NU 302 Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Healthy People 2030 goals?

A

Main purpose: “To promote, strengthen, and evaluate the Nation’s efforts to improve the health and well-being of all people.”
- Attain healthy, thriving lives and well-being, free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death.
- Eliminate health disparities, achieve health equity, and attain health literacy to improve the health and well-being of all.
- Create social, physical, and economic environments that promote attaining full potential for health and well-being for all.
- Promote healthy development, healthy behaviors, and well-being across all life stages.
- Engage leadership, key constituents, and the public across multiple sectors to take action and design policies that improve the health and well-being of all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 Core Public Health Functions?

A

Assessment, Policy Development, Assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What was the Henry Street Settlement?

A

1st public health nursing practice staffed by both nurses and social workers. (Due to Lillian Wald and Mary Brewster in 1893)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is each level of prevention and what does it focus on?

A

Primary: keep disease, illness, or injury from occurring
Secondary: Recognize symptoms and detect early-screening
Tertiary: Minimize the negative impact and progression of illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is justice?

A

fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is non maleficience?

A

To do no harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is beneficience?

A

to do good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is autonomty?

A

independence; self-determination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is veracity?

A

truthfulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is fidelity?

A

faithfulness; keeping promises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the purpose of the IRB (Institutional Review Board)?

A

Must have approval anytime human subjects are used for research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a person’s culture?

A
  • “Beliefs, values, and behavior shared by members of society”.
  • Influences behavior, what they say, and how they interpret the world.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are characteristics of culture?

A

Learned from others
- Integrated systems of customs and traits
- Shared
- Mostly tacit
- Dynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the components of the epidemiological triad?

A

Host, agent, environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define a host

A

susceptible human or animal who harbors and nourishes a disease-causing agent. May have the ability to resist infection (inherent resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define an agent

A

A factor that causes or contributes to a. health promotion or condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define an environment

A

All the external factors surrounding the host that might influence vulnerability or resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define incidence

A

Number of new cases of a specific disease or condition during a period of time. (Number of persons developing disease/Total number at risk per unit of time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define prevelance

A

All active cases of a disease or condition at a given point in time. (Number of persons with disease/number of people in a population)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is active immunity?

A

long-term; may be long and may be natural or artificial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Short term resistance such as transfer of antibodies from mom to baby; naturally acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

Level of immunity to a group of people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is cross immunity?

A

May be passive or active. Exposure to one infection may increase immunity to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are s/s of shingles?

A
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Chills
  • Upset Stomach
  • Blisters
  • Dissemination crosses dermatomes
  • Remember shingles are either contact or airborne (if disseminated) transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are s/s of TB?

A
  • Cough lasting greater than 3 weeks
  • Fatigue
  • Chest pain
  • Blood in sputum
  • Weight loss
  • Night sweats
  • TB is spread through airborne transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do you treat TB?

A

Directly Observed treatment:
- Insures that clients take daily and intermittent prescriptions
- Labor intensive
- Meet clients where they are
First line of defense drugs:
- isoniazid (INH)
- rifampin (RIF)
- ethambutol (EMB)
- Pyrazinamide

antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are s/s of chlamydia?

In men and women

A
  • S/S in women include: vaginal discharge (mucous often yellow tinged), odor, UTI, lower back pain, bleeding in between periods
  • S/S in men include: inflammation in urethra, watery discharge, burning and itching in the urethra, lower back and testicular pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is chlamydia?

A

Most commonly reported STD IN U.S.
- Transmitted via sexual contact and maternal transmission
- Women more susceptible
- may be asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are s/s of gonnorhea?

For men and women

A

S/S for men: purulent discharge and painful urination
- S/S for women: vaginal discharge, bleeding after discharge, may also be asymptomatic
- May also have lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What causes gonnorhea?

A

Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True or False, you treat gonorrhea with antivirals

A

False, you treat it with antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What causes syphyllis?

A

Caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are s/s of primary syphillis?

A

chancre appears at entry site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are s/s of secondary syphillis?

A

lesions appear on hands, feet, and trunk. Other symptoms include rash, fever, sore throat, fatigue, lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are s/s of tertiary syphillis?

A

neurological effects include deafness, cranial nerve palsy, meningitis, or even death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is syphillis spread?

A

Spread through contact with the lesions or from mother to baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What drug treats syphillis?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What causes genital herpes?

A

Caused by Herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are s/s of genital herpes?

A

S/S: fever, malaise, lesions or blisters on genitalia, rectum, or mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do you treat genital herpes?

A

May use antiviral meds (Acyclovir) to treat outbreaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T or F, genital herpes can be cured.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What causes viral warts?

A

Caused by human papillomavirus (HPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How are viral warts (HPV) transmitted?

A

Transmitted via direct skin-to-skin contact or from mother to baby
- Incubation period may be 2-3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are complications of viral warts?

A

May lead to cancer of the anus, cervix, vulva, vagina, or penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are s/s of viral warts (HPV)?

A

May appear as flat or raised bumps or may be shaped like cauliflower. Lesions may also occur in throat or respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Explain HIV/AIDS

A

Transmitted through blood and bodily fluids
- 71% of those infected live in sub-Sahara Africa
- AIDS is the condition that results from the infection with HIV
- Attacks the body’s immune system making individuals more susceptible to disease and infections
- Age of onset may influence progression of disease
- HIV individuals may be symptom free for sometime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is direct contact?

A

may occur through direct skin to skin contact (such as scabies) or direct contact with blood or bodily fluids. Ex. HIV, Hepatitis, herpes zoster (shingles- not disseminated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is indirect conctac?

A

pathogens may be transferred via hands, equipment, clothing, toys, etc. Ex. MRSA, VRE, ESBL, CRE

49
Q

What is enteric contact?

A

organisms are spread via spores. Ex. C-diff and norovirus

50
Q

What PPE is required for direct contact?

A

gown and gloves

51
Q

PPE for enteric contact?

A

gown and gloves; ALWAYS use soap and water. Hand sanitizer does not kill spores

52
Q

What is the I PREPARE method

A

I - Investigate potential exposures
P - Present work
R - Residence
E - Environmental concerns
P - Past work
A - Activities
R - Referrals and Resources
E - Educate

53
Q

List some therapeutic communication techniques?

A
  • Give broad openings
  • paraphrasing
  • offer general leads
  • reflect feelings
  • focusing
  • voicing doubt
  • clarifying
  • placing events in time sequence
  • giving information
  • encouraging formation of a plan
  • testing discrepancies
54
Q

What is droplet transmission?

A

-form of contact transmission. Droplets are spread when individuals cough, sneeze, or talk
- Ex. flu, pertussis, RSV, meningitis (caused by hameophilus influenzae type B)
- PPE: basic surgical mask

55
Q

What is airborne transmission?

A

Droplets that may remain suspended in the air for some time.
- Ex. TB, shingles (if disseminated), chicken pox, measles, and COVID-19
- PPE: N-95 respirator, negative pressure room

56
Q

What is vector transmission?

A

occurs when the infectious agent is carried by a nonhuman carrier such as an animal or insect

57
Q

What are parts of the communication process?

A
  • Message
  • Sender
  • Receiver
  • Encoding
  • Channel
  • Decoding
  • Feedback loop
58
Q

What is the order of the communication proccess?

A

A sender sends a message, that is encoded, through a channel where it is decoded to the receiver, and creates a feedback loop

59
Q

What is a windshield survey?

A

-Allows you to assess the needs of a community and areas which may need focus
-Physical - Condition of buildings, density, homes, parks, air quality
-Economic - Thriving, homelessness, shopping (grocery stores), places for employment
-Services - Schools, libraries, health clinics, churches, safety (police presence), transportation
-Social - hangouts, individuals on streets, diversity, problems expressed by individuals

60
Q

What is a problem-oriented assessment?

A

begins with a single problem and assesses the community in terms of that problem

61
Q

What is a community subsystem assessment?

A

Focuses on a single dimension of the community life

62
Q

What is a comprehensive community assessment?

A

systematic data collection on the population, monitoring of the population’s health status, and accessing available information about the health of the community

63
Q

What is acommunity assets assessment?

A

focuses on the strengths and capacities of a community rather than its problems

64
Q

What is the leading cause of death in developing countries?

A

Communicable disease
- Ex. malaria, maternal and perinatal morbidity/mortality

65
Q

What is the leading cause of death in developed countries?

A

Non-communicable diseases
- Ex. tobacco use, mental health, obesity

66
Q

What is triage green?

A

Minor (walking wounded)

67
Q

What is triage yellow?

A

Delayed

68
Q

What is triage red?

A

Immediate

69
Q

What is triage black?

A

deceased/morgue/unable to assist

70
Q

What is a man-made disaster?

A

A disaster caused by human activity

71
Q

What is a natural disaster?

A

A disaster caused by natural events

72
Q

What is bioterrorism category A?

A

highest priority- easily transmitted and high mortality rates. Ex. smallpox, botulism, anthrax, Ebola

73
Q

What is bioterrorism category B?

A

Second-highest priority- moderately easy to disseminate, high morbidity, and low mortality rates. Ex. Ricin toxin, food and water borne illnesses

74
Q

What is bioterrorism category C?

A

third priority- easy to produce and high mortality/morbidity rates. Ex. TB, flu, rabies, SARS, and MERS

75
Q

What are CHN roles in disasters?

A

Preventing disasters:
- Risk assessment
Preparing for disasters:
- disaster planning; personal prep; assessing for risk factors and disaster history.
- Establishing authority, communication, and transportation
- Mobilizing, warning, and evacuating
- Drills
- Locate supplies
- Prevention
Respond to disasters:
- Rescue
- Triage immediate treatment and support
- Care of bodies; family notification
Supporting recovery:
- Long-term treatment and support
- Need for self-care (critical incident stress debriefing)

76
Q

What are benefits of breastfeeding?

A
  • Convenient
  • Cost
  • Nutrition
  • Immunity/Antibody
  • Fewer digestive issues
  • Promotes growth
  • Promotes bonding
  • Long term health for baby
  • Promotes uterine contraction
  • Weight loss for momma
  • Decrease rates of breast and ovarian cancers for mom
77
Q

What are breastfeeding reccomendations?

A
  • Exclusively breastfeeding for the first 6 months and then continued for at least a year
78
Q

What are barriers to breastfeedings?

A

-Lack of knowledge or experience of how best to support mothers and babies
-Not enough opportunities to communicate with other breastfeeding mothers
-Lack of up-to-date instruction and information from health care professionals
-Non-supportive hospital practices
-Lack of work place accommodation
- These are just general ones, but there could be more

79
Q

What are risk factors for SIDS?

A
  • Side/Stomach sleeping
  • Exposure to cigarette smoke
  • Premature birth
  • Co-sleeping
  • Having a sibling who has died of SIDS
  • Bedding in crib
80
Q

What is asthma?

A
  • 13% of children <18 diagnosed
  • One of the top reasons for children being hospitalized
  • Triggers: overcrowded conditions, air pollution, allergens, cigarette smoke, infections, stress, exercise, weather changes
81
Q

What are s/s of measles?

A

S/S: fever, cough, runny nose, red, watery eyes, rash, and Koplik spots
- Koplik spots may appear 2-3 days after symptoms onset
- Vaccine available
- Airborne transmission

82
Q

What are s/s of mumps?

A

S/S: fever, headache, muscle aches, tiredness, loss of appetite, swollen and tender salivary glands under the ears on one or both sides (parotitis) results in puffy cheeks
- Vaccine available - May begin 16-18 days after infected.
- Spread via saliva or mucous

83
Q

What is Pertussis (Whooping cough)?

A

S/S: runny nose, low-grade fever, mild occasional cough, apnea (in babies), cough, vomiting, exhaustion
- Vaccine available. Booster every 10 years
- Caused by Bordetella pertussis. Tread with abx.
- Droplet transmission

84
Q

What are 4 myths about older adults?

A

Myth of senility
Myth of rocking chair
Myth of homogeneity
Myth of inability

85
Q

What are common misconceptions about older adults?

A

*Inability to live independently
*Chronologic age as a determinant of oldness
*Most with diminished intellectual capacity or senility
*All content and serene
*Inability to be productive
*Resistant to change
*No social security on retirement

86
Q

What are barriers to health care of rural residents?

A
  • Transportation
  • Distance from hospitals and services
  • Limited choices of providers
  • Weather
87
Q

What are Major Health Problems of Rural Residents?

A
  • CV disease
  • Diabetes
  • COPD
88
Q

What are Occupational health concerns of rural and migrant works?

A
  • Tractor accidents/rollovers
  • Machine and Equipment Accidents
  • Heat Stroke
  • Animal Injuries
89
Q

What are some challenges of home health?

A
  • Infection control: cleanliness of home, running water, transmission of infections, hand hygiene
  • Medication safety: appropriateness, poly pharmacy, are clients taking correctly?
  • Falls: exercise, check vision, clear paths for walking, handrails, remove or secure rugs, non-slip mates for showers, lighting, shoes
  • Nurse safety: dangerous neighborhoods, violence, theft, travel
90
Q

How can we reduce falls in the home?

A

exercise,
check vision,
clear paths for walking,
handrails,
remove or secure rugs,
non-slip mates for showers,
lighting, shoes

91
Q

What vaccines do you get at birth?

A

HepB only. 3 dose series with first dose given at hospital

92
Q

What vaccines do you get at 2 months?

DIHHPeR

A

DIHHPeR
- Dtap
- IPV
- Hep B
- Hib
- PCV-13
- Rotavirus

93
Q

What vaccines do you get at 4 months?

DIHPeR

A

DIHPeR
- Dtap
- IPV
- Hib
- PCV-13
- Rotavirus

94
Q

What vaccines do you get at 6 months?

DIHHPeR

A

DIHHPeR
- Dtap
- IPV
- Heb B
- Hib
- PCV-13
- Rotavirus
- Can begin giving flu if appropriate

95
Q

What vaccines do you get at 12-15?

A

Hello Harry V. Potter MD
- Hib
- Hep A
- Varicella
- PCV-13
- MMR
- Dtap

96
Q

What vaccines do you get at 4-6?

I Did My Vaccines

A

I Did My Vaccines
- IPV
- DTap
- MMR
- Varicella

97
Q

What vaccines do you get at 11-12 years

A

Tweens Have Money
- TDAP
- HPV (x3 doses)
- Meningococcal

98
Q

What vaccines do adults get?

IT

A

IT
- Influenza yearly
- TDap every 10 years

99
Q

What Vaccines do you get at 60-65 years?

HIP

A

HIP
- Herpes Zoster (Shingles)
- Influence Yearly
- Pneumococcal

100
Q

What are s/s of physical child abuse?

A
  • Unexplained injuries like bruises, bite marks, abrasions, lacerations, head or internal injuries, or fractures.
  • Bruising from defensive injuries to forearms
  • Burns from cigarettes, ropes, or hot water/grid
  • Traumatic alopecia with potential hematoma area and is tender to touch
  • Trauma to ear
  • Appears depressed, withdrawn, anxious, or aggressive
  • Appears scared of parent/does not want to go home
101
Q

s/s of sexual child abuse?

A
  • STIs
  • Trauma to perineal area, blood may be seen on sheets or undergarments
  • Discharge from genital or anus
  • Pain during bowel movement or urination
102
Q

What are the main types of child abuse?

A
  • Child neglect
  • Physical abuse
  • Sexual abuse
  • Sexual exploitation
  • Emotional abuse
103
Q

s/s of shaken baby syndrome?

A

Bilateral retinal hemorrhages,
subdural or subarachnoid hematomas, no other external signs of abuse, possible breathing difficulties,
seizures, dilated pupils, lethargy, and unconsciousness

104
Q

List the cycle of violence?

A

Honeymoon phase, , tension building, acute explosion

105
Q

Describe the opioid epidemic

A
  • Drugs derived from or mimic substances in the opium poppy plant
  • Ex. oxycodone, morphine, hydrocodone, fentanyl, codeine, tramadol, and heroine
  • Used for pain control, treatment of cough
  • May be administered orally, injected, transdermal, sublingual, IV
  • May cause a euphoria resulting in addiction
106
Q

How do you treat the opioid crisis?

A
  • Medication assisted treatment (MAT)- buprenorphine, extended release naltrexone
  • Behavioral counseling
  • Naloxone (Narcan)
107
Q

What are some characteristics of vulnerable populations?

A
  • Heightened risk of adverse health outcomes
  • Higher mortality rates
  • Less access to health care; disparities in quality of care
  • Uninsured or underinsured
  • Lower life expectancy
  • Overall diminished quality of life
108
Q

What are root causes of vulnerability?

A
  • Socioeconomic status/poverty
  • Insurance coverage: uninsured and underinsured
  • Race and ethnicity
109
Q

What causes hearing loss?

A

Occupational noise exposure
Attending loud events without ear protection
Firearms
Old age
Impairments from birth

110
Q

What is arthritis?

A

Sever pain in the joints caused by inflammation.

111
Q

What are s/s of arthritis?

A

Pain
Swelling
Joint stiffness
Joint weakness
Reduced range of motion

112
Q

How can you manage arthritis pain?

A

Surgery
Physical therapy
Pain medication

113
Q

How does arthritis effect individuals lives?

A

Leading cause of disability
Increase and individual’s risk for chronic health conditions

114
Q

What are brief interventions for adolescent substance abuse?

A

When primary care physicians and/or other trained health professionals have one or two behavioral therapy sessions with an adolescent who is using substances?

115
Q

Describe a brief intervention for adolescents who use substances

A

Uses a motivation-building approach to encourage the client to discontinue use of substances
Involves education client on the potential results of substance use disorder

116
Q

What are some barriers to colorectal screenings for African American men?

A

Iimited access to healthcare
Poor education about importance
Embarrassment
Fear of negative results

117
Q

What does HIPPA do?

A

Protect patient information privacy

118
Q

What are some barriers to breast and cervical cancer screening experienced by immigrant women?

A

Transportation
Language differences
Lack of insurance
Religion
Gender roles
culture
Health issues
socioeconomic issues