Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ADI numbers (possible questions for Written Assesment) > Numbers > Flashcards

Numbers Flashcards

1
Q

How big an area does the Minimum Sector Altitude cover ?

A

25 miles radius *plus a buffer of 5 miles).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which area is Terrain Clearance to be provided withing 30 nm from the radar - and what is the height clearance ?

A

“The big keyhole”.
1000 feet over any fixed object within:
5 nm in any direction and
15 nm ahead of the aircraft (20 degrees to each side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which area is Terrain Clearance to be provided withing 15 nm from the radar - and what is the height clearance ?

A

“The small keyhole”.
1000 feet over any fixed object within:
3 nm in any direction and
10 nm ahead of the aircraft (20 degrees to each side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the vertical terrain clearance within the Surveillance Minimum Altitude Area (SMAA) ?

A

300m (984ft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the terrain clearance associated with approach segments ?

A

3-6nm : 250 ft “Final”
6-15nm : 500 ft “Intermediate”
15+ : 984 ft “Initial”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many AFTN categories are there ?

A 
8:
DISTRESS
UGERGENCY
Flight Safety
Meteorological
Flight Regularity
Aeronautical Information
Aeronautical Administration
Service
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many AFTN priority indicators are there ?

A

5:

SS,DD,FF,GG,KK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the maximum validity for an ASHTAM (time)

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the size of an ATZ ?

A

2000ft aal and radius of 2 or 2½ nm centered on the notified midpoint of the longest runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the size of a CTR ?

A

As specified (touches ground)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the size of a CTA ?

A

As specified (does not touch the ground)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long is a unit endorsement valid for, and when can it be renewed ?

A

12 months, renewed up to 45 days in advance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the maximum period of duty (SRATCOH)

A

10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long can you be on-call / on duty during a 30 day period ? (SRATCOH)

A

Withing 720 consecutive hours (30 days) periods of duty & on call shall < 300 hours and on duty < 200 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long was the intervals between periods of duty be ? (SRATCOH)

A

12 hours - may be reduced to 11 hours once every 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long must breaks be ? (SRATCOH)

A

No operational duty > 2 hours without a break or breaks totalling not less than 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the alcohol limits measured by breath ?

A

9 MICROgrams of alcohol in 100 mililitres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the alcohol limits measured by blood ?

A

20 MILIgrams of alcohol in 100 mililitres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the alcohol limits measured by urine ?

A

27 MILIgrams of alcohol in 100 mililitres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the TODA / SODA of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code 1 ?

A

The greater of TODA/SODA is less than 800 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the TODA / SODA of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code 2 ?

A

The greater of TODA/SODA is 800-1199 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the TODA / SODA of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code 3 ?

A

The greater of TODA/SODA is 1200-1799 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the TODA / SODA of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code 4 ?

A

The greater of TODA/SODA is 1800 meters or over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter A ?

A

Wing Span up to but not including 15m

Outer Main Gear Wheel Span up to but not including 4.5m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter B ?

A

Wing Span 15 m up to but not including 24m

Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 4.5m up to but not including 6m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter C ?

A

Wing Span 24 m up to but not including 36m

Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 6m up to but not including 9m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter D ?

A

Wing Span 36 m up to but not including 52m

Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 9m up to but not including 14m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter E ?

A

Wing Span 52 m up to but not including 65m

Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 9m up to but not including 14m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter F ?

A

Wing Span 65 m up to but not including 80m

Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 14m up to but not including 16m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the required runway width for an 4E aerodrome ?

A

45 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the minimum required runway width including shoulders, for a category D or E airport ?

A

60 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the minimum length of the Runway Strip for a category 2,3 or 4 airport ?

A

60 meters is each end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the minimum Runway Strip width for a non-instrument runway on a category 3 or 4 airport ?

A

75 meters from the centerline of the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the minimum Runway Strip width for an instrument runway on a category 3 or 4 airport ?

A

150 meters from the centerline of the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the width of the cleared and graded area of a non-instrument or a non-precision approach runway, or a category 3 or 4 airport ?

A

75 meters from the centerline of the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the minimum size of the cleared and graded area of a precision instrument runway for a category 3 or 4 airport ?

