NTR Flashcards

1
Q

Waiter’s Tip

A

Erb Palsy- Upper Trunk c5/c6 injury

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2
Q

Total Claw Hand

A

Klumpke Palse [Lower trunk injury c8//t1]

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3
Q

Winged Scapula

A

Lesion of long thoracic nerve [c5,c6,c7]- serratus anterior

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4
Q

Flattened Deltoid, loss of arm abduction pass 15 degrees and loss of sensation over deltoid muscle plus loss of sensation over lateral arm

A

Axillary nerve injury - Surgical neck fracture

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5
Q

Wrist drop

A

Fracture of midshaft of humerus/ Radial nerve lesion

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6
Q

Ape hand or Pope’s Blessing

A

Supracondylar fracture of humerus/ Median nerve lesion

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7
Q

Ulnar Claw on EXTENSION

A

Ulnar never lesion [c8-t1]

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8
Q

Ape hand/ “Can’t abduct thumb”

A

Recurrent branch of median nerve [c5-t1]/ superficial laceration of palm

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9
Q

Femoral Neck Fracture, Distal Radial [Colles fracture], increased bone resorption

A

Due to low estrogen/ TYPE 1 postmenopausal Osteoporosis

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10
Q

Rx: Bisphosphonates, PTH, SERMs, Denosumab [RANK L monoclonal antibody]

A

Type 2 Oteoporosis

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11
Q

Normal Calcium, Phosphate, ALP and PTH in serum but trabecular/brittle bones

A

Osteoporosis

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12
Q

Normal Calcium [or maybe a little low if severe], Phosphate, ALP and PTH in serum but thick/easily fractured bones

A

OsteopeTROsis

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13
Q

Normal Calcium, Phosphate and PTH… but high ALP

A

Paget Disease

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14
Q

Low Calcium, Low Phosphate

High PTH and High ALP

A

Osteomalacia/Rickets

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15
Q

“brown tumors” due to fibrous replacement of bone, subperiosteal thinning

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

Always high PTH, always high ALP

If Primary hyperPTH, then high calcium and low phosphate

If Secondary hyper PTH then low Calcium and high phosphate

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16
Q

Soap bubble knee on x-ray w/ multinucleated giant cells

A

GIant cell benign tumor of epiphyseal plate

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17
Q

Mature bone mass with cartilaginous cap

A

Osteochondroma

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18
Q

Bone mass in metaphysis of long bones

A

Osteosarcoma [malignant]

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19
Q

t[11, 22] bone mass in diaphysis of long bones, pelvis, scapula and ribs + onion skin appearance in bone/ anaplastic small BLUE CELL malignant

A

Ewing Sarcoma

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20
Q

Glistening mass within the medullary cavity of the bone

A

Chondrosarcoma

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21
Q

Pain in weight bearing areas at the end of the day

+improves with rest

A

Osteoarthritis

  • mechanical destruction of articular cartilage
  • In Joint: Eburnation [polished ivory like appearance of bone], DIP and PIP only [no MCP]
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22
Q

Morning stiffness that improves with use + systemic sx: fever, fatigue, pleuritis and pericarditis]

A

Rhuematoid arthritis

  • autoimmune destruction of synovial joints [cytokine mediated] 3 and 4 HSN
  • In Joint: PANNUS formation - NO DIP involvement

ULNAR deviation of fingers

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23
Q

Decreased tear production + corneal damage, Decreased saliva production, Bilateral Parotid Gland enlargment

+ arthritis

A

Sjorgren syndrome
-autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands

Other issues: dental caries [no saliva], MALT lymphoma [if unilateral parotid gland enlargement]

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24
Q

How to alcohol make Gout worse?

A

Alcohol metabolities compete for same excretion sites in kidney as uric acid; causing lowered uric acid secretion and subsequent buildup in blood

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25
Q

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals w/in a joint

A

Pseudogout

Weakly positively birefringement [blue when parallel to light=— Gout was yellow]

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26
Q

Synovitis, Tenosynovitis and Dermatitis in sexually promiscuous person

A

Gonococcal arthritis [STD that presents as migratory arthritis with an ASYMMETRIC PATTERN] `

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27
Q

IgM that is an anti IgG antibody

+ anti cycle citrullinated peptide antibody [most specific to this Dx]

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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28
Q

B27- GROWN A “P.A.I.R.” !

A

P= Psoriatic arthritic [Dactilitis/ Sausage fingers- “pencil in cup” deformity on x-ray]

A= Ankylosing spondylitis ]- stiff spine due to fusion of joints + uveitis and AORTIC REGURGITATION “Bamboo spine]

I= Inflmmatory bowl dz: Crohns and UC can be linked to Ankylosing spondylitis or peripheral arthritis

R= Reiter’s Syndrome= Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb no tree! <– post GI infection from Shigella, Salmonella, Yersinia or Camplobacter or post CHYLYMIDIA infection

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29
Q

Wart like vegetations on BOTH SIDES of valve

A

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis linked to LUPUS!!!! [the vegetations do a LOOP around the valves/ attack both sides]

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30
Q

Widespread, noncasesating granulomas, elevated serum ACE levels
+ bilateral hilar adenopathy
+ Schaumann and Asteroid Bodies
+Uveitis
+HYPERcalcemia [due to increases alpha hydroxylase in kidney mediated by vita D activation in the macrophages]

A

Sarcoidosis

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31
Q

Increased ESR, Increase C-reactive protein, but normal CK [No muscle weakness!]

A

Polymyalgia Rheumatica linked to temporal giant cell arteririts

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32
Q

Widespread musculoskeletal pain in a younger woman [under 50] that’s linked to stiffness, paresthesias, poor sleep and fatigue

A

Fibromyalgia

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33
Q

“Shawl and Face” rash + Gottron papules [nodules in finger joints]

Labs: Increased CK, ANA, anti-Go, anti-SRP and anti-Mi-2

A

Dermatomyositis [perimysial inflammation and atrophy with CD4+ T cells] <– vs. Polymyositis [no cutaneous involvement only progressive muscle weakness characterized by endomysial inflammation with CD 8+ T cells]

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34
Q

AutoAbs to postsynaptic Ach receptor

“ptosis, diplopia, weakness that WORSENS with use”
*specific eye involvement!

A

Myasthenia Gravis

associated with THYMOMA/ Thymic hyperplasia

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35
Q

Reversal of symptoms with AChEsterase Inibitor administration

A

Myastenia Gravis

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36
Q

AutoAns to PRESYNPATIC Calcium chanell leading to decreased Ach release
+Muscle weakness and AUTONOMIC symptoms [like dry mouth and impotence] that IMPROVES WITH USE

A

links to SMALL CELL lung cancer [can ectopically release the autoantibodies to the presnaptic calcium channel]

  • Lambert Eaton Syndrome [minimal to NO effect with AchEinhibitor administration]
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37
Q

Anti-Scl 70/ Anti DNA topoisomerase I antibody

A

Systemic Scleorderma: puffy and taut skin with ABSENCE OF WRINKLES [sclerosis of PULMONARY system= COD]

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38
Q

Anti centromere antibody

A
Limited Scleroderma [limited to skin involvement] + other CREST Manifestation:
Calcinosis
Raynoaud's
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
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39
Q

Hyperketaosis with retention of nuclei in stratum corneum

A

Psoriasis [+ increased thicness of stratum corneum]

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40
Q

“mask of prregnancy” or OCP use

- dark cheeks

A

Melasma

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41
Q

White person who can’t tan

A

Autoimmune destructino of mealnocytes [Vitiligo] <- obvious in darker skinned folks.

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42
Q

Superficial dermal edema & lymphatic channel dilation

A

Urticaria/Hives

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43
Q

Sudden apperance of multiple seborrheic keratoses [indicating an underlying malignancy of GI or lymphoid]

A

Leser Trelat Sign

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44
Q

Collections of neutrophils within the stratum corneum

A

Monro microabscesses

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45
Q

Honey colored crusting

A

Impetigo [Staph aureus or Strep Pyogenes]

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46
Q

Crepitus from methane/CO2 production + bullae and purple skin

A

“Flesh eating bacteria”= Necrotizing Fascitis from anaerobic bacteria or Strep pyogenes

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47
Q

Generalized red rash with sloughing of the UPPER layers of the epidermis that heals completely seen in newborns/children

A

Staph Scaled Skin Syndrome [exototoxin destroy keratinocytes attachments in the stratum granulosum only]

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48
Q

White painless plaques on tongue that can NOT be scraped off

A

EBV mediated hairy leukoplakia [vs. oral thrush/candidiasis]
*Link to HIV pts

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49
Q

Firm, pink paules with dimpled {milky fluid filled] center

A

Mollucsum contagiosum mediated by POX virus

POX Virus= enveloped, dsDNA virus

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50
Q

Positive Nikolsky sign [seapration fo epidermis upon manual stroking of skin] + IF revealing Abs around epidermal cells in a reticular [net like] pattern

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris

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51
Q

Tense blisteres that contain eosinophils; affects skin but SPARES ORAL MUCOSA, Negative Nikolsky sign

A

Bullous Pemphigoid

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52
Q

IgA deposits at tips of dermal papillae associated with celiac disease

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

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53
Q

Fever, Bulla formation, necrosis and sloughing of skin [high mortality rate like sloughing] - usually involves at least two mucosal membranes

A

Stevens Johnson syndrome [linked to adverse drug rxns]

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54
Q

What determines risk of SCC from Acitnic keratosis?

A

Risk ir proportional to degree of epithelial dysplasia

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55
Q

Painful, inflammatory lesions of subcutaneous fat usually on anterior shins

A

Erythema nodosum

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56
Q

Pruritic Purple Polygonal Planar Papules and Plaques with Wickham striae [reticular white lines] and Sawtooth infiltrate of lymphocytes at DERMAL EPIDERMAL JUNCTION

A

Lichen Planus [associated with Hepatitis C]

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57
Q

Herald Path on hair line that progresses to “Christmas tree” distribution on back

A

Pityriasis Rosea

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58
Q

Pin pearly nodules with palisading/ straight lined nuclei

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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59
Q

cup-shaped tumor with keratin debris in the center/dimple, grows rapidly but may regress spontaneously

A

Keratoacanthoma [a variant of Squamous cell carcinoma]

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60
Q

BRAF kinase mutation with positivity for S-100 tumor marker

A

Melanoma [risk of malignancy linked to depth of invasion]

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61
Q

Neutrophil chemotactia agent

A

LTB4

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62
Q

Inhibition of platelet aggregation and promotion of vasodilation

A

PGI2

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63
Q

Increased bleeding time via irreversible inhibtion of COX1 and 2 via covalent aceytlation but no effect of PT/PTT

A

Aspirin

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64
Q

Side effect: hepatic necrosis from depletion of glutathione and formation of toxic adducts in the liver

A

Acetaminophen

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65
Q

Side effect: Corrosive esophagitis and osteonecrosis of the jaw if that patient doesn’t take the drug w/ water and remain upright for at least 30 mins afterward…

A

AlenDRONATE [Bisphosphonate]

MOA: inhibition of osteoclast via hydroxyapatite binding in bone

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66
Q

Acute Gout Rx

A

NSAIDS [Naproxe or Indomethacin], Glucocorticoids or Colchicine [MOA: stabilizes tubulin to inhibit Microtubule polymerization and impair leukiocyte chemotaxis and degranulation— has GI side effects]

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67
Q

Rx for Chronic Gout and Tumor lysis syndrome [blocks the urate nephropathy]

+ increases concentrations of chemo agents: Azathioprine and 6-MP

A

Allopurinol [blocks Xanthine to Uric Acid conversion]

*Febuxosat also inhibits xanthine oxidase

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68
Q

Rx to knock out P-acnes for Rx of Acne Vulgaris

A

Benzoyl Peroxide

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69
Q

Significant herniation of cerebellar tonsils and vermis through foramen magnum with aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephalus

Px: lumbosacral myelomeningocele and paralysis below the defect

A

Chiari 2 [Arnold Chaiari malformation]

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70
Q

Headache, cerebellar signs + “cape like” bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in UE w/ preservation of fine touch sensation

[Most commonly affecting C8 to T1]

A

Syringomyelia [cystic cavity within spinal cord]

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71
Q

Physical support to CNS, repair, Potassium [K+] metabolism & removal of excess neurotransmitter, component of BBB, reactive gliosis in response to neural injury

+GFAP

A

Astrocyte [from neuroectoderm]

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72
Q

Decreased time constant and Increased length constant [directly]

A

MYELIN

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73
Q

Which viruses make use of RETROGRADE peripheral MOTOR nerves to attack CNS?

A

Polio
Rabies
Tetanus

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74
Q

Which viruses make use of RETROGRADE peripheral SENSORY nerves to attack CNS?

A

HSV

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75
Q

Slow unmyelinated fibers in all skin and some viscera for dull PAIN AND WARM TEMPERATURE

A

C fibers

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76
Q

Fast, myelinated fibers in all skin and some viscera for SHARP PAIN and cold temps

A

A delta fibers

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77
Q

large myelinated fibers that adapt quickly in hairless skin [palms and soles] for fine/light touch and proprioception

A

Meissner Corpuscles

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78
Q

Large myelinated fibers in deep skin layers, ligaments and jionts for VIBRATION and pressure

A

Pacinian corpuscles

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79
Q

Large myelinated fibers that adapt SLOWLY in basal skin layer and hair follicles for pressure, deep touch and proprioception

A

Merkel discs

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80
Q

Synthesized in Locus cerules

Up in anxiety and Down in Depression

A

NE

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81
Q

Synthesized in Ventral tegmentum and Substantia Nigra

Down in Parkinson and Depression
Up in Huntingtons

A

DOPAMINE

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82
Q

Synthesized in Raphe nucleus [pons, medulla and midbrain]

Up in PD
Down in anxiety and depressionq

A

5-HT/ SEROTONIN

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83
Q

Basal nucleus of Meynert

Up in PD
Down in AD and Huntingtons

A

Ach

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84
Q

Nucleus Accumbens

Down in anxiety
Down in Huntington’s

A

GABA

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85
Q

Hypothalmic nucleus that’s inhibited by LEPTIN and is destroyed, leads to ANOREXIA

A

Lateral Nucleus

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86
Q

Hypothalmic nucleus that is under SYMPATHETIC control and controls body HEATING

A

Posterior Nucleus

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87
Q

What drugs DECREASE REM Sleep?

A

Depressants [Alcohol, Benzo and Barbituates] <– these decrease delta wave sleep too

+ Norepi decreases REM sleep as well

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88
Q

Rx for bedwetting

A

Oral desmopression [ADH mimic] OR Imipramine

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89
Q

Rx for night terrors/sleepwalking [occurs during Stage N3 - delta, slow wave sleep]

A

Benzos

“It’s like anxiety sleep disorders”

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90
Q

Receives motor input from Basal ganglia and Cerebellum in order to modulate movement and send corrections to precentral gyrus/motor cortex

A

VL {ventral lateral} nucleus of the Thalamus

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91
Q

Disinhibition fo Subthalamic Nucleus via GPe leading to stimulation of GPi/SN to inhibit the thalamus and decrease motion

A

INDIRECT Basal Ganglia pathway [Dopamine inhibits this thereby producing movement]

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92
Q

Lewy Bodies

A

composed of alpha synuclein which are intracellular eosinophilic inclusions [PD]

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93
Q

Which nucleotide encodes polyglutamine leading to anticipation effect and onset of choreiform movements, aggression, depression and dementia?

A

CAG

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94
Q

Blepharospam [sustained eyelid twitch] is an example of what type of movement disorder?

A

Dystonia [sustained involuntary muscle contractions]

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95
Q

Rx for essential tremor: NOT ALCOHOL [which so many pts try} but…

A

Beta blockers or Primidone

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96
Q

Which virus is linked to Kluver Bucy syndrome and which part of the brain is affected?

A

HSV-1, bilateral amygdala

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97
Q

Spatial neglect syndrome

A

Lesion to right parietal-temporal cortex

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98
Q

Agraphia, Acalculia, Finger Agnosia and left-right disorientation

A

Left parietal Temporal cortex lesion [called Gerstmann Syndrome]

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99
Q

Reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness

A

Reticular Activating System lesion in the midbrain

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100
Q

Truncal ataxia, postural issues and dysarthria [difficulty speaking]

A

Cerebellar vermis lesion

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101
Q

Lesion to this structure cause eyes to look AWAY from the side of the lesion

A

Paramedian Pontine Reticular Formation lesion

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102
Q

Lesion to this structure causes eyes to look TOWARD the side of the lesion

A

Frontal eye fields lesion

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103
Q

Overly rapid correction fo hyponatremia

A

Central Pontine Myelinolysis [ “locked in syndrome”]

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104
Q

Damage to arcuate fasciculus

A

Conduction aphasia [Can’t repeat; fluent speech and intact comprehension though]

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105
Q

Aphasias with GREAT repetitions just other issues… [3]

A
  1. Trancortical motor: can’t produce
  2. Transcortical sensory: can’t understand; doesn’t make SENSE
  3. Mixed transcortical: all you’ve got is repetition
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106
Q

Therapeutic hyperventilation

A

To decrease CO2 and decrease itnracranial pressure in cases of acute cerebral edema [stroke, trauma] via decrease in cerebral perfusion by vasoconstriction

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107
Q

Lesion of PICA

A

Nucleus ambiguous effects: hoarseness and dysphagia & decreased gag reflex too

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108
Q

Lesion of AICA

A

Facial doop, supplies facial nucleus specifically

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109
Q

Injury to basilar artery

A

Locked in Syndrome

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110
Q

Berry Aneurysms associated with which conditions [3]

A

ADPKD, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome & Marfan’s

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111
Q

Previous stroke patient with intitial sensation fo numbness and tingling followed in weeks to months by allodynia [ordinarily painless stimuli cause pain} and abnormal sense of touch

A

Central post stroke pain syndrome linked to unresolved thalamic lesion

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112
Q

Complication of tonsillar herniation

A

Cardio pulmonary arrest [cerebellar tonsils thru foramen magnum that can compress brainstem]

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113
Q

Complication of subfalcine herniation

A

Compression of ACA leading to infarction

[cingulate gyrus thru falx cerebri

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114
Q

Complication of uncal herniation

A

Issues with structures in the tentorium cerebelli [CN 3, PCA and paramedian artery]

  • temporal lobe/uncus goes beneath the tentorium cerebelli
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115
Q

Subdermal hematoma [causing midline shift] , retinal hemorrhage & cerebral edema

A

Shaken Baby Syndrome/Child abuse

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116
Q

Risks associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Vasospasm [due to blood breakdown- must be treated with nimodipine]… and also risk of re-bleed [visible on CT]

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117
Q

Bright area on noncontrast CT post stroke

A

Hemorrhagic stroke- DO NOT give tPA!

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118
Q

Bright on MRI

A

Ischemic stroke

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119
Q

What’s in the cavernous sinus?

A

ICA, CN 3, 4, V1 and V2, 6

*6 most likely injured

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120
Q

From cavernous sinus, where does the venous blood go?

A

If Sup. petrosal sinus–> Transverse Sinus –> Sigmoid Sinus –> IJV

If Inf. petrosal sinus –> IJV [direct!]

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121
Q

Which minerals are HIGHER in the CSF in comparison to blood?

A

Chloride and Magnesium [everything else is lower in CSF- in NORMAL/ non-ill situations]

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122
Q

Which mineral is EQUAL concentration in CSF and blood?

A

Sodium

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123
Q

Urinary incontinence, ataxia and cognitive dysfunction “Wet, Wobbly and Wacky”

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus [ expansion of ventricles that distorts the fibers of the corona radiata ; issue is with the arachnoid villi, low absorption]

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124
Q

Normal CSF pressure but dilated ventricles

A

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo [relative increase in CSF/ventricle size due to atrophy of rest of the brain

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125
Q

“Floppy baby”- no honey though. Inherited degeneration of ventral horn/LMN

A

Werdnig-Hoffman disease leading to flaccid paralysis

-Auto Recessive inheritance

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126
Q

Combined UMN and LMN deficits with no sensory, cognitive or oculomotor deficitis - what’s the mutation in familial cases?

A

Superoxide dismutase 1/ ALS

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127
Q

Rx for ALS

A

Rilouzole [decreases presynpatic glutamate release]

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128
Q

Complete occlusion of Anterior spinal artery, what areas are affected? what areas are spared?

A

Affected: Corticospinal tract & Spinothalamic tract

Spared: Dorsal columns and Lissauer tract

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129
Q

Impaired sensation and proprioception and progressive sensory ataxia from degeneration/demyelination of dorsal columns and roots

A

Tabes dorsalis [Tertiary syphilis]; Charcot joints, shooting pain, ARGYLL ROBERTSON PUPILS, — absent DTRs and positive Romberg sign

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130
Q

demyelination fo dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts and spinocerebellar tracts

A

Subacute combined degeneration [Vit B12 or Vit E deficiency]

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131
Q

Virus causing destruction of cells in anterior horn of spinal cord leading to LMN sign PLUS signs of infection [malaise, headache, fever, nausea]

A

POLIOmyelitis [CSF shows increased WBCs and slight increase in protein but no change in glucose bc it’s viral] — polio replicates in oropharynx and small intestine

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132
Q

Staggering gait, frequent falling, nystagmus, pes cavus/caved in chest, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, kyphoscoliosis in childhood

A

Friedreich ataxia [GAA tri nuc repeat] on chromosome 9

; encodes frataxin [iron binding protein] that leads to impairment in mitochondrial functioning

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133
Q

2 ipsilateral sx and 1 contralateral sx [linked to spinal lesions]

A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome [hemisection of spinal cord]

  • Ispilateral: UMN signs below lesion, LMN at level of lesion
  • Contralateral: Pain and temp loss
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134
Q

Reflex: s3, s4

A

Anal wink

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135
Q

Reflex: C7

A

Triceps reflex/ Radial nerve

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136
Q

Reflex: L3/4

A

Patella/ Quadriceps/ Femoral Nerve

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137
Q

Reflex: S1/2

A

Achilles/ Gastrocnomes m/ Tibial nerve

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138
Q

CN that lie in the midline of the brain stem

A

CN 3, 6 and 12

[Motor= medial]

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139
Q

Paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze

A

Lesion in superior colliculi/ Parinaud Syndrome [Ex: a pinealoma]

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140
Q

Jaw Jerk reflex

A

V3- Masseter muscle control both sensory and motor component of the reflex

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141
Q

Cranial exit: Superior Orbital Fissure

A

CN 3, 4, V1, 6 + opthalmic vein and sympathetics

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142
Q

Cranial exit: Foramen Rotundum

A

V2

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143
Q

Cranial exit: Foramen Ovale

A

V3

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144
Q

Cranial Exit: Internal Auditory Meatus

A

CN 7 and 8

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145
Q

Cranial Exit: Jugular Foramen

A

CN 9, 10, 11

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146
Q

Opthalmoplegia and decreased corneal and maxillary sensation with NORMAL VISUAL ACUITY

A

Cavernous sinus syndrome

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147
Q

Jaw deviates toward side of lesion

A

CN 5 motor lesion [due to unopposed pterygoid muscle]

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148
Q

The thin and rigid cochlea located at the BASE picks up this type of sound

A

High frequency sound [high frequency is also what’s loss first!]

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149
Q

Contralateral paralysis fo LOWER FACE, forehead spared

A

UMN of facial nerve lesion

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150
Q

Ipsilateral paralysis of upper AND lower face

A

LMN of facial nerve lesion

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151
Q

Child with white pupil and trouble with visual tracking +/- tumors in eyes

A

Retinoblastoma [remember link to osteosarcoma]

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152
Q

Uveitis [inflammation of uvea/iris with sterile pus and redness] often linked to:

A

Systemic inflammatory disorders:

-sarcoid, rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile arthritis, TB, HLA-B27 issues, etc.

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153
Q

Retinal edema and necrosis leading to scar

A

Retinitis

[usually VIRAL cause- CMV [if AIDS patients], HSV or HZV]

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154
Q

Acute, painless monocular vision loss with cherry red spot at the fovea

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

*can link to Temporal arteritis

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155
Q

Retinal hemorrhage and edema

A

Retinal vein occlusion

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156
Q

Pt with DM with retinal damage due to chronic hyperglycemia

A

If proliferative; means chronic hypoxia lead to new blood vessel formation with resultant TRACTION on retina- must treat with anti-VEGF injections

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157
Q

Very painful, sudden vision loss, halos around lights, rock hard eye, frontal headaches

A

Acute closure glaucoma - so NOT give epinephrine because of it’s mydriatic effect

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158
Q

Painless, bilateral, opacification of lens paired with decrease in visual acuity

A

Cataracts

Causes:
-being old, smoking, alcohol, prolonged steroid use, galactosemia, GLACTOKINASE DEFICIENCY, DM [sorbitol accumulation], trauma, infection

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159
Q

Enlarged blind spot, elevated optic disc with blurred margins seen on fundoscopic exam

A

Papilledema

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160
Q

Eye looks down and out plus ptosis, pupillary dilation and loss of accommodation

A

CN 3 damage

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161
Q

Eye moves upward + head tilt toward side of the lesion [will try to compensate by tilting head in opposite direction]- problems going down the stairs

A

CN 4 damage

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162
Q

To test Inferior Oblique m

A

Have pt look up

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163
Q

Decreased bilateral pupillary constriction when light is shone in affected eye relative to unaffected eye

A

Marcus Gunn Pupil

Dx via “Swinging flashlight test”

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164
Q

Break between neurosensory layer [photoreceptor layer] and outermost pigmented epithelium [normally shield excess light]- most common in patients with high myopia and are often preceded by posterior vitreous detachment [flashes/floaters] with eventual monocular loss of vision [“curtain drawn down”

A

Retinal detachment

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165
Q

Lesion to the right temporal [more lateral radiations] of the MCA

A

Left upper quadrant anopia

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166
Q

Lesion to the right parietal [more medial radiations] of the MCA

A

Left lower quadrant anopia

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167
Q

PCA infarct [on right]

A

Left hemianopia with macular sparing

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168
Q

With Internuclear Opthalmoplegia, what part of motor vision is NORMAL?

A

Convergence

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169
Q

Ascending [motor] Paralysis, Loss of DTRs, Autonomic dysfunction, increased protein in CSF but normal WBC

A

Guillain-Barre

  • autoimmune disease linked to GI or respiratory infection with Camplobacter Jejuni or CMV
  • MOA= molecular mimicry/ type 4 HSN
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170
Q

What TWO anterior pituitary hormones are stimulated by TRH release from the hypothalamus?

A

TSH and Prolactin

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171
Q

HTN, Hypokalemia, Low DHT leading to ambigious genitalia in XY person and lack of secondary sexual development in XX person

A

17 alpha hydroylase deficiency

Low Cortisol, Low Androgen, High Aldosterone

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172
Q

HYPOtension, HYPERkalemia, Increased Renin, Increased 17 hydroxy progesterone

A

21 hydroxylase deficiency

Presents as salt wasting in infancy or precocious puberty in childhood [virilization in XX/girls]

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173
Q

Hypertension due to high 11 deoxycorticosterone, Virilization in XX person only

A

11 Beta Hydroxylase deficiency

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174
Q

Signaling pathway: cAMP [7]

A

“FLAT ChAMP”
FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, CRH, hCG, ADH [V2 receptor/ the one linked to antidiurectic effect!]

  • all of the basophilic hormones of the ant. pituitary
    + CRH, hCG and ADH
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175
Q

Signaling pathway: cGMP [2]

A

Vasodilators!

-ANP, NO [and EDGF]

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176
Q

Signaling pathway: IP3 [7]

A

“GOAT HAG”
GnRH, Oxytocin, ADH [V1 receptor], TRH
Histamine [H1], Ang II, Gastrin

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177
Q

Signaling pathway: Steroid receptor/ Nuclear

A

VETTT CAMP
Vit D, Estrogen, Testosterone, T3/T4
Cortisol, Aldosterone, Progesterone

*Adrenal gland hormons [aldosterone, cortisol, androgens] + thyroid + Vit D

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178
Q

Signaling pathway: Intrinsic Tyrosine Kinase- MAP Kinase

A

Insulin + Growth Factors!

IGF-1, FGF, PDGF, EGF

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179
Q

Signaling pathway: Receptor-assocaited tyrosine kinase- JAK/STAT pathway

A

Acidophiles: GH & Prolactin
+
Cytokines: IL2, IL 6, IL 8, IFN

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180
Q

Autosomal dominant unresponsiveness of kidney to PTH. Hypocalcemia, shortened 4th/5th digits, short stature

A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism/ Albright Osteodystrophy

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181
Q

Greater than 50% increase in urine osmolarity after water restriction test

A

Central Diabetes Insipidus

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182
Q

Large tongue, deep voice, coarse facial features, impaired glucose tolerance/insulin resistance

A

Acromegaly [cardiac failure= COD, Rx/ with octreotide]

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183
Q

Aldose reductase

A

Glucose to Sorbitol

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184
Q

Sorbitol dehydrogenase

A

Sorbitol to fructose

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185
Q

Cause: Excess fat breakdown and increase in ketogenesis from increase free fatty acids esp after stress/infection [due to increased insulin requirements- but person is diabetes/ type 1]

A

DKA [the ketogenesis from the increased fatty acids are turned into ketone bodies [beta hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate]

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186
Q

Kussmaul respirations, GI sx, psychosis/delirium, dehydration, fruity breath odor

A

DKA

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187
Q

Labs: Hyperglycemia, increases hydrogen ions, decreased bicarbonate [anion gap metabolic acidosis], hyperkalemia [but depleted intracellular potassium due to transcellular shift from decreased insulin]

A

DKA

Rx: IV fluids, IV insulin and potassium

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188
Q

Islet leukocytic infiltrate

A

Type 1 DM

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189
Q

Islet amyloid polypeptide deposits

A

Type 2 DM

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190
Q

Tumors of Parathyroid, Pituitary, Pancreas + usually Px with kidney stones and stomach ulcers

A

MEN 1

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191
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytomas and parathyroid hyperplasia

A

MEN 2 A [ret linked]

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192
Q

Meudllary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytomas and oral/intestinal ganglioneuromatosis/ mucosal neuromas + pt usually has marfanois habitus

A

MEN 2 B [ret linked]

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193
Q

Part of Gram negative bacteria that induces IL1 and TNF/ antigen

A

Lipid A of outer membrane/ O polysaccharide is the official antigen

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194
Q

Part of Gram positive bacteria that induces IL1 and TNF/antigen

A

Lipoteichoic acid of the cell wall/cell membrane

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195
Q

D glutamate capsule

A

Bacillus anthracis [the rest of the capsules are polysaccharide]

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196
Q

Contain sterols and have no cell wall

A

Mycoplasma

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197
Q

Contain mycolic acid and have high LIPID content

A

Mycobacteria

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198
Q

Bugs that do not stain well with gram stain

A
"These Microbes May Lack Real Color"
Treponema [too thin to see]
Mycobacteria [acid fast stain w carbolfuschin- detects lipid]
Mycoplasma [no cell wall]
Legionella [intracellular]
Rickettsia [intracellular]
Chylamydia [intracellular]
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199
Q

PAS stain

A

glycogen- T. Whipple Disease

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200
Q

Giemsa Stain

A

Ugh. “Certain Bugs Really Try My Patience”

Chylamidia
Borrelia
Rickettsiae
--
Plasmodium
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201
Q

Carbol fucsin stain/ ACID FAST- picks up lipid

A

Nocardia

Mycobacteria

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202
Q

India Ink

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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203
Q

Red stain on Mucicarmine stain

A

Cryptococcus neoformans [the red= thick polysaccharide capsule]

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204
Q

Silver Stain

A

H.Pylori Loves Funky Silver

H.Pylori
Legionella
Fungi

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205
Q

Thayer Martin Agar

A

VPN!!! Vancomycin, Polymyxin, Nystatin

Inhibits everything but Niesseria!

Vanc blocks positives
Polymyxin blocks all the negatives except Niersseria, ofcourse.

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206
Q

Tellurite Agar

A

Cornybac Diptheriae

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207
Q

Which bacteria has an agar that requires CHOLESTEROL in order for growth?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae {Eaton Agar}

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208
Q

Charcoal yeast agar with IRON and CYSTEINE

A

Legionella [remember… legion of soldiers by the charcoal fire with their iron hats. They aren’t sissies!]

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209
Q

Obligate Aerobes

A

“Nagging Pests MusBreathe”

Nocardia
Pseudomonas
Mycobacteria

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210
Q

Obligate Anaerobes

A

“Can’t Breathe Air”- y? they lack catalase/superoxide dismutase and are therefore susceptible to oxidative damage so they just avoid O2 completely!

Clostridium
Bacteriodes
Actinomyces

… AminO2glycosides are ineffective against these bc AminO2glycosides require oxygen to enter into bacterial cell

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211
Q

Antiphagocytic Capsules/Encapsulated bacteria

A

SHiNE SKiS

Salmonella
H. Influenzae [anti cap vaccine]
Neisseria [anti cap vaccine]
E.Coli

Strep Pneumo [anti cap vaccine]
Klebsiella Pneumo
Step Agalactie [GBS]

NO SPLEEN!?! uh-oh. You’re popped with these.

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212
Q

Catalase Positive Bugs

A

“CP SALES”

Candida
Pseudomonas

Staph Aureus
Aspergillus
Listeria
E.Coli
Serratia
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213
Q

Urease positive Bugs

A

“PS CHUNKS”

Proteus
Staph Epidermidis

Cryptococcus
H.Pylori
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella
Staph Sapro
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214
Q

Yellow Sulfar Granules

A

Actinomyces Israelii

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215
Q

Gold/Yellow Pigment

A

Staph Aureus

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216
Q

Greenish/Blueish Pigment

A

Pseudomonas

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217
Q

Virulence: Protein A- Binds Fc region of IgG to prevent opsonization and phagocytosis

A

Staph Aureus

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218
Q

Virulence: IgA Protease- cleaves IgA antibody in order to colonize respiratory mucosa

A

“SHiN”

Step Pneumo
H. Influenza
Neisseria

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219
Q

Virulence: M Protein- to prevent phagocytosis

A

Group A Strep [Strep pyogenes]

  • leads to molecular mimicry and Rheumatic Fever
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220
Q

Exotoxin MOA: Inactivate Elongation Factor [EF-2] via ADP ribosylation to inhibit protein synthesis

A

DIptheria Toxin [Coryne Diphtheriae] & Exotoxin A [Psuedomonas]

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221
Q

Exotoxin MOA: Inactivate 60 S host ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA to inhibit protein synthesis

A

Shiga toxin [Shigella] and Shiga-like toxin [EHEC]

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222
Q

Exotoxin MOA: Overactivate adenylate cyclase and wildly increase cAMP leading to secretion of Cl- in gut with water following

A

ETEC- Heat labile toxin
Bacillus Anthracis
Cholera Toxin

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223
Q

Exotoxin MOA: Overactivate guanylate cyclase and wildly increase cGMP leading to decreased reabsorption of NaCl/Water= increased fluid secretion

A

ETEC-Heat stable toxin

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224
Q

Exotoxin MOA: Overactivates adenylate cyclase by disabling Gi, impairing phagocytosis to permit survival of microbe

A

Pertussis toxin

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225
Q

Exotoxin MOA: Has proteases that cleave SNARE protein required for NT release

A

Tetanospasmin [impairs GABA and glycine]

Botulinum toxin [impairs Ach]

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226
Q

AB Toxins

A

Diptheria, Exotoxin A, Shiga + Shiga/Like, Heat Labile ETEC, Cholera toxin and Pertussis toxin

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227
Q

Exotoxin MOA: has a Phospholipase [called lecithinase] that degrades tissue and cell membranes

A

Alpha toxin [Clostridium perfringens]

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228
Q

Exotoxin MOA: has a protein that degrades cell membrane

A

Streptolysin O [Strep pyogenes/ Group A Strep]

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229
Q

Exotoxin MOA: Bring MHC 2 and TCR in proximity to outside of antigen binding site to cause overwhelming release of IFN gamma and IL2 leading to shock

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin [Staph Aureus]

Exotoxin A [encoded by lysogenic phage]- [Strep pyogenes]

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230
Q

Bacterial toxins that are encoded in lysogenic phage

A

ABCDE

shigA like toxin [EHEC]
Botulinum Toxin
Cholera Toxin
Diptheria Toxin
Erythrogenic toxin [the Exotoxin A of Strep pyogenes]
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231
Q

Ability to take up naked DNA

A

Transformation

SHiN
Strep Pneumo
H. Flu
Neisseria

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232
Q

Helps bacteria pass Ab resistance genes

A

Conjugation

Fertility Factor = plasmid transfer only
High frequency Recombination cell= plasmid & chromosomal transfer

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233
Q

Segment of DNA called a transposon that can be excised and reintegrated from one location to another

A

Transposition

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234
Q

Can synthesize dextrans from glucose

A

Strep Viridans [alpha hemolytic, optochin resistant, bile INsoluble Gram positive]

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235
Q

Red sandpaper rash and bright red/ “strawberry” tongue

A

Scarlet Fever

-Strep pyogenes

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236
Q

Colonizes the vagina and causes pneumo, meningitis and sepsis in babies- Should prophalactically give mom penicillin

CAMP FACTOR= expands hemolytic area of strep
Test will be positive for Hippurate

A

Strep Agalactiae [GBS]

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237
Q

Beta Hemolytic Bacteria

A

GAS and GBS
+ Staph Aureus
+ Listeria

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238
Q

MOA: actin rockets/ tumbiling motility allows them to escape capture by antibody- must kill using cell-mediated death

A

Listeria

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239
Q

Forms fibrin clot around itself promoting abscess formation

A

Staph {aureus}

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240
Q

Spore forming bacteria

A

Clostridium
Bacilis
Coxiella

*at end of stationary phase when nutrients are limited; highly resitant to heat and chemicaly [due to dipicolinic acid which allows the bacteria to pump all of the water out of cells]; must autoclave to kill spores [think surgical equipment]

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241
Q

Most specific test for TB

A

Interferon Gamma release assay [fewer false positives]

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242
Q

These bacteria have CORD FACTOR which inhibits macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-alpha

A

Mycobacteria

[they have sulfatides/surface glycoproteins, too, which inhibit phagolysosomal fusion]

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243
Q

Must give this along with Rx Gonorrhoeae in order to guard against possible Chlamydia co-infection

A

Azithromycin or Doxycycline

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244
Q

The vaccine for this bug contains tye B capsular polysacc [polyribosylribitol phosphate-PRP] conjugated to diptheria toxoid

A

H. Influ

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245
Q

E.Coli virulence: Fimbria

A

UTI

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246
Q

E.Coli virulence: K. Capsule

A

Pneumonia

Neonatal Meningitis [Px: fever, baby won’t eat]

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247
Q

E.Coli virulence: LPS Endotoxin

A

Septic Shock

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248
Q

Which of the E.Coli’s does NOT ferment sorbitol?

A

EHEC

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249
Q

Malignant otitis externa in a Pt with DM

A

Pseudomonas

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250
Q

Rose spots on belly + fever + this bug will be in the gallbladder of known carriers

A

Typhoid Fever
-Salmonella [Gram negative, non lactose fermenting, oxidase negative rod with flagella]

  • Hydrogen sulfide will be produced
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251
Q

RLQ pain that mimicks Appendicitis, usually proceeded by a sore throat and pt. reports some ingestion of pet feces contaminated milk or pork

A

Yersenia

[Gram negative rod- lactose and oxidase negative]

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252
Q

What does E. Coli produce that allows it to break down lactose into glucose and galactose?

A

Beta galactosidase

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253
Q

The gram negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of which antibiotics?

A

Penicillin G and Vancomycin

[some gram negatives are still susceptible to Ampicillin and amoxicillin though]

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254
Q

Ferments glucose AND maltose [vs it’s partner who just ferments glucose]

A

Neisseria Meningitidis

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255
Q

This bug is linked to air conditioning filters being dirty and labs show hyponatremia.

A

Legionella

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256
Q

Chronic psuedomonas caused pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients is associated with…

A

BIOFILM

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257
Q

Which of the E.Coli’s doesn’t produce a toxin?

A

EPEC-
causes pediatric diarrhea via adherence via pedastel; just flattens villi thereby decreasing reabsorption and causing increased secretion of fluids

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258
Q

Anemia, Thrombocytopenia and acute renal failure

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome [link to schistocytes]

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259
Q

Spirochetes

A

“BLT”

Borrelia
Leptospira
Treponema

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260
Q

Flu like symptoms plus jaundice, photophoia, red conjuctiva without exudate + Hx of contact with water in which an animal may have urinated in

A

Leptospira

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261
Q

Facial nerve palsy, Arthritis, Third degree heart block and Erythema migrans

A

Borrelia/ Lyme Dz

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262
Q

Non specific test for Treponema

A

VDRL/RPR

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263
Q

Specific test for Treponema

A

FTA-ABS

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264
Q

Saber shins, saddle nose, CN 8 deafness and Hutchinson teeth

A

Congenital Syphilis

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265
Q

VDRL

A

detects nonspecific antibody that reacts with cardiolipin [inner mito membrane/ NRG metabolism]

  • False positive: VDRL- Viruses, Drugs, Rheumatic Fever, Lupus/Leprosy
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266
Q

Cat scratch

A

Bartonella

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267
Q

Cat/Dog BITE

A

Pasturella

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268
Q

Treatment for all Rickettsial Diseases

A

Doxycycline

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269
Q

Rash starts at wrists/ankles and spreads to trunk, palms, soles

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever/ Rickettsia Rickettsii

[intracellular, can’t synthesize ATP]

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270
Q

Rash starts at the trunk and spreads outward but spares palms and soles

A

Rickettsia TYPHUS

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271
Q

Neonate with staccato cough and conjunctivitis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis types D-K

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272
Q

Pt comes in for insidious onset of headache, nonproductive cough and diffuse interstitial infiltrate. X-ray looks much worse than pt. High titer of cold agglutinins [IgM]

A

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae [walking Pneumo]- treat with azithromycin

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273
Q

Methylation of Histone

A

Mostly makes DNA Mute/ Inactive

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274
Q

Acetylation of Histone

A

Makes DNA active

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275
Q

Temporary base used in the synthesis of Pyrimidines

A

Orotic acid

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276
Q

Two metabolic pathways that use Carbamoyl Phosphate

A

De novo pyrimidine synthesis pathway

Urea Cycle

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277
Q

T cells low, but B cells normal + increased renal excretion of purines

A

PNP [Purine Nucleoside Phosphorylase] deficiency- less severe than ADA deficiency

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278
Q

Increase renal excretion of uric acid

A

Probenecid/Sulfinpyrazone

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279
Q

Excess of ATP and dATP leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis and decreases lymphocyte count

A

Adenosine deaminase deficiecy [SCIDS]

Increased Adenosime and dAdenosine leading to decreased RIbonuc Reductase & decreased T cells, B Cell, NK Cells +Underdeveloped Thymus

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280
Q

Excess uric acid production and de novo purin synthesis bc Amidotransferase no longer being inhibited [due to absent HGPRT enzyme]

Px: intellectual disability, self-mutilation, aggression, hyperuricemia, gout, dystonia

Rx: Allopurinol or Febuxostat

A

Lesch Nyhan Syndrome

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281
Q

Degradation of RNA primer via 5’ to 3’ exonuclease and replacement with DNA

A

DNA Poly I

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282
Q

3’ to 5’ Proofreading activity plus adds the nucleotides

A

DNA Poly III

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283
Q

RNA dependent DNA poly that adds DNA to 3’ end in order to avoid loss of genetic material with every duplication

A

Telomerase [increased levels in cancer cells]

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284
Q

Which DNA Repair Mechanism occurs in the G2 phase?

A

Mismatch repair [linked to HNPCC]

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285
Q

UV damage causes thymine dimers that are repaired by this

A

Nucleotide Excision Repair [G1]- Xeroderma Pigmentosum= deficiency

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286
Q

How do toxic mushrooms/ Amanita Phalloides/ alpha amanitin cause liver failure/severe hepatotocity?

A

inhibition of RNA polymerase II [mRNA]

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287
Q

This RNA Poly makes the type of RNA that’s made in the nucleolous

A

RNA Poly 1 [rRNA]

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288
Q

Protein factor sigma

A

Initiation of prok transcription

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289
Q

Protein factor Rho

A

Termination of prok transciption

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290
Q

“P bodies”

A

Police the mRNA- contain exonucleases, decapping enzymes and micro RNAs- also they’re able to store unused mRNA for future translation

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291
Q

Order of the “process” of taking initial transcript hnRNA to mRNA [occurs in the nucleus

A

Capping of 5’ end [7 meth cap] end

Splicing out of introns

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292
Q

Anti Smith antibodies

A

Antibodies to spliceosomal snRNPs [highly specific for SLE]

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293
Q

T Arm of tRNA molecule

A

Thymine, Pseudouridine and Cytosine

*Necessary for ribosome binding

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294
Q

D Arm of tRNA molecule

A

Dihydrouracil necessary for tRNA recognition by correct aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

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295
Q

How many high NRG bonds are used/ protein synthesis cycle?

A

FOUR

ATP- tRNA activation
GTP- initiation of protein synthesis/ translocation

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296
Q

Inhibition of protein synthesis via cutting 28 S rRNA during elongation phase

A

Shiga Toxin

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297
Q

Inhibition of Peptidyl transferase leading to inhibition of protein chain elongation

A

Chloramphenicol [antibiotic]

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298
Q

Inhibition of protein initiation complex [30S]

A

Aminoglycosides [gentamicin, neomycin, tobramysin]

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299
Q

Inhibition of translocation of ribsome during the elongation phase [50s]

A

Macrolides [- thromycin]

Clindamycin

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300
Q

Normal inhibition of G1 to S progression [and mutations in these genes result in unrestrained cell division]

A

p53

hypophosphorylated Rb

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301
Q

Permanent cells: Remain in G0 phase; regenerate from stem cells only

A

Neurons
Skeletal Muscle
Cardiac Muscle
RBCs

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302
Q

Stable cells: Enter G1 from G0 only when stimulate

A

Hepatocytes
Lymphocytes
Nephrons [?]

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303
Q

Labile cells: Never go to G0; divide rapidly with a short G1 phase. These cells are most affected by chemotherapy [although of the WBCs, lymphocytes are first affected…]

A
Bone Marrow cells
Gut epithelial cells
Skin cells
Hair follicles
Germ cells
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304
Q

Free ribosomes

A

Unattached to any membrane; site of synthesis of cytosolic and organellar proteins

Specifically:
cytosolic proteins and mitochondrial proteins are translated by free ribosomes

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305
Q

Steroid hormone synthesis, detoxification and lack surface ribosomes

+ sequesters and releases Ca2+

A

SER

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306
Q

Defect in phosphotransferase enzyme leading to inability to add mannose phosphate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes

A

I-Cell disease= proteins are secreted extracellularly rather than delivered to lysosomes

Px: Coarse facial features, clouded corneas, joint issues, high plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes

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307
Q

Signal Recognition Particle [SRP]

A

Protein in the cytosol that traffics proteins from the ribosome to the RER

If absent –> proteins accumulate in the cytosol

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308
Q

Trafficking proteins: COP 1

A

Retrograde golgi transport OR Golgi –> ER

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309
Q

Trafficking proteins: COP 2

A

Anterograde golgi transport OR ER –> Golgi

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310
Q

Membrane enclosed organelle, contains catalse, catabolism of very long chain fatty acids, branched chain fatty acids and amino acids

A

Peroxisome

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311
Q

Drugs that target microtubules

A

“Microtubules Get Constructured Very Poorly”

Mebendazole [anti helminithic]
Griseofulvin [anti-fungal]
Colchicine [anti-gout]
Vincristine/Vinblastine [anti-cancer]
Paclitaxel [anti-cancer]
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312
Q

Intermediate filament: Vimentin

A

Connective TIssue

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313
Q

Collagen Synthesis: Issue with hydroxylation

A

Vit C deficiency –> scurvy

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314
Q

Collagen Synthesis: Issue with Glycosylation leading to no triple helix formation

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta [defect of Collagen Type 1]

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315
Q

Collagen Synthesis: Issue with Cross linking

A

Ehlers Danlos Syndrome

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316
Q

Before procollagen undergoes proteolytic processing and cross linking; but after syntehsis, hydroxylation and glycosylation… what must happen?

A

Procollagen must be exocytosed into extracellular space [pushed out of fibroblast]

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317
Q

Ehlers Danlos Syndrome is an example of what type of Genetic phenomenon?

A

Locus heterogeneity

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318
Q

Connective tissue dz caused by impaired COPPER absorption and transport leading to decreased activitiy of lysyl oxidase

Px: BRITTLE, KINKY HAIR- growth retardation, and hypotonia

A

Menkes Dz

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319
Q

This is a glycoprotein that forms a sheath around elastin; if there’s a defect in this glycoprotein you get Marfan’s

A

Fibrillin [type of elastin]

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320
Q

This blotting procedure is useful for studying mRNA levels which are reflective of gene expression

A

Northern Blot

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321
Q

This blotting technique is use to identify DNA-binding proteins [Ex: transcription factors] using labeled oligonucleotide probes

A

Southwestern Blot

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322
Q

Able to detect SNPs and copy number variations [useful for genotyping, genetic testing and forensics]

  • scanner detects relative amounts of complementary binding [DNA OR RNA probes can be used]
A

Microarrays

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323
Q

This system can manipulate genes are specific developmental points

A

Cre-lox system

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324
Q

Synthesis of a dsDNA that separates and promotes degradation of target mRNA thereby “knocking down”/interfering with gene expression

A

RNA interference

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325
Q

Karyotyping stains chromosomes in what phase of mitosis?

A

Metaphase

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326
Q

For cloning, restriction endonucleases cut the sample DNA where?

A

Palindrome sequence

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327
Q

Benefit of using cytoplasmic mRNA instead of genomic/chromosomal DNA for cloning?

A

cDNA/cytoplasmic mRNA have entire reading frame in tact- vs. genomic which has some introns too. So if you want to study introns, should use the chromosomal DNA

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328
Q

One gene contributes to multiple phenotypic effects

A

Pleiotropy

Ex: PKU [light skin, retardation, musty body odor]

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329
Q

If a patient inherits a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene, the complementary allele must be deleted before cancer develops

A

Loss of heterozygosity

Ex: Retinoblastoma

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330
Q

A mutation of a transcription factor in it’s allosteric site leading to a nonfunctioning mutant that prevents the normal gene product from functioning

A

Dominant negative mutation effect

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331
Q

Tendency for certain alleles at 2 linked loci to occur together more often than expected by chance; based on POPULATION- not just within your family!

A

Linkage disequilibrium

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332
Q

Mitotic errors after fertilization leading to presence of genetically distinct cell lines in the same individual

A

Mosaicism

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333
Q

Mutations at different loci producing a similar phenotype

A

Locus heterogenity

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334
Q

Different mutations in the same locus produce the same phenotype

[so the mutation is what’s different… not the locus.]

A

Allelic heterogeneity

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335
Q

Presence of both normal and mutated mtDNA resulting in variable expression in mitochondrial inherited disease

A

Heteroplasmy

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336
Q

Let’s say a person expresses a phenotype for a RECESSIVE disorder, but only one parent is a carrier…

A

Uniparental disomy
- offspring receives2 copies of chromosome from 1 parent and no copies from the other

If they receive the same chromosome twice= meiosis 2 error

If they receive one of each, just from the same parent= meiosis 1 error

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337
Q

Hardy Weinberg assumptions:

A
  • No mutation
  • No natural selection
  • Random mating
  • No net migration
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338
Q

Occurs during gametogenesis; at a loci where there’s already on allele that is inactivated via methylation and then the solo activate allele gets delete leading to disease

A

Imprinting

If MATERNAL is deleted= Angelman Syndrome
If PATERNAL is deleted= Prader Willi Syndrome

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339
Q

Hyperphagia, Obesity, Intellectual disability, hypogonadism and hypotonia

Px: “parent must lock cabinets bc the kid just keeps eating!”

A

Prader Willi Syndrome

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340
Q

Inappropriate laughter, seizures, ataxia, severe intellectual disability

A

Angelman Syndrome

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341
Q

You share 1/2 of your genes with your siblings; Therefore how many genes are shared with 1st cousins? 2nd cousins?

A

Times 1/4

1st cousins= 1/8
2nd cousins= 1/32

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342
Q

Fathers transmit to ALL daughters, but no sons

Mothers transmit to 1/2 of daughters or sons

A

X-linked dominant trait

Examples:

  • Hypophosphatemic Rickets
  • Fragile X
  • Rett Syndrome
  • Charcot Marie Tooth Dz
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343
Q

Muscle biopsy shows “ragged red fibers”; pt px with myopathy, lactic acidosis and CNS Dz secondary to failure in oxidative phosphorylation

A

Mitochondrial myopathies

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344
Q

Ps: Telangiectasia, recurrent epistaxis, skin discolorations, AV malformations, GI bleeding, hematuria

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

-Auto dominant

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345
Q

Increase MCHC. Rx with splenectomy.

A

Hereditary spherocytosis [due to defect in spectrin or ankyrin] leading to hemolytic anemia

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346
Q

I’m a Marfan’s patient, which of my valve will be “floppy”?

A

Mitral Valve

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347
Q

100% penetrance always BUT variable expression. Px: Cafe au lait spot, cutaneous neurofibromas. Auto Dominant, Chromosome 17

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1

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348
Q

Px: Bilateral acoustin schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas and epndymomas [Chromesome 22]

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 2

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349
Q

What deletion is commonly linked to CF?

A

Phe {phenelyalanine} 508; misfolding leading to retention of protein in RER [channel never makes it to membrane]- defect in CFTR gene on chromosome 7

CFTR encodes: ATP gated Cl- channel that secretes Cl- in lungs and GI tract and reabsorbs Cl- in sweat glands

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350
Q

Clearance of leukocytic debris associated with Cystic fibrosis

A

Rx: Dornase Alfa [DNAse]

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351
Q

X-linked FRAMESHIFT mutation leading to truncated dystrophin proteinand accelerated muscle breakdown

Onset before age 5 !

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

“weakness begins in pelvic girdle and progresses superiorly” + pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles due to fibroFATTY replacement

+ Gower maneuver [use of UE to help them stand]

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352
Q

COD for kid with Duchenne Muscular dystrophy

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

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353
Q

This acts as an anchor for muscle fibers; connection actin to the transmembrane proteins alpha and beta dystroglycan [ECM]

A

Dystrophin

[loss of dystrophin= myonecrosis] + increases CPK and increase aldolase as seen on Western blot

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354
Q

X linked POINT mutation- w/ later onset of myonecrosis that’s not too too severe

A

Becker muscular dystrophy

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355
Q

Myotonia, muscle wasting, frontal balding, cataracts, testicular atrophy and arrhythmia caused by a trinucleotide repeat

A

CTG trinuc repeat in the DMPK gene –> Myotonic Type 1

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356
Q

Px: post pubertal macroorchidism, long face, large jaw, LARGE EVERTED EARS, autism, MITRAL VALVE PROLAPSE

A

CGG trinucleotide repeat, X-linked

Fragile X Syndrome

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357
Q

Top three causes of Down Syndrome

A
  1. Nondisjunction during maternal meiosis 1
  2. Robertsonian translocation
  3. Mosaicism [post fertilization mitotic error]
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358
Q

Increase nuchal translucency, hypoplastic nasal bone, increased serum Beta hCG, decreased serum PAPP-A

A

First trimester labs for Downs Syndrome

*Downs is the only Autosomal trisomy with INCREASED Beta hCG

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359
Q

Decreased AFP and decreased estriol, increased serum Beta hCG, increased inhibin A

A

Second trimester labs for Downs Syndrome

*Downs is the only Autosomal trisomy with INCREASED Beta hCG

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360
Q

Px: retardation, small jaw, rocker bottom feet, CLENCHED HANDS, low set ears, congenital heart disease

A

Edwards Syndrome [18]

First trimester labs- EVERYTHING is decreased: PAPP-A, Beta hCG, AFP, estriol, Inhibin A [last one could be normal]

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361
Q

Px: microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, holoprosencephaly, polydactyly, congenital heart disease

A

Patau Syndrome [13]- least common

First trimester labs- The only INCREASE is in nuchal translucency. [everything else decreases]

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362
Q

“Long arms fuse; short arms lose”

A

Robertsonian Translocation

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363
Q

Px: microcephaly, retardation, HIGH PITCHED CRY/ “MEOWING”, epicanthal folds, cardiac issues [VSD]

A

Cri-du-chat Syndrome

MOA: Microdeletion of short arm of chromosome 5

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364
Q

“William” has an “elf like” face, he’s retarded, but has well developed verbal skills and is extremely friendly with strangers despite cardiovascular issues and HYPERcalcemia [he’s sensitive to Vit D]. He’s been like this since he was about 7 yo.

A

microdeletion of LONG ARM of chromosome 7

Williams Syndrome

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365
Q

Cleft palate, Abnormal face, thymic aplasia, cardiac defects, HYPOcalcemia

A

microdeletion at chromsome 22q11

Px: DiGeorge Syndrome or Velocardiofacial Syndrome
“CATCH 22”

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366
Q

Prevents squamous metaplasia. Used to Rx Measles and AML [M3]

A

Vit A

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367
Q

Night blindness, dry skin, alopecia, keratomalacia, immune suppression

A

Vit A Deficiency

368
Q

Alopecia, Cerebral edema, teratogenic [need pregnancy test]

A

Vit A Excess

369
Q

Thiamine Pyrophosphate- Vit B1 [TPP] is a cofactor for which 3 enzymes?

A

“ATP”

  • Alpha ketoglutarate [TCA]
  • Transketolase [HMP shunt]
  • Pyruvate dehydrogenase [glycolysis to TCA linker]
370
Q

Impaired glucose breakdown leading to ATP depletion that’s worsened by glucose infusion

A

Vit B1/Thiamine deficiency

371
Q

Damage to medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus and mammillary bodies

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

372
Q

Polyneuritis, symmetrical muscle wasting

A

DRY Beri Beri

373
Q

high output cardiac failure [dilated cardiomyopathy] + EDEMA

A

WET Beri Beri

374
Q

Makes FAD and FMN and is therefore essential to redox reactions/ FAD is a cofactor for Succinate dehydrogenase rxn in the TCA cycle

A

Vit B2/ riboflavin

375
Q

Inflammation of lips/scaling and fissures at the corners of the mouth + corneal vascularization

A

Vit B2 deficiency

“don’t B2 quick to kiss someone without checking the corners of their mouth first!”

376
Q

Derived from tryptophan. Synthesis requires Vit B2 and B6.

A

Niacin/ Vit B3

377
Q

Decreased tryptophan absorption leading to decreased Niacin

A

Hartnup Dz

378
Q

Diarrhea, Dementia [Hallucinations], Dermatitis

A

Pellegra/ Niacin B3 deficiency

379
Q

Facial flushing [prostaglandin induced], Hyperglycemia & Hyperuricemia

A

Niacin toxicity

380
Q

Essential component of Coenzyme A and therefore a cofactor for acyl transfers and fatty acid synhase

A

Vit B5/ Pantothenate

381
Q

Cofactor used in: transamination [ast/alt], decarboxylation rxns, glycogen phosphorylase and used to synthesis other vitamins [like Niacin] and several neurotransmitters

A

Vit B6/ Pyridoxal Phosphate

382
Q

Cofactor for carboxylation enzymes [Pyruvate carboxylase, Acetyl CoA Carboxylase, Propionyl CoA Carboxylase]

A

Vit B7 - Biotin

383
Q

Important for the synthesis of nitrogenous bases in DNA and RNA

A

Vit B9 - Folic Acid

384
Q

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils but no neurological signs

A

Vit B9 deficiency

385
Q

Labs: increased homocysteine, normal methylmalonic acid

+ the person is most likely pregnancy or an alcoholic

A

Folic Acid/B9 deficiency

386
Q

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemic with hypersegmented neutrophils + neuro signs: paresthesias and subacute combined degeneration due to abnormal myelin

A

Vit B12 deficiency

*The neuro sx are similar to Vit E deficiency sx

387
Q

Labs: increased serum homocysteine and increased methylmalonic acid

A

Vit B12 deficiency

388
Q

Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

A

Pernicious anemia

389
Q

Facilitates iron absorption by reducing it to the Fe2+ state. Necessary for hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis

A

Vit C

390
Q

Vitamin necessary for dopamine Beta hydroxylase [conversion of dopamine to NE]

A

Vit C

391
Q

Subperiosteal hemorrhages and “corkscrew” hair are linked to

A

Scurvy/Vit C deficiency

392
Q

Vit D is exacerbated by:

A
  • Low sun exposure
  • Pigmented skin
  • Prematurity
393
Q

This Dz causes increased activation of vitamine D by epitheliod macrophages and therefore labs will show hypercalcemia

A

Sarcoidosis

394
Q

Protects Erythrocytes and membranes from free radical damage… that’s this vitamin’s only job!

Actually, it can enhance anticoag effects of Warfarin too…

A

Vit E

*Vit E deficiency mimicks Freidreich’s ataxia a bit [if it’s severe enough]

395
Q

Synthesized by intestinal flora and a cofactor for the gamma-carboxylation of glutamic acid residues on various protein required for blood clotting

A

Vit K

396
Q

Labs: Neonatal hemorrhage with increased PT and increased aPTT but NORMAL BLEEDING TIME

A

Vit K deficiency

397
Q

Vitamine K antagonist

A

Warfarin

398
Q

Clotting factors that rely on Vit K for activation

A

Factors 2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C and Protein S

399
Q

Delayed wound healing, hypogonadism, decreased expression of “adult” hair patterns [pubic, facial, axillary], anosmia + increased risk for alcoholic cirrhosis

A

Zinc deficiency

400
Q

Inhibition of alcohol dehydrogenase. An antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Fomepizole

401
Q

Inhibition of Acetaldehyde Dehydrogenase causing acetaldehyde to accumulate and contributes to “hangover” symptoms

A

Disulfiram

402
Q

The increased liver NADH/NAD+ ratio causes by alcohol leads to:

A

Lactic acidosis [extra NADH forces pyruvate to lactate]
Inhibition of gluconeogenesis
Fasting hypoglycemia [the extra NADH forces Oxaloacetate to Malate]
Hepatosteatosis [via favored lipogenesis]
Ketoacidosis

403
Q

Small child with swollen, edematous belly due to protein malnutrition. + Fatty liver due to decrease apolipoprotein synthesis, Anemia and skin lesions

A

Kwashiorkor

404
Q

Very small child with muscle wasting, loss of subcutaneous fat and he also may have some edema. What’s the issue?

A

TOTAL Calorie malnutrition

-Marasmus= MUSCLE wasting

405
Q

What’s another name for NO [nitric oxide]?

A

Endothelial derived relaxation factor

406
Q

Degeneration of both the ascending [dorsal column] and descending [cortico-spinal tract] leading to loss of position/vibration sense + ataxia + spastic paralysis

A

Vit B12 deficiency

407
Q

Major COD in patients recovering from a subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Vasospasm

Rx: with Nimodipine [calcium channel blocker]

408
Q

Ptosis + “down and out gaze” in a patient that has normal light and accommodation reflexes

A

Diabetic CN 3 neuropathy [parasympathetics only affected with COMPRESSION injury… a DM injury is ischemic thereby only affecting somatic nerve + the sympathetics on them]

409
Q

Biliary tract disease + linked to acholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis

410
Q

Brain cysts + seizures form a tape worm

A

Taenia Solium [treat the brain cysts with albendazole by reate the intestinal infection part with praziquantel]

411
Q

Liver [hydatid] cysts

A

Echinococcus granulosus

412
Q

Perianal Pruritus/ Scotch Tape Test

A

Enterobius

413
Q

Portal HTN, liver/spleen granulomas

A

Schistosoma

Rx with praziquantel

414
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency linked to a tapeworm

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

415
Q

Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

A

Recombination

416
Q

When viruses with segmented genomes [like Influenza virus] exchange segments leading to worldwide pandemics

A

Reassortment

417
Q

These vaccines induce only HUMORAL immunity and are stable [meaning that never revert to virulence]. Some require booster shots but you CAN give these to immunocompromised pts

A

Killed Vaccines:

RIP Always

Rabies
Influenza [shot]
Polio [Salk]
HAV Vaccine

418
Q

These vaccines induce both humoral AND cell mediated immunity immunity

A

Live attenuated vaccines

“Live! See small yellow chickens get vaccinated with Sabin Polio and MMR! It’s INcredible!”

Small pox
Yellow Fever
Chicken pox
Polio [Sabin]
MMR
Influenza [INTRANASAL]
419
Q

Recombinant vaccines

A

HBV [antigen= HBsAg] and HPV [6,11,16 and 18]

420
Q

The only ssDNA virus

A

Parvovirus

[ssDNA, Naked, linear]

421
Q

The only dsRNA virus

A

Reovirus

[dsRNA, naked, segmented]

422
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the ______, except _____ [this is also the only DNA virus that is NOT icosahedral- it’s complex]

A

Nucleus, Poxvirus

*Pox virus carries it’s own DNA dependent RNA polymerase so that’s why it doesn’t need the nucleus to replicate

423
Q

All RNA viruses replicate in the ______, except ______

A

Cytoplasm, Influenza virus & Retrovirus

424
Q

Enveloped DNA viruses

A

HHP

Herpes
Hepadna [*partially ds and circular]
Pox

425
Q

Naked DNA viruses

A

3 Ps 1 A

Parvovirus [*ss]
PapillOmavirus [circular]
POLYOMAvirus [circular]
Adenovirus

426
Q

Herpes 3, 4, & 5=

A
3= VZV
4= EBV
5= CMV
427
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Herpes?

A

Multinucleated giant cells on Tzank smear

428
Q

Cowdry bodies- “droplet bodies” seen in

A

HSV
VZV
CMV

429
Q

Which DNA/ enveloped virus has reverse transcriptase capabilities?

A

Hepadnavirus [HBV]

Enveloped, dsDNA, circular

430
Q

Flesh colored pearly DOME that’s painless but has central dimple that has milky fluid in it. Linked to POX VIRUS [enveloped ds DNA virus]

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

431
Q

Pharyngitis/Sore throat with fever. Acute Hemorrhagic Cystitis. Pneumonia. Conjunctivitis.

A

Adenovirus

[Naked, ds DNA, linear]

432
Q

Aplastic crisis in SCD pt

A

Parvovirus

[Naked, ssDNA, linear ]

433
Q

Fifth Dz/ Erythema Infectiosum/ “Slapped cheek” rash in child

A

Parvovirus

[Naked, ssDNA, linear]

434
Q

Hydrops fetalis

A

Parvovirus

[Naked, ssDNA, linear]

435
Q

HPV 1, 2, 6 and 11

A

Warts

HPV= [dsDNA, circular, naked]

436
Q

HPV 16, 18

A

Cervical Cancer

HPV= [dsDNA, circular, naked]

437
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in HIV pt

A

JC Virus

type of POLYOMAVIRUS
[dsDNA, circular, naked]

438
Q

Kidney issues in post-transplant patients

A

BK Virus

“Bad Kidney”

type of POLYOMAVIRUS
[dsDNA, circular, naked]

439
Q

Positive sense ENVELOPED RNA Viruses

A

“So I was at a TOGA party drinking a CORONA, I looked back [RETRO] and I’m POSITIVE I saw FLAVOR-FLAV [Flavi] carrying an envelope”

Togavirus
Coronavirus
Retrovirus
Flavivirus

440
Q

Councilman bodies [eosinophilic liver globules]

A

Flavivirus [+, enveloped ssRNA]

441
Q

HCV

A

Flavivirus

442
Q

Fever + Jaundice + Black Vomit

A

Yellow Fever

[Caused by Arbovirus which is a subtype of Flavivirus]

443
Q

Fever + Joint Pain

A

Dengue Fever [caused by Arbovirus which is a subtype of Flavivirus]

444
Q

How does HCV [Flavivirus] turn into HCC?

A

Chronic inflammation

445
Q

How does HBV [Hepadnavirus] turn into HCC?

A

HBV integrates into host genome and acts as oncogene

446
Q

Fever, POSTAURICULAR LYMPHADENOPATHY, arthralgias, rash

+ “blue berry muffin” rash [sign of extramedullary hematopoiesis]

A

Rubella

TOGAVIRUS
[enveloped, ssRNA, + sense virus]

447
Q

HIV: Which gene is linked to the protein that is the capsid protein that encases the RNA and the reverse transcriptase?

A

GAG gene –> p24 capsid protein

448
Q

HIV: Which gene is linked to encoding for ALL 3 of the major HIV related enzymes; allowing for dsDNA to integrate into the host even though retrovirus is a ssRNA, +, enveloped virus:

A

POL gene –> Reverse transcriptase, asparate protease, integrase

449
Q

HIV: This protein is encoded by the ENV gene. It is able to cross the placenta It’s known as the “docking glycoprotein” because it is the site of attachment to the host CD4+ T cell’s CCR5

A

gp120

CCR5= for early CD4+ binding and macrophage binding
CXCR4= for late CD4+ binding
450
Q

HIV: This is a transmembrane glycoprotein that’s linked to fusion and entry of the HIV virus.

A

gp41

451
Q

HIV: ______ test is used to RULE OUT HIV due to it’s high sensitivity.

A

ELISA

452
Q

HIV: _____ test is used to RULE IN HIV [after ELISA is positive] due to it’s high specificity.

A

Western Blot

453
Q

Px: Flu like symptoms + sore throat + FEVER over 100 degrees +/- SOB/ common cold like Sx

A

Corona virus [SARS]

= +, ssRNA, enveloped

454
Q

Fatal diarrhea in a child

A

Reovirus

[dsRNA, naked]

455
Q

Types of Picornaviruses [+ssRNA, naked]

A

PERCH

Poliovirus
Echovirus

Rhinovirus [the only one that’s not fecal-oral spread- it’s destroyed by stomach acid that’s why you don’t get stomach colds!]

Coxsackievirus
HAV

RNA is translated into 1 large polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into functional viral proteins

456
Q

Aseptic Meningitis

A

Poliovirus, Echovirus or Coxsackievirus [all are picornaviruses]
[+, ssRNA, naked]

457
Q

Hand, Foot, Mouth Dz. Myocarditis. Pericarditis.

A

Coxsackiecirus [Picornavirus]

[+ ssRNA, naked]

458
Q

If a RNA virus is - sense; what must it do?

A
  • sense RNA viruses must transcribe negative strand to positive. Therefore, - sense RNA viruses have to bring their own RNA dependent RNA polymerase or else replication fails
459
Q

Infantile gastroenteritis. Major cause of day care center diarrhea due to villous destruction with atrophy leading to decreased absorption of sodium and loss of potassium

A

Rotavirus/ Type of Reovirus

[dsRNA, naked, segmented]

460
Q

8 segment genome that contain hemagglutin [viral entry] and neuramindase [virus progeny release]. Pts are at risk for bacterial super infection. Virus shows rapid genetic changes.

A

Influenza virus

[Orthomyxovirus - ssRNA, - sense, segmented, enveloped, linear]

461
Q

What causes gradual genetic drift leading to epidemics?

A

Random mutation

462
Q

Croup/ seal-barking cough

A

Parainfluenza [Paramyxovirus]

= ssRNA, -sense, enveloped]

463
Q

Bronchiolitis, Pneumonia in infants.

A

RSV [Paramyxovirus]

=ssRNA, -sense, enveloped

464
Q

This protein causes the respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells. It is the MOA of the paramyxovirus family [RSV, Measles/Mumps, Parainfluenza/Croup]

A

F [fusion] protein

Rx: Palivizumab [monoclonal antibody against F protein] prevents pneumonia caused by RSV in premature infants

465
Q

Koplik spots. Decending rash.

[Cough, Coryza and Conjunctivitis]

A

Measles [paramyxovirus]

= ssRNA, -sense, enveloped

466
Q

What is used to prevent severe exfoliative dermatitis in malnourish children [that have measles]?

A

Vitamin A

467
Q

Parotitis, Orchitis, Aseptic Meningitis. Possible sterility after puberty.

A

Mumps [paramyxovirus]

= ssRNA, -sense, enveloped

468
Q

Bullet shaped virus. Negri bodies in Purkinje cells of the cerebellum and in hippocampus.

Px: Agitation, photophobia, hydrophobia, paralysis, coma –> death.

A

Rabies virus [Rhabdovirus]

=ssRNA, -sense, enveloped

469
Q

Hepatitis with high mortality in pregnant women. Fecal oral transmission especially with waterborne epidemics

A

Hepevirus
= ssRNA, + sense, NAKED virus

+ The vowels hit your bowels… note that both of the fecal oral transmitted/ non-carrier/ non-chronic hepatitis viruses are non-enveloped/naked virus that are + sense, ssRNA

470
Q

The only marker present during the HBV window period?

A

Anti HBc IgM [plus Anti HBe]

471
Q

Serum shows HBsAg, Anti HBe and Anti HBc IgG

A

Chronic HBV with low infectivity

472
Q

Serum shows Anti HBs and Anti HBe IgG

A

HBV Recovery

473
Q

Serum shows AntiHBs only

A

HBV Immunized person

474
Q

Cotton wool spots on fundoscopic exam and may be accompanied by esophagitis. CD4+ count usually below 50.

A

CMV Retinitis

475
Q

If HIV patient with superficial vascular proliferation, need to distinguish if there are NEUTROPHILIC INFILTRATES or LYMPHOCYTIC INFILTRATES.

Neutrophili infiltrates denote bacteria infection with ___
Lymphocytic infiltrates denote viral infection with ___

A

Neutrophilic= Bartonella Henselae [Bacillary angiomatosis]

Lymphocytic= HHV-8= Kaposi sarcoma

476
Q

Ground glass apperance on imaging. CD 4+ count less than 200. pnuemonia

A

Pneumonocystis jirovecii

477
Q

TB-like Dz with CD 4+ counts below 50

A

Mycobacterium avium

478
Q

Increased pulse pressure

A
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Aortic regurg
  • Arteriosclerosis
  • Obstructive sleep apnea
  • Exercise
479
Q

Decreased pulse pressure

A
  • Aortic stenosis
  • shock
  • tamponade
  • heart failure
480
Q

Stroke volume is affected by:

A
  • Contractility
  • Afterload [inverses]
  • Preload
481
Q

If Ejection fraction is decreased in systolic heart failure; how does it change in diastolic heart failure?

A

EF is NORMAL in diastolic heart failure

482
Q

Increased SV. Increased EF. Decreased HR.

A

Digoxin

483
Q

Blood viscosity depends mostly on…

A

hematocrit [% of RBCs in the blood]

484
Q

Resistance is DIRECTLY proportional to viscosity and vessel length but inversely proportional to…

A

the radius to the 4th power

485
Q

What would cause the “Venous return” line to shift to the right/ increase?

A

Fluid infusion

Sympathetic activity

486
Q

What would cause the “Venous return” line to shift to the left/decrease?

A

Acute hemorrhage

Spinal anesthesia

487
Q

What causes an increase in TPR? [meaning that the X- intercept is unchanged by the cross over is below the original?

A

Vasopressors

488
Q

What causes an decrease in TPR? [X-int is unchanged by the cross over point is ABOVE the original?

A

Exercise, AV shunt

489
Q

Pressure Volume Loop: Extended further left [decreased ESV] and taller

A

Increased contractility

490
Q

Pressure Volume Loop: Skinny and tall; halved [increased ESV] but no x-axis increase

A

Increased afterload [decreased SV, increased ESV]

Ex: Aortic Stenosis

491
Q

Pressure Volume Loop: Only extended on the right; no height increase

A

Increased preload/ volume increase only

Ex: Aortic insufficiency

492
Q

During which phase of the cardiac cycle is the period of highest O2 consumption?

A

Isovolumetric Contracttion: Period between mitral valve closing and aortic valve opening

493
Q

What causes a wide split between A2 and P2?

A

Any delay in RV emptying [regardless of exp vs. insp

  • Pulmonic stenosis
  • Right bundle branch block
494
Q

What causes Fixed splitting?

A

ASD [left to right shunt]= increased RA and RV volumes [regardless of breath]

495
Q

What causes paradoxical splitting?

A

Any delay in LV emptying. Will hear P2 before A2.

  • Aortic stenosis
  • Left Bundle Branch Block
496
Q

Auscultation: Aortic Area

A

Only systolic murmurs heard here.

  • Aortic stenosis
  • Flow murmur
  • Aortic valve sclerosis
497
Q

Auscultation: Pulmonic Area

A
  • Pulmonary stenosis

- Flow murmur

498
Q

Auscultation: Left sternal border

A

Systolic:
-Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

Diastolic:

  • Aortic Regurg
  • Pulmonic Regurg
499
Q

Auscultation: Tricuspid Area

A

*both of the septal defects are best heard in the tricuspid area

Pan/Holo systolic murmurs:
Tricuspid regurg
VSD

Diastolic:
Tricuspid stenosis
ASD

500
Q

Auscultation: Mitral Area

A

Systolic:
-Mitral regurg

Disatolic:
-Mitral stenosis

501
Q

Increased intensity of right heart sounds

A

Inspiration

502
Q

What maneuver will increase the intensity of a mitral valve prolapse murmur?

A

-Hand grip maneuver to increase systemic vascular resistance [causes later onset of click]

OR

-Rapid Squatting [to increase venous return and increase preload]

503
Q

What maneuver will DECREASE the intensity of a mitral valve prolapse murmur?

A

Valsalva [increases abdominal pressure]
*Valsalva actually DECREASES the intensity of most murmurs; so it’s good to pinpoint HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY [bc it’s the only way that’s increased with this.]

504
Q

What increases the intensity of an Aortic Stenosis murmur?

A

Rapid Squatting [decreases hypertrophic murmur]

505
Q

What murmurs are increased by the hand grip maneuver?

A

The regurg’s: MR and AR + VSD

506
Q

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy murmur is decreased with which two maneuvers?

A

Hand Grip & Rapid Squatting

[Hypertrophic murmur is only increased with Valsalva]

507
Q

Everything is a “systolic murmur” except:

A

2 Diastolic:
-Aortic Regurg [High pitched, blowing, bounding pulses, head bobbing] - usually from aortic root dilation

-Mitral Stenosis: OPENING SNAP!; [due to abrupt halt in leaflet motion in diastole]; rumbling later diastolic murmur— The decreased interval between S2 and OS correlates with increased severity; intensity is enhanced by Expiration

1 Continuous:

PDA: continuous machine like murmur, loudest at S2. Due to congenital Rubella usually or prematurity. Best heard at left infra-clavicular area

508
Q

Which murmur is best heard over the APEX?

A

MVP

509
Q

Cardiac nodal cells spontaneously depolarize during ____.

A

Diastole: resulting in automaticity due to “funny current” [responsible for a slow, mixed Na/K inward current]

510
Q

In the pacemaker action potential curve, which number/phase corresponds to setting the HR?

A

The slope of Phase 4: If [Na]: slow diastolic depolarization

511
Q

Fastest cardiac tissue conduction velocity?

A

Purkinje fibers [Atrial Muscle is second fastest]

512
Q

Slowest cardiac tissue conduction velocity ?

A

AV Node [Ventricular Muscle is second slowest]

513
Q

What does the QT interval represent?

A

mechanical contraction of the ventricles

514
Q

Recite the conduction pathway beginning at the SA node

A

SA node > atria > AV node > common bundle > bundle branches > Purkinje fibers > ventricles

515
Q

What things can cause a long QT interval thereby predisposing to Torsades de pointes?

A

Drugs
Decreased potassium
Decreased magnesium

516
Q

How do we treat Torsades de pointes?

A

Magnesium

517
Q

What drugs are linked to Prolonged QT?

A

Some Risky Meds Can Prolong Q. T

Sotalol [Class 3/ K block]
Risperidone [anti-psych]
Macrolides [50s protein inhibitor/block translocation]
Chloroquine [anti-malaria]
Protease inhibitor [-navir/ HIV]
Quinidine [class 1a]
Thiazides [DCT diuretic]
518
Q

Romano-Ward syndrome

A

Congenital prolonged QT Syndrome

Px: Autosomal Dominant, Only cardiac symptoms

519
Q

Jervell and Lange Nielsen Syndrome

A

Congenital prolonged QT Syndrome

Px: Autosomal Recessive, Cardiac issues plus SENSORINEURAL DEAFNESS

520
Q

This syndrome causes the signal to bypass the AV node completely; just has it’s own pathway [bundle of Kent] that goes rt from Atria to ventricle causing delta wave/ pre- excitation and shortened PR interval

A

Wolff- Parkinson White Syndrome

You’ll see delta wave with Quinidine and Amiodarone [I think?]

521
Q

No identifiable waves

A

Ventricular fibrillation

522
Q

Atrial rate is faster than the ventricular rate. Both Pwaves and QRS waves are present although the P Waves bear no relation to the ORS complexes.

A

3rd degree heart block

523
Q

Responsible for the “aldosterone escape” mechanism. Constricts efferent renal arterioles and dilates afferent arterioles via cGMP promoting diuresis.

Causes vasodilation and decreased sodium reabsorption

A

Atrial natriuretic Peptide [ANP]

like the opposite of Aldosterone

524
Q

BNP

A

Used for diagnosing heart failure; released from ventricles in response to increased tension

Very good NPV

Same actions as ANP

525
Q

Nesiritide

A

Recombinant form of BNP for Rx of heart failure

526
Q

Responds ONLY to increased Blood Pressure

A

Aortic Arch [vagus nerve to solitary nucleus of the medulla]

527
Q

Responds to ANY CHANGE in Blood pressure

A

Carotid Sinus [glossopharyngeal nerve to solitary nucleus of the medulla ]

528
Q

Largest share of systemic cardiac output

A

LIVER

529
Q

Highest blood flow per gram of tissue

A

KIDNEY

530
Q

If PCWP is greater than LV pressure…

A

Mitral Stenosis

531
Q

The lung is unique in that, hypoxic conditions cause…

A

VASOCONSTRICTION [other organs, hypoxia induces vasodilation]

532
Q

What causes the edema?: Heart Failure

A

Increased Capillary pressure

533
Q

What causes the edema?: Nephrotic Syndrome/ Liver failure

A

Decreased plasma protein/ decreased oncotic pressure

534
Q

What causes the edema?: Toxins/Infections/Burns

A

Increased capillary permeability [increases the Kf constant]

535
Q

What causes the edema?: Lymphatic Blockage

A

Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

536
Q

Early cyanosis/ “blue babies”. Usually require surgery or PDA maintenance

A

Right to Left shunt:

  • Truncus Arteriosus
  • Transposition of Great Vessels
  • Tricuspid atresia
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • TAPVR
537
Q

This is caused due to failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral

A

Transposition of Great Vessels

[can also link to maternal DM]

538
Q

Early cyanotic “tet” spells paired with RVH

A

Pulmonary stenosis [from Tetralogy of Fallot] forces right to left flow across VSD

Self Rx with squatting

539
Q

Late cyanosis/ “blue kids”

A

Left to right shunts

VSD, ASD, PDA

540
Q

Late cyanosis. RVH. Finger clubbing. Polycythemia.

A

Eisenmenger’s Syndrome [from un-corrected left to right shunt: VSD, ASD, PDA]

541
Q

Coarctation of the aorta is associated with

A

Bicuspid Aortic valve

542
Q

HTN in UE, weak-delayed pulses in LOW [Radiofemoral delay] + one other sign that’s too obvious…

A

Adult type/ postductal coarctation of the aorta

the other sign= rib notching

543
Q

Main cause of renal stenosis in a young female

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia [just abnormal thickening of the vessel wall]

Histo: string of beads/ girls wear pearls.

544
Q

What are xanthomas?

A

Sign of hyperlipidemia.
Most likely in eyelids or Achilles tendon.
Composed of lipid laden histiocytes in the skin

545
Q

Hyperplastic Arteriolosclerosis

A
  • Hyperplasia of smooth muscle cells leading to wall thickening
  • link to MALIGNANT HTN
  • Onion skin appearance on image

LINK TO ACUTE RENAL FAILURE [flea bitten appearance. fibrinoid necrosis with hemorrhage]

546
Q

Glomerular scarring leading to Chronic renal failure

A

Link to hyaline arteriolosclerosis

547
Q

Progression of Atherosclerosis

A
  • Endothelial cell dysfunction
  • Macrophage and LDL accumulation in intima
  • Foal cell formation
  • Fatty streaks
  • Smooth muscle cells migration [PDGF and FGF cause this migration]
  • The Smooth muscle cells proliferate and deposit extracellular matrix
  • Fibrous plaque
  • Complex atheroma
548
Q

Order of occurrence of atherosclerosis

A

Abdominal aorta > Coronary artery > Popliteal artery > Carotid artery

549
Q

Pulsatile abdominal mass that grows overtime + flank pain. The pt is a HTN male smoker over 50 yo.

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

[Usually below renal arteries but above bifurcation]

550
Q

Px: tearing chest pain, radiating to the back+ unequal BP in arms + mediastinal widening

A

Aortic dissection

Sequelae–> pericardial tamponade, aortic rupture, and death

551
Q

Coronary artery spasm at rest. Transient ST elevation [triggers: tobacco, cocaine and triptans]- what do we treat this with?

A

Calcium channel blockers! [Prinzmetal angina]

552
Q

Chest pain due to ischemic myocardium but no myocyte necrosis; perhaps myocyte swelling though since this is REVERSIBLE damage

A

Angina

553
Q

Order of coagulative necrosis events

A

Pyknosis [condensed chromatin]
Karyorrhexis [nucleus fragments]
Karyolysis [nucleus dissolves]

554
Q

When is the most likely time of Neutrophil infiltration post-MI and therefore the most likely risk for fibrinous pericarditis?

A

Day 1-3 post MI

555
Q

When is the most likely time of Macrophage infiltration post MI and therefore free wall rupture? [leading to papillary muscle rupture and mitral regurg.]

A

Day 3-7 post MI

556
Q

Pathologic Q Waves

A

Evolving or Old transmural infarct

557
Q

Location of infarct: Leads II, III and aVF [F= Floor]

A

InFerior Wall [RCA]

558
Q

Location of infarct: Leads I and aVL

A

Lateral Wall [LCX]

559
Q

Location of infarct: Leads V1-V6

A

Start at septum and go laterally… all are anterior wall of LV [LDA]

560
Q

Ventricular free wall rupture leads to

A

Cardiac tamponade

561
Q

Heart failure, S3, dilated heart, balloon appearance on CXR. SYSTOLIC dysfunction. Eccentric hypertorphy- causes?

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy
ABCCCD

Alcohol
Beri Beri [Wet]
Coxsackie B virus
Cocaine
Chaga Disease [T. Cruzi]
Doxorubicin
562
Q

S4, systolic murmur, diastolic dysfunction marked by ventricular hypertrophy with septal predominance. Myofibrillar disarray and fibrosis

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

“Sudden death in young athelete”
Autosomal dominant- Beta myosin heavy chain mutation

Linked to Freidrecih ataxia, too

563
Q

Can cause dilated cardiomyopathy or restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Hemochromatosis

564
Q

Diastolic dysfunction most often caused by sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, post radiation fibrosis and endocardial fibroelastosis

A

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

565
Q

Endomyocardial fibrosis with prominent eosinophilic infiltrate

A

Loffler Syndrome

566
Q

Pulmonary edema [transudation of fluid + heart failure cells/macs in lungs]. Orthopnea. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea.

A

Left heart failure

567
Q

Hepatomegaly/ Nutmeg Liver. Peripheral edema. Jugular Venous Distention [JVD].

A

Right heart failure

568
Q

Rx for Acute CHF

A

LMNOP

Loop dirueretic
Morphine
Nitrates
Oxygen
Pressors/ Positioning [don't lay supine!]
569
Q

Drugs that decreases heart failure mortality

A

ACE Inhibitors/ ARBS
Beta Blockers
Spironolactone

570
Q

Acute bacterial endocarditis

A

Staph Aureus [previously normal valve]

571
Q

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

Strep Viridans [low virulence compared to staph aureus/ smaller vegetations]- previously sick valve- linked to dental procedures

572
Q

If there’s endocarditis but the culture is negative…

A

Coxiella or Bartonella

573
Q

Tricuspid Valve endocarditis

A

Usually an IV drug abuser

Staph Aureus
Pseudomonas
Candida

574
Q

Signs of Bacterial Endocarditis

A

Fever
Roth spots [retina]
Osler Nodes [ouch-ler nodes on fingers/toes]
Murmur [NEW onset murmur]

Janeway lesions [palms/soles]
ANEMIA
Nail bed hemorrhages/splinters
EMBOLI

575
Q

Aschoff bodies [granuloma with giant cells], Anitschkow cells [enlarged macropahges with wavy nucleus] + increased ASO titer.

A

Link to M protein antibodies/ previous PHARYNGITIS GAS infection

Type 2 HSN

Rheumatic Fever

576
Q

JONES Criteria

A

For Rheumatic Fever

Joints [Migratory Polyarthritis]
O [OH! the heart! Pancarditis- COD= myocarditis]
N [ subcutaneous nodules]
E [Erythema Marginatum]
S [Sydenham Chorea] 

+ FEVER + ESR elevation

577
Q

Sharp pain made worse by inspiration, relieved by sitting up and leaning forward. Friction rub. ST segment elevation. +/- PR depression

A

Acute pericarditis

Can be Fibrinous [dressler’s autoimmune], Serous [viral], suppurative [bacterial]

578
Q

Compression of heart by fluid. Causes equal pressure [diastolic] in all four chambers. Beck triad [hypotension, distended neck veins, DISTANT HEART SOUNDS]. Pulsus Paradoxus. Kussmaul sign. ECG shows “electrical alternans”/ swinging heart in fluid

A

Cardiac Tamponade

579
Q

Calcification of aortic root and ascending aortic arch leading to tree bark appearance of the aorta

A

Syphilitic heart disease causes by disruption of the vasa vasorum with consequent atrophy of the vessel wall and dilation of the aorta

580
Q

“Ball valve” obstruction of the LEFT ATRIUM associated with multiple syncopal episodes

Imaging shows: Scattered cells w/in mucopolysacc stroma and abnormal blood vessels + hemorrhage

A

Myxoma

581
Q

Increase in JVP on inspiration [normally should be a decrease] - leading to impaired filling of right ventricle and blood backing up into the veins—> JVD

A

Kussmaul Sign

582
Q

Benigh, painful, RED BLUE tumor under fingernails. Arises from modified smooth muscle cells of glomus body

A

Glomus Tumor

583
Q

Found in AIDS pts; benign capillary papules caed by Bartonelle Henselae

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

584
Q

Blanching vascular tumors:

A

Hemangiomas

585
Q

Non-blanching vascular tumors:

A

Angisarcomas

Kaposi sarcomas

586
Q

Unilateral headache, jaw claudication, ophthalmic artery occlusion, polymyalgia rheumatica. Increased ESR. Most commonly affects which artery?

A

Carotid artery [Temporal/ Giant cell arteritis]

587
Q

“Pulseless disease”- Where yo pulse? [esp weak UE pulses], Fever, night sweats, arthritis, myalgias, skin nodules, ocular issues

A

Takayasu arteritis

will see: granulomatous thickening/narrowing of the aortic arch with increasesd ESR

588
Q

String of pearls on imaging. Lungs/ Pulmonary artery spared. Hepatitis B seropositivity. Renal artery involved. Immune complex mediated transmural inflammation of the arterial wall with fibrinoid necrosis

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

Rx: Steroids or Cyclophosphamide

589
Q

Fever. Cervical nodes. Conjunctival injection. Strawberry tongue. Red palms and soles. What do you treat this KID with?

A

Aspirin to prevent MI/clot

Kawasaki disease

590
Q

c-ANCA is…

A

anti- proteinase 3

591
Q

p-ANCA is …

A

anti- myeloperoxidase

592
Q

Nose spared. No granulomas. positive p-ANCA.

A

Microscopic polyangitis

593
Q

Asthma. Palpable purpura. Peripheral neuropathy [wrist/foot drop]. Granulomas and eosinophilia. Positive p-ANCA. Increased IgE

A

Churg Straus

594
Q

Often follows a URI/ increased IgA –> immune complex deposition with mesangium–> glomerular bleeding. Px: palpable purpura on buttocks/legs, arthralgias, GI pain/melena.

A

Henoch-Schonelin purpura linked to IgA nephropathy [nephritic]

595
Q

Early splitting of ureteric bud or development of two separate buds

A

Double ureter

596
Q

Which kidney is usually taken during living donor transplantation simply because it has a longer renal vein?

A

LEFT kidney

597
Q

Most metabolically active portion of the kidney?

A

Cortex/ proximal tubule consumes most of the ATP

598
Q

Used to measure plasma volume

A

radiolabeled albumin

599
Q

Used to measure extracellular volume

A

inulin

600
Q

What part of the glomerular filtration barrier is lost in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Charge Barrier/ fused basement membrane with herapan sulfate [negative]

601
Q

Why is inulin used to calculate GFR?

A

freely filtered, neither absorbed nor secreted

602
Q

Creatine clearance slightly OVERESTIMATES GFR because…

A

Creatinine is moderatly secreted by the tubules

603
Q

PAH is used to measure Effective Renal Plasma Flow [although it underestimates a bit] because…

A

Nearly all PAH entering the kidney is excreted. It’s both filtered and actively secreted in the proximal tubule.

604
Q

Normal filtration fraction of kidney

A

20%

605
Q

Decreased RPF. Decreased GFR. No change to FF.

A

Afferent arteriole constriction [But remember that this just make the prox tubule work harder; will reabsorb a greater % of what’s filtered]

606
Q

Constriction of ureter causes ____ GFR and ____ FF.

A

Decreased GFR and Decreased FF

607
Q

How does normal pregnancy impact reabsorption?

A

Pregnancy decreased reabsorption of glucose and amino acids in the proximal tubule. So normal pregnant women are peeing out a little glucose and amino acids.

608
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder- deficiency of neutral amino acid transporters in proximal renal tubule cells and on enterocytes [Tryptophan is best example] . Leads to decreased gut absorption and peeing out of amino acids. results in pellagra sx

A

Hartnup Dz

  • Keep in mind; the transporters that are missing are SODIUM dependent
609
Q

Pattern of osmolarity along the nephron

A

Starts isotonic [300] – increases in osmolarity [bottom of loop of Henle has highest osmolarity in the absence of ADH] — then as you ascend up the loop of henle the osmolarity decreases again [hypotonic upon ascent and finall around 100 at DCT]

610
Q

What does the proximal tubule synthesize and secrete that acts as a buffer for secreted H+?

A

NH3

611
Q

What is the role of Angiotensin 2 at the proximal tubule?

A

stimulates Sodium/Hydrogen exchange; increases sodium, water, bicarbonate absorption

612
Q

What happens at the thin ascending loop of Henle?

A

active reabsorption of sodium, potassium and chloride

These indirect induce paracellular reabsorption of Magnesium and Calcium through potassium backleak .

This segment is impermeable to water making the urine less concentrated as it ascends

613
Q

What is PTH’s action on the PROXIMAL TUBULE?

A

inhibits sodium/Phosphate exchange thereby leading to phosphate excretion

614
Q

What is PTH’s action on the DCT?

A

stimulates calcium/sodium exchange thereby leading to calcium reabsorption

615
Q

What is Aldosterone’s action on the collecting tubule?

A

Acts at mineralcorticoid receptor. insertion of sodium channel on luminal side

616
Q

What is ADH’s action on the collecting tubule?

A

Acts at V2 receptor. Insertion of aquaporin Water channels on luminal side

617
Q

Juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

JG cells= modified smooth muscle of afferent arteriole

Macula Densa= NaCl sensor part of the DCT

618
Q

When do the JG cells secrete renin?

A
  • Low renal blood pressure
  • low NaCl delivery to DCT/Macula Densa
  • Increased Beta 1 Sympathetic tone {RI RI}
619
Q

4 things that the kidney secretes:

A
  • EPO [peritubular capillary bed/ interstitial cells]
  • 1,25, OH2 Vit D [prox tubule cells have 1 alpha hydroxylase to make active form]
  • Renin [JG cells/afferent arteriole]
  • Prostaglandins [vasodilates the afferent arteriole to increase RBF]
620
Q

What shifts Potassium INTO the cell/ Causes hypokalemia?

A

HYPO-osmolarity
Insulin [increases sodium/potassium ATPase
Alkalosis [want the acid/ H+ out in exchange]
Beta agonist [increases sodium/ potassium ATPase]

621
Q

U Waves. Flattened T Waves. Muscle weakness. Arrhythmias.

A

Low Potassium

622
Q

Tetany. Seizures. QT prolongation.

A

Low Calcium [or maybe magnesium too?]

623
Q

Wide QRS. Peaked T Waves. Arrhythmias. Muscle Weakness.

A

High Potassium

624
Q

Kidney stones. Bone pain. Abdominal Pain. Anxiety/ delirium.

A

High Calcium

625
Q

Decreased DTRs, bradycardia, hypotension, cardiac arrest, hypocalcemia

A

High Magnesium

626
Q

Renal stones. Metastatic calcifications. Hypocalcemia.

A

High Phosphate

627
Q

Substances that cause Metabolic acidosis with an INCREASED anion gap [greater than 12]

A

MUDPILES

Methanol
Uremia
DKA

Propylene Glycol
Iron or INH
Lactic Acidosis
Ethylene Glycol
Salicylates [later]
628
Q

If there’s a metabolic acidosis with NORMAL ANION GAP [8-12] this means…

A

Primary metabolic acidosis; meaning the issue is a loss of bicarbonate [diarrhea or renal tubular acidosis] .. as opposed to compensatory

If the pH is greater than 5.5 then the issue is DISTAL, if it’s less than the issue is proximal or hyperkalemic [as far as tubular acidosis is concerned

629
Q

Pyuria, no urine casts.

A

Acute cystitis

630
Q

Hematuria, no urine casts.

A

Bladder cancer or kidney stones

631
Q

Waxy casts in urine

A

Chronic renal failure

  • Waxy casts suggest slow tubular flow
632
Q

What are hyaline urine casts composed of?

A

Tomm Horsfall mucoprotein [secreted from tubular Epi cells]

633
Q

5 Sx of NEPHROTIC Dz

A
Proteinuria [greater than 3.5 g/day]- frothy urine
Microalbuminemia
Edema
Hyperlipidemia -Lipiduria [Fatty casts]
Hypercoaguable State
[+ increase infections]
634
Q

5 Sx of NEPHRITIC Dz

A
Hematuria
HTN
Azotemia
Oliguria
mild proteinuria
635
Q

Which two Dz are considered overlap between Nephrotic and Nephritic?

A

Diffuse prolif. glomerulonephritis

Membrano prolif. glomerulonephritis

636
Q

Effacement of foot process [involving less than 50% of the glomeruli] similar to minimal change disease but in an adult that’s receiving interferon Rx, has HIV or SCD or abuses heroin

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

637
Q

Diffuse capillary and GBM thickening with granular IF and “spike and dome” EM with sub epithelial immune complex deposits . If it’s not idiopathic, what’s it linked to?

A

Antibody to phospholipase A2 recepto, drugs [Penicillamine] , HBV/HCV, SLE or tumors

Dz= Membranous nephropathy

638
Q

Child with normal glomeruli; maybe some lipid in the PCT negative IF, effacement of foot processes. Triggered by immune stimulus or recent infection. Excellent response to steroids. Selective loss of which protein?

A

Albumin

639
Q

Nephrotic Diseases [5]

A
Minimal change Dz
Focal Segmental glomerulosclerosis
Membranous nephropathy
Amyloidosis
Diabetic Nephropathy
640
Q

Nephritic Diseases [4]

A

Acute poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis
Rapidly progressive Flomeulonephritis
Berge Dz/ IgA Nephropathy
Alport Syndrome

641
Q

Subendothelial immune complex deposits with tram track appearance due to GBM splitting via mesangium. What viruses are linked?

A

HBV/HCV

Membrano prolif. Type 1

642
Q

Intramembranous IC deposits that are super dense. What substance will be really low/ decreased in serum?

A

Decreased serum C3 levels due to C3 nephritic factor which stabilizes C3 convertase

643
Q

GBM thickening, Kimmbelstiel Wilson lesion via nonenzymatic glycosylation of GBM leading to increased permeability and thickening. What happens to GFR?

A

The nonenzymaic glycosylation of efferent arterioles leads to INCREASED GFR and mesangial expansion

644
Q

Starry star granular appearance. Hypercellular LM. “lumpy bumpy” due to IgG, IgM and C3 deposition along GBM and mesangium. subepithelial IC HUMPS 2 weeks after a GAS infection of pharynx OR skin. What is the presentation?

A

Periorbital edema, dark urine [cola-colored], HTN

645
Q

Labs for Acute post strep glomerulonephritis

A

Increased anti-DNase B titers and decreased complement level

646
Q

LM and IF show crescent moon shape. What are the crescent made of?

A

*Fibrin, plasma proteins [C3b], parietal cells, monocytes and *macrophages

647
Q

Goodpasture’s sndrome- what type of HSN rxn does this represent?

A

Type 2 HSN- antibody against GBM and alveolar basement membrane- linear IF

Px: hemoptysis and hematuria

648
Q

Mesangial proliferation. Mesangial IC deposits and IgA based IC deposits. Often presenting a couple days following a URI. Episodic hematuria with RBC casts. What other issues can you expect?

A

Henock Schonlein purpura:

  • purpura on butt/legs
  • GI issues- bleed/pain
  • Joint paint
649
Q

Mutation in type 4 collage that leads to thinning and splitting of the GBM. Usually X-linked and incomplete penetrance with variable presentation. BUT what is the classic presentation for this?

A

“Can’t see. Can’t pee. Can’t hear”

Eye issues. Glomerulonephritis. Deafness.

650
Q

Severe complications of kidney stones

A

Hydronephorsis. Pyelonephritis.

651
Q

Low pH. Ethylene glycol ingestion, Vit C overdose or Crohn disease. Envelope/dumbbell shaped substance in urine.

A

Calcium oxalate kidney stone

652
Q

Rx for calcium oxalate stones?

A

Thiazides or Citrate

653
Q

Increased urine pH [the only one with increased pH aside from Calcium PHOSPHATE]. Coffin lid shaped substance in urine. Staghorn calculi can form leading to possible UTI. What underlying condition is this linked to?

A

Ammonium Magnesium Phosphate/ Struvite stones

Linked to infection with urease positive bugs:

  • Proteus
  • Staph
  • Klebsiella
654
Q

Low ph. Can see on CT scan but not on X-Ray. Substance is rosette shaped in urine. Linked to Gout or Leukemia.

A

Uric Acid Kidney Stones

655
Q

Hexagonal. Most commonly seen in “children with staghorn calculi’. Positive Sodium nitroprusside test.

A

Cystine stone

656
Q

Clear cell carcinoma of the kidney originates from which cells? And what makes the cells “clear?”

A

PCT cells and the cells are filled with lipids and carbohydrates.

657
Q

What gene is associated with Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

VHL gene deletion

658
Q

There is a papillary carcinoma association with the kidney. What is characteristic for this neoplasm?

A

The epithelial cells face outward.
Associated with MET protooncogene on Chromsome 7
[Normal clear cell RCC is linked to VHL deletion on chromosome 3]

659
Q

Benign kidney lesion that’s described as a well circumscribed mass with a central scar. Has large eosinophilic cells with abundant mitochondria with NO PERINUCLEAR CLEARING.

A

Renal oncocytoma

660
Q

Perinuclear clearing is characteristic of which type of RCC?

A

Chromophobe Renal cell carcinoma

661
Q

Contains embryonic glomerular structures. Presents with HUGE tumor with triphasic histology [stromal component, immature tubules and blastemal elements. What kind of mutation is linked to this?

A

Loss of function mutations of tumor suppressor genes WT1/WT2 on chromosome 11

662
Q

What Syndrome is WILMS TUMOR linked to?

A

Beckwith-Wiedmann Syndrome/ WAGR Complex:

Wilms Tumors
Aniridia [linked to PAX 6 gene mutation]
Genitourinary malformation
Retardation

663
Q

What are the risk factors for developing “painless hematuria with no casts”?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma.

Risk Factors:
- P SAC

Phenacetin [painkiller + antipyretic]
Smoking
Aniline dyes
Cyclophosphamide

664
Q

Squamous cell vs. Transitional Cell

A

SCC of the bladder linked to chronic irritation and transitions through squamous metaplasia/ dysplastic stage before progressing to carcinoma

Linked to Schistosoma haematobium infection, chronic systitis, smoking and chronic kidney stones. Also presents as painless hematuria though.

665
Q

Suprapubic pain. Dysuria. Frequency. Urgency. But no systemic signs [no fever. no chills] Caused by E. Coli [will show positive for nitrites because it’s GRAM NEGATIVE], urease positive organisms.

A

Acute infectious cystitis

666
Q

What virus is randomly linked to hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Adenovirus

667
Q

Sterile pyuria and negative urine culture with similar symptoms and still no systemic signs suggests..

A

Urethritis by Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia

668
Q

White cell casts in urine. dyruria. fever. What will the CT show?

A

Striated parenchymal enhancement.

[Dz= Acute pyelonephritis]

669
Q

Asymmetric corticomedullary scarring, blunted calyx. Tubules can contain eosinophilic casts resembling thyroid tissue. [Thyroidization of kidney]

A

Chronic pyelonephritis

670
Q

Symptoms of nephritis a month after taking a drug that acts as a hapten

A

NSAID induced interstitial nephritis

671
Q

Symptoms of nephritis 1-2 weeks after taking drug(s) that acts as a hapten

A

Diuretic, Penicillin, Sulfonamide, Rifampin induced interstitial nephritis

672
Q

Cortical infarction of both kidney likely due to vasospam and/or DIC. Linked to what conditions?

A

Obstetric catastrophes like abruptio placentae or septic shock

673
Q

Maintenance phase of acute tubular necrosis

A

OLIGURIC. No pain.

lasts 1-3 weeks
Risk of HYPERkalemia
Metbaolic Acidosis

674
Q

Recovery phase of acute tubular necrosis

A

POLYURIC. Too much pee

BUN and creatinine levels revert back to normal.
HYPOkalemia

675
Q

Parts of the nephron most susceptible to ischemic acute tubular necrosis?

A

Proximal tubule and Thick ascending limb

676
Q

Sloughing of renal papillae leading to gross hematuria and proteinuria. Associated with..

A

DACS [this is Renal Papillary necrosis, btw. ]

DM
Acute pyelonephritis
Chronic Acetaminophen/Phenacetin drug use
SCD [and trait]

677
Q

Urine osmolarity >500
Urine Sodium 20
High specific gravity

A

Prerenal Azotemia

678
Q

Urine osmolarity 40
FENa >2%
Serum BUN/CR <15

A

Intrinsic Renal failure [ATN]

679
Q

Consequence of renal failure

A

MAD HUNGER

Metabolic Acidosis
Dyslipidemia [increased triglycerides]
HYPERKalemia

Uremic Syndrome [Anorexia, pericarditis, ASTERIXIS, platelet issues, encephalopathy, decreased memory, itching/ uremic frost]

Na/H2O rention
Growth issues [children]
EPO failure –> anemia
Renal osteodystrophy [unable to hydroxylate Vit D –> secondary hyperparathyroidism]– subperiosteal bone thinning

680
Q

Bilateral enlarged kidneys. Flank Pain. Hematuria. HTN [increased renin production]. What are associated conditions?

A

Berry aneurysms [COD]. Mitral valve prolapse. Benign hepatic cysts.

681
Q

Potter Sequence. Auto recessive condition. Associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis.

A

AR PKD

682
Q

Shrunken kidneys. Inability to concentrate urine. Cysts will be located in …

A

MEDULLA

683
Q

Lymph node: Follicle

A

B-Cells/ Cortex

Secondary follicle= active follicle with pale central germinal centers

684
Q

Lymph node: Paracortex

A

T Cells

enlarges in viral infection

685
Q

How do B cells/ T cells enter the lymph node from blood?

A

HEV; located in the paracortex

686
Q

Anal canal lymphatic drainage

A

Above pectinate line= Internal iliac nodes

Below pectinate line= Superficial inguinal nodes

687
Q

What’s in the marginal zone of the spleen?

A

APCs and specialized B cells

*So this is where antigen presentation happens. Marginal zone is between the white and red pulp

688
Q

What’s in the Periarterial lymphatic sheath within the white pulp of the spleen?

A

T Cells

689
Q

Splenic dysfunction leads to…

A

Decreased C3b opsonization and decreased ability of macrophages in the spleen to remove encapsulated bacteria [SHiNE SKiS]

690
Q

Medulla of thymus has

A

T Cells and Hassall corpuscles [linked to eosinophils somehow]

691
Q

Present endogenously synthesized antigens [Like viral stuff] to CD 8+ T Cells…

A

MHC 1 [HLA A, B, C]

692
Q

Present exogenously synthesized protein [bacterial proteins, viral capsid proteins] to CD4+ T Cells

A

MHC 2 [HLA DR, DP, DQ]

693
Q

Transport of MHC Class 1 to cell surface is mediated via

A

Beta 2 microglobulin

694
Q

HLA A3

A

Hemochromatosis

695
Q

HLA B27

A

“PAIR”

Psoriatic Arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
IBD related Arthritis
Reactive Arthritis/ Reiter Syndrome

696
Q

HLA DQ2/DQ8

A

Celiac Disease

697
Q

HLA DR2

A

Multiple Sclerosis

also, Hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture Syndrome

698
Q

HLA DR3

A

DM Type 1

also Graves Dz, SLE

699
Q

HLA DR4

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

DM Type 1

700
Q

HLA DR5

A

Pernicious anemia [Vit B12 deficiency]

Hashimoto Thyroiditis

701
Q

Only lymphocytic members of innate immune system. Uses perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected cells and tumor cells..

A

Natural killer cells

  • works even when there’s no MHC Class 1

link CD16 to NK cell activation

702
Q

Costimulatory signal

A

B7 on APC links up with CD28 on Naive T Cell

CD40L on CD4+ cell links up with CD40 on BCell

703
Q

CD4+ T Cells secretes 4 cytokines that allow it to differentiate into 4 separate types of “T cell”… they are:

A

IL 12= Th1

IL 4= Th2

TGF B/ IL 6= Th17

TGF B= Treg

704
Q

Th1 secretes…

A

IFN-Gamma [activates macs and CTLs]

inhibited by stuff from TH2 [IL 4 and IL 10]

705
Q

Th2 secretes…

A

IL 4. IL 5. IL 6. IL 10.

Eosiniophil recruitment. IgE production from B cells

706
Q

What is the MOA of Granzyme B? [used by CTLs and NK cells]

A

Granzyme B is a serine protease

707
Q

Surface markers: CD3. CD4. CD25 [alpha chain of IL 2 receptor] & trascription factor FOX P3

A

Regulatory T cell: helps maintain specific immune tolerance by suppressing CD4 and CD8 t cell effector functions

708
Q

Isotype switching is a type of:

A

Gene rearrangement

709
Q

Monomer in circulation. Dimer when secreted. Uses trancytosis to travel. Does NOT believe in complement. Released in secretions [saliva. tears. mucus. Colostrum/early breast milk has this antibody in it.

A

IgA

710
Q

Monomer on B cells by Pentamer when secreted. Believes in complement but doesn’t cross the placenta [how to distinguish it from another similar antibody]

A

IgM

711
Q

Positive/ Upregulated Acute Phase Reactants

A
  • Serum Amyloid A
  • C reactive protein [opsonin]
  • Ferritin [binds/sequesters Iron]
  • Fibrinogen [correlates with ESR]
  • Hepcidin [helps ferritin; prevents release of the bound iron]
712
Q

Negative/ Downregulated Acute Phase Reactants

A
  • Albumin [conserves AA]

- Transferrin [internalized by macrophages to hide ALL of the iron]

713
Q

These two substances help PREVENT complement activation on SELF cells [like self-RBCs for example]

A

DAF [Decay activating factor]- CD55

+

C1 esterase inhibitor

714
Q

C1 Esterase Inhibitor deficiency causes:

A

Hereditary angioedema [DO NOT GIVE THESE PPL ACE INHIBITORS!]

715
Q

C3 deficiency puts you at risk for:

A

Type 3 HSN type rxns

716
Q

C5-C9 deficiency puts you at risk for:

A

Recurrent Neisseria bacteremia

717
Q

What cytokines are linked to FEVER?

A

IL 1 and IL 6

718
Q

Chemotactic factors of neutrophils?

A

LK B4 and IL 8 [Neutrophils arrive early, so the aren’t L8]

719
Q

Which cytokine’s claim to fame is similar to GM-CSF in that it supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells?

A

IL 3

720
Q

Class switch to IgE?

A

IL 4

“E? 4 Me!?”

Oh… IgG too.

721
Q

Class switch to IgA?

A

IL 5

“Ayyyyeeeee! We live at 5!”

722
Q

IFN alpha and B

A

Secreted by virally infected cells that act to warm the uninfected cells that trouble is a’coming! So when that same viruses goes to try to infect these “primed” cells; RNAase L and Protein kinase degrade host mRNA and inhibition viral protein synthesis. Essentially the primed cells induce apoptosis thereby interrupting viral amplification completely

723
Q

What is the receptor that EBV uses to attack the B cell?

A

CD21 receptor on B cell surface

724
Q

CD 14 cell marker is specific to…

A

MACROPHAGES

725
Q

CD 16 and CD 56 cell marker…

A

NK Cells

726
Q

Crosslinked Beta region of TCR to the MHC Class 2 on APCs leads to

A

Massive release of cytokines= Superantigen infection [Strep pyogenes and Staph Aureus]

This is via direct macrophage/ CD14 stimulation- no T-helper cells involved

727
Q

Patients are given preformed antibody after exposure to which 4 potentially deadly infections?

A

Tetanus Toxin
Botulinum Toxin
HBV
Rabies virus

“To Be Healed Rapidly”

728
Q

Delayed response following a TYPE 1 HSN rxn due to:

A

Leukotrienes [or some other arachidonic acid derivative]

729
Q

Test for type 1 HSN rxn?

A

Skin test for specific IgE

730
Q

Test for type 2 HSN [antibody mediated cytotoxicity linked to macorphages or NK cells] rxn?

A

direct or indirect Coombs’

731
Q

What happens in a Type 3 [ Ex: Serum sickness and Arthus reaction] HSN rxn?

A

Immune complex [Antigen-antibody IgG complex] activates complement which attracts neutrophils and then the neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes

732
Q

Tes for Type 3 HSN rxn?

A

Immunoflurescence staining

733
Q

Tests for Type 4 HSN rxn?

A

PPD/ Patch Test

734
Q

What type of HSN rxn is SLE?

A

Type 3 HSN

735
Q

Two neuro disorders linked to Type 4 HSN are?

A

Gullian Barre and Multiple Sclerosis

736
Q

Anti glutamate decarboxylase antibody

A

Type 1 DM

737
Q

Anti Jo-1. Anti SRP. Anti-MI2 antibodies

A

Polymyositis, Dermatomyositis

738
Q

Anti-centromere antibody

A

Limited scleroderma [CREST syndrome]

739
Q

Anti microsomal and Anti thyroglobulin

A

Hashimoto Thyroiditis

740
Q

Anti-Scl 70 [Anti DNA topoisomerase 1] antibody

A

Diffuse scleroderma

741
Q

Anti- smooth muscle Antibody

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

742
Q

Anti Ro [SSA], Anti La [SSB] Anitbodies

A

Sjogren Syndrome

743
Q

IgA antiendomysial, IgA anti tissue transglutaminase

A

Celiac Disease

744
Q

Anti-Citrullinated Protein Antibody

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

745
Q

Anti UI RNP [Ribonucleoprotein]

A

Mixed Connective tissue Dz

746
Q

Infection with GI Giardiasis linked to deficiency of what?

A

IgA/ B Cell deficiency

747
Q

What viruses are specifically linked to B cells deficiency even though viruses are usually linked to T Cells?

A

Enteroviral Encephalitis

Poliovirus [don’t give live

748
Q

Retained primary teeth. Eczema. Cold abscesses. Low IFN-Gamma

A

Auto Dom, Hyper IgE Syndrome

749
Q

DiGeorge 22q11 deletion detected by which method?

A

FISH

750
Q

Increased AFP. Decreased IgA, IgG and IgE. Lymphopenia and cerebellar atrophy. Px: Ataxia, Angiomas

A

Ataxia-Telangiectasia

751
Q

T cell is unable to reorganize actin cytoskeleton leading to increased IgE and IgA but decrease IgM and IgG + fewer AND smaller platelets

A

Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

752
Q

Giant granules in neutrophils and platelets. Pancytopenia. Coag defects [mild]. Defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator genes leading ot microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion.

A

Chediak Higashi Syndrome

753
Q

Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test will be NEGATIVE

A

Chronic Granulomatous disease

754
Q

Defect of NADPH oxidase leading to absent respiratory burst in neutrophils and increased susceptibility to catalase positive organisms [CP SALES]

A

CGD

755
Q

Hyperacute Transplant Rejection

A

Type 2 HSN

Pre-exisiting recipient Abs attach donor antigen and activate complement

Widespread thrombosis of graft vessels/ ischemia/necrosis

756
Q

Acute Transplant Rejection

A

CD8+ T Cells activated against donor MHCs OR Recipient antibodies developed after transplant [not preformed]

Leads to vasculitis of graft vessels with dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate

Can just give immunosuppressants though [to prevent]

757
Q

Chronic Transplant Reject

A

So months to years go by and all of a sudden recipient T cells perceive the donor MHC as it’s own MHC and he thinks that he is being presented antigens. So he reacts against the donor antigen on the donor MHC.

Heart shows- atherosclerosis
Lung shows- Bronchiolitis obliterans
Liver shows- Vanishing bile ducts
Kidney shows- vascular fibrosis or glomerulopathy

758
Q

Graft vs. Host Dz

A

T cells from the donor proliferate in the immunocompromised host and reject host cells

Px: rash, jaundice, diarrhea, hepatosplenomegaly.

  • Usually occurs in liver and bone marrow transplants [rich in lymphocytes]
  • could be beneficial in bone marrow transplant for LEUKEMIA [Graft vs. tumor effect]
759
Q

The rate limiting enzyme for HMP shunt

A

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase [G6PD] - replensishes NADPH

760
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for de novo pyrimidine synthesis

A

CPS 2

761
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for de novo PURINE synthesis

A

Glutamate PRPP

762
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for urea cycle

A

CPS 1

763
Q

Low malonyl CoA activates this pathway whose rate limiting enzyme is carnitine acyltransferase 1

A

Fatty Acid Oxidation [mito]

*remember FA synthesis is in cytosol

764
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for ketogenesis

A

HMG CoA Synthase

765
Q

What factors stimulate HMG CoA Reductase thereby promoting cholesterol synthesis?

A

Insulin and Thyroxine

[Glucagon and Cholesterol inhibit it]

766
Q

Which enzymes require thymine cofactor?

A

Transketolase [Ribulose 5-phosphate to Fructose 6 phosphate]

Pyruvate dehydrogenase [ pyruvate to acteyl coA]

alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase [alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl coA]

767
Q

Von Gierke’s

A

Glucose 6 Phosphate deficiency [build up of glucose 6 phosphate- can’t convert back to glucose]

768
Q

Fructokinase defciency

A

Accumulation of Fructose= essential fructosuria [can’t convert to F1P]

769
Q

Fructose intolerance

A

Aldolase B deficiency [can’t take F1P and split into DHAP and Glyceraldehyde] - Aldolase B is in the Liver. Aldolase A is in skeletal muscle

*Use of same enzyme both ways [from F 1, 6 bisphosphate to the twosome.

770
Q

Pyruvate synthesis from PEP [gycolysis]

A

Pyruvate kinase

771
Q

PEP synthesis for gluconeogenesis from oxaloacetate

A

PEP carboxykinase

772
Q

Pyruvate carboxylase [requires biotin]

A

Pyruvate to Oxaloacetate

773
Q

Pyruate dehydrogenase [requies TPP/Thiamine]

A

Pyruvate to Acetyl Coa [TCA]

774
Q

Remember that the step from methylmalonyl CoA to replenish succinyl CoA [TCA] required Vit B12 [remember that’s how you distinguished vit b12 deficienct anema from folic acid def anema]… But how’d we get methylmalonyl CoA?

A

Biotin required for conversion from propionyl CoA [from odd chain fatty acids, brached chain AAs, methionine and threonine

775
Q

PFK-1- rate limiting step in Glycolysis

A

F6P to F 1, 6, P in cytosol

776
Q

The effect of arsenic on ATP production

A

Completely shuts it down! Causes glycolysis to produce ZERO net ATP

777
Q

Tetrahydrofolates are activated carriers, what are they carrying?

A

1 carbon units

778
Q

SAM is an activated carrier of what?

A

methyl groups/ CH3

779
Q

TPP is an activated carrier of what?

A

Aldehydes

780
Q

Where is NADPH used?

A

NADPH is used in anabolic processes [steroid and fatty acid synthesis as a supply of reducing requivalents]

  • Respiratory burst
  • cyt p450
  • glutatione reductase
781
Q

Glucokinase vs. Hexokinase

A

Glucokinase= Liver and Beta cells of pancreas, lower affinity for glucose [higher Km], higher Vmax though/ increased capacity, induced by insulin no feedback inhibition by G6p [instead Fructose 6-P inhibits it]

Glucokinase is linked to gene mutation associated with MODY/ diabetes of the young

782
Q

What is the action of F2,6 BP on glycolysis?

A

Stimulation

783
Q

We know that the first step and the rate limiting step of glycolysis require ATP; which steps produce ATP?

A

Phosphoglycerate kinase [1,3 BPG to 3 PG]

PEP to Pyruvate [Pyruvate kinase]

784
Q

Fructose BP and PFK 2 are the same enzyme essentially F BP is activated in fasting state via phosphorylation by protein kinase a [glycagon signaled] to promotoe gluconeogenesis. What happens in the fed state?

A

Insulin decreased cAMP and PKA, leading to decreased phosphorylated FBP and more PFK 2 –> glycolysis bc PFK 2 goes on to promote Fructose 2, 6 bisphosphate which stimulate glycolysis at the rate limiting enzyme [PFK 1]

785
Q

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex contains 3 enzymes and requires 5 cofactors:

A
  • Pyrophosphate/ TPP/ B1/Thiamine
  • FAD [B2, riboflavin]
  • NAD [B3, Niacin]
  • CoA [b5, pantothenate]
  • Lipoic Acid

Activated by exercise/ high NAD+/NADH ratio, high ADP and high Calcium

786
Q

Vomiting, Rice Water stools, GARLIC BREATH— what specific biochemical substance is being inhibited?

A

Lipoic Acid [cofactor for Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex]

Dx: Arsenic poisoning

787
Q

The only purely ketogenic amino acids

A

Leucine and lysine

788
Q

what happens if you have a pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency and can’t convert pyruvate to Acetyl Coa/ Can’t start TCA?

A
  • build up of pyruvate gets shunted to lactate via LDH and alanine via ALT
789
Q

What are the electron transport inhibitors?

A

Inhib Complex 1= Rotenone

Inhib Complex 2= nothing [remember complex 2 is succinate dehydrogenase though

Inhib Complex 3= Antimycin A

InhibComplex 4= Cyanide/ CO

Inhib ATP Synthase= Oligomycin

790
Q

Uncoupling agents

A

Increase permeability of membrane causing a decreased poton gradient and increased O2 production so ATP synthesis stops by Electron transport continues producing HEAT

Examples:
Thermogenin/Brown fat
2, 4 Dinitrophenol
Aspirin [why fevers occur with aspirin overdose]

791
Q

why can’t muscle participate in gluconeogensis?

A

It lacks glucose 6 phosphatase

792
Q

The entire HMP shunt occurs…

A

In the cytoplasm.

Remember NO ATP is used or produced from HMP Shunt. Just produces reducing equiv and also anabolic potential

The oxidative phase is irreversible and rate limiting step is G 6PD

793
Q

Which random AA is randomly often paired with Glutathione enzymes [GLutathione peroxidase and Glutathione reductase] and is therefore involved in oxidative burst?

A

Selenium

794
Q

A protein found in secretory fluids and neutrophils that inhibits microbial growth via iron chelation

A

Lactoferrin

795
Q

Heinz Bodies. Bite cells. Linked to sulfonamides, primaquine, anti-TB drugs [RIPE].the cause is low NADPH in RBCs leading to hemolytic anemia due to poor RBC defense against oxidizing agents.

A

G6PD Deficiency

796
Q

Accumulation of Fructose 1-Phosphate leading to a decrease in available phosphates which results in inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. What are the sign and symptoms?

A

Negative urine dipstick bc urine dipstick test only checks for glucose. but there will be reducing sugar in teh urine

Sx: hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis and vomiting after consumption of fruit, juice or honey

Rx: need to lower intake of both fructose and sucrose [glucose + fructose]

Dx: Fructose intolerance- ALdolase B deficiency

797
Q

Infantile cataracts. Galactose in urine. “Failure to track objects or failure to develop a social smile” in babies.

A

Hereditary deficiency of galactokinase [Galactose to Galctose 1-P]

798
Q

Accumulation of galacitol in the lens of the eye + jaundice, hepatomegaly, retardation

A

Galactosemia/ absence of galactose 1 phosphate uridyltransferase Must excluse galactose AND lactose [galactose + glucose] from diet

799
Q

Classic galactosemia can lead to _____ sepsis in neonates.

A

E. Coli

800
Q

Sorbitol pathway

A

Glucose to sorbitol [Aldose reductase]

Sorbitol to Fructose [sorbitol dehydrogenase]

801
Q

Which organs/cells have both aldose reducatse and sorbitol dehydrogenase?

A

Liver, Ovaries, Seminal vesicles. [need the fructose?]

802
Q

Which organs/ cells only have also reductase and therefore are subject to sorbitol accumulation in hyperglycemia conditions?

A

Schwann cells [peripheral neuropathy], retina, kidney and lens.

803
Q

Basic amino acids/ Positively charged [or NOT CHARGED AT ALL in the case of Histidine] at body pH

A

Arginine, Lysine, Histidine

*Part of histone to bind negatively charged DNA

804
Q

What effect does hyperammonemia/excess NH4+ have on the TCA cycle?

A

Hyperammonemia depletes alpha ketoglutarate leading ot inhibition fo TCA cycle

805
Q

Tremor. Asterixis, slurred speech, somnolence, vomiting, cerebral edema, blurred vision

A

Ammonia intoxication

806
Q

What effect do Benzoate or Phenylbutryrate have on hyperammonemia?

A

Both bind amino acid and lead to excretion so they can potentially decrease ammonia levels

807
Q

What is the role of Lactulose in treating hyperammonemia?

A

Lactulose will acidify the GI tract and trap ammonia for excretion

808
Q

Increased ornithine with normal urea cycle enzymes suggest:

A

hereditary N-actylglutamate [cofactor for CPS 1 enzyme] deficiency

809
Q

Excess Carbomoyl phosphate is converted to orotic acid and you find orotic acid in blood and urine in this condition. Plus lab shows decreased BUM, sx of hyperammonemia but NO MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA [which would be a sign of orotic aciduria]

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

810
Q

Epinephrine synthesis pathway

A
Phenylalanine to Tyrosine [Tetrobiopeterin]
Tyrosin to Dopa [Tetrobiopeterin]
Dopa to DOpamine [Vit B6]
Dopamine to NE [Vit C] 
Ne to Epi [SAM]
811
Q

Tryptophan + B6

A

Niacin

812
Q

Tryptophan + BH4/ Tetrahydropberitin (and B6?)

A

Serotonin

813
Q

Histidine to Histamine

A

Vit B6

814
Q

Glycine to Porphyrin to Heme

A

Vit B6

815
Q

Glutamate to Gaba

A

Vit B6

816
Q

Arginine to Nitric Oxide

A

BH4

817
Q

Albinism. Enzyme defect?

A

Tyrosinase [Dopa to Melanin]

818
Q

Decreased phenylalanine hydroxylase or decreased BH4 cofactor leading to seizures, retardation, fair skin, ecezema and musty body odor

or microcephaly, congenital heart defects and growth issues in neonate if maternal

A

PKU [Tyrosine becomes ESSENTIAL / need from diet]

819
Q

PKU patients must avoid this in their diet..

A

Artificial sweetners/ Aspartame [contains phenylalanine]

820
Q

Phenylketones that show up in urine of a PKU pt

A

phenylaccetate
phenyllactate
phenylpyruvate

821
Q

Px: Dark connective tituse. Brown sclera. Urine turn black on prolonged air exposure. debilitatin arthralgiase due to homogentistic acid build up being toxic to cartilage.]

A

Alkaptonuria/Onchronosis [congenital deficiency of homogentisate oxidase in the degradative pathway of tyrosine to fumarate] Auto recessive

822
Q

Px: increased homocystein in urine, reatrdation, osteoporososis, tall stature, kyphosis, len subluxation [downward and inward], thrombosis and atherosclerosis [stroke and MI]

A

Homocystinuria

823
Q

Homocysteine to Methionine [b12 required]. whats the enzyme?

A

Homocystein methyltransferase

824
Q

Homocystine plus serin plus Vit B6 yield what? [the enzyme is Cystathionine synthase]

A

Cystathionine/ Cysteine

825
Q

Px: increased alpha ketoacids in the blood [especially leucine], CNS defects, Retardation, death. Urine smells like maple syrup/burnt sugar. Auto recessive. What must be restricted in diet?

A

Branched amino acids:

Leucine, Isoleucine and Valine

+ need to give thiamine supplement

826
Q

Phosphorylation of Glycogen phosphorylase via Glycogen phosphorylase kinase leads to…

A

breakdown of glycogen —> glucose [phosphorylation ACTIVES the breakdown enzyme]

827
Q

Phosphorylation of GLycogen synthase via Protein kinase A [from glucagon] leads to…

A

inhibition of glycogen synthase, no glycogen production

828
Q

Severe hypoglycemia, increased glycogen in liver, increased blood lactate and hepatomegaly. Whats the enzyme defect?

A

GLucose 6 phosphatase [Von Gierke]

829
Q

Cardiomyopathy, glycogen build up . Enzyme defect?

A

Acid maltase/ Lysosomal alpha 1, 4 glucosidase [Pompe]

830
Q

Hypoglycemia, increased glycogen but NORMAL blood lactate levele

A

Debranching enzyme defect [alpha 1, 6 glucosidase]- {cori’s Dz]

831
Q

Increased glycogen in muscle, painful muscle crampl, myoglobinuria /red urin with strenous exercise and arrhthmia

A

Myophosphorylase/ Skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase defect [McArdle’s]

832
Q

Px: Haptosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, aseptic necrosis of bones + lipid laden macrophages resembling crumpled tissue paper.

A

Deficient Enzyme: Glucocerebrosidase [accumulation of glucocerebroside]

Gaucher Dz

833
Q

Px: Progressive neurodegeneration. Cherry red spot on macula, lipid laden macrophage, hepatosplenomegaly

A

Deficienct Enzyme: Sphingomyelinase [accumulation of spingomyelin]

Nieman Pick Dz

834
Q

Progressive neurodengereation, cherry red macula, lysosome with ONION SKIN, NO HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY

A

Deficient Enzyme: Hexoamindase [accumulation of ganglioside]

Tay Sach Dz

835
Q

Peripheral Neuropathy. Optic atrophy. Globoid cells

A

Deficienct Enzyme: Galactocerebrosidase

Krabbe Dz

836
Q

Central AND peripheral demyelination with ATAXIA, dementia

A

Deficient enzyme: arylsulfatase A leading to accumulation of cerebroside sulfate

837
Q

GARGOYLISM, airway obstruction, corneal clouding, hepatosplenomegaly

A

HURLer syndrome [wouldn’t you throw up if you saw a gargoyl?]

Deficient Enzyme: alpha L iduronidase leading to accumulation of heparan sulfat and dermatan sulfate

838
Q

Mild gargoylism maybe, mild airway obstruction, mild hepatosplenomegaly PLUS Aggressive behavior. No corneal clouding

A

… no corneal clouding bc Hunter’s need to see clearly to aim at their “X” [this and Gabry’s are X-linked]

Hunter’s Syndrome

Deficient enzyme: Iduronate Sulfatase leading to accumulation of heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate

839
Q

Inability to transport Long chain fatty acids into the mitochondria resulting in accumulation causing weakness, hypotonia and hypoketotic hypoglycemia

A

Carnitine deficiency

840
Q

Alcoholism causes excess NADH to shunt oxalaoacete to malate leading to a buildup of

A

Acetyl CoA [thereby shunting glucose and free fatty acaids toward the production fo ketone bodies

841
Q

In prolonged starvation and DKA, oxaloacetate is depleted for gluconeogenesis leading to a build of

A

Acetyl CoA [thereby shunting glucose and free fatty acids toward the production of ketone bodies

842
Q

A urine test for ketones if a person’s breath smells “fruity” finds what?

A

Acetoacetate only…. Beta hydroxybutryate is NOT detected via urine test

843
Q

PRoteins and carbs

A

4 kcal/gram

844
Q

Fats

A

9 kcal/gram

845
Q

Alcohol

A

7 kcal/gram

846
Q

HMG Co A Reductase/Cholesterol synthesis is induced by

A

Insulin

847
Q

Conversion of HMG CoA to mevalonate

A

HMG CoA Reductase

848
Q

Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase [LCAT], what’s it’s purpose?

A

Esterification of cholesterol

849
Q

Found on endothelial surface, this enzyme is responsible for the degradation of TG circulating in chylomicrons and VLDLs.

A

Lipoprotein Lipase [LPL]

850
Q

Degradation of TG remaining in IDL

A

Hepatic TG Lipase

851
Q

Cofactor for Lipoprotein lipase found in Chylomicron, VLDL and HDL

A

Apo C 2

852
Q

Apo B100

A

Bind LDL receptor [found in VLDL, IDL, LDL]

853
Q

Mediates chylomicron secretion

A

Apo B 48 [only in chylomicron and chylomicron remnant]

854
Q

Mediates activation of LCAT found in Chylomicrion and HDL only]

A

Apo A-1

855
Q

Found in everything by LDL, mediates remnant uptake

A

Apo E

856
Q

Where do Chylomicron and VLDL get their re-up of Apo C and Apo E from?

A

HDL

[Alcohol actually increases synthesis of HDL]

857
Q

Heaptive overproduction of VLDL. Causes pancreatitis and increased blood level of VLDL and TG

A

Familial dyslipidemia type 4: Hyper TG

858
Q

Situations where ESR is decreased

A

SCD [altered shape]
Polycythemia [increased RBCs dilute]
CHF

859
Q

Main mediators of Cachexia

A

TNF-Alpha [Cachectin
IFN- Gamma
IL 6

860
Q

Beta hcG positive tumors

A
  • Hydatifiform moles
  • Choriocarcinoma
  • Testicular Cancer
861
Q

Vinyl Chlorida exposure is linked to neoplasm to which organ?

A

Liver/ Angiosarcoma

862
Q

Oncogene: BCR/ABL

A

CML/ALL [tyrosine kinase]

863
Q

Oncogene: c-myc

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

864
Q

TS Genes: BRCA1/2

A

DNA repair proteins

865
Q

TS Gene: p16

A

Mealnoma- cyclin depedent kinase inhibitor usually

866
Q

p53 is

A

normally the transciption factor for p21/ blocks G1 to S phase transition

867
Q

Time to steady state concentration depends primarily on:

A

half life. [it’s independent of dose and dosing frequency]

868
Q

Drug Rxn: Flushing

A

VANC

Vancomycin
Adenosine
Niacin
Calcium CHannel Blockers

869
Q

Coronary vasospasm

A

Cocaine

Sumatriptan

870
Q

Drug Rxn: Hyperglycemia

A

Taking [these] Pills Necessitates Having Blood Checked

Tacrolimus
Protease Inhibitors
Niacin
Hydrochlorothiazides
Beta blockers
Corticosteroids
871
Q

Drug Rxn: Hypothyroidism

A

LAS

Lithium
Amiodarone
Sulfonamides

872
Q

Drug Rxn: Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

Clindamycin
Ampicillin
Cephalosporin

873
Q

Drug Rxn: Agranulocytosis

A
Dapson
Clozapine
Carbamazepine
Colchicine
Methimazole
PTU
874
Q

Drug Rxn: Hemolytic anemia in G6PD Deficiency

A

“Hemolysis is D PAIN”

INH
Sulfonamides
Dapsone
Primaquine
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Nitrofurantoin
875
Q

Drug Rxn: Megaloblastic anemia

A

Phenytoin
Methotrexate
Sulfa drugs

876
Q

Drug Rxn: Fat redistribution

A

PiG

Protease inhibitors
Glucocorticoids

877
Q

Drug Rxn: Gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin
Vera[amil
Cyclosporine
Nifedipine

878
Q

Drug Rxn: Hyperuricemia/ Gout

A

Painful Tophi? Feet Need Care.

Pyrazinamide
Thiazides
Furosemid
Niacin
Cyclosporine
879
Q

Drug Rxn: Photosensitivity

A

She SAT For “Photo”

Sulfonamides
Amiodarone
Tetracycline

5-FU

880
Q

Drug Rxn: Rash/ Stevens Johnsons

A

Anti seizure drugs, Allopurinol, Sulfa drugs, Penicillin

881
Q

Drug Rxn: SLE like syndrome

A

Isoniazid
Hydralizine
Procainamide

Sulfa drugs
Phenytoin
Etanercept [TNF alpha blocker]

882
Q

Seizure inducing drugs

A

BUP! II CC [I seiz]

Buproprion
Isoniazid if Vit B6 Deficient
Imipenem
Cilastatin
metoCLOpramide [causes tardive dyskinesia too]
Tramadol 
Enflurane
883
Q

Drug Rxn: SIADH/ Can’t concentrate serum sodium

A

Carbamazepine, Cyclophosphamide

SSRIs

884
Q

Drug Rxn: Interstitial nephritis

A

Methicillin
NSAIDs
Furosemide

885
Q

Drug Rxn: Drug cough

A

Amiodarone
Bleomycin/Busulfan
Methotrexate

886
Q

Sulfa Drugs

A

FACTSSS + P

Furosemide
Acetazolamide
Celecoxib
Thiazides
Sulfonamide
Sulfasalazine
Sulfonylureas

Probenecid

887
Q

Cyt p450 Substrates:

A

[4 As]

Always, Always, Always, ALWAYS Think When Starting Other drugs

Anti seizure
Anti depressants
Anti psychotics
Anesthetics
Theophylline
Warfarin
Statins
OCPs
888
Q

Cyt p450 Inducers:

A

“Chornic Alcoholic Mona steals Phen-Phen and Never RIF-uses Greasy Carbs”

Chronic Alcohol
Modafinil
St. John's Wort
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
Nevirapine
Rifampin
Griseofulvin
Carbamazepine
889
Q

Cyt p450 Inhibitors:

A

“Acute alcoholic Gentleman, Cipped Iso-Iced Grapefruit juice QUIckly [while] AMy KEpt Mac’in on Sulfur CInammon RITz

Acute alchol
Gemfibrozil
Ciprofloxacin
Isoniazid
Grapefruit
Juice
Quinidine
Amiodarone
Ketoconazole
Macrolides
Sulfonamides
Cimetidine
RItonavir
890
Q

Universal PLASMA donor

A

AB blood group

[ no antibodies in plasma] and no antibodies form in plasma bc he’s got both A and B on RBC surface so that means he can ACCEPT RBCs from anyone because he’s already got both antigens.

891
Q

Universal RBC donor

A

O blood group

[ no surface antigens] Since no surface antigens; both A and B antibodies in plasma [ can receive plasma from anyone since he’s already got both antibodies in the plasma and no antigens on his surface anyway]

892
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Lead poisoning
Thalassemias
Anemia of Chronic Dz
Alcoholism

893
Q

Transfusions: Acute blood loss or severe anemia

A

Give Packed RBCs to increase Hb and O2

894
Q

Transfusions: To stop significant bleeding

A

Give platelets to increase platelet count [in the case of decreased count or quality]

895
Q

Transfusions: DIC, Warfarn Overdose, TTP/HUS, Cirrhossis

A

Give Fresh frozen plasma to increase coag factor levels

896
Q

Transfusions: If Coag factor deficiencies involving fibrinogen and Factor 8

A

Give cyroprecipitate which contains fibrinogen, factor 8, factor 13, vWF and fibronectin

897
Q

Labs: Low Iron, Increased TIBC, DECREASED FERRITIN [the only anemia with this], decreased % sasturation

A

Iron deficiency anemia

898
Q

Labs: Decreased Iron, Decreased Transferrin or TIBC and Increased Ferriton

A

Anemia of Chronic Disease

899
Q

Labs: INCREASED IRON, decreased transferrin/TIBC, increased Ferritin and greatly increased % transferring saturation

A

Hemochromatosis

900
Q

What effect does PRegnancy/ OCP use have on Iron?

A

Increases Transferrin/TIBC and Decreased % transferrin saturation

901
Q

Px: Microcytic anemia, GI and kidney issues. Mental issue sin kids + headache, memory loss and demyelination in adults. What enzyme is affected?

A

Ferrochelatase [mito] and ALA dehydratase [Lead Poisoning]

Protoporphyrin and Delta ALA will accumulate in the blood

902
Q

Px: 5 Ps: Painful abdomen, PORT WINE colored URINE, Polyneuropathy, Psychological issues, Precipitated by drugs, starvation, alcohol, etc. - What enzyme is affected?

A

Porphobilogen deaminase [Acute intermittent porphyria]

Porphobilinogen, Delta ALA, coporphobilonogen are accumulated in the urine

903
Q

Px: Blistering cutaneous photosensitivity. Which enzyme is affected?

A

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase [Porphyria cutaneua tarda] — Uroporphyrin / tea colored urine is the key!

904
Q

Rate limiting step for Heme synthesis

A

Delta aminolevulinic acid Synthase [issues lead to sideroblastic anemia]

Glucose and Heme inhibit this enzyme

This is why you give Glucose and Heme to treat Acute intermittent porphyria bc you want to inhibit ALA Synthase

905
Q

CD 15 and CD 30 positive B Cells [Best prognosis if lymphocyte rich]

A

Reed Sternberg Cells/ Hodgkin Dz

906
Q

t(8,14) = t(c-myc, heavy chain Ig) + Starry Sky apperance [sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed macrophages. This is associated with which virus?

A

EBV

Dz: Burkitt Lymphoma

907
Q

t(14,18) = t(Heavy chain Ig, bcl-2)

A

Follicular Lymphoma [waxing and waning lymphadenopathy] or Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma [most common in adults]

908
Q

A neoplasm of mature B cells that’s CD5+ and is linked with t(11,14)= t(Cyclin D1, Heavy chain Ig) translocation

A

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

909
Q

Px: Cutaneous lesions, lytic bone lesions and hypercalcemia. Associated with HTLV-1 [a retrovirus] and linked to IV drug abuse

A

Adult T cell Lymphoma

910
Q

Px: increased susceptibility to infection, Primary amyloidosis of IgG protein, punched ou lytic bone lesions, M Spike, Bence Jones protein [Ig light chains in urine], Rouleauz formation

A

Multiple myeloma

Make sure you know that the M Spike here is IgG vs. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia which has an M spike too but it’s IgM

911
Q

Hyperviscositiy symptoms + NO LYTIC BONE LESIONS + M spike

A

M spike = IgM= Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

912
Q

t(9,22) = BCR-ABL hydbrid

A

CML

913
Q

t(15,17)

A

M3 type of AML- Rx with all trans retinoic acid

914
Q

Dendrites in skin

A

Langerhan cells

915
Q

Px: lytic bone lesions in a child or recurrent otitis media with a mass involving the mastoid bone. Cells are immature and express S-100 [MESODERMAL ORIGIN] + CD1a marker.

Will see Birbeck granules/ tennis rackets on EM.

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis