Notes 1a Flashcards

1
Q

Superior rectus function

A

elevation/intorsion

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2
Q

Inferior rectus function

A

depression/extorsion

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3
Q

Medial and lateral rectus function

A

adduction and abduction

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4
Q

Upper and lower eyelids open and close due to ?

A

7th nerve - orbicularis oculi

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5
Q

Opening of the upper eyelid is also controlled by? Nerve

A

levator palpebrae superioris, oculomotor nerve 3

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6
Q

Muller’s muscle?

A

arises from the undersurface of the levator palpebrae superioris
Has SYMPATHETIC innervation, contributes to 1-2mm of eyelid elevation

slight over-elevation of the eyelid may be seen in high sympathetic states (such as fear), and subtle ptosis may be seen in low sympathetic states (such as fatigue)

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7
Q

Horner’s Syndrome

A

ptosis of upper eyelid
Elevation of lower lid
Pupillary miosis
Facial anhidrosis (if dissection or other lesion extends proximal to the region of the carotid bifurcation, because sweating fibers travel primarily with the ECA and would not be involved in an ICA dissection)
Enopthalmos (posterior displacement of the eye)

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8
Q

Sympathetic pathway affected by Horner’s Syndrome

A

First order neurons (central neurons) originate in the posterior hypothalamus and descend through the brainstem to the first synapse, located in the lower cervical and upper thoracic spinal cord (levels C8 to T2) —> This spinal segment is called the ciliospinal center of Budge

Second-order neurons (preganglionic neurons) exit the spinal cord, travel near the apex of the lung, under the subclavian artery, and ascend the neck and synapse in the superior cervical ganglion, near the bifurcation of the carotid artery at the level of the angle of the mandible

The third-order neurons (postganglionic neurons) travel with the carotid artery. The vasomotor and sweat fibers branch off at the superior cervical ganglion near the level of the carotid bifurcation and travel to the face with the ECA. The oculosympathetic fibers continue with the ICA, through the cavernous sinus to the orbit, where they then travel with the ophthalmic (V1) division of the trigeminal nerve to their destinations.

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9
Q

How to differentiate between Horner’s lesion affecting 1/2 order neurons vs 3rd order neuron?

A

Hydroxyamphetamine eye drops

Causes release of stored norepinephrine in the third order neurons.
if no dilation in the eyes with eye drops = 3rd order neuron affected.

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10
Q

Difference between routes of nerve fibers for muscles innervated by CN3

A

Efferent fibers from the subnuclei of cranial nerve III for the medial rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique proceed ipsilaterally.

Fibers from the subnucleus for the superior rectus decussate

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11
Q

Only cranial nerve that exits dorsally from the brainstem

A

Cn 4 trochlear

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12
Q

Pathway of the trochlear nerve

A

Nerve fibers decussate just before they exit dorsally at the level of the inferior colliculi of the midbrain.

motor neurons from each trochlear nucleus innervate the contralateral superior oblique muscle
ventrally, passes between the posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar arteries, lateral to the oculomotor nerve

has the longest intracranial course due to this dorsal exit, making it more prone to injury

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13
Q

CN4 lesion?

A

vertical diplopia

corrected with head tilting to the contralateral side of lesion (so that the good eye will have same position as affected eye: up and exterior)

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14
Q

CN3 palsies can be caused by damage to what arteries?

A

SCA, PCA, PCOM, basilar

Nerve passes between PCA and SCA near the basilar tip, in proximity to PCOM and temporal lobe uncus

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15
Q

PPRF receives ipsi/contralateral cortical input?

A

Contra

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16
Q

Bilateral INO will cause (lesion in both MLFs)

A

exotropia of both eyes

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17
Q

One a half syndrome

A

Lesion to both:

  1. the ipsilateral abducens or PPRF
  2. ipsilateral MLF

Results in loss of all horizontal eye movements on ipsilateral side, and contralateral eye is only able to move laterally = 1.5 syndrome.

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18
Q

Nerve most likely to be affected by increased ICP?

A

CN6 = prone to stretching injury as it passes over the petrous ridge.

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19
Q

Adie’s Pupil

A

Results from a lesion in postganglionic parasympathetic pathway to either the ciliary ganglion or the short ciliary nerves

Caused most commonly by viral etiology

Causes unilateral mydriasis, pupils does not constrict to light or accommodation because the iris sphincter and ciliary muscle are paralyzed

Patients may complain of photophobia, visual blurring, and ache in the orbit

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20
Q

Diagnosis of Adie Pupil

A

Within a few days to weeks, denervation supersensitivity to cholinergic agonists develops and this is most often tested with low-concentration pilocarpine 0.125%, in which the tonic pupil will constrict but the normal pupil is unaffected by the low concentration

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21
Q

Adies Syndrome

A

Adies pupil + diminished or absent DTRs

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22
Q

Argyll Robertson Pupil

A

classically assoc with neurosyphilis

They are characterized by bilateral irregular miosis with little to no constriction to light, but constriction to accommodation without a tonic response as opposed to Adie’s pupil.

