crossing the aid/fix when vacating the holding pattern
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26
Q

When must you get an ATC clearance

A
  • for all operations on the manoeuvring area of a controlled AD
  • prior to entering class C and d airspace
  • for VFR flights in class C and D airspace
  • prior to an instrument approach in controlled airspace
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27
Q

What are the SID requirements

A
  • the minimum climb gradient is 3.3% or 200ft/nm
  • maintain runway heading until 400ft AGL (unless instructed) before starting a turn
  • max speed (these speeds are required to ensure planned obstacle clearance during the SID) during turns (average 15° AOB)

Cat A: 120kts
Cat B: 165kts

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28
Q

Max speed for a SID cat A

A

120kts

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29
Q

Max speed on a SID Cat B

A

165kts

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30
Q

When does the SID terminate

A

Once the aircraft is on the cleared route

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31
Q

Where do IFR departure procedures originate from

A

Originate from a point 16ft above the departure end of the runway

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32
Q

If a departure crosses through 2 or more sectors, which climb gradient do you use

A

The higher climb gradient applies from take off

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33
Q

Who is responsible for terrain clearance when departing via DME steps

A

Before you reach the first, lowest, DME step altitude by day VMC, you are responsible for your own terrain clearance

In IMC or at night, you must follow a published IFR departure procedure until you reach the DME step altitude

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34
Q

How do you fly the DME steps on departure

A

You must ensure that as you reach each successive DME step, you are at or higher than the MSA published against the subsequent step

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35
Q

Can you do a visual departure at night?

A

Since terrain clearance may be difficult or impossible to judge during the night, visual departures are restricted to day only

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36
Q

Will an aircraft departing on a radar SID be contained in controlled airspace

A

Aircraft departing on a radar SID will be contained within controlled airspace governed by heading within an evaluated climb sector

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37
Q

When does radar vectoring of a departing aircraft terminate

A

Radar vectoring of a departing aircraft will not be terminated until the aircraft is at or above the MSA for the route

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38
Q

Where would you find the IFR take off minima

A

In the Operational data for aerodromes published in Vol 2 and 3 of the AIPNZ

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39
Q

What is the ceiling expressed in for IFR take off minimas

A

Feet AGL and can be obtained straight from the local METAR, SPECI or ATIS

40
Q

An IFR aircraft must not take off from an aerodrome unless the weather conditions are either:

A
  • at or above the IFR take off minima published in the AIP

- at least 300ft ceiling and 1500m vis for aerodromes where no other take off minima is specified

41
Q

When being radar vectored, what is ensured

A

Both terrain clearance and containment in controlled airspace will be ensured by the controller

42
Q

What Nav aid is associated with MEA (minimum enroute altitude)

A

NDB tracks. It is the minimum altitude above which adequate and reliable signals from the applicable NDB can be received. If an MEA is higher than the route MSA, it will be published along the track

43
Q

What Nav aid is associated with MRA (minimum reception altitude)

A

VOR track. It is the minimum altitude above which adequate and reliable VOR signals can be received. If an MRA is higher than the route MSA, it will be published along the track, or section of the track

44
Q

What is MFA (minimum flight altitude)

A
  • The lowest altitude taking into account any DME, VORSEC or VORTAC steps or levels indicated in approach or departure procedures including DME arcs
  • MSA/MEA/MRA, whichever is applicable
  • upper limit of a volcanic, restricted, danger or special use area or danger/restricted area upper limits as appropriate
45
Q

What is an H route

A

Conventional 2 way

46
Q

What is a Q route

A

RNAV 2 way

47
Q

What is a V route

A

Conventional 1 way

48
Q

What is a Y route

A

RNAV 1 way

49
Q

What does conventional mean when using the route letter designators

A

Normal published tracks between NDBs and VORs

50
Q

When must you notify ATC of a change in your ETA

A

A revised ETA to the next significant point must be transmitted to ATC if the previously advised ETA is in error in excess of 2 minutes

51
Q

When must you notify ATC of a change in TAS

A

Any variation in TAS of +/- 5% (between reporting points) must be notified to ATC as soon as practicable

52
Q

When can an aircraft get radar vectored for a visual approach

A

By day only when the reported ceiling is at least 1,000ft above the applicable radar vectoring altitude and the vis is at least 16km

By night only at CH for runways 11 and 29 provided the vis is at least 16km and there is no cloud below 5,000ft

53
Q

Radar vectoring for an instrument approach requirements

A

During the night, or during daylight if met conditions are less than those required for a radar vectored visual approach an aircraft will be toured for an instrument approach

54
Q

What is the purpose of a VORSEC chart

A

To provide adequate terrain clearance and reliable signal reception within the area covered by the chart

55
Q

What is the purpose of a 25nm minimum sector altitude diagram

A

The 25nm MSA diagrams depicted on instrument approaches, SIDS and STAR charts show a generalised MSA within a 25nm radius from the VOR or NDB

56
Q

When can a visual approach be reported on the ATIS during the day

A

When the ceiling is at at least 1,000ft above the minimum instrument approach procedure commencement altitude or above the minimum radar vectoring altitude and the vis is at least 16km

57
Q

When can a visual approach be reported on the ATIS during the night

A

At CH only for runway 11 and 29 when there is no cloud below 5,000ft and the vis is at least 16 km

58
Q

Can a pilot request a visual approach at night

A

An approach may be requested by the pilot and is remitted at night provided the pilot has the runway lights in sight. Approach lights, aerodrome beacon or runway end identifier lights alone are not sufficient

59
Q

Is there a descent restriction when cleared for a visual approach?

A

When cleared for a visual approach there is no descent restriction unless specifically stated in the ATC clearance

60
Q

What is the difference between a visual arrival and a visual approach

A

The main difference is that a visual arrival must be flown along promulgated tracks and not below specified altitudes whereas a visual approach does not normally have direction and altitude restrictions

61
Q

What is the minimum initial approach altitude

A

The higher of:

  • the MPCA published on the instrument approach chart; or
  • the MSA for the route sector, which is determined by the lower of the minimum route DME step/VORSEC altitude or altitude quoted on the 25nm minimum sector altitude chart. Or for GNSS aircraft, the altitude quoted on the Terminal arrival altitude diagram
62
Q

What is the MPCA

A

The lowest altitude at which the approach procedure can be commenced; a higher altitude is permitted

63
Q

What is the limit to the instrument approach

A

If the visibility at an aerodrome is less than the prescribed vis for the particular instrument procedure, the PIC must not continue an instrument approach for the aerodrome beyond:

  • the final approach fix/point;or
  • the start of the final approach segment (if a final approach fix/point is not used in the approach procedure)
64
Q

Instrument approach Nav aid failure

A

If the Nav aid being used fails during the instrument approach prior to the missed approach point and before visual reference has been established, the approach may be continued using an alternate aid provided the met conditions are satisfactory for that aid

65
Q

Final approach point is associated with what

A

Precision approach

66
Q

Final approach fix is associated with what

A

Non-precision approach

67
Q

What is usually the advisory altitudes descent gradient

A

5% (equal to a 3 degree slope)

68
Q

AOB on a missed approach

A

The missed approach procedure is based on the assumption that Turns are made at an AOB of at least 15°

69
Q

Missed approach initiated prior to the MAP point

A

If the missed approach procedure has been initiated prior to the MAPt, the aircraft must track to the MAPt and then follow the missed approach procedure. The MAPt may be overflown above MDA

70
Q

MAP climb gradient

A

The minimum obstacle clearance when climbing at the specified missed approach climb gradient of 2.5% (150ft/nm) is 98ft

71
Q

What is segment OCA (obstacle clearance altitude)

A

This means an altitude that provides the required obstacle clearance during a given segment of an approach. Pilots should treat this as a ‘don’t go below’ altitude

72
Q

Cat A Vat

A

Less than 91kts

Vat is the indicated airspeed at the threshold
Vat = 1.3 x Vs0
Vs0 is the stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum certificated landing weight

73
Q

Cat B Vat

A

91 - 120kts

74
Q

Speeds for initial approach: Cat A

A

90-150kts (110kts max speed for reversal procedures)

75
Q

Speeds for initial approach: Cat B

A

120-180kts (140kts max for reversal procedure)

76
Q

Speeds for final approach: Cat A

A

70-100kts

77
Q

Speeds for final approach: Cat B

A

85-130kts

78
Q

Max speed for visual manoeuvring (circling): Cat A

A

100kts

79
Q

Max speed for visual manoeuvring (circling): Cat B

A

135kts

80
Q

Max speed for MAP: Cat A

A

110kts

81
Q

Max speed for MAP: Cat B

A

150kts

82
Q

MDA vs DA

A

MDA: non-precision
DA: precision

You may maintain MDA until the MAPt and then carry out the missed approach procedure if not visual, but on reaching DA (precision approach) you must commence the missed approach procedure immediately

83
Q

Cat I ILS

A

DA/DH 200ft

Remarks: RVR 550 meters but may be higher when runway/approach lighting is not fully operational

84
Q

What lights must you sight before descending below MDA/DA

A
  • the approach lighting system
  • the threshold markings
  • the threshold lights
  • the runway end identification lights
  • the visual approach slope indicator
  • the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
  • the touchdown zone lights
  • the runway or runway markings
  • the runway lights
85
Q

If visual reference has been established at MDA the descent may be continued at the pilots discretion if:

A
  • visual reference can be maintained throughout the circling approach
  • the pilot can see the runway threshold lights, approach lights or any other markings which identify the approach end of the runway; and
  • the required obstacle clearance can be maintained to a point from where a constant rate of descent can be held to the intended touchdown point
86
Q

Obstacle clearance on the arc

A

2.5nm either side

87
Q

Lead radial on the arc

A

2nm before the point where the turn onto final approach should be completed

88
Q

ILS course distortion

A

ATC will prevent the critical site areas by controlling airport surface traffic when the reported weather is:
Ceiling less than 1000ft and/or visibility less than 5km

89
Q

Special airspace which needs prior approval from the administering authority

A

Restricted and military

90
Q

Special use airspace that can only be entered after you have obtained all relevant information regarding its use by the using agency and when you have established that the safety of your aircraft will not b affected

A

Danger and parachute area

91
Q

AOB when being radar vectored

A

Use an AOB of 25° or rate 1 turn (whichever requires the smaller AOB)

92
Q

What is considered a conflicting path

A

One where the aircrafts tracks would reduce separation to less than 3nm

93
Q

Compliance with speed restrictions for arriving aircraft

A

Must be within 10kts

94
Q

When will a speed restriction not be applied to an aircraft on an instrument approach

A

After the aircraft has passed a point 5nm from the touchdown

95
Q

When will a speed restriction not be applied to an aircraft on a visual approach

A

After an aircraft has passed a point 4nm from touchdown

96
Q

Contents of a departure report at an uncontrolled AD

A

Callsign
Estimated set heading time in mins past the hour
Altitude to the nearest 100ft ‘climbing to’ followed by the cleared altitude
Position of the next reporting point and ETA at that position

97
Q

Where do all instrument departure procedures originate from

A

All instrument departure procedures, designed to PANS OPS II criteria, portray the minimum net climb gradient required to achieve the designed obstacle clearance margins for the tracks shown, originating from a point 16ft above the departure end of the runway

IFR (1 decks)

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