NU 305 Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are normal abdominal inspection findings?

A

Abdomen flat and symmetric.
- No scars, striae, or varicosity.
- Skin even toned.
- Umbilicus midline and inverted.
- No hernias noted.

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2
Q

What are normal abdominal auscultation findings?

A

Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants.
- No bruits on vascular auscultation.
- No venous hums
- No friction rubs

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3
Q

What are normal abdominal palpation finding?

A

No tenderness
- Abdomen without masses.
- Tenderness near the xiphoid process, over the cecum, or over the sigmoid colon may be normal.
- Palpable liver edge against your right hand during inspiration
- A normal spleen is not palpable
- It is common to be unable to palpate the kidneys except in slender patients
- Pulsations of the aorta are palpable; the aorta should measure about 3/4 in.
- Empty bladder is neither tender nor palpable
- Inguinal lymph nodes nontender and may be slightly palpable

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4
Q

What organs are in the LUQ

A

Body of pancreas
- Part of transverse and descending colon
- Stomach
- Left lobe of liver
- Splenic fixture of colon
- Spleen
- Left adrenal and kidney

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5
Q

What organs are in the RUQ?

A

Part of ascending and transverse colon
- Right kidney and adrenal
- Head of pancreas
- Duodenum
- Liver
- Hepatic fixture of colon
- Gallbladder

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6
Q

What organs are in the LLQ?

A

Left ovary and tube
- Sigmoid colon
- Left spermatic cord
- Part of descending colon
- Left ureter

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7
Q

What organs are in the RLQ?

A

Right spermatic cord
- Right ovary and tube
- Cecum
- Right ureter
- Appendix

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8
Q

What organs are in the midline?

A

Uterus (if enlarged)
- Aorta
- Bladder (if distended)

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9
Q

Describe normal liver palpation

A

Palpable liver edge against your right hand during inspiration.
- An enlarged liver would be palpable below the costal margin which is abnormal

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10
Q

Describe normal emesis findings

A

There is no emesis

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11
Q

What are abnormal emesis findings

A

Green usually indicates reduced peristalsis with irritation.
Coffee-ground is digested blood
Bloody emesis is an active bleed with undigested blood.

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12
Q

S/S of dehydration

A

hyperthermia
- tachycardia
- thready pulse
- hypotension
- orthostatic hypotension
- decreased CVP
- tachypnea
- dizziness
- cool clammy skin
- diaphoresis
- sunken eyeballs

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13
Q

How do you perform an iliopsoas muscle test?

A

The iliopsoas muscle test is performed when appendicitis is suspected. With he patient lying supine, lift the right leg straight up, keeping the knee straight. Push down over the lower part of the right thigh while the patient pushes up.

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14
Q

How do you perform a rebound tenderness test?

A

Blumberg sign or rebound tenderness is used to assess for peritonitis. In a site away from the painful area, push down your hand at a 90 degree angle slowly and deeply, then lift up quickly.
- Pain when pressure removed = (+) sign= peritonitides

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15
Q

What is McBurney’s point?

A

The name given to the point over the right side of the abdomen that is one third of the distance front he anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. This point roughly corresponds to the most common location of the base of the appendix where it is attached to the cecum. Deep tenderness at McBurney point, know as McBurney sign, is a sign of acute appendicitis.

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16
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

A clinical test used to assess for cholecystitis; performed by palpating near the client’s gallbladder during inhalation.

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17
Q

What is Atony?

A

Lack of normal muscle tone or strength

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18
Q

What is hypotonicity?

A

diminished tone of the skeletal muscles

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19
Q

What is spasticity?

A

Hypertonic, so the muscles are stiff and movements awkward

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20
Q

What is a spasm?

A

sudden, violent involuntary muscle contraction

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21
Q

What is fasciculation?

A

involuntary twitch of muscle fibers

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22
Q

What are tremors?

A

involuntary contraction of muscles

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23
Q

How is muscle strength graded?

A

scale 0-5 (ex. 1/5 or 5/5)

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24
Q

Describe rheumatoid arthritis

A

Usually due to physical and emotional stress
Upper extremities
Onset in young adulthood
Stiffness is worse in mornings and after inactivity
Typically complains of weakness, fatigue, low fever
Joints may be tender, swollen, or warm
Will check for this through elevated serum proteins in blood and synovial fluid
Ulnar deviation neck and boutonnière/Swan

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25
Q

Describe osteoarthritis

What it is, who it occurs to, what causes it, tests, and symptoms

A

The wearing down of the protective tissue at the ends of bones
Occurs mostly due to obesity and aging
Occurs in lower extremities
Onset around 50s and 60s
Worse later in day and after activity
No generalized complaints
Joints may be tender
Test for this by X-ray, CT, or MRI
Herberden and Bouchard Nodes

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26
Q

Describe s/s for urgent assessment of the breast

A

A here breast lump or mass
- Swelling of all or part of a breast
- Skin irritation or dimpling
- Breast or nipple pain
- Nipple retraction (turning inward)
- Redness, scaliness,or thickening or nipple or breast skin
- Nipple discharge other than breast milk

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27
Q

Describe s/s for an urgent assessment of the abdomen

A
  • Acute abdominal pain can indicate a ruptured appendix or diverticula which needs emergency surgery.
  • A ruptured aortic aneurysm, ruptured fallopian tube, ruptured ovarian cyst, ectopic pregnancy, or penetrating trauma can cause abdominal bleeding, resulting in hypovolemic shock and death.
  • Massive amounts of blood can collect in the cavity quickly.
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28
Q

Describe an urgent assessment of the musculoskeletal system

A

Do not attempt to correct malalignment because it can compound injury to muscle, nerves, or blood vessels. Instead, mobilize the extremity. Fractures require prompt care to prevent further injury or deformity. Focus your efforts on keeping the patient calm, quiet, still, and comfortable.

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29
Q

Describe s/s urgent assessment of the neurological system

Critical changes in the neurological system

A

Acute changes in mental status or change in consciousness
- Seizure activity
- Onset of flexor or extensor posturing
- Change in size and decreased reactivity to light in pupils
- Onset of conjugate or dysconjugate eye deviation
- Progressing weakness of extremities or one side of body
- Changes in sensation identification
- Changes in vitals sings
- Fever (infection)

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30
Q

How to best communicate with someone who has aphasia

A

Remember that with aphasia you may need to make your questions simple and close-ended (yes or no). Also, you may need to incorporate visual or audio assistance. You may could give a note pad and pen so the patient can write how they feel if this is possible with the patient. Sometimes that can be affected as well.

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31
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A
  • Coordinates voluntary movement, posture, and muscle tone
  • Maintains special orientation and equilibrium.
  • It ensures adjustments to maintain overall balance and coordination
  • It integrates info from the cerebral cortex, inner ear, muscles, and joints.
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32
Q

What are the 12 cranial nerves?

A

I. Olfactory
II. Optic
III. Oculomotor
IV. Trochlear
V. Trigeminal
VI. Abducens
VII. Facial
VIII. Vestibulocochlear
IX. Glossopharyngeal
X. Vagus
XI. Accessory
XII. Hypoglossal

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33
Q

Describe the test for cranial nerve I

A

Eyes closed, occlude one nostril, present familiar aromatic substance. Identify older with each side of nose.

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34
Q

Describe the test for cranial nerve II

A

Test visual acuity and visual fields by confrontation.
- Using ophthalmoscope, examine ocular fundus to determine color, size, and shape of optic disc

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35
Q

Test for cranial nerves III, IV, and VI

A

Check pupils for size, regularity, equality, direct and consensual light reaction, and accommodation
- Assess extraocular movements by cardinal positions of gaze

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36
Q

Test for cranial nerve V

A

Motor: assess muscles of mastication by palpating temporal and masseter muscles as person clenches teeth
Sensory: eyes closed, test light touch sensation buy touching a cotton wisp to designated areas on person’s face, forehead, cheeks, and chin

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37
Q

Test for cranial nerve VII

A

Motor: Note mobility and facial symmetry as person responds to requests to smile, frown, close eyes tightly (against your attempt to open them), lift eyebrows, show teeth. Then, have person puff cheeks, then press puffed cheeks in, to see that air escapes equally from both sides.
Sensory: Test only when suspected facial nerve injury. When indicated, test sense of taste by applying cotton tip applicator covered with solution of sugar, salt, or lemon juice to tongue and ask person to identify taste

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38
Q

Test for cranial nerve VIII

A

Test hearing acuity by ability to hear normal conversation and by whispered voice test

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39
Q

Test for cranial nerves IX and X

A

Motor: depress tongue with tongue blade, and note pharyngeal movement as person says “ahhh” or yawns; uvula and soft palate should rise in midline and tonsil lair pillars should move medially. Touch posterior pharyngeal wall with tongue blade, and note gag reflex; voice should sound smooth not strained.
Sensory: Cranial nerve IX does mediate taste on posterior one third of tongue, but technically too difficult to test

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40
Q

Test for cranial nerve XI

A

Examine sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size.
- Check equal strength by asking person to rotate head against resistance applied to side of chin
- Ask person to shrug shoulders against resistance
- These movements should feel equally strong on both sides

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41
Q

Test for cranial nerve XII

A

Inspect tongue; no wasting or tremors should be present
- Note forward thrust in midline as person protrudes tongue.
- Ask person to say “light, tight, dynamite,” and note that lingual speech (sounds of letter l,t,d,n) is clear and distinct

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42
Q

How is the DTR scale graded?

A

4 point scale
- 4 = very brisk, hyperactive with clonus, indicative of disease
- 3= brisker than average, may indicate disease
- 2 = average, normal
- 1 = diminished, low normal, or occurs with reinforcement
- 0 = no response

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43
Q

Describe a colorectal screening

A

Starting at age 50, both men and women should follow one of these more common testing plans for bowel cancer:
- Colonoscopy every 10 years
- Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years
- Yearly guaiac-based fecal occult blood test (gFOBT)
- Stool DNA test (sDNA) every 3 years)

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44
Q

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale

A

A tool for assessment a patient’s response to stimuli. Score ranges from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (normal)

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45
Q

Describe the Glasgow Coma Scale ratings

A

Eye opening: 4 (spontaneous), 3 (to voice), 2 (to pain), 1 (none)
Verbal response: 5 (oriented), 4 (confused), 3 (inappropriate words), 2 (incomprehensible words), 1 (none)
Motor response: 6 (obeys command), 5 (localized pain), 4 (withdraws), 3 (flex ion), 2 (extension), 1 (none)

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46
Q

Describe Migraine headaches

A

A throbbing, severe, unilateral headache that lasts 6-24 hours and is associated with photophobia, nausea, and vomiting suggests migraine
- A constant, unremitting, general headache that is described as a feeling of a tight band around the head and lasts for days, weeks, or even months is usually characteristic of a tension muscle contraction headache.

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47
Q

What are risk factors for breast cancer?

A

Alcohol
- Overweight or obesity
- Physical inactivity
- History of childbirth
- Birth control
- Hormone replacement after menopause
- Breastfeeding

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48
Q

What are risk factors for abdominal problems?

Risk factors for developing abdominal problems

A

Past medical history
- Chewing and swallowing
- Breathing
- Weight gain
- Genitourinary issues
- Last menstrual period in females
- Prostate difficulties in males
- Joint pain
- Numbness, back problems, or loss of bladder/bowel control
- Diabetes
- Skin changes
- Food allergies or infection
- Substance abuse

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49
Q

What are risk factors for musculoskeletal problems?

What in a person’s lifestyle puts them at risk?

A

Past medical history
- Dairy product consumption
- Sunlight exposure
- Type of work you do
- Hobbies and sports
- Income and people that live on it
- Cigarette/Alcohol use
- Meds and family history

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50
Q

What are risk factors for neurological problems?

A
  • Past medical history
  • diabetes, CAD, A-fib, or Sickle cell disease
  • smoking, have a high fat diet, obesity, or are physically inactive
  • not using a seat belt, not wearing a bike helmet, drink and drive, have fall risk, or ignore firearm safety
  • Meds
  • Family history
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51
Q

What are the parts of the cerebrum and their functions?

A

Frontal: complex cognition (insight), language, and voluntary motor function
- Temporal: hearing, speech, behavior, memory
- Parietal: Sensory- temp, touch, pressure, and pain;
- Occipital: Vision
- Left control right, right controls left

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52
Q

Describe nerves of the Brain stem (medulla, midbrain, pons, and reticular formation) and what they control

A

Cranial Nerves I-XII. Cell bodies housed in brain stem
- Breathing, sneezing, coughing, swallowing, et

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53
Q

What do Protective structures (Cerebrospinal fluid) do?

A

Allows for nutrient delivery and cushion
- Be aware as increased CSF can lead to herniation and compression of brain stem ——> loss of basic vital functions

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54
Q

Describe Proper documentation for musculoskeletal

A

Posture is erect with head midline above the spine. Shoulders are equal in height.
- Walking is normally smooth and rhythmic, with arms swinging in opposition to the legs. The patient rises from sitting with ease
- Patient is balanced when standing and has a negative Romberg test
- Patient performs rapid alternating movements of the arms and finger thumb opposition and runs the heel of one foot down the opposite shin
- No swelling, lacerations, lesions, deformi

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55
Q

Describe Proper documentation for neurological assessment

A

Patient alert; opens eyes spontaneously
- Oriented x4
- Speech is clear, fluent, and articulate
- Pupils equal, round, and reactive to light (PERRL)
- PERRLA (A for accommodation)
- Pupils constrict and converge bilaterally. Gaze is purposeful and conjugate
- Movements smooth and symmetrical