A

105 meters from each side of the centerline. This distance may be reduced to not less than 75m each side of the centerline and extended centerline at each strip end, continuing at this width for the first 150 meters of the runway available for landing in each direction, then increasing uniformly to 105 meter from the cetreline by 300 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the minimum length of the Runway End Safety Area for a code 3 or 4 airport ?

A

90 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the recommended length of the Runway End Safety Area for a code 3 or 4 airport ?

A

240 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the minimum width of a taxiway of a code E or D airport ?

A

23 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the minimum distance from the runway centerline to a holding bay or taxi holding position for a Code 4 Airport Non-Instrument Runway ?

A

75 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the minimum distance from the runway centerline to a holding bay or taxi holding position for a Code 4 Airport Instrument and Take-Off Runway ?

A

75 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the minimum distance from the runway centerline to a holding bay or taxi holding position for a Code 4 Airport Precision Approach Runway ?

A

Cat I: 90 meters
Cat II: 107.5 meters
Cat III : 137 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the maximum tyre pressure authorised for the pavement, according to the part 5 of the PCN ?

A 
W = High, No limit
X = Medium, limitied to 1.50 MPa
Y = Low, limited to 1.00 MPa
Z = Very Low, limitied to 0.50 MPa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the departure AOM for a Public Transportation Single Engine Flight ?

A

1000ft ceiling and 1800m RVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the departure AOM for a Public Transportaion Perf A aircraft ?

A

HIEL & HICLL & multi-RVR : 150m (200m Cat D) at all RVRs
HIEL & HICLL : RVR & VIS 200m (250m CatD)
HIEL or HICLL : RVR & Vis 250m (300m Cat D)
No Lights : RVR & Vis 500m

46
Q

What is the decision height for a Cat I approach ?

A

200 ft

47
Q

What is the decision height of a Cat II approach

A

100 ft

48
Q

What is the IRVR requirement for a Cat I approach ?

A

Not less than IRVR 550m

49
Q

What is the IRVR requirement for a Cat II appraoch ?

A

Not less than IRVR 300m

50
Q

What is the decision height for a Cat III approach ?

A

IIIA: 100 ft
IIIB: 50 ft
IIIC: none

51
Q

What is the IRVR requirement for a Cat III appraoch ?

A

IIIA: Not less than IRVR 200m
IIIB: Not less than IRVR 75m
IIIC: None

52
Q

What is the width of the ILS Sensitive Area ?

A

137 meters either side of the centerline

53
Q

What is the Specified Time Limit when it comes to Mandatory Reporting ?

A

96 hours (Europe requires 72 hours)

54
Q

What is the TORA for runway 26 from S1 ?

A

2800m

55
Q

What is the TORA for runway 26 from SL1 ?

A

2642m

56
Q

What is the TORA for runway 26 from N1 ?

A

2279m

57
Q

What is the TORA for runway 26 from A1/E1 ?

A

1854m

58
Q

What is the TORA for runway 08 from W1/V1 ?

A

2800m

59
Q

What is the TORA for runway 08 from L1/R1 ?

A

2128m

60
Q

What is the TORA for runway 35/17 from the threshold ?

A

1800m

61
Q

At what height are the following clouds ? Cirrus, Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus ?

A

20,000-45,000 ft

62
Q

At what height are the following clouds ? Altocumulus, Altostratus, Nimbostratus

A

6,500-20,000 ft

63
Q

At what height are the following clouds ? Cumulus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus, Stratocumulus

A

Surface - 6,500 ft

64
Q

What clouds are found at the following height ? 20,000-45,000 ft

A

Cirrus, Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus

65
Q

What clouds are found at the following height ? 6,500-20,000 ft

A

Altocumulus, Altostratus, Nimbostratus

66
Q

What clouds are found at the following height ? Below 6,500 ft

A

Cumulus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus, Stratocumulus

67
Q

If the visibility is 1000m, is if fog or mist ?

A

Mist. Fog is BELOW 1000m

68
Q

What are the emergency frequencies ?

A

121.5 MHz and 243 MHz

69
Q

When using the turn method to identify an aircraft, how many degrees must the turn be ?

