NU 301 Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is intersectionality?

A

Belonging simultaneously to multiple social groups

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2
Q

What can be some determinants of health disparities?

A

Race and ethnicity, gender, disability status or special health needs, geographic location.

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3
Q

What is a health disparity?

A

A particular type of health difference that is closely linked with social, economic, and/or environmental disadvantage.

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4
Q

Define some social determinants of health

A

Conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age.

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5
Q

What is cultural competence?

A

Meaningful and useful strategies based on knowledge of the cultural heritage, beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors of those to whom they render care.

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6
Q
  1. Health disparities are unequal burdens of disease morbidity and mortality rates experienced by racial and ethnic groups. These disparities are often exacerbated by:
    A. Bias
    B. Stereotyping
    C. Prejudice
    D. All of the above.
A

D. All of the above

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7
Q

What are the goals of a cultural encounter?

A

Communicate in a way that generates a wide variety of responses.
Interact to validate, refine, or modify existing values, beliefs, and practices about a cultural group.

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8
Q

What is cultural desire?

A

Having the motivation to engage patients so that you understand them from a cultural perspective

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9
Q

List the LEARN model in order

A

Listen with sympathy and understanding to the patient’s perception of the problem
Explain your perceptions of the problem
Acknowledge and discuss the differences and similarities
Recommend treatment
Negotiate agreement

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10
Q

What is health literacy?

A

The degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information.

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11
Q

What does a health literacy score of 0 indicate?

A

Third grade and below education.
Will need repeated oral instructions,
Materials composed primarily off illustrations/audio/video tapes
Will not be able to read most low-literacy

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12
Q

What does a health literacy score of 1-3 indicate?

A

4th-6th grade
Will need low-literacy materials
May not be able to read prescriptions

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13
Q

What does a health literacy score of 4-6 indicate?

A

7th to 8th grade
Will struggle with most patient education materials
Will not be offended by low-literacy materials.

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14
Q

What does a health literacy score of 7 indicate?

A

High school
Will be able to read most patient education materials

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15
Q

What does the teach-back method do?

A

Confirms patient understands teaching

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16
Q

Changing what can guide our thinking?

A

Demographics

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17
Q

What is culturally congruent care?

A

Emphasizes the need to provide care based on an individual’s cultural beliefs, values, and practices

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18
Q

What is implicit bias?

A

We are aware the bias is present

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19
Q

What is unconscious bias

A

Bias we are unaware of and that happens outside of our control

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20
Q

What is cultural awareness?

A

A self-examination of one’s biases toward other cultures and in-depth exploration of one’s own culture and backgroun

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21
Q

What is cultural knowledge

A

The process in which a health care professional seeks and obtains a sound educational base about culturally diverse groups. They most focus on three specific issues: health-related beliefs and cultural values, care practices, and disease incidence and prevalence.

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22
Q

What is cultural skill?

A

The ability to conduct a cultural assessment of a patient to collect relevant cultural data about a patient’s presenting problem, as well as accurately conducting a culturally based physical assessment.

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23
Q

What is a cultural encounter

A

A process that encourages health care professional to directly engage in face-to-face cultural interactions and other types of encounters with patients from culturally diverse backgrounds. Main goal is to generate a wide variety of responses and modify beliefs about a group to prevent stereotyping

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24
Q

What are the 12 domains of culture?

A

Overview, inhabited localities (country of origin and current residence
- Communication
- Family roles and organization
- Workforce issues
- Bicultural ecology
- High-risk behaviors
- Nutrition
- Pregnancy and childbearing practices
- Death rituals
- Spirituality
- Health care practices
- Health care providers

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25
Q

What is plain language?

A

Makes any info you provide easy to read, understand, and use. Is still grammatically correct language that uses complete sentence structure and accurate word usage.

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26
Q

How to approach a cultural nursing history and physical assessment

A

Developing a cultural or physical history depends on your knowledge of a patient and their culture. An example physically would be if a patient you know has asthma, you may want to focus more on the lungs than a patient that comes in for a standard check-up. Culturally, if you have an Asian patient who participates in cupping, then you know that the marking/bruising on their skin are not a sign of abuse.

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27
Q

How do you work with an interpreter?