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56
Q

Describe Proper documentation for abdominal assessment

A

Abdomen flat and symmetric. No scars, striae, or varicosity. Skin even-toned. Umbilicus midline and inverted. No hernias noted.
- No dissension, visible pulsation, or peristaltic wave noted. Respiration even, no use of accessory muscles.
- Urine is clear and light yellow.
- No emesis.
- Stool is soft, light brown, moderate amount
- Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
- No bruits, venous hums, or friction rubs
- Abdomen tympanic. No dullness over the liver in the RUP and hollow tympanic notes in the LUQ over the gastric bubble.
- No tenderness
- Abdomen without masses

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57
Q

Describe Proper documentation for breast exam

A

Females:
- Skin tone determines color.
- Wide variation exists for size
- Symmetrical, or a left breast slightly larger than the right.
- Contour uninterrupted
- Areola round or oval, and pink to dark brown
- No change in color, seize, symmetry, or contour of the breast or change in nipple characteristics
- No signs of rashes, infection, texture changes, or unusual pigmentation
- One or more small, soft, nontender nodes
- Nipple smooth without masses, nodules, or discharge

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58
Q

Describe Weber test

A

Assessing for sensorineural hear loss
- Likely in ear ear pathology if sound is not equal in both ears
- Tuning fork on top of head

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59
Q

Describe the Rinne Test

A

Air conduction should be twice bone conduction
- If air conduction is < or = to bone conduction, suspect conductive hearing loss.
- Tuning fork right behind the ear

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60
Q

What are Age related changes for GI

A

Difficulty swallowing and absorbing food
Constipation
Chewing difficulty and alter dietary choice
Liver and Kidney alters med metabolization, decreases thirst sensation increases risk for dehydration, UTIs, and constipation

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61
Q

What are Age related changes for musculoskeletal

A

Increase risk for fall
- Kyphosis
- Shortened height
- Decrease ROM
- Loss of muscle
- Less flexible
- Changes in subq fat
- Osteoporosis

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62
Q

What are age related changes for neuro?

A
  • Reduction in brain volume most likely related to shrinkage or neurons and reduction in number synaptic spines and synapses.
  • Reduce cognitive abilities, such as processing speed, executive function, episodic memory, reduced response to stimuli, delayed reflexes, decreases ability to respond to multiple stimuli, and the ability to manage multiple tasks at the same time.
  • Peripheral nerve function and impulse conduction decrease, causing decrease proprioception and potential for a Parkinson-like gait
  • At risk for poor balance, postural hypotension, falls, and injury
  • Light touch and pain sensation are reduced, wit
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63
Q

What is nystagmus

A

A jerking movement of the eye that can be quick and fluttering or slow and rolling, similar to a tremor
- Causes include meds (anti seizure meds), cerebellar disease, weakness in the extra-ocular muscles, and damage to CN III (oculomotor)

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64
Q

What is carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve compression causing Paresthesia and weakness in hands
-Diagnosis: Phalen and Tinel

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65
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Lateral curvature of spine
- Critical time for assessment: adolescents
- Inspect back, hips, scapulae, shoulders for symmetry. Bend forward with arms hanging and stand up
- Palpate spine

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66
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Women experience rapid loss of bone density for the first 5-7 years after menopause. After initial rapid phase, bone loss continues but slows. Men also experience bone loss but at more advanced ages and at much slower rates. Bone mass is related to race, heredity, hormonal factors, physical activity, and calcium intake

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67
Q

What are risks for osteoporosis?

A

Small, boney framed women
- Smoking
- Low calcium
- High salt intake
- Alcohol
- Physical inactivity

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68
Q

What kind of screening is done for osteoporosis?

A

bone density test (DEXA scan) is recommended for women who 65 and older and for women who are 50-64 and have certain risk factors

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69
Q

How can you prevent osteoporosis?

A
  • Maintaining an active lifestyle and healthy weight. 30 min weight bearing exercise 3 times per week
  • Protection of joints while performing simple tasks
  • Daily recommended amount of calcium and vitamin D. Limit caffeine
  • Discuss risks of osteoporosis with provider
  • Bone density test and meds
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70
Q

What can cause an enlarged spleen?

A

Mono

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71
Q

Where is the spleen?

A

Left upper quadrant

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72
Q

What are the abnormal contours for the abdomen?

A

Scaphoid, rounded, or protuberant

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73
Q

What can cause the abnormal abdomen contours?

A

Ascites, tumors, gas, pregnancy

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74
Q

What does a normal abdomen look like?

A

Flat and symmetric. No scars, striae or varicosity. Skin-even toned, no hernias, no dissension or pulsation.

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75
Q

Describe abnormal urine color

A

Cloudy (infection), bloody (bacteria, kidney stones), dark (bilirubin, dehydration)

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76
Q

Describe abnormal vomit (emesis)

A

Green (bile), coffee ground (old blood), bloody (bleeding in upper GI tract)

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77
Q

Describe abnormal stool

A

Foul-smelling, very liquid, dark stools, melanotic (black,tarry)

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78
Q

Describe normal urine

A

Clear and light yellow

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79
Q

Describe normal vomit

A

None present

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3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Describe normal stool

A

Soft, light brown, and formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is your concern for bloody vomit in alcoholic patients?

A

varicose veins in the throat

82
Q

Describe normal bowel sounds

A

Gurgling present in all 4 quadrants

83
Q

What are hyperactive bowel sounds indicitave of?

A

May indicate bowel obstruction and decreased below. Diarrhea

84
Q

What are hypoactive bowel sounds indicitave of??

A

Ileus, peritonitis, post anesthesia.

85
Q

What is an indication of early bowel obstruction?

A

High-pitched tinkling sound

86
Q

What do you do if you hear no bowel sounds?

A

Listen in each quadrant for 5 minute

87
Q

What are abnormal vascular sounds for the abdomen?

A

Bruits, venous hum, and friction rub

88
Q

What are abnormal findings while percussing the abdomen?

A

Pain, dullness over mass, or fluid. CVA tenderness

89
Q

What are normal findings during percussion of the abdomen?

A

Dullness over the liver in the RUQ. No pain with kidney percussion.

90
Q

Describe splenic tip enlargement?

A

1-2cm beyond the rib cage

91
Q

Describe moderate splenomegaly

A

3-7cm beyond the rib cage

92
Q

Describe marked splenomegaly

A

7cm beyond rib cage, dangerous to ride in car

93
Q

Should the bladder be palpable during an abdominal assessment?

A

No

94
Q

Describe abnormal findings during palpation of the aorta

A

Aorta > then 3cm or lateral pulsations. Indicates aneurysm

95
Q

Describe normal palpation of the aorta.

How long is it?

A

Measures 2cm

96
Q

Mrs. Jones presents to the emergency department complaining of severe pain in her abdomen
A. Auscultates the abdomen
B. Inspect the abdomen
C. Palpate the abdomen
D. Percussion the abdomen.
She has a history of liver transplant. What would the nurse know NOT to do?

A

C. Palpate the abdomen.

97
Q

What is one topic pertinent to abdominal healthy promotion?
A. Early pregnancy care
B. Food-borne illness
C. Respiratory disease
D. Esophageal cancer

A

B. Food-borne illness

98
Q

What is a fibrous joint?

A

Immovable joints such as sutures in the cranium

99
Q

What is a cartilaginous joint?

A

Slightly movable joints such as costal cartilage between the sternum and ribs; symphysis pubis

100
Q

What is a synovial joint?

A

Most common joint; freeely movable such as ball and socket (hip and shoulder) hinge (elbow and knee); pivot (atlas and axis); condyloid (wrist); saddle (thumb); gliding (intervertebral)

101
Q

What is the temporomandibular joint responsible for?

A

Opening and closing
Protrusion and retraction
Gliding from side to side

102
Q

What are the functions/motions of the wrist and hand?

What motions do they perform?

A

Flexion
Extension

103
Q

What are the functions/motions of the wrist and hand?

A

Flexion
Extension

104
Q

What are the four curves of the spine?

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral

105
Q

Explain who osteoporosis affects, how long it lasts, risk factors, and treatments

A

Occurs most often in women
Rapid loss 5-7 years after menopause
Ongoing throughout life
Risk factors: Smoking, calcium deficiency, high salt intake, alcohol intake, and physical inactivity
Encourage lung term moderate intensity exercise

106
Q

What are some musculoskeletal changes throughout the lifespan? (Adults)

A

Postural changes which leads to height loss (kyphosis)
Joints less flexible with age
Muscle mass begins to decrease after age 30 with greater muscle loss after 60- increases fall risk and stability
Subcutaneous fat distribution changes and weight gain increases between 40-60; begins to decrease after age 80

107
Q

What puts you at risk for musculoskeletal problems?

Characteristics

A

Age: Young at risk for injury; older at risk for osteoporosis
Gender: Women four times more likely to develop arthritis and develop osteoporosis which puts them at greater risk for injury
Ethnicity
Congenital deformity
Previous trauma or injury
Prior surgeries

108
Q

What is curvature of the cervical spine?

A

Kyphosis

109
Q

What are some lifestyle risk factors for musculoskeletal disorders?