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23
Q

Afferent Pupillary Defect/Marcus Gunn Pupil

A
  • Caused by a lesion anywhere from optic nerve to optic chiasm (most commonly in optic neuritis)
  • Tested by the swinging light test
  • When the light is shone into an eye with a RAPD, the pupils of both eyes will constrict, but not completely. When the light is then moved to stimulate the normal eye, both pupils will constrict further since the afferent pathway of this eye is not impaired. Then, when the light is moved back to shine into the abnormal eye again, both pupils will get larger due to the afferent defect in the pathway of that eye
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24
Q

Features of optic neuritis?

A

Red desaturation

reduced visual acuity

visual loss

eye pain

***only ⅓ of patients have papillitis with hyperemia and disc swelling. Remaining have only retrobulbar involvement and therefor normal fundoscopic exam.

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25
Q

Optic nerve provides input to

A
  • the superior colliculus (for reflex saccades)
  • lateral geniculate nucleus (relay of the visual pathway)
  • pretectal nucleus (relay of the light reflex)
  • the suprachiasmatic nucleus (the circadian pacemaker).
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26
Q

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

A
  • Results from ischemic insult to the optic nerve head
  • Presents with acute, unilateral, painless visual loss
  • Fundosdcopic examination: optic edema (unless retrobulbar—> posterior ischemic optic neuropathy), hyperemia with splinter hemorrhage and crowded and cupless disc
  • Optic disc in giant cell arteritis is pallid not hyperemic
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27
Q

Chronic optic neuritis

A
  • Features: persistent visual loss, color desaturation, persistent APD
  • will eventually lead to optic atrophy with shrunken and pale disc
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28
Q

Nerves in the cavernous sinus

A

3,4,V1,V2,6

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29
Q

Cavernous sinus syndrome? Assoc with what infection

A

proptosis

blurry vision

Mucormycosis

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30
Q

Lesion in the facial nerve nucleus in the pons will cause?

A

Upper and lower facial paralysis

A stroke in this area is unlikely to be isolated, expect some damage to surrounding structures in CN6 and corticospinal tract

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31
Q

Causes of bilateral facial nerve palsy?

A

MS

Sarcoidosis

Lyme

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32
Q

Prognosis of Bells is favorable if recovery is seen in first ___ days

A

21

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33
Q

Crocodile tears phenomenon?

A
  • results when misdirected regenerating facial nerve axons originally supplying the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands, innervate the lacrimal gland through the greater petrosal nerve.

Causes lacrimation while smelling food/eating

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34
Q

Synkinesis after Bell’s palsy

A
  • some axons from the motor neurons to the labial muscles involved in smiling may regenerate and misdirect to the orbicularis oculi, which results in closure of the eye on smiling. The reverse may also occur and result in twitching of the mouth on blinking.
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35
Q

Characteristics of central nystagmus

A
  • non-fatiguing, absent latency, not suppressed by visual fixation, duration of nystagmus > 1min and may occur in any direction
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36
Q

Characteristics of peripheral nystagmus

A
  • slow drift of the eyes away from the target in one direction (toward the affected side and away from the unaffected side), followed by a fast cortical corrective movement to the opposite side (toward the unaffected side, away from the affected side).
  • amplitude of nystagmus increases with gaze towards the unaffected ear and away from the affected one
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37
Q

Cold caloric testing

A

Cold water: eyes deviate slowly towards the ipsilateral ear (tonic deviation of the eyes toward the cold water)

After 20ish seconds, nystagmus appears and may persist for up to 2 mins

The fast phase of nystagmus reflects the cortical correcting response and is directed away from the side of the cold water stimulus.

If cortical circuits are impaired (comatose state), the nystagmus will be suppressed and not present, and only the eye deviation will be present (if brainstem is intact).

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38
Q

The anterior belly of the digastric nerve is innervated by? Posterior belly?

A

CN V, CN 7

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39
Q

Facial nerve pathway

A

Exits brainstem through internal auditory meatus and synapses at geniculate ganglion where it has several branches

Branch 1: into greater/lesser petrosal nerve

Branch 2: nerve to stapedius

Branch 3: chorda tympani → joins lingual nerve of V3 where it carries taste for ant ⅔ of the tongue.

Nerve then stylomastoid foramen where it has the facial motor branches.

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40
Q

All glands in the head and face are innervated by facial nerve except?

A

parotid gland, glossopharyngeal

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41
Q

nucleus tractus solitarius is involved in

A

taste and baroreceptor reflex

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42
Q

nucleus ambiguus is involved in

A

innervation of the muscles of the larynx and pharynx

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43
Q

dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus nerve is involved in

A

cranial nerve nucleus of CNX responsible for parasympathetic visceral function (GI, lungs, etc)

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44
Q

V1 supplies sensation to

A
  • upper half of cornea, conjuctiva and iris, as well as dura mater of the anterior cranial fossa, falx cerebri, and tentorium cerebelli
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45
Q

V2 supplies sensation to

A
  • lower eyelid, upper lip, lower half of cornea, conjuctiva and iris, test of the upper jaw and dura matter of the middle cranial fossa
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46
Q

V3 supplies sensation to

A

teeth of lower jaw, sensation to anterior ⅔ tongue (not taste)

47
Q

All the contents of the cavernous sinus

A
  • ICA (siphon)
  • postganglionic sympathetic fibers
  • cranial nerve VI on the medial wall (adjacent to the sphenoid sinus)
  • cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and V2 are found along the lateral wall
48
Q

Tongue deviation from UMN /LMN lesions

A

UMN= deviation is contralateral to the lesion

LMN = ipsi to the lesion

49
Q

Hypoglossal nerve provides innervation to

A

all intrinsic tongue muscles

3 of the 4 extrinsic tongue muscles(genioglossus, styloglossus, and hyoglossus)

4th muscle (palatoglossus is innervated by vagus nerve)

50
Q

Innervation of extrinsic tongue muscles

A
  • genioglossus, styloglossus, and hyoglossus = hypoglossal
  • palatoglossus = vagus
51
Q

Activation of CN11 causes

A

ipsilateral head tilt and contralateral head rotation

(innervates SCM and trap)

52
Q

Each SCM is innervated by ipsilateral motor cortex, where as the trap is innervated by contralateral motor cortex

A

just know

53
Q

Skull exit for CN1

A

cribiform plate foramina

54
Q

Skull exit for CN 2

A

optic canal

55
Q

Skull exit for CN 3

A

Superior orbital fissure

56
Q

Skull exit for CN4

A

Superior orbital fissure

57
Q

Skull exit for CN V1

A

Superior orbital fissure

58
Q

Skull exit for CN 6

A

Superior orbital fissure

59
Q

Skull exit for CN V2

A

Foramen rotundum

60
Q

Skull exit for CN V3

A

Foramen ovale

61
Q

Skull exit for Middle meningeal artery

A

foramen spinosum

62
Q

Skull entry for ICA

A

foramen lacerum

63
Q

Skull exit for CN 7

A

internal acoustic meatus

64
Q

Skull exit for CN 8

A

internal acoustic meatus

65
Q

Skull exit for CN 9

A

jugular foramen

66
Q

Skull exit for CN 10

A

jugular foramen

67
Q

Skull exit for CN 11

A

jugular foramen

68
Q

Skull exit for CN 12

A

hypoglossal canal

69
Q

Skull entry for medulla, vertebral artery, meninges

A

Foramen magnum

70
Q

Superior orbital fissure has?

A

CN 3, 4, V1, 6

71
Q

Internal acoustic meatus has?

A

CN 7, 8

72
Q

Jugular foramen has?

A

CN 9, 10, 11

73
Q

Taste posterior ⅓ of tongue

A

glossopharyngeal

74
Q

BUZZWORDS: parasympathetic source to head and neck

A

superior salivatory nucleus

75
Q

BUZZWORDS: innervation to parotid gland by glossopharyngeal nerve

A

inferior salivatory nucleus

76
Q

BUZZWORDS: nuclei for taste sensation

A

rostral nucleus solitarius

77
Q

BUZZWORDS: nuclei for baroreceptor reflex

A

caudal nucleus solitarius

78
Q

BUZZWORDS: nuclei for parasympathetic output to chest, thorax, GI tract

A

dorsal motor nucleus of vagus

79
Q

BUZZWORDS: corneal reflex

A

Afferent: trigeminal nerve

Efferent: facial nerve

80
Q

BUZZWORDS: Gag reflex

A

Afferent: glossopharyngeal

Efferent: vagus

81
Q

BUZZWORDS: pupil sparing third nerve palsy

A

diabetic pupil, diabetic cranial nerve palsy

82
Q

BUZZWORDS: ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis (when proximal to the carotid bifurcation)

A

Horner

83
Q

BUZZWORDS: 4th nerve palsy improves with

A

contralateral head tilt

84
Q

BUZZWORDS: neurosyphilis, accomodation reflex present, pupillary reflex absent

A

Argyll Robertson Pupil

85
Q

BUZZWORDS: RAPD, no response to direct light, but response to consensual light in contralateral eye present

A

Marcus Gunn Pupil

86
Q

BUZZWORDS: down and out pupil

A

CN3 palsy

87
Q

BUZZWORDS: painful vision loss

A

optic neuritis

88
Q

BUZZWORDS: painless vision loss

A

AION

89
Q

BUZZWORDS: confirmation of horners pupil

A

cocaine 4% or 10% eye drops

No change in size of pupil, unaffected side dilates

90
Q

BUZZWORDS: hydroxyamphetamine 1% eye drops, Horners pupil dilates

A

1 or 2 order neuron

91
Q

BUZZWORDS: hydroxyamphetamine 1% eye drops, Horners pupil does not dilate

A

3rd order neuron

92
Q

Seizures are more common in venous/arterial infarcts?

A

Venous

93
Q

Wallenberg Syndrome (Lateral Medullary Infarct): Due to? Sx

A

PICA occlusion

  • Vestibular nuclei—>vertigo, nystagmus, N/V
  • Descending tract and nucleus of CN V—> impaired sensation on ipsilateral hemiface
  • Spinothalamic tract—> loss of sensation to pain and temperature in the contralateral hemibody
  • Sympathetic tract—> ipsilateral Horner’s: ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis
  • CN XI and X—> hoarseness, dysphagia, ipsilateral paralysis of the palate and vocal cord, and decreased gag reflex
  • Cerebellum and cerebellar tracts—> ipsilateral ataxia and lateropulsion
  • Nucleus of the tractus solitarius—> loss of taste
  • Sometime hiccups
94
Q

Most common site of vertebral dissection is at what level

A

C1-C2
Where artery is mobile as it leaves transverse foramina to enter the cranium

95
Q

Risk of hemorrhage post tPA

A

6%

96
Q

Amaurosis fugax

A

basically an eye TIA: retinal artery involved, which originates from ophthalmic artery from ICA

97
Q

Presenatation of AICA infarct

A

similar to Wallenberg Lateral Medullary Syndrome (Horner’s, ipsi face, contra body sensory loss, dysphagia, ataxia)

Difference is ipsilateral deafness occurs with AICA infarcts

98
Q

Why do AICA infarcts have ipsilateral deafness

A

Labrynthine artery is a branch of AICA

99
Q

Occlusion of the artery of percheron causes?

A

infarct in medial thalamic structures

100
Q

Recurrent artery of Heubner

A

branch of ACA that supplies:

anterior limb of the internal capsule

inferior head of caudate

anterior globus pallidus

101
Q

Lacunar stroke types: Pure motor

A

caused by occlusion of the lenticulostriate branches affecting the posterior limb of the internal capsule

102
Q

Lacunar stroke types: Pure sensory

A

lacune in the thalamus

103
Q

Lacunar stroke types: Clumsy Hand Dysarthria

A
  • lacune in the paramedian pons but may also occur from a lacuna in the posterior limb of the internal capsule
104
Q

Lacunar stroke types: Ataxic hemiparesis

A
  • (ataxia out of proportion to the weakness), lacunas in the pons, midbrain, internal capsule or parietal white matter.
105
Q

Blood supply to the cerebellum

A

mostly SCA (upper) and PICA (lower)

106
Q

Parinaud’s Syndrome

A
  • lesion in dorsal midbrain
  • characterized by supranuclear paralysis of eye elevation, defect in convergence, convergence-retraction nystagmus, light-near dissociation, lid retraction (Collier’s sign), and skew deviation of the eyes.
107
Q

Medial Medullary Syndrome

A

caused by occlusion of the vert or one of its medial branches

  • It affects the pyramid, medial lamniscus, emerging hypoglossal fibers
  • Will cause contralateral arm and leg weakness sparing the face, contralateral loss of sensation to position and vibration and ipsilateral tongue weakness
108
Q

Millard Gubler Syndrome

A
  • Pontine infarct (affecting the CN VII nucleus)
  • Causes contralateral hemiplegia with ipsilateral facial palsy
109
Q

Foville Syndrome

A

Millard Gubler Syndrome + When there is conjugate gaze paralysis toward the side of the brainstem lesion

110
Q

Early signs of stroke on CT in first 6 hours

A

hyperdense MCA, loss of insular ribbon, attentuation of lentiform nucleus, hemispheric sulcal effacement

111
Q

Which has lower risk of rupture: Anterior or posterior circulation aneurysms?

A

Anterior is lower

112
Q

Occipital strokes in the dominant hemisphere may present with?

A

alexia (cant read)

anomia

achromatopsia (color anomia)

and other visual agnosias

113
Q

Alexia without agraphia

A

Left occipital infarct involving the splenium of the corpus callosum

(R visual cortex cannot connect to language center on the L = can write but can’t read)