A

You must notify the patient verbally and in writing of their rights to receive the language assistance. Interpreters must be competent. Start with first person “I” statements, talking directly to the patient. Have interpreter sit next to or slightly behind the patient. Look at the patient. Avoid using things like jargon, jokes, etc. Ask patient for feedback and clarification. Observe nonverbal and verbal behaviors. Thank both the patient and interpreter at the end.

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28
Q

What are s/s of hyperkalemia?

My Cheese Pizza

A

-Muscle twitches
Cramps
Paresthesia

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29
Q

High potassium affects the what and what?

A

Heart and muscle groups

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30
Q

s/s of hypokalemia? (A SIC WALT)

A

-alkalosis
-shallow respirations
- irritability
- confusion and drowsiness
- weakness and fatigue
- arrhythmias (tachycardia, irregular rhythm, and or bradycardia)
- lethargy
- thready pulse
- lower intestinal motility, nausea, vomiting, and ileus

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31
Q

S/s of hypocalcemia?

A

numbness to fingers and toes
- hyperactive reflexes
- dysrhythmias
- postive chvostek’s and trousseau’s signs
- s/s of tetany (give foods high in calcium and vitamin D)
- bleeding in gums and mucous membranes
- irritability at IV site

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32
Q

S/s of hypercalcemia?

A

nausea and vomiting
- constipation
- fatigue
- decreased deep tendon reflexes
- decreased level of consciousness
- cardiac arrest

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33
Q

S/s of hypomagnesemia

A

Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
- muscle cramps
- twitching
- dysphagia
- tachycardia (dysrythmias)
- hypertension

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34
Q

S/s of hypermagnesemia

A

Lethargy
- Hypoactive DTR’s
- Bradycardia
- Hypotension

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35
Q

Magnesium is a?

A

Smooth muscle relaxer (decreased DTR’s)

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36
Q

What do you collect in a patient’s history?

A
  • Linguistic competence
  • Provide language assistance resources
  • Inform all of the availability of language assistance
  • Ensure competence of those providing language assistance
  • Provide print/multimedia materials in local languages
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37
Q

What is plain language/what does it do?

A

Makes any info you provide easy to read, understand, and use. Is still grammatically correct language that uses complete sentence structure and accurate word usage.

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38
Q

You can check electrolyte values via?

A

CMP or complete metabolic profile

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39
Q

s/s of infiltration?

A

pallor, edema, cool to touch, damp dressing, slow IV rate

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40
Q

s/s of phlebitis?

A

edema, throbbing, redness, red line up arm, slowed rate. Treat by stopping infusion, elevating site, applying warm or cold compress, and restarting in different location

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41
Q

s/s of cellulitis?

A

pain, warmth, edema, induration, red streaking, chills. Treat by stopping infusion, elevating site, apply warm or cold compress, restart in different location, may need antibiotic

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42
Q

s/s of fluid overload?

A

distended neck veins, HTN, SOB, crackles, edema. Treat by raising HOB, monitoring vitals, and diuretics

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43
Q

How do you prevent IV complications?

A

monitor site

use pump

rotate site every 72 hrs

good infection control measures

Monitor I&O

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44
Q

What is peak concentration?

A

this is the highest serum level of a medication and usually occurs just before the last of the med is absorbed (30-60 minutes after administration).

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45
Q

What is trough concentration?

A

-the lowest amount of a drug detected in the serum. Occurs just prior to the time in which the medication is to be given again.

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46
Q

What are some general things to know about blood transfusion?

A
  • 2 nurses verify prior to admin
  • You always draw blood and check vitals prior
  • The patient has a blood band
  • You have 30 min to start the transfusion and 4 hours to complete
  • A lot of patients report a spike in temp
  • 18 gauge is best size angio for blood
  • First 15 min is the highest rxn time (usually start at 75 ml/hr)
  • Biohazard bag for blood bag; angio goes to garbage
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47
Q

When calculating intake and output, what is the formula we need to focus on?

A

volume/time

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48
Q

If there is a saline lock instead of a continuous running IV, what would you need to add in your calculations?

A

The flushes; you would flush before and after applying medications

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49
Q

Minimum urine output expected of a patient?

A

30-60 ml/hr

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50
Q

Why are daily weights important for I and O?

A
  • indicator of fluid status
  • use same conditions
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51
Q

What is I and O?

A

24 hr I&O: compare I&O

Intake includes all liquids eaten, drunk, or received through IV

Output= urine, vomitus, gastric suction, wound drainage

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52
Q

What factors influence sleep?

A

-drugs and substances

-lifestyle

-usual sleep patterns

-emotional stress

-environment

-exercise and fatigue

-food and caloric intake

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53
Q

What physical illnesses influence sleep?

A

Respiratory disease

Heart disease, HTN

Nocturia

Restless Leg Syndrome (RLS)

GI disorders

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54
Q

What are some sleep disorders?

A

Insomnia

Sleep Apnea

Narcolepsy

Sleep Deprivation

Parasomnias

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55
Q

Name some ways to promote sleep

A

Environmental controls

Bedtime routines

Safety

Comfort

Activity before bed

Stress reduction

Bedtime snacks

Pharmacological approaches

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56
Q

What are some components to assessing pain?

A

Patient’s expression (pain is individualistic)

  • Physical exam
  • Characteristics of pain (timing, location, severity)
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57
Q

What are the different types of pain scales?

A

-Visual Analogue Scale (VAS)

-Numeric Rating Scale (NRS)

-Simple descriptor scale

-Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale

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58
Q

What are three types of non pharmacological pain management

A
  • Cutaneous stimulation
  • Immobility and rest
  • Cognitive-Behavioral Interventions
59
Q

Give examples of cutaneous stimulation non pharmacological pain management

A
  • Based on “gate control” theory
  • Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
  • Acupuncture
  • Acupressure
  • Massage
  • Heat and Cold (cold causes vasoconstriction to prevent edema and bleeding; heat promotes circulation)
  • Contralateral stimulation (stimulate skin opposite painful site)
60
Q

Give examples of cognitive-behavioral non pharmacological pain management

A

Distraction

  • Progressive muscle relaxation
  • Guided imagery
  • Hypnosis
  • Therapeutic touch
  • Humor
  • Journaling
61
Q

What are the side effects of narcotics?

A

-nausea/vomiting

-constipation

  • CNS depression
  • Respiratory depression
62
Q

What is the antidote for induced respiratory despression?

A

Naloxone (narcan)

63
Q

What is a PCA used for?

A
  • Allows patient to self-administer with minimal risk of overdose
  • Maintains a constant plasma level of analgesic
64
Q

What are characteristics of body fluids?

A

the fluid amount (volume), concentration (osmolality), composition (electrolyte concentration), and degree of acidity (pH).

65
Q

Why are body fluids important?

A

Fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balances within the body maintain the health and function of all body systems

66
Q

Name the electrolytes

A

K+, Ca2+, Mg+, Cl, and phosphate (Pi)

67
Q

How do you treat cellulitis?

A

: stop infusion; elevate site; warm or cold compress; restart in different location; may need ANTIBIOTIC

68
Q

How do you treat phlebitis?

A

stop infusion; elevate site; warm or cold compress; restart in different location

69
Q
  1. A senior student nurse delegates the task of intake and output to a new nursing assistant. The student will verify that the nursing assistant understands the task of I&O when the nursing assistant states,
    A. “I will record the amount of all voided urine.”
    B. “I will not count liquid stools as output.”
    C. “I will not record a café mocha as intake.”
    D. “I will notate perspiration and record it as a small or large amount.”
A

A. “I will record the amount of all voided urine.”

70
Q

Why is sleep important?

What abilities does it affect?

A

the ability to concentrate, make judgments, and participate in daily
activities decreases, and irritability increases

71
Q

What are the functions of sleep?

What happens during sleep?

A

A time of restoration, memory consolidation, and
preparation for the next period of wakefulness
 Restores biological processes
 Protein synthesis and cell division for the renewal of
tissues occurs
 Dreams

72
Q

When do dreams occur?

A

REM and NREM sleep

73
Q

What are dreams important for?

A

Important for learning, memory, and adaptation to stress

74
Q

During rounds on the night shift, you note that a patient stops breathing
for 1 to 2 minutes several times during the shift. This condition is known
as:
A. cataplexy.
B. insomnia.
C. narcolepsy.
D. sleep apnea

A

D. sleep apnea

75
Q

What does rest contribute to?

Different mental states

A

Mental relaxation
 Freedom from anxiety
 State of mental, physical, and spiritual activity

76
Q

A 4-year-old pediatric patient resists going to sleep. To assist this
patient, the best action to take would be:
A. adding a daytime nap.
B. allowing the child to sleep longer in the morning.
C. maintaining the child’s home sleep routine.
D. offering the child a bedtime snack.

A

C. maintaining the child’s home sleep routine.
Copyright © 2021, Elsevier Inc. All Rights Reserved.

77
Q
  1. A patient suffers from sleep pattern disturbance. To
    promote adequate sleep, the most important nursing
    intervention is:
    A. administering a sleep aid.
    B. synchronizing the medication, treatment, and vital signs
    schedule.
    C. encouraging the patient to exercise immediately before
    sleep.
    D. discussing with the patient the benefits of beginning a long
    -term nighttime medication regimen
A

B. synchronizing the medication, treatment, and vital signs
schedule.
Copyright © 2021, Elsevier Inc. All Rights Reserved.
14

78
Q

What would a sleep history look like?

Not just sleep related factors

A

Description of sleeping problems
 Usual sleep pattern
 Physical and psychological illness
 Current life events
 Emotional and mental status
 Bedtime routines
 Bedtime environment
 Behaviors of sleep deprivation

79
Q

What are some nursing diagnoses for sleep?

Not sleep disorders

A

Adequate Sleep
 Fatigue
 Impaired Sleep
 Reduced Fatigue
 Sleep Deprivation

80
Q

What are the normal sodium values?

A

Sodium- 136-145

81
Q

What are the normal potassium values?

A

Potassium- 3.5-5.0

82
Q

What are the normal chloride values?

A

Chloride- 98-106

83
Q

What are the normal magnesium values?

A

Magnesium- 1.3-2.1

84
Q

What are the normal calcium values?

A

9.0-10.5

85
Q

T or F, you can give potassium via IV push

A

False; you will kill them

86
Q

What is added to blood infusions as an anticoagulant?

A

Sodium Citrate

87
Q

What are blood infusions used to treat?

A

Anemia

88
Q

How many mL is 1 unit of RBCs?

A

250-300mL

89
Q

What is the fluid the RBCs are suspended in?

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

90
Q

How many mL is 1 unit of FFP?

A

150-300mL

91
Q

HOw many mL is 1 unit of platelets?

A

50mL

92
Q

How do we infuse platelets?

A

Free flow (no pump)

93
Q

What are platelet infusions used for?

A

Thrombocytopenia, emergent surgeries (with platelet inhibitors), massive transfusion protocol.

94
Q

What is albumin?

A

special protein in blood plasma responsible for blood’s viscosity

95
Q

What is albumin used for?

A

Volume expander- pull fluid from extravascular space to intravascular space
Treats low protein

96
Q

What is cryoprecipitate (cryo)?

A

precipritate collected from centrifuged plasma

97
Q

What is cryoprecipitate used for?

A

Anticoagulant reversal, r-tPa reversal, and when any of cryo’s components are lacking
Typically used to stop bleeding

98
Q

What is cryoprecipitate composed of?

A

fibrinogen, factor VIII, vWF, factor XIII, and fibronectin

99
Q

What is prothomben concentrat complex?

A

Further processed plasma.
There are 3 and 4 factor variants

100
Q

What is prothrombin concentrate complex used for?

A

Vitamin K deficiency (coumadin reversal)
Post surgical trauma
massive transfusions

101
Q

What are crystalloids?

A

Water + electrolytes
Water soluble molecules

102
Q

What are colloids?

A

Large insoluble molecules

103
Q

Give some traits for crystalloids?

A

Simple
Cost-effective
Different combinations
no immune response

104
Q

What are traits of colloids?

A

Higher osmotic pressure
expensive

105
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

Same osmolarity

106
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

Less osmotic concentration

107
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

Higher osmotic cocnentration

108
Q

What electrolytes are in 0.9% normal saline?

A

Sodium and Chloride
(can lead to hypercholoremic metabolic acidosis)

109
Q

What is in Lactated Ringers?

A

Sodium, Chloride, Potassium, Calcium, Lac

110
Q

What is in plasmolyte?

A

Sodium, Chloride, Potassium, Magnesium, Acet, Gluconate

111
Q

What is 3% normal saline used for?

A

Treatment of cerebral edema, treats severe symptomatic hyponatremia

112
Q

What is 0.45% normal saline used for?

A

Treats hypernatremia, replace free water deficit

113
Q

What can 0.45% normal saline result in via rapid administration?

A

Lysis of RBC, deplete intravascular volume= CV collapse

114
Q

What are the isotonic IV fluids?

A

Plasmolyte, Lactated Ringers, and 0.9% normal saline.

115
Q

What is the hypertonic IV fluid?

A

3% normal saline

116
Q

What is the hypotonic IV fluid?

A

0.45% normal saline

117
Q

What happens as 5% Dextrose-Water is metabolized?

A

The dextrose is metabolized and it becomes free water. (isotonic)

118
Q

What do dextrose solutions do?

A

Add calories (should not replace normal nutrition)

119
Q

What happens when the dextrose from 5% dextrose-0.45% normal saline is metabolized?

A

0.45% normal saline is left (becomes hypotonic)

120
Q

What happens when the dextrose from 5% dextrose-normal saline is metabolized?

A

Normal saline is left (becomes isotonic)

121
Q

What happens when the dextrose from 5% dextrose-lactated ringers is metabolized?

A

lactacted ringers is left (isotonic solution)

122
Q

What can albumin be used for? (IV fluid)

A

Retain renal function
Adjunct to other fluids for hypovolemia
Replace low levels

123
Q

Normal C02 range in the body

A

22-30mEq

124
Q

normal HCO3 range in the body

A

21-28

125
Q

What is the normal phosphate range in the body?

A

3.0-4.5

126
Q

What is the normal pH range in the body?

A

7.35-7.45

127
Q

What is the normal PaCO2 range in the body?

A

35-45mm Hg

128
Q

What is the normal PaO2 range in the body?

A

80-100mm Hg

129
Q

What is the normal 02 sat in the body?

A

95%-100%

130
Q

What are sources of potassium?

A

fruits,potatoes,molasses,instant coffee

131
Q

What are sources of calcium?

A

Dairy products, canned fish, broccoli, oranges

132
Q

What are sources of magnesium?

A

dark green leafy veggies, whole grains

133
Q

What are sources of phosphates?

A

milk, processed foods

134
Q

During rounds on the night shift, you note that a patient stops breathing for 1 to 2 minutes several times during the shift. This condition is known as:
A. Cataplexy
B. Insomnia
C. Narcolepsy
D. Sleep apnea.

A

D. Sleep Apnea

135
Q

A 4-year old pediatric patient resists going to sleep. To assist this patient, the best action to take would be:
A. Adding a daytime nap.
B. Allowing the child to sleep longer in the morning.
C. Maintaining the child’s home sleep routine.
D. Offering the child a bedtime snack.

A

C. Maintaining the child’s home sleep routine.

136
Q

When a smiling and cooperative patient complains of discomfort, nurses caring for this patient often harbor misconceptions about the patient’s pain. Which of the following is true?
A. Chronic pain is psychological in nature
B. Patients are the best judges of their pain.
C. Regular use of narcotic analgesics leads to drug addiction.
D. Amount of pain is reflective of actual tissue damage.

A

B. Patients are the best judges of their pain.

137
Q

A patient has just undergone an appendectomy. When discussing with the patient several pain-relief interventions, the most appropriate recommendation would be:
A. adjunctive therapy
B. Nonopioids
C. NSAIDS
D. PCA pain management

A

D. PCA pain management.

138
Q

A postoperative patient is using PCA. You will evaluate the effectiveness of the medication when
A. You compare assessed pain w/baseline pain
B. Body language in incongruent with reports of pain relief
C. Family members report that pain has subsided
D. Vital signs have returned to baseline

A

A. You compare assessed pain w/baseline pain.

139
Q

What is acute/transient pain?

A

Protective, identifiable, short duration, limited emotional response

140
Q

What is chronic/persistent non-cancer pain?

A

Not protective, has no purpose, may or may not have cause

141
Q

What is chronic episodic pain?

A

Occurs sporadically over an extended duration

142
Q

What is cancerous pain?

A

Can be acute or chronic

143
Q

What is idiopathic pain?

A

Chronic pain without identifiable physical or psychological cause