A

At least 30 degrees

70
Q

When using 1 minute time departure separation, how many degrees must the two departing tracks diverge ?

A

45 degrees

71
Q

When using 2 minute departure separation, how much slower must the following aircraft be.

A

40kts or more

72
Q

When using 5 minute departure separation, how much slower must the following aircraft be.

A

20kts or more

73
Q

What is the MTOM for UK “Heavy” aircraft ?

A

162,000 kg or more (560,000+ is “Super”)

74
Q

What is the MTOM for UK “Upper Medium” aircraft ?

A

104,000 - 162,000 kg (neither included)

75
Q

What is the MTOM for UK “Lower Medium” aircraft ?

A

40,000 - 104,000 kg (40 not included)

76
Q

What is the MTOM for UK “Small” aircraft ?

A

17,000 - 40,000 kg (17 not included)

77
Q

What is the MTOM for UK “Light” aircraft ?

A

17,000 kg or less

78
Q

What is the MTOM for ICAO “Heavy” aircraft ?

A

136,000 kg or greater

79
Q

What is the MTOM for ICAO “Medium” aircraft ?

A

7,000 kg - 136,000 kg (neither included)

80
Q

What is the MTOM for ICAO “Light” aircraft ?

A

7,000 kg or less

81
Q

What is the minimum length for a simple approach lighting system ?

A

420m

82
Q

At what distance from the threshold is the wide bar of white lights, on a simple approach lighting system

A

300m

83
Q

What is the distance between the lights on a simple approach lighting system ?

A

60m

84
Q

What is the length of a High Intensity Approach Lighting System ?

A

900m

85
Q

How far a distance does the supplementary approach lighting cover ?

A

300m

86
Q

How far a distance does the yellow runway edge lights cover, when there is no centerline ?

A

600m (or 1/3 of the total runway length, whichever is less)

87
Q

How long is the touchdown zone lighting ?

A

900m

88
Q

How long is the red centerline lighting at the end of the runway ?

A

300m

89
Q

How long is the alternating red/white centerline runway lighting ?

A

600m

90
Q

What is the periods of display for hazard beacons ?

A

By Day: Vis < 3500m

By Night: During published hours of watch

91
Q

What is the normal final approach speed for Group A aircraft ?

A

Vref 90 kts or less

92
Q

What is the normal final approach speed for Group B aircraft ?

A

Vref 91-120 kts

93
Q

What is the normal final approach speed for Group C aircraft ?

A

Vref 121-140 kts

94
Q

What is the normal final approach speed for Group D aircraft ?

A

Vref 141-165 kts

95
Q

What is the normal final approach speed for Group E aircraft ?

A

Vref 166-210 kts

96
Q

What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category A aircraft ?

A

100 kts & 1.68 NM

97
Q

What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category B aircraft ?

A

135 kts & 2.66 NM

98
Q

What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category C aircraft ?

A

180 kts & 4.20 NM

99
Q

What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category D aircraft ?

A

205 kts & 5.28 NM

100
Q

What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category E aircraft ?

A

240 kts & 6.94 NM

101
Q

What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category A aircraft ?

A

MIN OC: 300 ft

Lowest OCH aal: 400 ft

102
Q

What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category B aircraft ?

A

MIN OC: 300 ft

Lowest OCH aal: 500 ft

103
Q

What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category C aircraft ?

A

MIN OC: 400 ft

Lowest OCH aal: 600 ft

104
Q

What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category D aircraft ?

A

MIN OC: 400 ft

Lowest OCH aal: 700 ft

105
Q

What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category E aircraft ?

A

MIN OC: 500 ft

Lowest OCH aal: 800 ft

106
Q

What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is “Good” ?

A

0.40 or above (95)

107
Q

What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is “MEDIUM/GOOD” ?

A

0.36-0.39 (94)

108
Q

What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is “MEDIUM” ?

A

0.30-0.35 (93)

109
Q

What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is “MEDIUM/POOR” ?

A

0.26-0.29 (92)

110
Q

What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is “POOR” ?

A

0.25 or below (91)

ADI numbers (possible questions for Written Assesment) (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions