NREMT Flashcards
Which early provider of emergency medical care went on to help establish the
American Red Cross?
Clara Barton
Which department was charged in 1966 with developing EMS standards and
systems?
Department of Transportation
Which is NOT considered a main component of the EMS system?
A. Emergency medical dispatchers
B. EMT instructors
C. Specialty care facilities
D. 911 access
B. EMT instructors
Which type of medical oversight involves a physician providing real-time orders
by radio/phone?
Online medical direction
When should an EMT gather more information before making a treatment
decision?
When adequate information is lacking
Which is NOT a role or responsibility of the EMT?
A. Driving the ambulance
B. Advocating for the patient
C. Leaving the scene before law enforcement
D. Assessing and treating patients
C. Leaving the scene before law enforcement
Which is NOT considered a desirable personal trait for EMTs?
A. Compassion
B. Impatience
C. Cooperation
D. Dependability
B. Impatience
- Where are EMTs NOT likely to find employment?
A. Hospital emergency department
B. Medical examiner’s office
C. Private ambulance service
D. City fire department
B. Medical examiner’s office
What does registration with the National Registry of EMTs help demonstrate?
Successful course completion
Which is NOT typically part of an EMT’s role in quality improvement?
A. Giving feedback on partner EMTs
B. Maintaining equipment
C. Continuing education
D. Documentation
A. Giving feedback on partner EMTs
Who is ultimately responsible for all patient care provided by EMTs?
A. EMS medical director
- Which is NOT typically a public health role for EMS?
A. Injury prevention programs
B. Treating chronic illnesses
C. Immunization clinics
D. Disease tracking
B. Treating chronic illnesses
What is the first step of the evidence-based research process?
Forming a hypothesis
What did the National EMS Systems Act accomplish?
Established standards for EMS systems
When should an EMT ask for medical direction input on patient care?
At his or her discretion
the main organization providing guidelines on protecting EMS providers
from disease exposure?
OSHA
Which type of mask should be worn when suctioning a patient?
Surgical mask
Which law allows EMS providers to find out if they were exposed to life-
threatening diseases on the job?
Ryan White Act
Which is NOT typically a source of stress for EMS providers?
A. Infant death
B. Financial problems
C. Severe injuries
D. Routine transfers
D. Routine transfers
Which is the first stage in dealing with death and dying?
Denial
Which should you do if your EMS partner is showing signs of cumulative stress?
Talk to them privately
When approaching a potential crime scene, EMS providers should:
Survey the scene before entering
Which type of infectious disease is spread through the air?
A. Hepatitis
B. HIV
C. Ebola
D. Tuberculosis
D. Tuberculosis
After providing care, EMS providers should
Wash hands with sanitizer
Which PPE is required for all patient contacts?
Gloves
Which is NOT a way for EMS providers to maintain well-being?
A. Adequate sleep
B. Regular medical visits
C. Heavy alcohol use
D. Proper nutrition
C. Heavy alcohol use
Which technique can help “defuse” stress after a critical incident?
A. EMDR
B. Self-talk
C. Critical incident stress debriefing
D. Aromatherapy
C. Critical incident stress debriefing
Sudden onset of stress symptoms after a call indicates which type of stress
reaction?
Acute
Which agency provides free hepatitis B vaccines to EMS providers?
Employer/EMS agency
You arrive on scene to a combative patient. You should FIRST:
Leave and stage nearby
You arrive on scene to find a patient who has fallen from a ladder while working
on his roof. He is conscious and alert but complains of back pain. Which of the
following should you do first?
Manually stabilize the spine and assess vital signs.
While transporting an obese patient downstairs, what device would be best
suited to prevent injury to the healthcare providers?
Stair chair
You’re at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. A patient is in critical condition
with major bleeding and the car is smoking. What type of patient move is most
appropriate?
Clothes drag
You’re called to assist a patient found lying supine on their bathroom floor. There
are no indications of trauma and the patient is alert. What is the most
appropriate lifting technique?
Extremity lift
During a marathon event, you come across a runner who has collapsed and is
unconscious. There is no indication of trauma. What position should the patient
be placed in for transport?
Left lateral recumbent
You’re lifting a heavy patient from the ground. Your partner is opposite to you.
Which of the following is most important?
a. A) Quick lifting to save time
b. B) Clear communication for coordinated lifting
c. C) Lifting with your back to generate the most force
d. D) Shifting the patient’s weight to your partner
B) Clear communication for coordinated lifting
When moving a patient who has a suspected spinal injury from a car accident,
which of the following devices would be the best choice?
a. A) A standard stretcher
b. B) A scoop stretcher
c. C) A spine board
d. D) A stair chair
C) A spine board
In which of the following scenarios would it NOT be appropriate to use the draw
sheet method?
a. A) A patient experiencing a stroke
b. B) A trauma patient with suspected spinal injury
c. C) A patient who has fainted
d. D) An elderly patient who has fallen but is not injured
B) A trauma patient with suspected spinal injury
When transferring a patient to a hospital stretcher, which is the most appropriate
technique to use?
B) The draw sheet method
Your patient has a known history of back problems and has just been involved in
a minor car accident. The patient is alert and denies any numbness or tingling in
his extremities. What should you do before moving this patient?
Manually stabilize the spine
You arrive at a scene where a 24-year-old female patient is alert and oriented but
has a broken arm from a fall. She refuses transport to the hospital. What should
you do?
Inform her of the risks of refusing care, attempt to consult medical
You are called to the scene of a motor vehicle accident. The driver is
unconscious. Under which of the following principles can you initiate care?
Implied consent
You have been called to a residential address for a patient who is experiencing
chest pain. As you begin to treat the patient, he suddenly says he doesn’t want to
go to the hospital. He is alert and oriented. What is the most appropriate next
step?
Persuade him to accept treatment by explaining the potential
consequences.
A bystander helps at a scene and later faces legal consequences. Which of the
following might be a reason for not being protected under Good Samaritan laws?
A) He was acting outside his skill level.
B) He stopped helping once EMS arrived.
C) He provided his name to law enforcement.
D) He helped without expecting compensation.
A) He was acting outside his skill level.
You’re off-duty and witness a car accident with injuries. Which of the following
statements best describes your legal obligation to act?
A) You are required to act.
B) You are not required but morally obligated.
C) You are not required to act if you are off-duty.
D) You are required to act only if a minor is involved.
C) You are not required to act if you are off-duty.
- Which of the following scenarios is an example of abandonment?
A) Leaving a patient after their condition improves.
B) Transferring care to a nurse in the emergency department.
C) Leaving the scene because your shift ended.
D) Discontinuing care before another healthcare provider of equal or
higher level of training takes over.
D) Discontinuing care before another healthcare provider of equal or
higher level of training takes over.
If a patient’s injuries were worsened because an EMT failed to immobilize a
suspected spinal injury, this would likely be an example of:
Negligence
Which of the following situations would require an EMT to breach patient
confidentiality?
A) A news reporter asking about the condition of a patient involved in a
high-profile accident.
B) Treating a minor without a guardian present.
C) A court order requiring disclosure of medical records.
D) Discussing the case with a family member asking for information
C) A court order requiring disclosure of medical records.
An EMT could potentially be charged with assault and battery in which of these
situations?
A) The EMT restrains a patient to keep them from harming themselves or
others.
B) The EMT administers a medication that the patient is allergic to,
despite the patient disclosing the allergy.
C) The EMT performs CPR on an unconscious patient who has a valid
DNR.
D) The EMT splints a broken bone to immobilize it.
B) The EMT administers a medication that the patient is allergic to,
despite the patient disclosing the allergy.
- Which of the following constitutes the best practice in terms of ethics for an
EMT?
A) Treating all patients to the best of your ability, regardless of their social,
economic, or cultural background.
B) Providing slightly better care for critically injured patients.
C) Sharing interesting cases with friends, while not disclosing names.
D) Withholding potentially painful treatments if the patient is unconscious.
A) Treating all patients to the best of your ability, regardless of their social,
economic, or cultural background.
What does the root therm mean?
Heat
What does dyspnea mean?
Difficult breathing
What is the full form of the acronym CPAP?
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
What does the suffix -itis signify?
Inflammation
When should you avoid using medical terminology?
When speaking to patients
What does anatomy study?
Body structures
If something is proximal it is:
Closer to the torso
What position is preferred for unconscious nontrauma patients?
Recovery
What does the term bilateral mean?
On both sides
What does the term LUQ stand for?
Left Upper Quadrant
What does the term medial mean?
Closer to the midline
In what position is the patient seated straight up?
Fowler
What does physiology study?
Body function
Which term refers to the sole of the foot?
Plantar
In what quadrant is the liver mainly located?
RUQ
What are the three main functions of the Musculoskeletal System?
Shape, Protection, Movement
What encases the spinal cord?
Spinal Column
Which system is responsible for hormonal regulation?
Endocrine System
What is the active process of breathing called?
Inhalation
Where does the exchange of gases between cells and the bloodstream occur?
Respiration
Which of the following arteries is NOT a central pulse?
● A. Carotid
● B. Femoral
● C. Radial
● D. Aorta
● C. Radial
What is hypoperfusion commonly known as?
Shock
Which type of muscle is voluntary?
Skeletal
How many vertebrae are in the spinal column?
33
Which system is primarily responsible for protection, water balance, and temperature
regulation?
Integumentary System
What is the correct order for the divisions of the spine from top to bottom?
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccygeal
Which part of the pelvis is formed by the ilium, ischium, and pubis?
Acetabulum
What is the function of the epiglottis?
Covering the glottis during swallowing
Which organ is not protected by the thoracic cavity?
Liver
What is the main component of plasma?
Water
What is the primary aim of pathophysiology?
Understanding disease processes
Which feedback mechanism is generally used to maintain homeostasis?
Negative feedback
What is the term for a group of signs and symptoms that occur together and
characterize a particular abnormality?
Syndrome
What type of disease has a rapid onset and a short duration?
Acute
Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of acute inflammation?
○ A) Pain
○ B) Cold
○ C) Redness
○ D) Swelling
Cold
In terms of cellular adaptation, what is hypertrophy?
Increase in cell size
What does etiology refer to?
Cause of a disease
Which of the following diseases is considered chronic?
○ A) Common cold
○ B) Diabetes
○ C) Influenza
○ D) Food poisoning
○ B) Diabetes
What is the initial physiological response to tissue injury?
Acute inflammation
Which type of cellular change involves an increase in cell number?
Hyperplasia
What role do white blood cells play in inflammation?
They initiate the healing process
What is the most common cause of cellular injury?
Hypoxia
What does homeostasis involve?
Maintaining a stable internal environment
What type of feedback enhances or amplifies changes?
Positive feedback
Which of the following best defines pathology?
Study of the nature and cause of disease
What is the average weight of a newborn?
3.0–3.5 kilograms
At what age does the anterior fontanelle generally close?
9–18 months
Which reflex helps an infant to find food?
Rooting reflex
Which of the following age groups is most susceptible to illness due to an
underdeveloped immune system?
○ A. Adolescents
○ B. Toddlers
○ C. School Age
○ D. Late Adulthood
○ B. Toddlers
What is a major psychosocial milestone during the toddler phase?
Developing separation anxiety
At what stage does a child begin to understand that words have meaning?
Preschool Age
What is the typical temperature range for a toddler?
98.6°F–99.6°F
What physiologic change occurs in school-age children?
Shedding of primary teeth
During which stage of life does a rapid two- to three-year growth spurt occur?
Adolescence
Which age group faces psychosocial challenges related to job and family stress?
Early Adulthood
At what age group does weight control typically become an issue?
Middle Adulthood
Which of the following deteriorates in Late Adulthood?
○ A. Respiratory System
○ B. Endocrine System
○ C. Cardiovascular System
○ D. All of the above
○ D. All of the above
Who often faces challenges like self-worth, financial burdens, and issues related
to death and dying?
Late Adulthood
When do lifelong habits generally form?
Early Adulthood
What would indicate increased pressure inside an infant’s skull?
Bulging fontanelles without crying
What is the primary purpose of the larynx?
To protect the lower airway during swallowing.
When performing a jaw-thrust maneuver, it is important NOT to:
a. Use your fingers to push the angles of the lower jaw forward.
b. Keep the head, neck, and spine in alignment.
c. Tilt or rotate the head if a spinal injury is suspected.
d. Open the mouth to allow for air passage.
c. Tilt or rotate the head if a spinal injury is suspected.
The oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is contraindicated in patients who:
Have an intact gag reflex.
The nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) is typically contraindicated in patients with:
A history of epistaxis.
Which of the following is NOT a sign of an inadequate airway?
a. Patient is speaking in full sentences without difficulty.
b. Absent or minimal chest movement.
c. Abnormal breathing noises like wheezing or stridor.
d. Presence of foreign bodies in the airway.
a. Patient is speaking in full sentences without difficulty.
When assessing a pediatric patient’s airway, it is important to remember that:
a. Their airway structures are more rigid than adults.
b. They rely less on the diaphragm for breathing.
c. The trachea is softer and more flexible, making it easily obstructed.
d. Their tongue is proportionally smaller than in adults.
The trachea is softer and more flexible, making it easily obstructed.
During suctioning, if you notice the patient’s heart rate is dropping, you should:
Stop suctioning and reoxygenate the patient.
An EMT should switch from the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver to the jaw-thrust
maneuver when
There is suspicion of spinal injury.
Abdominal thrusts in a conscious adult with a severe airway obstruction should
be directed:
Inward and upward.
The correct placement of an OPA is indicated by:
The flange resting against the patient’s lips.
The flange resting against the patient’s lips.
Align the airway structures for optimal airflow.
In cases of severe allergic reaction with airway compromise, the EMT should be
prepared to
Provide aggressive airway management.
A gurgling sound in the airway typically indicates
Fluids in the upper airway.
When managing the airway of a patient with significant facial trauma, the EMT
should be most concerned with
Suctioning and possible airway adjuncts.
The process by which air enters the lungs due to negative pressure is known as
Inhalation.
Which of the following would NOT typically cause a diffusion problem for gas
exchange in the alveoli?
a. a. High altitude.
b. b. A stab wound to the chest.
c. c. Fluid in the alveoli.
d. d. Alveolar damage due to smoking.
A stab wound to the chest.
A common cause of hypoxia that EMTs might encounter includes:
a. a. Patient in a well-ventilated area.
b. b. Patient trapped in a fire.
c. c. Patient who is hyperventilating.
d. d. Patient who has a rapid heart rate.
b. b. Patient trapped in a fire.
In cases of respiratory failure, the most immediate concern for the EMT is to:
Begin artificial ventilation.
When assessing a patient’s breathing, which of the following is considered a sign
of adequate breathing?
Typical skin coloration and equal chest expansion.
When providing PPV, the EMT should:
Ventilate at a rate that is appropriate for the patient’s age and condition
A patient with suspected spinal injury requires ventilation. The EMT should:
Maintain spinal precautions while ventilating.
A non-rebreather mask is used to deliver
High concentrations of oxygen.
A Venturi mask is particularly beneficial for patients with:
COPD.
Gastric distention during artificial ventilation can be minimized by:
Using appropriate ventilation volume.
. The correct rate of ventilation for an adult with a stoma who is not breathing is:
10–12 times per minute.
The EMT can assess the effectiveness of ventilations by observing:
The chest for rise and fall.
Oxygen toxicity is a risk when:
High-flow oxygen is administered for an extended duration.
When assisting a paramedic with intubation, the EMT’s role may include:
a. Inserting the endotracheal tube.
Providing BURP maneuver to improve visualization.
In patients with a history of COPD, oxygen therapy should be administered:
Carefully, to avoid depressing the hypoxic drive.
The primary goal of scene size-up is to
Ensure the safety of EMS crew, patient, and bystanders.
When establishing the danger zone at a vehicle collision with no apparent
hazards, it should be at least:
50 feet in all directions
The mechanism of injury in a motor-vehicle collision can help predict:
The type and extent of injuries.
When assessing the number of patients at a scene, it is important because
it determines:
The need for additional resources and personnel.
Standard Precautions are primarily intended to
Protect EMS crew from bloodborne pathogens.
During scene size-up, if you identify the smell of gasoline, your immediate
action should be to
Establish a larger danger zone and avoid creating sparks.
A deployed airbag in a vehicle after a collision suggests:
The patient may have neck or facial injuries.
In a shooting incident at a fast-food restaurant, upon arrival, your first
action should be to
Wait for law enforcement to secure the scene.
The reason for identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness
during scene size-up is to:
Prepare the EMS crew for the types of injuries or conditions they will
encounter.
In a rear-end motor vehicle collision, you should be alert for
Potential spinal injuries due to the mechanism of injury.
The presence of loud voices or fighting at an emergency scene indicates:
The potential for violence requiring scene safety assessment.
Which of the following best describes the rationale for maintaining index
of suspicion based on mechanism of injury?
To anticipate possible injuries and prepare for patient care.
When considering the nature of the patient’s illness, information can be
gathered from
Family members, bystanders, and the scene.
The ‘up-and-over’ injury pattern is associated with
Head-on collisions.
A fall from a height is more serious and has a higher index of suspicion for
serious injury if:
The patient is an adult who fell more than 10 feet.
When performing a primary assessment, your first step should be to:
Check for responsiveness.
If a patient is making gurgling sounds, this indicates that:
The patient requires immediate suctioning.
During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by all the following
except:
Taking a blood pressure reading.
An EMT should begin spinal motion restriction (SMR) when:
There is a suspicion of spinal injury based on the mechanism of injury.
The ‘Look Test’ is used to:
Get a general sense of the patient’s overall condition at first glance.
The AVPU scale is used to assess:
Patient’s level of responsiveness.
Which of the following is not a component of forming a general impression?
Patient’s past medical history.
What does C-A-B stand for in the context of primary assessment?
Circulation, Airway, Breathing.
A patient who is alert and talking clearly has:
An open and clear airway.
A patient with pale, clammy skin is most likely experiencing:
Shock.
The primary assessment should be reevaluated how often?
Continuously throughout patient care.
An unresponsive patient should be assessed first with:
A primary assessment focusing on C-A-B.
In the primary assessment, a patient’s priority for transport is determined by
The need for immediate life-saving interventions.
The mnemonic A-B-C is a guide to:
a. Ambulance operations.
b. Intervention priorities.
c. Assessment order.
d. Both b and c.
d. Both b and c.
A patient’s mental status is best assessed by
Using the AVPU scale.
What is the importance of obtaining baseline vital signs?
To provide a starting point for identifying trends in the patient’s condition.
If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, this would be
Indicative of hypertension.
Which of the following should be assessed when examining a patient’s pupils?
Size, equality, and reactivity to light.
When using a pulse oximeter, a reading of 92% could suggest:
The patient may be experiencing mild hypoxia.
Bradycardia in an adult is defined as a pulse rate:
Below 60 beats per minute.
What is the first step when measuring blood pressure by auscultation?
Palpate the brachial artery.
Skin that is cool, pale, and moist is indicative of
Possible shock.
A thready pulse most likely suggests:
Decreased stroke volume.
A patient with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is experiencing:
Tachypnea.
The term “capnography” refers to the monitoring of
Exhaled carbon dioxide levels.
What is the primary focus of the primary assessment?
Life-threatening conditions
Which technique is used to listen for abnormal sounds in the body during
physical examination?
Auscultation
In the SAMPLE history, what does the M stand for?
In the SAMPLE history, what does the M stand for?
What is the purpose of using the OPQRST mnemonic in patient assessment?
To assess the chief complaint in a structured manner
When assessing a child, it’s important to:
Tailor communication to be age-appropriate
Auscultation during a physical examination is crucial for assessing
Lung sounds
What does the ‘P’ in OPQRST stand for?
Provocation/Palliation
The assessment of which body system includes checking for jugular vein
distention?
Cardiovascular system
Which of the following is a component of the past medical history (PMH)?
Patient’s chronic illnesses
When palpating a patient’s abdomen during an assessment, you are checking
for:
Abdominal tenderness
In assessing a patient with a suspected stroke, which of the following would be
most relevant?
A. Blood glucose level
B. Glasgow Coma Scale
C. OPQRST mnemonic
D. SAMPLE history
Glasgow Coma Scale
What is the first step in the physical examination of a patient?
Observing the patient’s overall appearance
What is the primary purpose of the Glasgow Coma Scale in neurological
assessment?
To determine the patient’s level of consciousness
During a patient assessment, the mnemonic SAMPLE is used primarily to:
Collect the patient’s medical history
Which technique should be used first when attempting to gain access to a
patient in a vehicle collision?
Checking if the door can be opened normally
What should you primarily focus on during the secondary assessment of a
responsive medical patient?
History of the present illness
During the secondary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient, you
should first:
Perform a rapid physical exam.
The DCAP-BTLS mnemonic is used to
Assess for potential trauma injuries
When assessing a pediatric patient, it is important to:
Communicate at an age-appropriate level.
The primary difference between a detailed physical exam and a rapid trauma
assessment is:
The depth of the assessment.
For a trauma patient with serious injuries, the EMT should
Perform a rapid trauma assessment first.
When performing a secondary assessment on a trauma patient, the EMT should
look for:
Deformities, contusions, and abrasions.
A 35-year-old male complains of chest pain. Your secondary assessment
should focus on:
The respiratory and cardiovascular systems.
What is the first step in the secondary assessment of a responsive medical
patient?
Obtaining a patient history.
When assessing an unresponsive medical patient, it is MOST important to:
Gather history from family or bystanders.