A

Dairy products: calcium intake (or lack of)
Sunlight: Vitamin D drives calcium into the bone
Occupation: Risk of injury due to repetitive emotions, movements, twisting, or heavy lifting.
Hobbies: sports, activities, safety with motor vehicles
Income: inquiring about socioeconomic status and sick time
Tobacco and alcohol: Higher risk for osteoporosis and fractures. Alcohol interferes with Vit D absorption
ADL’s and self-care capability

110
Q

What are common symptoms for the musculoskeletal system? (Pain or discomfort)

A

Arthritic pain often worse during the cold
Rheumatoid pain often worse in mornings and better with activity
Weakness, tingling, numbness, nerve compression.
Limited ROM

111
Q

What are some common symptoms for the musculoskeletal system? (Weakness)

A

Muscle weakness, worse after activity can be dehydration or electrolyte imbalance

112
Q

What are some common symptoms of musculoskeletal issues? (Stiffness and limited movement)

Conditions that limist movement

A

Generalized swelling or isolated to a joint
Contractures result from prolonged positioning

113
Q

What can cause muscle atrophy?

A

Disuse

114
Q

What are some common symptoms of a lack of balance and coordination?

And what can cause it?

A

Fall/injury risk.
Ataxia,
Parkinson’s,
MS,
strokes,
tumors inner ear problems or medication.

115
Q

How should posture look?

A

Should be erect with head midline above shoulders; shoulders in equal height

116
Q

Describe proper gait and mobility

A

Walking is normal and rhythmic with arms swinging in opposite directions. Rises from sitting with ease.

117
Q

Describe proper balance

A

Patient should be balanced when standing and has negative Rhomberg test

118
Q

Describe proper coordination

A

Rapid alternating movements are intact

119
Q

Explain proper inspection of extremities

What things shouldn’t be present?

A

No swelling, lacerations, or deformity

120
Q

Explain proper palpation of the musculoskeletal

What should you not find with palpation?

A

No nodules, tenderness or deformity
Joint ROM: Never force joint. Stop with discomfort

121
Q

What symptoms of the musculoskeletal system require urgent assessment?

What important things to assess first?

A

Malalignment, GALS screening.

122
Q

What are some potential alterations to the GI system for older adults?

A

Poor dentition
* Decreased muscle mass, tone
* Decreased motility, peristalsis  bloating, distention,
constipation
* Liver shrinkage  decreased medication metabolism
* Decreased renal function  decreased medication efficacy

123
Q

What are the organs of the GI system?

A

Esophagus
Stomach
Small
Intestine
Duodenum
Jejunum &
Ileum
Large
Intestine

124
Q

What does the liver do?

A

Produces and secretes bile to emulsify fat
* Metabolizes protein, carbohydrates, and fats
* Converts glucose to glycogen and stores it
* Produces clotting factors, fibrinogen, and plasma proteins such as albumin
* Detoxifies drugs and alcohol
* Stores fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K; vitamin B12; and copper and iron
* Converts conjugated bilirubin from blood to unconjugated bilirubin

125
Q

aWhat is the gallbladder?

A

Located on back side of liver in RUQ
* Stores and concentrates bile

126
Q

What is the pancreas and what does it do?

Where is it located?

A

Located in LUQ
* Endocrine functions:
* Secretes insulin and regulates blood glucose levels
* Secretes glucagons that store carbohydrates
* Inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion
* Secretes pancreatic polypeptide that regulates release of pancreatic enzymes
* Exocrine functions:
* Secretes digestive enzymes that digests starches into maltose, breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol and proteins into amino acids

127
Q

What do the kidneys do?

A

Control blood pressure through the production of renin
* Stimulate red blood cell production by secreting erythropoietin
* Remove waste products filtered by the kidneys from the body

128
Q

What does the bladder do?

A

Aids in the removal of waste products from the body in the form of urine

129
Q

What does the aorta do?

A

Supplies oxygenated blood to the cells and organs of the lower half of the body

130
Q

What are some symptoms that require prompt attention?

general symptoms

A

Severe dehydration: nausea, vomiting
* Fever
* Acute abdominal pain

131
Q

What are some general GI questions about?

A

chewing and
swallowing
* Breathing; weight gain; GU issues; joint pain
* Neurological system; metabolism; skin
* Lymphatic, hematological systems
* Substance abuse; occupation; foreign travel
* Lifestyle
* Medications
* Family history

132
Q

What are some health promotion goals for the GI system?

A

Colorectal cancer screening
* Reduce new cases of ESRD
* Reduce cirrhosis deaths

133
Q

What is one topic pertinent to abdominal
health promotion?
A. Early pregnancy care
B. Food-borne illness
C. Respiratory disease
D. Esophageal cancer

A

. Food-borne illness
Rationale: Three areas of focus involving the GI system
include colorectal cancer, food-borne illness, and
hepatitis.

134
Q

What are some commonly reported abdominal problem symptoms?

A

ndigestion; anorexia
* Nausea, vomiting, hematemesis; abdominal pain
* Dysphagia, odynophagia
* Change in bowel function
* Constipation; diarrhea
* Jaundice/icterus
* Urinary/renal symptoms
* Incontinence; kidney/flank pain; ureteral colic

135
Q

What does a normal abdomen look like?

A

Abdomen flat and symmetric. No scars, striae or varicosity. Skin even-toned,
unmilizus midline. No hernias noted. No distension or visible pulsation.

136
Q

How do you inspect the abdomen for abnormalities?

A

Inspect the abdomen, starting from the right side. Check for shape, contour, and movement. Inspect the urine for clarity-color (blood, hydration, bilirubin). Inspect emesis for blood, hydration, and bile. Inspect stool for blood (frank, melena, occult), C. Diff, and incontinence.

137
Q

How do you auscultate the abdomen for abnormalities?

A

Auscultate all four quadrants. Place diaphragm gently in one quadrant (staring in bottom right and working clock wise). Checking for bowel and vascular sounds

138
Q

How do you percuss the abdomen for abnormalities?

A

Percuss all four quadrants, border of spleen and liver, and kidney. listen for tympany, dullness, or pain.

139
Q

How do you palpate the abdomen for abnormalities?

A

Light palpating in all four quadrants (1/2-1 inch) in a rotating motion to check for grimacing or guarding (pain) , then lift your fingertips and move to the next location.
- Deep palpating to assess organ, masses, and tenderness (1 1/2 in-2 1/2 in)

140
Q

What is a goniometer?

A

Tool used to measure the angle of a joint in physical therapy

141
Q

What does the frontal lobe control?

A

Complex cognition, language, and voluntary motor function

142
Q

What does the temporal lobe control?

A

Hearing, speech, behavior, memory

143
Q

What does the parietal lobe control?

A

Tempt, touch, pressure and pain
recognize the size, shape, and texture of objects

144
Q

What does the occipital lobe control?

A

Vision

145
Q

Which side of the brain controls which side of the body?

A

The left side of the brain controls the right side of the body
The right side of the brain controls the left side of the body.

146
Q

What does the cerebellum control?

A

Coordination, posture, muscle tone, equilibrium

147
Q

How does the degeneration of the neuro system present in older adults?

A

Processing speed slows
Degeneration of tissue
Dementia
Alzheimer’s

148
Q

What are some important assessments of the neuro system?

A

LOC
Pupillary reaction
Gross assessment of extremity strength
Gross assessment of sensation
If consciousness impaired, asses other CNs, gag reflex, EOMS, corneal reflex
Vital signs

149
Q

What demographic is twice as likely to die from stroke compared to caucasians?

A

African Americans

150
Q

Who is at a high CV risk? (Not African Americans)

A

Hispanics and Native Americans

151
Q

What subjective data related to neuro would you ask the patient

A

Biographical info
Past medical history: (neuro problems head injury)
Lifestyle and Personal habits: (DM, CAD, A Fib)
Medications
Family History: Alzheimer’s, epilepsy

152
Q

What are some common neuro symptoms?

A

Headaches
Weakness of single limb or one side
Generalized weakness
Involuntary movements or tremors
Imbalance, incoordination
Dizziness or vertigo
Difficulty swallowing
Change in intellectual abilities
Expressive/receptive aphasia
Alteration in touch, taste, or smell
Loss of vision in one or both eyes, blurred vision
Hearing loss or tinnitus

153
Q

What are the different levels of consciousness?

A

Alert wakefulness
Confusion
Drowsiness
Stupor
Coma

154
Q

How do you assess a client’s arousability?

Things a client can respond to

A

Spontaneous
Normal voice
Loud voice
Touch
Noxious stimulation

155
Q

What objective data can we collect about a patient related to neuro?

A

Orientation to time
Orientation to place
Registration
Attention and calculation
Recall language
Repetition
Complex commands

156
Q

What motor function do we assess with relation to neuro?

What tests do we do?

A

Muscle bulk and tone
Muscle strength: 0-5+
Pronator drift
tandem walking
Romberg test

157
Q

Where is Broca’s area and what does it do?

A

Frontal lobe, verbal expression

158
Q

How do you assess an unconscious patient?

A

Vitals
LOC using GCS
Pupillary assessment
Brain stem assessment
Brain herniation syndromes

159
Q

What does a brain stem assessment look for?

What reflexes?

A

Dolls eye reflex, corneal reflex, gag reflex

160
Q

What are symptoms of brain herniation syndromes

A

Pupils fixed and dilated
No response to pain

161
Q

What are abnormal posture findings related to neuro?

A

flexion
Extension
Hemiplegia

162
Q

What are diagnostic procedures for neuro?

A

CT scan
MRI
EEG
Lumbar puncture

163
Q

Main purpose of the cerebellum?

A

Balance and coordination

164
Q

What is the sympathetic nervous system for?

A

Fight or flight

165
Q

What is the parasympathetic nervous system for

A

Rest and digest

166
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system do?

A

Sense changes and make changes based on input

167
Q

What does the Glasgow Coma Response asses?

A

Vocal response, eye opening, motor function

168
Q

What happens to the neurological function of adults as they age?

A

Processing speed slows
Degeneration of tissue
Dementia, alzheimer’s

169
Q

What are some common subjective neurological symptoms reported by patients?

Common things reported by patients

A

Dizziness or vertigo
Difficulty swallowing
Change in intellectual abilities
Expressive/receptive aphasia
Stroke or Alzheimer’s/dementia
Alteration in touch, taste, or smell: Paresthesia
Loss of vision in one or both eyes, blurred vision
Hearing loss or tinnitus

170
Q

What are some abnormal movement findings?

Abnormal motions of muscles

A

Tremors, paralysis, tremor, clonus/myoclonus, dystonia

171
Q

What can cause dark stool?

A

Medications, iron supplements, pepto.

172
Q

What causes tarry stools?

A

GI bleed

173
Q

What indicates an esophageal bleed?

A

Bright red blood in vomit

174
Q

What are s/s of GI bleed?

A

Abdominal pain
Nausea
Indigestion
Vomiting
Dizziness
Hypotension
Fatigue
Passing out

175
Q

S/s of appendicitis

A

RLQ abdominal pain
Radiated to belly button
Vomiting
Nausea
Fever

176
Q

s/s of constipation

A

Distended abdomen
Diarrhea
Hard pellets of stool
Poor fluid intake

177
Q

Percussion findings for constipation?

A

Dullness over colon
Tenderness over colon

178
Q

S/s of gallbladder issues?

A

Pain in right upper quadrant
Worse after greasy fatty foods

179
Q

What ethnicity is most likely to develop osteoporosis?

A

Whites

180
Q

What are s/s of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Emotional stress
Autoimmune disease
Systemic
Commonly in finger joints
ESR and rheumatoid factor lab work
Proximal

181
Q

Different types of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Swan neck and (insert name here)

182
Q

Describe osteoarthritis

s/s and what causes it

A

Localized pain
Caused by overuse
Distal
Can be on one side or the other

183
Q

Tests for balance and coordination?

A

Rhomberg test
Tandem gate
Finger to nose

184
Q

Where do we check deep tendon reflexes?

A

Knee (patellar)
Achilles
Elbow
Wrist
Brachial

185
Q

What are s/s of Parkinson’s?

A

Shuffling gat
Tremor
Pill rolling
Stooped posture
Absent face

186
Q

What are some important colorectal screenings?

A

Colonoscopy 10 years
Flexible sigmoidoscopy 5 years
Fecal occult blood test 3 years
Fecal DNA test every 3 years

187
Q

What are risk factors for stroke?

A

HTN
Nicotine use
Bleeding disorder
High cholesterol (triglycerides and LDL)
Obesity
DM
Race
Age
Exercise

188
Q
A
189
Q

S/s of stroke?

A

Facial droop
Unilateral droop
Slurred speech
Intense headache
LOC
Dysphagia
Reduced pupil response
Aphasia

190
Q

What 3 things does the Glasgow Coma Scale measure?

A

Eye, verbal, and motor response

191
Q

What score is comatose on the GSC scale?

A

Anything less than 8

192
Q

What are s/s of migraines

A

Unilateral headache
Photophobia
Nausea
Vomiting
Aura
Migraines without headache

193
Q

How to prevent migraines?

A

Avoid triggers

194
Q

What can possibly stop migraine headaches in small amounts?

A

Caffeine

195
Q

What is disorientation after a seizure?

A

Post ictal (idk how to spell it)

196
Q

What is nystagmus

A

involuntary rapid twitching of the eye.

197
Q

What are normal percussion findings for the abdomen?

A

Abdomen tympanic
Dullness over liver in RUQ
Hollow tympanic in LUQ over gastric bubble
Tympany over most of abdomen’

198
Q

True or False, the bladder is always palpable

A

False; the bladder is nonpalpable

199
Q

What test is used for peritonitis?

A

Blumerg sign

200
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area and what does it do?

A

Temporal lobe, processes language