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NPTE Flashcards

1
Q

Coffee ground emesis indicates what?

A

Peptic ulcers

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2
Q

What is it called when there is a blockage that stops/slows conduction across that point in the nerve?

Conduction above and below that point is normal.
Recovery is possible

A

Neuropraxia

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3
Q

What is it called when the neural tube is intact, but there is axonal damage with Wallerian Degeneration?

Surgical intervention required

A

Axonotmesis

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4
Q

What is it called when there is total loss of axonal function with disruption of the neural tube?

Surgical intervention required

A

Neurotmesis

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5
Q

What is the best joint mob for adhesive capsulitis?

A

Posterior inferior GH glide

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6
Q

Describe the 5 different joint mobility grades:

A

1) SMALL amplitude of movement performed at the BEGINNING of the RANGE
2) LARGE amplitude of movement performed WITHIN THE RANGE, but not reaching the limit
3) LARGE amplitude RHYTHMIC OSCILLATIONS are performed UP TO THE LIMIT OF AVAILABLE MOTION and are stressed into the tissue resistance
4) SMALL amplitude RHYTHMIC OSCILLATIONS are performed AT THE LIMIT of available motion and stressed into the tissue resistance
5) SMALL amplitude HIGH VELOCITY THRUST technique performed to snap adhesions at the limit of range

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7
Q

Supine to sit test: describe the innominate rotation

  1. Affected leg is long when in supine and short when in sitting
  2. Affected leg is short when in supine and long when in sitting
A
  1. Anterior innominate rotation
  2. Posterior innominate rotation
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8
Q

Define the following BP categories:

Normal:
Elevated:
Stage 1 HTN:
Stage 2 HTN:
Hypertensive Crisis:

A

Normal: < 120 / < 80
Elevated: 120 - 129 / < 80
Stage 1 HTN: 130 - 139 / 80 - 90
Stage 2 HTN: 140 - 149 / 80 - 90
Hypertensive Crisis: 140 / 90 or greater

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9
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

A

CO = HR x SV

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10
Q

Use the mnemonic for the 6-20 RPE scale to recall exertional levels

A

“SHVEM”
13 - Somewhat hard
15- Hard
17 - Very Hard
19 - Extremely Hard
20 - Maximal exertion

11 - Light
9 - Very light
7.5 - Extremely light
6 - None

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11
Q

Describe where to auscultate the heart sounds

A

APT M 2245

Aorta - 2nd ICS on R (sternal border)
Pulmonary - 2nd ICS on L (sternal border)
Tricuspid - 4th ICS on L (sternal border)
Mitral - 5th ICS midclavicular line on L

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12
Q

S1 heart sound

Sound?
What does it signify?
When does it occur?

A

Sound = lub
Signify = closure of mitral and tricuspid valves
Occurs at = onset of systole

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13
Q

S2 heart sound

Sound?
Signify?
Occurs at?

A

Sound: dub
Signify: closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
Occurs at: onset of diastole

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14
Q

S3 Heart Sound

Sound?
Occurs during?
Signifies?

A

Sound: ventricular gallop
Occurs during ventricular filling
Signifies heart failure

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15
Q

S4 heart sound

Sound?
Occurs during?
Associated with?

A

Sound: atrial gallop
Occurs during: ventricular filling and atrial contraction
Associated with HTN and myocardial infarction

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16
Q

How will you modify your communication with a patient who has Broca’s aphasia?

A

Ask “yes or no” questions

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17
Q

How will you modify your communication with a patient who has Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

Use gestures and demonstration

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18
Q

Recall the mnemonic for knowing the locations of the cranial nerves

A

“CE MI PONS MEDU”

Cerebrum: 1 & 2
Midbrain: 3 & 4
Pons: 5, 6, 7, 8
Medulla: 9, 10, 11, 12

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19
Q

Hearing loss uses Rinne and Weber’s tests. What order do the tests need to be performed in and what do they tell you?

A
  1. Rinne - Type of hearing loss (conductive vs. sensorineural)
  2. Weber - side of hearing loss
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20
Q

Rinne test: what do the following results mean?

AC > BC:
BC > AC:

A

AC > BC: normal or sensorineural loss (inner ear)
BC > AC: conduction loss (outer ear)

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21
Q

Weber’s test: interpret the results

Heard equal on both sides:
Heard Louder in Normal ear:
Heard Louder in Affected ear:

A

Heard equal on both sides: normal

Mnemonic: “CANS” - Conduction Affected; Normal Sensorineural
Heard Louder in Normal ear: sensorineural loss (inner ear)
Heard Louder in Affected ear: conduction loss (outer ear)

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22
Q

Deviation of the uvula (Affected by CN 10) is to what side?

A

Contralateral to the lesion

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23
Q

Deviation of the tongue (Affected by CN 12) is to what side?

A

Ipsilateral to the injury (lick the lesion(

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24
Q

Lung volumes:
1) Inspiratory capacity = _________________ + __________________
2) Functional residual capacity = __________________ + ________________
3) Vital capacity = ________________ + __________________ + ________________
4) Total lung capacity = _____________ + _______________ + _______________ + __________________

A

1) inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume
2) expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
3) expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
4) inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

Volumes make up capacities

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25
Q

Lung volumes:
1) What is a normal tidal volume amount?
2) How much greater is the inspiratory reserve volume than the tidal volume?
3) How much greater is the expiratory reserve volume than the tidal volume?
4) How much greater is the residual volume than the tidal volume?

A

1) 500 mL
2) 5-6x tidal volume
3) 2.5x tidal volume
4) 2.5x tidal volume

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26
Q

What lung volumes or capacities INCREASE with obstructive diseases such as COPD?

A
  1. Tidal volume
  2. Functional residual capacity
  3. Residual volume
  4. Total lung volume

*all others decrease

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27
Q

What happens to the FEV1 in restrictive diseases such as pneumonia and fibrosis?

A

Remains normal

(FEV1/FEV > 80%)

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28
Q

COPD Gold Classification:

I (mild): FEV1 > ________
II (moderate): FEV1 ________
III (severe): FEV1 _________
IV (very severe): FEV1 ________

A

I (mild): FEV1 > 80%
II (moderate): FEV1 50 - 80%
III (severe): FEV1 30 - 50%
IV (very severe): FEV1 < 30%

*all FEV1/FVC < 70%

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29
Q

VESICULAR breath sounds

Duration of sounds:
Intensity:
Pitch of Expiratory:
Location:

A

Duration of sounds: inspiratory longer than expiratory
Intensity: soft
Pitch of Expiratory: low
Location: over most of lungs

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30
Q

BRONCHO-VESICULAR breath sounds

Duration of sounds:
Intensity:
Pitch of Expiratory:
Location:

A

Duration of sounds: Inspiratory & expiratory sounds are equal
Intensity: intermediate
Pitch of Expiratory: intermediate
Location: btw 1st and 2nd interspace anteriorly & between the scapulae

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31
Q

BRONCHIAL breath sounds

Duration of sounds:
Intensity:
Pitch of Expiratory:
Location:

A

Duration of sounds: Expiratory sounds longer than inspiratory ones
Intensity: Loud
Pitch of Expiratory: High
Location: over manubrium

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32
Q

Tracheal breath sounds

Duration of sounds:
Intensity:
Pitch of Expiratory:
Location:

A

Duration of sounds: both inspiratory and expiratory are equal
Intensity: very loud
Pitch of Expiratory: relatively high
Location: over trachea in the neck

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33
Q

What are low-pitched, rattling lung sounds that often resemble snoring?

Can be heard in pts w/ COPD, bronchiectasis, pneumonia, chronic bronchitis, or cystic fibrosis (aka Obstructive Diseases)

A

Rhonchi

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34
Q

What is a high-pitched sound heard in expiration caused by airway obstruction (such as asthma, COPD, or aspiration of any foreign body)?

In severe constriction it may be heard in inspiration as well.

A

Wheeze

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35
Q

What are brief, discontinuous, popping lung sounds that are high pitched and heard on both inspiration and expiration.

Inspiratory: atelectasis, pneumonia, CHF/pulmonary edema
Expiratory: fluid in alveoli, chronic bronchitis, pneumonia

A

Crackles / Rales

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36
Q

What does a pleural rub indicate?

A

Pleural inflammation

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37
Q

Bronchophony

  1. What is it?
  2. What does it indicate?
A
  1. Increased vocal resonance w/ greater clarity and loudness of spoken words (ex. 99)
  2. Secretions/consolidation, airless lung segments
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38
Q

Egophony
1. What is it?
2. What does in indicate?

A
  1. A form of bronchophony in which the spoken long “E” sounds changes to a long, nasal sounding “A”
  2. Secretions in lung
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39
Q

Whispered Pectoriloquy
1. What is it?
2. What does it indicate?

A
  1. Increased loudness of whispering. Recognition of whispered words “1,2,3”
  2. Secretions in lung, airless lung segment
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40
Q

Whispered Pectoriloquy
1. What is it?
2. What does it indicate?

A
  1. Increased loudness of whispering. Recognition of whispered words “1,2,3”
  2. Secretions in lung, airless lung segment
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41
Q

Normal pH level

A

7.35 - 7.35

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42
Q

Normal PaCO2 level

A

35 - 45 mmHg

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43
Q

Normal HCO3 level

A

22 - 26 mEq/L

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44
Q

What are the values for ACIDIC blood gas
1. pH
2. PaCO2
3. HCO3

A
  1. < 7.35
  2. > 45
  3. < 22
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45
Q

What are the values for ALKALINE blood gas
1. pH
2. PaCO2
3. HCO3

A
  1. > 7.45
  2. < 35
  3. > 26
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46
Q

How do you determine respiratory or metabolic causes of acid/base disruption?

A

Respiratory cause if CO2 value is abnormal
Metabolic cause if HCO3 value is abnormal

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47
Q

In gait…
1. contracture will cause a decrease in the ROM of ____________ motion
2. weakness will cause a decrease in the ROM of the _________ motion

A
  1. Opposite
  2. Same
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48
Q

True or False:
Pressure tolerant areas of a limb will have transient redness following prosthetic use

A

True

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49
Q

What are the 4 pressure tolerant areas of a transtibial amputation?

A
  1. Patellar tendon
  2. Medial tibial plateau
  3. Tibial and Fibular shafts
  4. Distal end (rarely, may be sensitive)
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50
Q

Hot Pack
Tx temp:
Tx time:
_________ layers
When is the highest burn risk and why?

A

Tx temp: 160 - 170°
Tx time: 20 - 30 minutes
6 - 8 layers
Highest burn risk in the first 5 minutes b/c hot pack reaches peak temp. Check pt at 5 minutes.

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51
Q

Cold Pack
Tx temp:
Tx time:
Application frequency:
Stages of cold:

A

Tx temp: 25 deg.
Tx time: 10 - 20 minutes
Application frequency: 1 - 2 hours
Stages of cold: Cold, Burning, Aching/analgesia, Numbness

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52
Q

High-Voltage Pulsed Galvanic Current
1. Which electrode is used for INFLAMED or INFECTED wounds?
2. Which electrode is used for wounds WITHOUT INFLAMMATION?

A
  1. Negative
  2. Positive
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53
Q

Iontophoresis:
What are the medications that use negative ions (i.e. put negative electrode on meds)?

A

Pneumonic = “I. S. A. D.”

Iodine
Salicylate
Acetate
Dexamethasone

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54
Q

What are the cardinal signs of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

T.R.A.P

Tremor
Rigidity
Akinesia
Postural instability

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55
Q

Hoehn and Yhar Classification of Disability

Stage 1: minimal or absent; ___________ if present
Stage 2: minimal ____________ or midline involvement. ___________ not impaired
Stage 3: impaired _____________ reflexes. Unsteadiness when turning or rising from chair. Some activities are restricted, but pt can live independently and continue some forms of employment
Stage 4: All symptoms present and _________. Standing and walking possible only with ____________.
Stage 5: ___________ to bed or wheelchair.

A

Stage 1: minimal or absent; UNILATERAL if present
Stage 2: minimal BILATERAL or midline involvement. BALANCE not impaired
Stage 3: impaired RIGHTING reflexes. Unsteadiness when turning or rising from chair. Some activities are restricted, but pt can live independently and continue some forms of employment
Stage 4: All symptoms present and SEVERE Standing and walking possible only with ASSISTANCE
Stage 5: CONFINED to bed or wheelchair.

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56
Q

Hoehn and Yhar Classification of Disability

Stage 1: minimal or absent; ___________ if present
Stage 2: minimal ____________ or midline involvement. ___________ not impaired
Stage 3: impaired _____________ reflexes. Unsteadiness when turning or rising from chair. Some activities are restricted, but pt can live independently and continue some forms of employment
Stage 4: All symptoms present and _________. Standing and walking possible only with ____________.
Stage 5: ___________ to bed or wheelchair.

A

Stage 1: minimal or absent; UNILATERAL if present
Stage 2: minimal BILATERAL or midline involvement. BALANCE not impaired
Stage 3: impaired RIGHTING reflexes. Unsteadiness when turning or rising from chair. Some activities are restricted, but pt can live independently and continue some forms of employment
Stage 4: All symptoms present and SEVERE Standing and walking possible only with ASSISTANCE
Stage 5: CONFINED to bed or wheelchair.

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57
Q

What is the 1st early symptom of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Loss of smell

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58
Q

What kind of diet can block the effectiveness of Levodopa in Parkinson’s pts?

A

High-protein diet

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59
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

1) __________ motor neuron disorder
2) ____________ disease
3) Progressive _____________ of neurons in CNS

A

1) UPPER motor neuron disorder
2) AUTOIMMUNE disease
3) Progressive DEMYELINATION of neurons in CNS

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60
Q

Signs & Symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis

1) How are motor and sensory systems affected?
2) Is the cerebellum affected?
3) Gait may be ataxia, uneven steps, scissoring, and _________ spasticity in LE
4) Is the bladder affected?
5) Is emotion affected?
6) Is cognition affected?
7) What cranial nerves are affected?
8) What does a therapist need to watch closely for during exercise?

A

1) Motor = spasticity (b/c UMN lesion); Sensory = numbness & parenthesis
2) Yes, results in nystagmus, coordination & balance deficits, ataxia, and intention tremors
3) Gait may be ataxia, uneven steps, scissoring, and EXTENSOR spasticity in LE
4) Yes, may be spastic or flaccid
5) yes, pseudobulbar affect
6) Yes, diminished attention and concentration
7) CN II - optic neuritis, CN 5 - trigeminal neuralgia
8) Fatigue & heat intolerance

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61
Q

The following are 4 unique S&S of Multiple Sclerosis: What does each mean?

  1. Lhermitte’s sign
  2. Uhthoff’s Phenomenon
  3. Charcot’s Triad
  4. Cranial Nerve II
A
  1. Neck flexion causes electric shock down spine
  2. Heat makes symptoms worse
  3. Scanning speech, intention tremor, nystagmus
  4. Optic neuritis; Marcus Gunn Pupil - pupil will dilate w/ pupillary light reflex
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62
Q

The following are 4 unique S&S of Multiple Sclerosis: What does each mean?

  1. Lhermitte’s sign
  2. Uhthoff’s Phenomenon
  3. Charcot’s Triad
  4. Cranial Nerve II
A
  1. Neck flexion causes electric shock down spine
  2. Heat makes symptoms worse
  3. Scanning speech, intention tremor, nystagmus
  4. Optic neuritis; Marcus Gunn Pupil - pupil will dilate w/ pupillary light reflex
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63
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
1) UMN or LMN disorder?
2) progressive neurological disorder that damages _______ cells and causes disability
3) Death of _________ neuron (no sensory symptoms)

A

1) both

2) progressive neurological disorder that damages NERVE cells and causes disability
3) Death of MOTOR neuron (no sensory symptoms)

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64
Q

Signs and Symptoms of ALS

  1. Muscle ___________ & ____________ (LMN)
  2. Spasticity & _____reflexia (UMN)
  3. Dysphasia (difficulty speaking) & Dysarthria (Slurred speech) — Bulbar (CNs __________)
  4. Cognition: ___________, attention deficits
  5. ______________ affect - emotional lability
  6. Cervical spine ____________ weakness is common
  7. Death secondary to _________________ weakness
A
  1. Muscle ATROPHY & FASCICULATIONS (LMN)
  2. Spasticity & HYPERreflexia (UMN)
  3. Dysphasia (difficulty speaking) & Dysarthria (Slurred speech) — Bulbar (CNs 9, 10, 11,12)
  4. Cognition: DEMENTIA, attention deficits
  5. PSEUDOBULBAR affect - emotional lability
  6. Cervical spine EXTENSOR weakness is common
  7. Death secondary to RESPIRATORY MUSCLE weakness
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65
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

  1. UMN or LMN disease?
  2. Type of disease?
  3. Cause of disease?
  4. Acute inflammatory demyelination _______________
  5. Rapid _____________ loss of myelin in nerve roots, peripheral nerves, and cranial nerves.
A
  1. LMN
  2. Autoimmune
  3. Occurs after infection
  4. Acute inflammatory demyelination POLYRADICULONEUROPATHY
  5. Rapid ASYMMETRICAL loss of myelin in nerve roots, peripheral nerves, and cranial nerves.
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66
Q

Signs and Symptoms of GBS:

  1. Motor loss/ paralysis is _________ and progressive and occurs in a ________ to ________ fashion
  2. Sensory loss occurs in a __________________________ distribution and consists of burning, tingling, and numbness
  3. Reflexes are __________
  4. What cranial nerves are involved?
A
  1. Motor loss/ paralysis is RAPID and progressive and occurs in a DISTAL to PROXIMAL fashion
  2. Sensory loss occurs in a GLOVE AND STOCKING distribution and consists of burning, tingling, and numbness
  3. Reflexes are DECREASED/ABSENT
  4. CN VII, IX, X, XI, XII
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67
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome Interventions:

  • ____________ care
  • Teach __________ conservation techniques
  • Avoid overuse and ____________ (can prolong recovery)
  • Recovery = _________ months, may recover fully
A
  • RESPIRATORY care
  • Teach ENERGY conservation techniques
  • Avoid overuse and FATIGUE (can prolong recovery)
  • Recovery = 6 - 12 months, may recover fully
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68
Q

Describe the following characteristics of a RIGHT hemisphere stroke:

  1. Tone/sensation:
  2. Impairments:
  3. Behavior:
  4. Intellectual:
  5. Emotional:
  6. Common:
A
  1. Tone/sensation: Left hemiparesis/hemisensory loss
  2. Impairments: Visual-perceptual impairments including neglect & difficulty w/ visual cues
  3. Behavior: Quick, impulsive, safety risk
  4. Intellectual: rigidity of thought
  5. Emotional: difficult w/ negative emotions
  6. Common: homonymous hemianopsia

*Think “baby”

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69
Q

Describe the following characteristics of a LEFT hemisphere stroke:

  1. Tone/sensation:
  2. Impairments:
  3. Behavior:
  4. Intellectual:
  5. Emotional:
  6. Common:
A
  1. Tone/sensation: Right hemiparesis/hemisensory loss
  2. Impairments: Language impairments including aphasias & difficulty w/ verbal cues
  3. Behavior: slow, cautious
  4. Intellectual: highly distractible
  5. Emotional: difficulty w/ positive emotions
  6. Common: homonymous hemianopsia

*Think “old person”

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70
Q

Anterior Cerebral Artery Syndrome
Signs and Symptoms:

  • _______________ hemiparesis (LE)
  • _______________ hemisensory loss (LE)
  • ___________ incontinence
  • Problems with imitation, ___________ tasks, apraxia
  • Slowness, delay, __________ inaction
  • _____________ grasp reflex, sucking reflex
A
  • CONTRALATERAL hemiparesis (LE)
  • CONTRALATERAL hemisensory loss (LE)
  • URINARY incontinence
  • Problems with imitation, BIMANUAL tasks, apraxia
  • Slowness, delay, MOTOR inaction
  • CONTRALATERAL grasp reflex, sucking reflex

**Anything that resembles a baby

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71
Q

Anterior Cerebral Artery Syndrome
Signs and Symptoms:

  • _______________ hemiparesis (LE)
  • _______________ hemisensory loss (LE)
  • ___________ incontinence
  • Problems with imitation, ___________ tasks, apraxia
  • Slowness, delay, __________ inaction
  • _____________ grasp reflex, sucking reflex
A
  • CONTRALATERAL hemiparesis (LE)
  • CONTRALATERAL hemisensory loss (LE)
  • URINARY incontinence
  • Problems with imitation, BIMANUAL tasks, apraxia
  • Slowness, delay, MOTOR inaction
  • CONTRALATERAL grasp reflex, sucking reflex

**Anything that resembles a baby

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72
Q

Middle Cerebral Artery
Signs and Symptoms:

  • ______________ hemiparesis (UE and face)
  • ______________ contralateral hemisensory loss (UE and face)
  • ______________ ___________ impairments (for L sided lesions) Broca, Wernicke’s, Global aphasia
  • _____________ disorders (for R sided lesions): unilateral neglect
  • _______________ homonymous hemianopsia (occur in both R and L sided lesions)
A
  • CONTRALATERAL hemiparesis (UE and face)
  • CONTRALATERAL contralateral hemisensory loss (UE and face)
  • LANGUAGE SPEECH impairments (for L sided lesions) Broca, Wernicke’s, Global aphasia
  • PERCEPTUAL disorders (for R sided lesions): unilateral neglect
  • CONTRALATERAL homonymous hemianopsia (occur in both R and L sided lesions)
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73
Q

Broca’s Aphasia
- occurs d/t lesion of the ___________ branch of MCA
- What does “B.E.N.” mean?
- Patients understand what type of questions?

A
  • occurs d/t lesion of the SUPERIOR branch of MCA
  • Broken speech, Expressive, Non-fluent
  • Yes/no
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74
Q

Wernicke’s Aphasia
- occurs d/t lesion of the __________ branch of MCA
- ____________ aphasia
- ____________ (able to reply, can’t understand “yes/no”)
- How should the therapist communicate treatment to these patients?

A
  • occurs d/t lesion of the INFERIOR branch of MCA
  • RECEPTIVE aphasia (word salad)
  • FLUENT (able to reply; can’t understand “yes/no”)
  • via demo
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75
Q

Global Aphasia
- occurs d/t lesion of _________ of MCA

A
  • occurs d/t lesion of STEM of MCA
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76
Q

Posterior Cerebral Artery Syndrome
Signs and Symptoms — PERIPHERAL TERRITORY

  • _______________ homonymous hemianposia
  • Visual agnostia: ___________ (unable to recognize faces)
  • _______________ (difficulty reading) without _____________ (difficulty writing)
  • ________ discrimination
  • Memory deficits
  • ________________ disorientation
A

Posterior Cerebral Artery Syndrome
Signs and Symptoms — PERIPHERAL TERRITORY

  • CONTRALATERAL homonymous hemianposia
  • Visual agnostia: PROSOPAGNOSIA (unable to recognize faces)
  • DYSLEXIA (difficulty reading) without AGRAPHIA (difficulty writing)
  • COLOR discrimination
  • Memory deficits
  • TOPOGRAPHICAL disorientation
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77
Q

Posterior Cerebral Artery Syndrome
Signs and Symptoms — CENTRAL TERRITORY
- __________ involved leading to immense pain

A
  • THALAMUS involved leading to immense pain
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78
Q

Brunnstrom Stages of Stroke Recovery
1) __________: no active limb movement
2) beginning of minimal voluntary movement; in ________, with ___________ reactions; increased tone
3) voluntary control of movement synergy (spasticity __________)
4) movement ___________ of synergy; tone _________
5) increased ___________ movement, greater __________ from limb synergies
6) individual _______ movement; ____________ movement
7) ___________ function

A

1) FLACCIDTY no active limb movement
2) beginning of minimal voluntary movement; in SYNERGY with ASSOCIATED reactions; increased tone
3) voluntary control of movement synergy (spasticity PEAKS)
4) movement OUTSIDE of synergy; tone DECREASES
5) increased COMPLEX movement, greater INDEPENDENCE from limb synergies
6) individual JOINT movement; COORDINATED movement
7) NORMAL function

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79
Q

Spasticity in UE

Think “Chicken Dance”
Scapula:
Shoulder:
Elbow:
Forearm:
Wrist:
Hand:

A

Think “Chicken Dance”
Scapula: retraction, downward rotation
Shoulder: adduction, IR, depression
Elbow: flexion
Forearm: pronation
Wrist: flexion, adduction
Hand: finger flexion, clenched fist thumb, adducted in palm

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80
Q

Spasticity Pattern in LE

Think “Ballerina”
Pelvis:
Hip:
Knee:
Foot/ankle:

A

Think “Ballerina”
Pelvis: retraction (hip hiking)
Hip: Adduction (scissoring), IR, Extension
Knee: Extension
Foot/ankle: Plantarflexion, Inversion, Equinovarus, Toes claw, Toes curl

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81
Q

UE Flexion Synergy

“Showing off biceps”
Scapula:
Shoulder:
Elbow:
Wrist and finger:

A

“Showing off biceps”
Scapula: retraction/elevation or hyperextension
Shoulder: abduction, external rotation
Elbow: flexion
Wrist and finger: flexion

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82
Q

UE Extension Synergy

“Waiter’s tip”
Scapula:
Shoulder:
Elbow:
Forearm:
Wrist and finger:

A

“Waiter’s tip”
Scapula: protraction
Shoulder: adduction, IR
Elbow: extension
Forearm: pronation
Wrist and finger: flexion

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83
Q

LE Flexion Synergy

“Figure 4 position”
Hip:
Knee:
Ankle:
Toe:

A

“Figure 4 position”
Hip: flexion, abduction, ER
Knee: flexion
Ankle: DF, inversion
Toe: DF

84
Q

LE Extension Synergy

“Ballerina”
Hip:
Knee:
Ankle:
Toe:

A

“Ballerina”
Hip: extension, adduction, IR
Knee: extension
Ankle: PF, inversion
Toe: PF

85
Q

Peds Milestones Poem

3 I lift my _________
4 lay on my ________
5 __________ to ________
And at 6 I _____________

7 ___________,
At 8, can’t wait to ___________ (9)
Creep, cruise, and stand alone at ______,
Then _______ and stack ___________

A

3 I lift my HEAD
4 lay on my SIDE
5 PRONE to SUPINE
And at 6 I SIT UPRIGHT

7 QUADRUPED,
At 8, can’t wait to CRUISE (9)
Creep, cruise, and stand alone at 9
Then WALK and stack TWO CUBES

86
Q

Describe the TRACTION neonatal reflex

A

Therapist grasp the baby’s forearm and pulls the baby up from supine into a sitting position

The baby reflexively grasps and flexes the UE

87
Q

Describe the TRACTION neonatal reflex

A

Therapist grasp the baby’s forearm and pulls the baby up from supine into a sitting position

The baby reflexively grasps and flexes the UE

88
Q

Describe the ASYMMETRICAL TONIC NECK REFLEX (ATNR) in neonates

A

The baby rotes the head to one side then reflexively extends the arm that the head is rotated towards and flexes the opposite arm “bow and arrow”

89
Q

Describe the MORO neonatal reflex

A

The therapist drops the baby backwards from sitting

The baby reflexively extends and abducts the UE, opens hands and cries —-> then flexion and adduction of arms across chest

90
Q

Describe the SYMMETRICAL TONIC LABRYINTHINE REFLEX (TLR/STLR)

A

When the baby is in prone, the baby will reflexively flex all limbs

When the baby is in supine, the baby will reflexively extend all limbs

91
Q

Describe the SYMMETRICAL TONIC NECK (STNR)

A

Head flexion results in flexion of the UE and extension of the LE

Head extension results in extension of the UEs and flexion of the LEs

92
Q

Neonatal Reflex Integration Timeline

1-2 months:
3 months:
2 - 5 months:
6 months:
9 months:
12 months:

A

1-2 months: flex/ext (flexor withdrawal & crossed extensor)
3 months: rooting reflex
2 - 5 months: traction response (aka #25 lbs)
6 months: PAM’s TP (palmar, ATNR, Moro, sucking, TLR, positive support)
9 months: plantar grasp
12 months: BS (babinski, STNR)

93
Q

What is Milroy’s disease?

A

A type of primary lymphedema that occurs in individuals aged 0 - 2 years

94
Q

What is Filariasis?

A

A type of secondary lymphedema (aka acquired) that usually occurs d/t an infection (ex. Elephantitis) from a bite

95
Q

Stages of Lymphedema

A

0 (latency): heaviness, negative stemmer sign, tissue and skin appear normal
1 (reversible): pitting edema, edema reduces w/ elevation, negative stemmer sign
2 (spontaneously irreversible): hard swelling, non-pitting brawny edema, positive stemmer sign, fibrosclerotic
3 (lymphoblastic elephantiasis): brawny, non-pitting edema, weeping, positive stemmer sign, papillomas, hyper keratosis, repeated infection

96
Q

Grading of Pitting Edema
1+ = mild, < _____ inch pitting
2+ = moderate, depression returns to normal within ______ seconds; ________ inch pitting
3+ = severe, depression takes ________ seconds to rebound; ________ inch pitting
4+ = very severe, depression lasts for > _____ seconds or more, > ______ inch pitting

A

1+ = mild, < 1/4 inch pitting
2+ = moderate, depression returns to normal within 15 seconds; 1/4 - 1/2 inch pitting
3+ = severe, depression takes 15 - 30 seconds to rebound; 1/2 - 1 inch pitting
4+ = very severe, depression lasts for > 30 seconds or more, > 1 inch pitting

97
Q

Name the condition:
- bilateral condition affecting lower extremities
- distal areas spared
- fat accumulation
- skin is sensitive to touch and pressure (easily bruised and painful)
- Cause = hereditary, genetic, hormones

A

Lipedema

98
Q

What are the 3 components of Complete Decongestive Therapy for Lymphedema management?

A
  1. Manual lymphatic drainage
  2. Compression therapy - short stretch/low stretch bandages (high working pressure & low resting pressure)
  3. Exercises: perform proximal to distal (breathing, then spine/trunk exercises, then extremity exercises)
99
Q

What conditions require Contact Precautions?

A

Mnemonic: MRS. WEE
Multidrug resistant organism
Respiratory infection
Skin infection
Wound infection
Enteric (C. Diff)
Eye infection (conjunctivitis)

100
Q

Contact Precautions include what PPE and precautions?

A

PPE: gloves and gown
Pt transport: pt washes hands if they leave room

101
Q

What conditions require Droplet Precuations?

A

Mnemonic: SPIDER-MAN
Sepsis/scarlet fever/strep
Parvovirus B19/penumonia/pertussis
Influenza
Diphtheria (pharyngeal)
Epiglottis
Rubella
Mumps/meningitis/mycoplasma/meningeal pneumonia
ANenovirous

102
Q

Droplet Precautions

PPE:
Room:
Pt Transport:

A

PPE: surgical mask when within 3 ft of pt; contact precautions (Gown and gloves) when skin lesions present
Room: negative air flow
Pt Transport: pt wears surgical mask when leaving room

103
Q

What are conditions that require Airborne precautions?

A

Mnemonic: MTV

Measles
TB
Varicella
(Also COVID-19)

104
Q

Airborne Precautions

PPE:
Room:
Pt transport:

A

PPE: N-95 mask
Room: negative air flow w/ door closed
Pt transport: pt wears surgical mask

105
Q

Name the device:

Central line tunneled under the skin. Used for providing antibiotics, nutritional solutions, blood samples

A

Hickman Catheter

106
Q

Name the device:

Balloon flotation device that is inserted through the internal jugular vein or femoral vein into the pulmonary artery to monitor blood flow and the function of the heart

A

Swanz Ganz Catheter

107
Q

Name the device:

Measures blood pressure directly from the right atrium and superior vena cava

A

Central venous pressure catheter

108
Q

Name the device:

Used to monitor arterial blood gases

A

Arterial line

109
Q

Name the device:

Used to remove air, blood, purulent matter from the patient’s chest or pleural cavity. Inserted via an incision in the chest and may be connected to a mechanical or gravity-based suction system

A

Chest drainage tubes

110
Q

What do you do if a chest tube is dislodged?

A

Have the pt exhale, place gauze or a gloved hand over the area and call nursing staff

*concern = pneumothorax

111
Q

Why should the arm with an IV line in not be held above the head?

A

Because air bubbles may get in and back flow may ocur

112
Q

What do you do if an arterial line is dislodged?

A

Apply firm pressure and alert nursing immediately. May add compression via BP cuff above site

113
Q

What should you avoid if someone has a femoral line in?

A

Avoid repetitive hip flexion and hip flexion > 45 degrees

114
Q

Metabolic syndrome: S&S that are risk factors and are strongly linked to type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and stroke

3 or more must be present of Dx:
Waist circumference: > _____ inches for men or > _____ inches for women
Triglycerides: _________ mg/dL or higher
High Density Lipoprotein (HDL): < _____ mg/dL in men or < _____ mg/dL in women
Blood Pressure: systolic _______ mmHg and/or diastolic BP ______ mmHg
Fasting Plasma Glucose > ______ mg/dL

A

Waist circumference: > 40 inches for men or > 35 inches for women
Triglycerides: 150 mg/dL or higher
High Density Lipoprotein (HDL): < 40 mg/dL in men or < 50 mg/dL in women
Blood Pressure: systolic 130 mmHg and/or diastolic BP 85 mmHg
Fasting Plasma Glucose > 100 mg/dL

115
Q

Cushing’s Disease

A

Mnemonic: Mr. Cushing’s has more cushion. He is a big white chubby guy who likes drinking beer.

HYPERadrenalism (elevated cortisol & aldosterone)
Increased BP, water retention
HYPOkalemia (d/t elevated aldosterone)
Increased glucose
Ruddy appearance, striae on skin
Weight gain / centripetal obesity / round moon face
Proximal muscle weakness & atrophy
Increased susceptibility to infection, osteoporosis (buffalo hump), poor wound healing

116
Q

Addison’s Disease

A

Mnemonic: Old thin brown lady walking w/ a stick named Mrs. Addison

HYPOadrenalism/Adrenal insufficiency (decreased cortisol and aldosterone)
Decreased BP / dehydration
HYPERkalemia
Decreased glucose
Bronze pigmented skin — increased melanocyte hormone (MSH)
Weight loss / anorexia / GI disturbances
Generalized weakness (asthenia)
Intolerance to cold and stress, anxiety and depression

117
Q

What is the difference between Cushing’s Disease and Cushing’s Syndrome?

A

Cushing’s Disease = PITUITARY adenoma —> more ATCH secreted by the pituitary gland —> stimulates adrenal gland —> more cortisol is released

Cushing’s Syndrome = ADRENAL GLAND tumor —> adrenal gland secretes more cortisol —> drug toxicity

118
Q

Grave’s Disease

A

Mnemonic: your hype man
HYPERthyroidism
Increased T3 and T4, low TSH
Increased HR, decreased BP
High BMR
Heat intolerance
Increased glucose absorption
Restless, insomnia
Diarrhea
Silky hair, moist palm
Weight loss and increased appetite
Increased perspiration
Hyperreflexia
Exophthalmos (bulging eyes)

119
Q

Hashimoto’s Diseaese

A

Mnemonic: lazy person laying on the couch all day under the comforter
HYPOthryoidism (autoimmune)
Decreased T3 and T4, high TSH
Decreased HR, increased BP
Low BMR
Cold intolerance
Decreased glucose absorption in tissues (high blood glucose)
Sleepiness, tiredness, proximal muscle weakness
Constipation
Brittle nails, dry skin and hair
Weight gain and decreased appetite
Decreased perspiration
Prolonged / Delayed DTR
Myxedema (puffiness, swelling of hands/feet)

120
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A

Elevated Calcium & Decreased serum phosphate = demineralization bone

Bones: osteopenia
Stones: kidney
Groans: GI disturbance
Moans: fatigue, weakness
Sensory: glove & stocking

121
Q

Hypoparathyroidism

A

Low calcium & high phosphorus

Mnemonic: CATS are Numb
Convulsions
cardiac Arrhythmias
muscle Twitching / Tetany
muscle Spasms
Numbness/paresthesia of fingertips and mouth

122
Q

Hyperglycemia

Glucose level:

Early signs: weakness, dry mouth, frequent & scant urination, deep and rapid respirations (Kusmaul’s breathing), dull senses, confusion, diminished reflexes, excessive thirst

Late signs: fruity odor (acetone breath), hyperglycemic coma

Mnemonic:

Cause:

A

Glucose level: > 300 mg/dl

Early signs: weakness, dry mouth, frequent & scant urination, deep and rapid respirations (Kusmaul’s breathing), dull senses, confusion, diminished reflexes, excessive thirst

Late signs: fruity odor (acetone breath), hyperglycemic coma

Mnemonic: if the pt is hot & dry, they are on a sugar high

Cause: forgetting to take insulin

123
Q

Hypoglycemia

Glucose level:

Early signs: pallor, sweating, shakiness, poor coordination and unsteady gait, tachycardia & palpation, dizziness, fainting, excessive hunger

Late signs: slurred speech, drowsiness, confusion, loss of consciousness, & coma

Mnemonic:

Cause:

A

Glucose level: < 70 mg/dl

Early signs: pallor, sweating, shakiness, poor coordination and unsteady gait, tachycardia & palpation, dizziness, fainting, excessive hunger

Late signs: slurred speech, drowsiness, confusion, loss of consciousness, & coma

Mnemonic: if the patient is cold & clammy, give them a candy

Cause: took too much insulin

124
Q

Mid-Back/Scapula Pain referral
E____________
G___________
S___________
P____________
K___________

A

Esophagus
Gallbladder
Stomach
Pancreas
Kidneys (T10 - T12)

125
Q

Left Shoulder Pain Referral

H________
D__________
S_________
_________ of pancreas
___ kidney

A

Heart
Diaphragm
Spleen
Tail of pancreas
L kidney

126
Q

Right Shoulder Pain Referral

G__________
L_________
________ of pancreas
_____ kidney

A

Gallbladder
Liver
Head of pancreas
R kidney

127
Q

Pelvis/Low Back/Sacrum Pain Referral

C_________
A____________
___________ viscera

A

Colon
Appendix
Pelvic viscera

128
Q

Name the diagnosis:

Pain referred in C8-T2 nerve distribution
Mimics TOS
Pain on top of ipsilateral shoulder

A

Pancoast tumor (on apex of lung)

129
Q

Typical Pain Pattern for RUQ

A

Mnemonic: “Good luck Hot Pack”

Gallbladder
Head of pancreas
Peptic ulcers

130
Q

Typical Pain Patterns for RLQ

A

Mnemonic: A.C.

Appendix
Crohn’s disease

131
Q

Typical Pain Patterns for LLQ

A

Mnemonic: D.U.I.

Diverticulitis
Ulcerative colitis
Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

132
Q

Typical Pain Patterns for LUQ

A

Mnemonic: Don’t Banana Split

Diaphragm
Body & tail of pancreas
Spleen

133
Q

Name the Disease:

Only large intestine & rectum affected
Continuous lesions

Symptoms: rectal pain, bleeding, bloody diarrhea w/ mucus/pus, fecal urgency, weight loss, LBP

A

Ulcerative colitis (type of inflammatory bowel disease)

134
Q

Name the disease:

Occurs anywhere in GI tract
Skip lesions
Symptoms: pain relieved by passing gas, abdominal pain, weight loss, joint arthritis

A

Crohn’s Disease (type of inflammatory bowel disease)

135
Q

What are the 3 main characteristics of reactive arthritis?

A
  1. Can’t see (conjunctivitis)
  2. Can’t pee (urethritis)
  3. Can’t climb a tree (OA knee)
136
Q

Name the diagnosis:

Spastic, nervous, or irritable colon

Causes: emotional stress, anxiety, high fat, lactose foods

Symptoms: pain relieved by defection, sharp cramps in morning or after eating, nausea/vomiting/bloating/foul breathing/diarrhea, symptoms disappear while sleeping, ribbon like stools

Tx: stress reduction, dietary modification, exercise

A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

137
Q

Name the Peripheral Vestibular Disorder:

Sudden onset of vertigo, nausea, vomiting
Positive head-impulse test
Duration: days to weeks
Hearing loss, tinnitus

A

Labyrinthitis (inflammation of labyrinth [semicircular canals & otolith organs])

138
Q

Name the Peripheral Vestibular Disorder

Sudden onset of vertigo/nausea/vomiting
Positive head-impulse test
Duration: days to weeks

A

Vestibular neuritis (inflammation of nerve)

139
Q

Name the Peripheral Vestibular Disorder

Overproduction of fluid within the inner ear > increase in pressure > vertigo

Vertigo
Hearing loss
Tinnitus
Aural fullness
Duration: minutes to hours

Tx: decrease sodium in body to decrease fluid

A

Ménière’s disease

140
Q

Name the Peripheral Vestibular Disorder

Slow-growing tumor that develops from he balance and hearing nerves supplying the inner ear (gradual onset of symptoms)
Hearing loss
Tinnitus
Loss of balance
Vertigo
Facial numbness and weakness or loss of muscle movement
Positive head thrust test
Potential for Facial nerve involvement

A

Acoustic neuroma / Vestibular Schwannoma

141
Q

What’s the difference between Conus Medullaris Syndrome and Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A

Conus Medullaris Syndrome: bilateral and symmetrical in perineum & thighs, UMN + LMN injury

Cauda Equina Syndrome: unilateral and asymmetrical in perineum, thighs, leg, back, LMN

142
Q

Describe Each category in the ASIA Impairment Scale

A

ASIA A = Complete; no motor or sensory function at S4-S5
ASIA B = sensory incomplete; sensory, but no motor function present below NLI and S4-S5
ASIA C = motor incomplete; < 1/2 of key muscle functions below the single NLI have a muscle grade of >/= 3
ASIA D = Incomplete; at least 1/2 (half or more) of key muscle functions below the single NLI having a muscle grade of > /= 3
ASIA E = normal; motor and sensory function is normal

143
Q

Postural drainage positions:

For superior segments of lower lobes

A

Prone lying on a bed w/ two pillows under pelvis

144
Q

Key Positions for Postural Drainage:

Posterior apical segments of upper lobes

A

Sitting on a chair, leaning forward over a folded pillow

145
Q

Key Positions for Postural Drainage:

Anterior segments of upper lobes

A

Supine lying on a bed w/ pillows under knees

146
Q

Key Position for Postural Drainage:

Anterior apical segments of the upper lobes

A

Sitting in a recliner, leaning slightly backwards

147
Q

SCI:
Assistance levels for the following:

C1 - C4:
C5 - C6:
C7 - S2:

A

C1 - C4: Dependent
C5 - C6: Modified Independent
C7 - S2: Independent

148
Q

Glossopharyngeal breathing is used for what level SCI?

A

C3-C4

149
Q

At what level SCI can a slideboard transfer be performed?

A

C5 - w/ assistance

C6 - indep on level surfaces w/ slideboard
C7 - independent lateral transfer w/o slideboard

150
Q

What is the highest level SCI that uses a manual w/c?

A

C6

151
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the Ranchos Cognitive Levels?

A

“R.C.A. 332”

Levels I, II, & III: key word “response” (no, generalized, localized)
Levels IV, V, & VI: key word “confused” (agitated, inappropriate, appropriate)
Levels VII & VIII: key word “appropriate” (automatic, purposeful)

152
Q

Name the test:

  • compares the difference between 2 independent groups (ex. 20 athletes and 20 older people)
A

T-test

153
Q

Name the test:

  • compares difference between 2 matched groups (ex. 1 group of people pre/post test)
A

Paired T-test

154
Q

What makes a T-test 1 tailed vs. 2 tailed?

A

1 tailed = directional hypothesis (believe either a positive or negative outcome)

2 tailed = non-directional hypothesis (just seeing what happens)

155
Q

Name the test:

  • Parametric test used for > 2 groups
A

ANOVA

156
Q

What is the difference between the following ANOVA’s?

One-way ANOVA:

Two-way ANOVA:

Repeated measures ANOVA:

A

One-way ANOVA: 3 or more independent groups compared on 1 intervention (Ex. 30 healthy, 30 obese, 30 stroke all receiving a pain intervention)

Two-way ANOVA: 3 or more independent groups compared on 2 interventions (Ex. Effects of both gender and exercise type (strength [intervention1] on aerobic [intervention 2] on cardiovascular fitness)

Repeated measures ANOVA: individuals measured over time (ex. Effects of 3 different diets on weight loss measured at baseline, 2 weeks, and 4 weeks)

157
Q

What does an ANCOVA do?

A

Compare 2 or more groups while controlling the effects of variables (covariates) such as height

158
Q

What test is used to compare 2 groups of unequal sample size?

A

Chi square test

159
Q

What test is used when you have continuous/ordinal data for a null hypothesis w/ 2 independent samples from the same population?

A

Mann Whitney U

160
Q

What test is similar to the ANOVA, but is the non-parametric version comparing 3 or more groups?

A

Kruskal Wallis Test

161
Q

Name the pulmonary condition:

  • airways narrow and swell
  • may produce extra mucus
  • trigger coughing, whistling/wheezing, SOB
  • acute condition
A

Asthma (Obstructive)

162
Q

Name the pulmonary condition:

  • inflammation (swelling) and irritation of the bronchial tubes
  • mucus build up
  • Dx: cough for 3 months for 2 consecutive years
A

Chronic bronchitis (obstructive)

163
Q

Name the Pulmonary Condition:

  • abnormal permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles
  • destruction of alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis
  • reduced gas exchange
  • progressive air trapping
A

Emphysema (obstructive)

164
Q

Name the Pulmonary Condition:

  • infection in one or both lungs
  • Cause: bacteria, viruses, fungi
  • inflammation in air sacs of lungs (alveoli)
  • alveoli fill w/ fluid or pus (water in lungs)
A

Pneumonia (restrictive)

165
Q

Name the Pulmonary Condition:

  • water on the lungs
  • excess fluid between the layers of the pleura outside the lungs
A

Pleural effusion

166
Q

Name the Pulmonary Conditions:

  • collapsed lung
  • Air still present, but leaks into space between lung and chest wall
A

Pneumothorax

167
Q

Name the Pulmonary Condition:

  • complete or partial collapse of entire lung or area
  • alveoli within the lung become deflated or filled with/ alveolar fluid
  • deflates, no air left
A

Atelctasis

168
Q

How do you assess fremitus?

A

Ask the pt to say “99” or “blue moon.” While the pt is speaking, palpate the chest from one side to the other.

169
Q

Increased fremitus / vibration:

Decreased fremitus / vibration:

A

Increased fremitus / vibration: consolidation (fluid) or restrictive condition
- EX. Pneumonia

Decreased fremitus / vibration: air or obstructive condition
- EX. Pleural effusion, pneumothorax, chronic bronchitis, asthma, emphysema

Absent fremitus in atelectasis b/c no air

170
Q

How do you assess percussion?

A

Examiner taps on pt’s chest wall w/ 3rd metacarpal.

171
Q

Increased percussion (hyperresonant):

Decreased percussion (flat/dull):

A

Increased percussion (hyperresonant): more air is present
- Ex. Pneumothorax, asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis

Decreased percussion (flat/dull): fluid (consolidation) present
- Ex. Pneumonia, pleural effusion, atelectasis

172
Q

Increased percussion (hyperresonant):

Decreased percussion (flat/dull):

A

Increased percussion (hyperresonant): more air is present
- Ex. Pneumothorax, asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis

Decreased percussion (flat/dull): fluid (consolidation) present
- Ex. Pneumonia, pleural effusion, atelectasis

173
Q

TMJ DDX - Name the condition:

Decreased mouth opening with deviation to SAME side

A

Hypomobility

174
Q

TMJ DDX - Name the condition:

Increased mouth opening and deviation to OPPOSITE side

A

Hypermobiltiy

175
Q

TMJ DDX - Name the condition:

CLICKING heard. NO DEVIATION, no difficulty w/ mouth opening

A

Disc displacement w/ reduction

176
Q

TMJ DDX - Name the condition:

PAIN and limited mouth opening, NO DEVIAITON

A

Synovitis

177
Q

TMJ DDX - Name the condition:

PAIN, limited mouth opening, and DEVIATION TO SAME SIDE

A

Capsulitis

178
Q

What is the Scottish Rite Brace used for?

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes

179
Q

What are the Pavlov harness or Frejka pillow used for?

A

Congenital hip dysplasia

180
Q

What is the MOI for ACL tear?

A

Hyperextension + valgus force + planted foot

181
Q

What is the MOI for PCL tear?

A

Hyperflexion / dashboard injury

182
Q

Name the knee injury:

  • Popping, locking, catching sensation during movement
  • joint line tenderness
  • swelling
  • pain w/ knee hyperextension & full flexion
A

Meniscus injury

183
Q

Name the knee injury:

  • peripatellar pain
  • lateral patellar tracking
  • pain w/ squatting
  • prolonged sitting (movie theatre sign)
  • common in young females
A

Patellofemoral pain syndrome

184
Q

Name the knee injury:

  • pain at tibial tuberosity
  • enlarged tibial tubercle
  • excessive activity n adolescents
  • poor flexibility
A

Osgood Schlatter syndrome

185
Q

Define each term

Spondlylosis:
Spondlylolysis:
Spondylolisthesis:
Retrolisthesis:

A

Spondlylosis: degeneration of intervertebral disc
Spondlylolysis: defect in pars interacrticularis or the arch of the vertebra
Spondylolisthesis: forward displacement of one vertebra over another
Retrolisthesis: backward displacement of one vertebra on another

186
Q

Name the systemic disease:

  • unknown cause
  • GRANULOMATOUS inflammation in modular form
  • Symptoms: SOB, cough, fever, malaise, weight loss, skin lesions, erythema nodosum, dry cough, chest pain, hemoptysis, pneumothorax
A

Sarcoidosis

187
Q

Name the Systemic Condition:

  • morning stiffness lasting at least an hour
  • bilateral joint involvement
  • Bouchard nodes ( on PIP)
  • increased ESR, increased C-reactive protein
  • capsular & ligamentous laxity
A

Rheumatoid arthritis

188
Q

Name the Systemic Disease:

  • hereditary connective tissue disorder
  • cutaneous manifestations
  • MSK: dislocations/ subluxations (Brighton score of 4 or more), OP, OA, scoliosis, kyphosis
  • Neuro: low tone
  • Cardiopulmonary: abnormal BP responses
  • Hematologic: easy bruising
A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

189
Q

Name the type of arthritis:

  • 30-50 years old
  • autoimmune
  • starts asymmetric then progresses to symmetric
  • DIP and PIP joints affected
  • scaly, itchy, dry, patches
  • nail changes
  • Tx: corticosteroids, symptom based approach
A

Psoriatic arthritis

190
Q

Name the type of arthritis:

  • cause: bacterial infection
  • population: kids < 3 & adults > 65 (aka immunocompromised)
  • asymmetrical
  • S&S: fever, hot, red, swollen, effusion, hip pain w/ wbing, increased WBC & ESR
  • Tx: 911 to drain, antibiotics
A

Septic arthritis

191
Q

Name the type of arthritis:

  • 25 - 45 y.o.
  • Cause: bacterial infection post GI infection
  • Asymmetrical
  • S&S: urethritis, conjunctivitis, OA of knees
  • Tx: antibiotics, asymptomatic approach
A

Reactive arthritis (aka Reiter’s syndrome)

192
Q

What is the difference between a nerve conduction velocity (NCV) test and an electromyography (EMG)?

A

NCV: evaluates speed and amplitude of electrical stimulation. Detects problem with nerve.

EMG: records electrical activity of muscles at rest and while contracting. Assist with/ diagnosing nerve or muscle pathology.

193
Q

Normal platelet value

A

150,000 - 450,000

194
Q

Above what platelet value is the following allowed:
Therapeutic exercise/bike with or without resistance

A

> 20,000

195
Q

At what platelet values must therapy be placed on hold?

A

< 10,000 and/or Temp 100.5

196
Q

At what platelet value is the following indicated?
ROM, ADLs, walking or bike without resistance

A

10,000 - 20,000

197
Q

What is the normal WBC value?

A

4,800 - 10,800

198
Q

WBC rehab indications

> 5000 =

< 5000 =

A

> 5000 = light exercise w/ progression to resistive exercise

< 5000 = no exercise, protective mask required

199
Q

What is the normal hemoglobin level for men and for women?

A

Men: 13 -18
Women: 12 -16

200
Q

List the appropriate hemoglobin value for each of the following:

1) resistance and aerobic exercise, ambulation, and self care as tolerated
2) ADLs, assistance as needed for safety, light aerobic exercise, light weights (1-2lbs)
3) ADLs

A

1) > 10
2) 8 - 10
3) < 8

201
Q

What is normal hematocrit for men and for women?

A

Men: 42 - 52%
Women: 37- 47%

202
Q

What are the hematocrit values for each of the following:

1) resistance and aerobic exercise, ambulation and self-care as tolerated
2) ADLs, assistance as needed for safety, light aerobic exercise, light weights (1-2lbs)
3) ADLs, assistance as needed for safety

A

1) > 35%
2) 25 - 35%
3) < 25%

203
Q

What 2 drug classes are both antiarrhythmics and antihypertensives?

A

1) Beta blockers “-olol”
2) Calcium channel blockers “Pines and Zems”

*act on HR and BP

204
Q

What 3 drug classes are only antihypertensives (act on BP)?

A

1) Diuretics - loop diuretics, potassium sparing diuretics, thiazides
2) ACE inhibitors “-prils”
3) ARBs “-sartans”

205
Q

What 3 drug classes are only antihypertensives (act on BP)?

A

1) Diuretics - loop diuretics, potassium sparing diuretics, thiazides
2) ACE inhibitors “-prils”
3) ARBs “-sartans”

NPTE (1 decks)

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