Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CJ P Mock Exams > *Not Finished* Second Prosthetics Mock Exam > Flashcards

*Not Finished* Second Prosthetics Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following factors contribute to vaulting with an AK prosthesis except…

a. prosthesis too long
b. excessive knee friction
c. inadequate suspension
d. weak hip extensors

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The gluteus medius is most active during…

a. heel strike
b. mid-stance
c. push-off
d. double support

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of the constant friction knee?

a. eliminates the need for alignment stability
b. aids in stabilization of the knee during stance phase
c. supports body weight when the knee is slightly flexed
d. reduces heel rise and terminal impact at normal cadence
e. permits the knee to swing at varying speeds depending on cadence

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The toe of an AK prosthesis rotates externally at heel strike. Which of the following is the major cause of this problem?

a. knee bolt externally rotated
b. excessive toe out
c. keel too short
d. plantarflexion resistance too firm

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A gait cycle refers to all the activity that occurs between…

a. heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the same side
b. double support on one side and the following double support on the opposite side.
c. heel-off to push-off on the same side
d. heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the opposite side
e. heel contact and push-off

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Venous return of the blood to the heart is assisted by the…

a. action of the skeletal muscles
b. positive pressure in the heart
c. independent contraction of the arterial walls
d. arterial blood pressure

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During normal human locomotion, how many inches does the center of gravity shift from side to side?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The center of gravity of the adult male is located on the midline of the body at approximately the level of the…

a. acetabulum
b. coccyx
c. umbilicus
d. ischial tuberosity
e. second sacral vertebra

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

To minimize lateral bending of the trunkk susequent to unilateral hip abductor weakness, it is best to use…

a. a cane on the involved side
b. a cane on the uninvolved side
c. a can on both sides

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The surgical attachment of muscle to muscle is known as…

a. myoplasty
b. myodesis
c. arthroplasty
d. arthrodesis

A

a. myoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The body’s center of gravity reaches its highest point at…

a. heel strike
b. foot flat
c. mid-stance
d. heel-off

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pressure is determined by…

a. force divided by torque
b. torque divided by force
c. force divided by area
d. area divided by force

A

c. force divided by area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During normal human locomotion, between heel contact and foot flat, the floor reaction force tends to cause which moments at the hip and knee?

a. hip flexion, knee flexion
b. hip flexion knee extension
c. hip extension, knee flexion
d. hip extension, knee extension

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If the sciatic nerve is severed at the level of the lesser trochanter, muscle function will not be impaired at the…

a. hip joint
b. knee joint
c. ankle joint
d. subtalar joint

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the shoulder disarticulation amputee, which of the following muscle sites would be most suitable for control of myoelectric elbow?

a. superior rhomboid and sternomastoid
b. superior rhomboid and subscapularis
c. pectoralis major and trapezius
d. pectoralis major and coracobrachialis

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the scapulothoracic amputee, which of the following motions can be used to operate the prosthesis?

a. glenohumeral flexion
b. biscapular abduction
c. shoulder elevation
d. chest expansion

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following muscles does not rotate the humerus internally?

a. subscapularis
b. pectoralis major
c. infraspinatus
d. latissimus dorsi

A

c. infraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The terminal device on the shoulder disarticulation prosthesis is operated primarily by scapular…

a. abduction
b. adduction
c. elevation
d. depression

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A major limitation of the shoulder disarticulation prosthesis is…

a. difficulty in donning the prosthesis
b. excursion needed to operate the prosthesis
c. force needed to operate the prosthesis
d. weight of the prosthesis

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The most prominent and highest point on the shoulder girdle is the…

a. acromion
b. coracoid process
c. spine of the scapula
d. greater tuberosity of the humerus
e. superior angle of the scapula

A

a. acromion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The elbow is flexed to 90 and a 40 pound weight is held in the hand. the distance from the elbow axis to the weight is 15 inches. How much force must the elbow flexors exert if their insertion is 2 inches from the elbow joint axis?

a. 80 inch pounds
b. 150 inch pounds
c. 200 inch pounds
d. 300 inch pounds
e. 600 inch pounds

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the shoulder saddle harness?

a. improves excursion in biscapular abduction
b. increases comfort in axial loading
c. reduces pressure in the axilla
d. presents cosmetic difficulties for females

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For which type of amputation is the external or ouside locking joint designed?

a. forequarter
b. shoulder disarticulation
c. midhumeral AE amputation
d. elbow disarticulation
e. short BE

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is not part of the AE figure-of-eight harness?

a. anterior suspension strap
b. lateral suspension strap
c. control attachment strap
d. inverted “Y” strap

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The length of the AE humeral section is determined by measuring the sound side from the…

a. acromion process to the lateral epicondyle
b. acromion process to the olecranon
c. coracoid process to the medial epicondyle
d. coracoid process to the lateral epicondyle

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In Frantz and Aitken’s classification system, complete absence of the upper limb distal to the shoulder joint is termed…

a. phocomelia
b. hemimelia
c. amelia
d. paraxial deficiency
e. intercalary deficiency

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

All of the following are characteristics of the cross back strap except…

a. makes donning and doffing more difficult
b. increases available cable excursion
c. decreases force required to operate the terminal device
d. tends to keep the cross point from migrating

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where should the cross point of the figure-of-eight harness be located in relation to the 7th cervical vertebra

a. inferior and toward the amputated side
b. inferior and toward the sound side
c. superior and toward the amputated side
d. superior and toward the sound side
e. directly beneath it

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following epiphyses contributes most to longitudinal growth of the upper limb?

a. proximal humerus
b. distal humerus
c. proximal ulna
d. distal ulna

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Elevation of the scapula is accomplished by the…

a. pectoralis minor muscle
b. trapezius muscle
c. supra and infraspinatus muscle
d. teres major and minor muscles
e. latissimus dorsi muscle

A

b. trapezius muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What shoulder function will be lost if the middle section of the deltoid is impaired?

a. flexion
b. extension
c. abduction
d. adduction
e. rotation

A

c. abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what amputation level would flexible elbow hinges be most appropriate?

a. elbow disarticulation
b. short BE
c. mid-forearm BE
d. long BE

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A unilateral BE prosthetic patient complains that the axilla loop of his harness is uncomfortable. The most common reason for this complaint is that the cross point is…

a. too close to the amputated side
b. too close to the sound side
c. superior to C7
d. inferior to C7

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In the short AE prosthesis, the trim lines are extended proximally to…

a. increase the glenohumeral range of motion
b. decrease axial loading capabilities
c. increase rotational stability
d. enhance cosmesis

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The AE prosthesis is designed with 10-15 degrees of elbow flexion in order to…

a. give a more cosmetic appearance
b. prevent the elbow from hyperextending
c. make activation of the terminal device easier
d. give a mechanical advantage when initiating forearm flexion.

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following modifications would not increase function for the bilateral short AE amputee?

a. use a wrist flexion unit on the dominant side
b. lower the elbow centers to decrease the forearm length
c. decrease the size of the proximal wings on the socket
d. line the cable housings with teflon

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In the Muenster socket, the principal function of the posterior proximal brim is to limit elbow extension and…

a. protect the olecranon
b. provide suspension in axial loading
c. provide a location for the cross bar assembly
d. facilitate elbow flexion

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following muscles is most readily identified by palpation?

a. iliopsoas
b. vastus intermedius
c. sartorius
d. pectineus
e. gluteus minimus

A

c. sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The muscles which pass posterior to the medial malleolus at the ankle act to…

a. invert and plantar flex the foot
b. evert and plantar flex the foot
c. invert and dorsiflex the foot
d. evert and dorsiflex the foot

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following muscles flexes the knee joint?

a. peroneus longus
b. soleus
c. biceps femoris
d. vastus intermedius

A

c. biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the conventional silesian bandage?

a. aids in rotational control
b. adds medio-lateral stability
c. improves suspension
d. provides a sense of security

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is the medial lateral dimension of the quadrilateral AK socket determined?

a. measure the distance from the ischial tuberosity to the greater trochanter
b. evaluate the relative position of the trochanter and prominence of the gluteus maximus
c. multiply the measured AP by two
d. divide the thigh circumference at ischial level by three

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In a total contact suction socket, edema is prevented by…

a. firm positive pressure during swing phase
b. firm negative pressure during swing phase
c. constant negative pressure on the residual limb
d. alternating negative and positive distal pressures.

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

All these bones form the acetabulum except…

a. ilium
b. sacrum
c. pubis
d. ischium

A

b. sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following is not a function of a hip joint and pelvic belt?

a. improve lateral stability
b. control rotation of the socket
c. control abduction
d. provide suspension
e. prevent lateral bending of the trunk

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The normal hip reaches its maximum extension during…

a. heel strike to foot flat
b. mid-stance
c. heel-off
d. mid-swing

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

To maintain mediolateral stability when fitting a short AK residual limb, it may be necessary to…

a. plantarflex the foot
b. externally rotate the foot
c. internally rotate the foot
d. place the foot under the ischial tuberosity
e. place the foot under the midline of the posterior shelf

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In a very short AK, which of the following groups of hip muscles has the least strength?

a. flexors
b. extensors
c. abductors
d. adductors
e. external rotators

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following is not a boundary of scapa’s triangle?

a. adductor longus
b. rectus femoris
c. sartorius
d. inguinal ligament

A

b. rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the following muscles inserts on the lesser trochanter?

a. gluteus maximus
b. adductor longus
c. vastus medialis
d. quadratus femoris
e. iliopsoas

A

e. iliopsoas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In a hip disarticulation prosthesis, the major function of the iliac crest is to…

a. prevent trendelenburg gait
b. prevent anterior posterior instability
c. provide an area for suspension
d. provide an area for weight bearing

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In a Canadian hip disarticulation socket, which of the following is not affected by AP placement of the hip joint?

a. hip joint alignment stability
b. length discrepancy between the prosthetic and anatomical knee during sitting
c. toe clearance during the swing phase
d. lateral stability during stance phase
e. stride length

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

With respect to the hip and knee joints at mid-stance, the floor reaction line for a hip disarticulation prosthesis passes…

a. anterior to the hip, and anterior to the knee
b. anterior to the hip, and posterior to the knee
c. posterior to the hip, and anterior to the knee
d. posterior to the hip, and posterior to the knee

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

During ambulation, instability of the knee at heel strike with a hip disarticulation prosthesis may be caused by…

a. knee center aligned posterior to the weight line
b. heel wedge that is too hard
c. excessive extension of the socket
d. thigh length that is too short.
e. foot in too much plantarflexion

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The symphysis pubis is…

a. the anterior junction of the pelvic bones
b. the posterior junction of the pelvic bones
c. made up of the ilium and ischium
d. made up of the ilium and femur.

A

a. the anterior junction of the pelvic bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Immediate post-surgical fitting of upper limb amputees offers all of the following advantages except…

a. early maturation of the residual limb
b. more rapid rehabilitation
c. greater residual range of motion
d. early return of two-handed grasping patterns

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of a myoelectric prosthetic system over a cable driven one?

a. requires less force and excursion
b. provides inherent sensory feedback
c. harnessing is less complicated.
d. improves the cosmetic result

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A patient with loss of the thumb only would probably benefit most from…

a. an opposition post
b. cosmetic glove
c. a handy hook
d. a robin-aids hand

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A mechanical partial hand prosthesis would probably be contraindicated for a transmetacarpal amputation with…

a. no digits remaining
b. the little finger remaining
c. the thumb remaining
d. the ring and little finger remaining
e. the thumb and index finger remaining

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The amount of residual supination and pronation retained by a wrist disarticulation patient while wearing a prosthesis should be at least…

a. 15%
b. 33%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 90%

A

Answer coming soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A 23 year old wrist disarticulation amputee intends to return to work as a carpenter. Which terminal device offers the best tool handling capabilities?

a. Dorrance 555 (lyre shaped)
b. Dorrance 7 (farmer’s hook)
c. Dorrance 88X (neoprene lined)
d. Dorrance 12P (plastisol coated)

A

Answer coming soon

62
Q

Which of the following would cause decreased pronation and supination in a wrist disarticulation patient?

a. proximal trim line is distal to the epicondyles
b. proximal trim line is proximal to epicondyles
c. flexible hinge attached too far anterior
d. flexible hinge attached too far posterior

A

Answer coming soon

63
Q

The motions of supination and pronation of the forearm occur at which of the following joints?

a. radiocarpal
b. intercarpal
c. metacrapophalangeal
d. elbow
e. proximal radioulnar

A

Answer coming soon

64
Q

In the medium legnth BE amputation, which of the following muscles is missing/

a. supinator
b. pronator quadratus
c. brachioradialis
d. flexor carpi radialis
e. extensor carpi radialis longus

A

Answer coming soon

65
Q

Which of the following is not part of the BE figure-of-eight harness?

a. anterior suspension strap
b. lateral suspension strap
c. control attachment strap
d. inverted “Y” strap

A

Answer coming soon

66
Q

If a BE prosthesis is harnessed with a split cable housing, which prosthetic joint has most likely been utilized?

a. polycentric hinge.
b. step-up hinge
c. flexible hinge
d. single pivot hinge

A

Answer coming soon

67
Q

A BE prosthesis with flexible hinges should not inhibit flexion at the elbow more than…

a. 5 degrees
b. 10 degrees.
c. 15 degrees
d. 20 degrees

A

Answer coming soon

68
Q

The primary advantage of a voluntary closing terminal device is…

a. ease of operation
b. graded prehension
c. mechanical simplicity
d. lighter weight

A

Answer coming soon

69
Q

Which of the following components provides the greatest range of motion for the bilateral BE amputee?

a. standard friction wrist
b. constant friction wrist
c. flexion wrist (built-in type)
d. wrist flexion unit (sierra type)

A

Answer coming soon

70
Q

Loss of the upper limb joint distal to the supinator muscle will result in what amputation level?

a. wrist disarticulation
b. mid-forearm amputation
c. short BE residual limb
d. long AE residual limb

A

Answer coming soon

71
Q

What modification is made to the figure-of-eight harness for the bilateral BE patient?

a. the ring is replaced with a sewn cross point
b. the inverted Y straps are eliminated
c. the axilla loops are unnecessary
d. a cross back strap is added.

A

Answer coming soon

72
Q

The force applied to open the terminal device of a BE prosthesis is 7 pounds. How many pounds of force applied at the harness would provide acceptable efficiency?

a. 10
b. 14
c. 21
d. 28
e. 70

A

Answer coming soon

73
Q

The patient with long bilateral BE amputations who is also blind will have difficulty using conventional prosthetic devices. What surgical intervention can be most useful in this situation?

a. marquardt’s osteotomy
b. krukenberg’s operation
c. biceps cineplasty
d. gritti-stokes procedure

A

Answer coming soon

74
Q

When a voluntary opening prosthetic hand is activated, the cable replaces function normally provided by the…

a. brachioradialis and extensor pollicis brevis
b. flexor digitorum longus and opponens pollicis longus
c. flexor digitorum longus and extensor carpi radialis
d. extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
e. extensor digitorum communis and lumbricales

A

Answer coming soon

75
Q

All of the following prehension patterns are provided by a prosthetic hand except…

a. cylindrical
b. spherical
c. palmar
d. lateral

A

Answer coming soon

76
Q

The main supinator of the forearm is the…

a. flexor carpi radialis
b. pronator quardratus
c. triceps
d. biceps
e. extensor carpi radialis longus

A

Answer coming soon

77
Q

The olecranon process is a portion of the…

a. radius
b. clavicle
c. humerus
d. ulna
e. scapula

A

d. ulna

78
Q

An excursion amplifier incorporated in a control system provides increased cable excursion at the expense of…

a. elbow motion
b. cosmesis
c. ease of donning
d. requiring more force

A

Answer coming soon

79
Q

When the elbow flexion attachment of the AE forearm is moved toward the terminal device, it will have what mechanical effect?

a. decrease in the force required and increase in exursion required
b. decrease in the force required and decrease in exursion required
c. increase in the force required and decrease in exursion required
d. Increase in the force required and increase in exursion required

A

Answer coming soon

80
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the elbow disarticulation amputation?

a. provides rotational stability
b. improves the cosmetic result
c. preserves a long lever arm
d. prevents bony overgrowth
e. leaves the epiphyseal plates intact

A

Answer coming soon

81
Q

Above elbow amputation is sometimes performed for a complete brachial plexus injury. For optimum prosthetic function, what other steps would be helpful?

a. shoulder fusion
b. transcutaneous nerve
c. nerve transplants
d. myoplastic closure

A

Answer coming soon

82
Q

The brachioradialis muscle acts primarily to…

a. extend the glenohumeral joint
b. flex the elbow joint
c. supinate the forearm
d. pronate the forearm

A

b. flex the elbow joint.

83
Q

In AK cast modification, the term flexion angle refers to the angle between what two structures?

a. medial shelf and long axis of the medial wall.
b. anterior wall and a vertical reference line
c. ischial shelf and the lateral wall
d. posterior wall and the medial wall

A

Answer coming soon

84
Q

During dynamic alignment of an AK prosthesis, the patient’s trunk bend laterally toward the amputated side. This indicates what problem?

a. the prosthesis is too long
b. the socket is too abducted
c. the knee is positioned too far medially
d. the foot is positioned too far laterally

A

Answer coming soon

85
Q

Compared to the AK amputation, the knee disarticulation offers all the following features except…

a. end bearing
b. greater rotational control
c. better vascular supply
d. more functioning muscles intact

A

Answer coming soon

86
Q

Which adductor muscle is always transected in a knee disarticulation amputation?

a. gracilis
b. adductor magnus
c. adductor longus
d. adductor brevis
e. pectineus

A

Answer coming soon

87
Q

All the following cause swing phase whips in prosthetics except…

a. knee bolt internally rotated
b. rectus channel too shallow
c. knee friction too loose
d. weak residual limb musculature

A

Answer coming soon

88
Q

A burning or stretching sensation near the ischial area of an AK patient, while he is sitting, is most likely to be caused by…

a. skin reaction that occurs following activity
b. too narrow AP diameter of the socket
c. inadequate flare of the posterior wall
d. an excessively wide ischial seat

A

Answer coming soon

89
Q

If the amount of adduction must be decreased on the AK plaster mold, how must the posterior shelf (seat) be modified?

a. add plaster laterally
b. add plaster medially
c. remove plaster laterally
d. remove plaster medially

A

Answer coming soon

90
Q

The prosthesis designed for a patient with a proximal femoral focal deficiency (PFFD) generally utilizes ischial and gluteal weight bearing because the…

a. hip joint is unstable or non-existent
b. knee is painful when bearing weight
c. skin of the leg will not tolerate weight bearing
d. femur is osteoporotic and may fracture
e. foot is not suitable for weight bearing.

A

Answer coming soon

91
Q

Which of the following would most likely cause an AK amputee to walk with an abducted gait?

a. prosthesis too short
b. anterior wall is too high
c. improperly contoured lateral wall
d. patient has an adduction contracture

A

Answer coming soon

92
Q

Which of the following knees provides the least stance phase stability?

a. Mauch SNS
b. Bock Safety
c. Kolman saftey
d. Dynaplex hydraulic
e. Constant friction

A

Answer coming soon

93
Q

In the AK quadriplateral socket, all the following can cause discomfort in the hamstrings except…

a. socket AP diameter too small
b. excessively wide ischial shelf
c. insufficient radius along the ischial brim
d. posterior to medial wall angle too large

A

Answer coming soon

94
Q

When a mechanical friction knee is used in an above knee prosthesis, it can be expected that excessive heel-rise will occur…

a. at slower than normal cadence
b. at faster than normal cadence
c. when the patient walks up a slight incline
d. when the patient walks down a slight incline

A

Answer coming soon

95
Q

A result of reduced piston action on an AK suction socket is…

a. more toe clearance during swing phase
b. greater freedom of hip motion
c. decreased body sway when walking
d. increased socket rotation during swing phase

A

Answer coming soon

96
Q

The main flexor of the hip joint is the…

a. rectus femoris
b. tensor fascia latae
c. sartorius
d. semitendinosis
e. iliopsoas

A

Answer coming soon

97
Q

During normal heel strike, the forward hip is…

a. flexed 25 degrees
b. flexed 40 degrees
c. in neutral position
d. extended 10 degrees
e. extended 25 degrees

A

Answer coming soon

98
Q

A characteristic of a hydraulic knee mechanism with swing and stance phase control is that it…

a. requires more force to initiate knee flexion during swing phase than other hydraulic units
b. does not function as well during swing phase as “swing phase only” hydraulic knee mechanisms
c. eliminates the need for rotating the knee externally
d. is best suited for geriatric patients
e. requires less alignment stability

A

Answer coming soon

99
Q

The biceps femoris produces which of the following hip and knee motions?

a. hip extension knee extension
b. hip extension knee flexion
c. hip flexion knee extension
d. hip flexion knee flexion

A

Answer coming soon

100
Q

During dynamic alignment on a Berkley AK adjustable leg, the pylon is noted to slant medially. This condition indicates that…

a. the foot is positioned too far medially
b. prosthesis is too short
c. there is excessive adduction of the socket
d. the knee is positioned too far medially

A

Answer coming soon

101
Q

Which of the following adjustments would increase AP stability of an OttoBock Modular prosthetic knee?

a. move the foot posteriorly
b. stuffen the heel bumper
c. plantarflex the foot
d. externally rotate the foot

A

Answer coming soon

102
Q

Patients with short AK amputations generally exhibit lateral bending of the trunk during locomotion due to…

a. inadequate suspension
b. loss of an adequate lever arm
c. loss of abductor muscles
d. weak adductor muscles

A

Answer coming soon

103
Q

In AK cast modification, the term adduction angle refers to the angle between the…

a. posterior wall and a vertical reference line
b. medial wall and brim
c. ischial shelf and the lateral wall
d. posterior wall and the medial wall

A

Answer coming soon

104
Q

The majority of fluid control prosthetic knee systems provides what function?

a. stance control only
b. swing control only
c. swing and stance control
d. swing control with lock
e. stance control with lock

A

Answer coming soon

105
Q

In the case of the elderly AK prosthetic patient with impaired circulation, skin breakdown of the residual limb is best avoided by…

a. total contact socket
b. pelvic belt suspension
c. suction socket
d. elastic shrinker sleeve

A

Answer coming soon

106
Q

On an AK socket, where should the axis of a single-axis hip joint be located with reference to the patient’s greater trochanter?

a. posterior and superior
b. posterior and level
c. anterior and superior
d. anterior and level

A

Answer coming soon

107
Q

During normal human locomotion, which muscle acts to decelerate the leg before heel strike?

a. gastrocnemius
b. vastus lateralis
c. biceps femoris
d. sartorius
e. gracilis

A

Answer coming soon

108
Q

One reason for initial flexion in an AK socket is to…

a. locate the site of the trochanter posteriorly
b. permit even stride length during walking.
c. permit the knee to be positioned poseriorly
d. create a more proper TKA relationship

A

Answer coming soon

109
Q

A common cause of excessive pressure on the inferior pubic ramus is a quadrilateral AK socket is…

a. a socket that is too long
b. a posterior wall that slopes medially
c. an anterior brim that is too high
d. an anterior posterior dimension that is too large
e. insufficient radius on the medial wall

A

Answer coming soon

110
Q

Which of the following externally powered elbow units is not usually adaptable to a switch control in the harness?

a. boston
b. fidelity (VANU)
c. variety village
d. Utah

A

Answer coming soon

111
Q

A split-socket for the BE prosthetic patient is used so that…

a. the forearm has better cosmetic appearance
b. the amount of forearm flexion is increased
c. power is increased in exchange for ROM
d. the patient can lift heavier objects

A

Answer coming soon

112
Q

The biceps brachii produces which of the following actions of the elbow and forearm?

a. elbow extension, forearm pronation
b. elbow extension, forearm supination
c. elbow flexion, forearm pronation
d. elbow flexion, forearm supination

A

Answer coming soon

113
Q

All of the following are charcteristic of a prosthesis with step-up elbow joints except…

a. appropriate for very short residual limb
b. special harness needed
c. weaker flexion power
d. 2:1 excursion ratio

A

Answer coming soon

114
Q

Patients who are converted from side joints with thigh lacer to a corsetless PTB commonly exhibit what gait problem?

a. excessive knee flexion at heel strike
b. short prosthetic stride
c. knee extension throughout stance phase
d. marked tendency to vault

A

Answer coming soon

115
Q

Anerior-posterior instability of the knee is caused by a tear of the…

a. collateral ligaments
b. iliofemoral ligament
c. cruciate ligaments
d. annular ligament

A

c. cruciate ligaments

116
Q

The final factor that determines your selection of heel cushion durometer in a SACH foot is the…

a. patient’s activity level
b. patient’s weight
c. patient’s age
d. length of residual limb
e. compression of heel cushion at heel strike

A

Answer coming soon

117
Q

The distal BK residual limb appears reddened and edematous after ambulation. the most common cause would be…

a. contact dermatitis
b. pressure on the peroneal nerve
c. lack of total contact
d. osteomyelitis
e. end bearing

A

Answer coming soon

118
Q

During normal human locomotion, the primary function of the gluteus medius is to…

a. control the degree of femoral adduction
b. stabilize the knee
c. maintain lateral stability of the pelvis
d. flex hip joint
e. extend the hip joint

A

Answer coming soon

119
Q

Compared to PTB with cuff suspension, the PTB SC/SP socket offers all of the following advantages except….

a. enhanced medial lateral stability
b. more positive knee extension stop
c. more freedom for kneeling
d. less pistoning during swing phase
e. a self-suspending prosthesis

A

Answer coming soon

120
Q

In a PTB prosthesis, the BK residual limb should have the greatest vertical loading force during stance phase concentrated at the…

a. medial flare of the tibia
b. distal and medial side of the shaft of the tibia
c. popliteal space
d. tibial tubercle

A

Answer coming soon

121
Q

When the counter of the shoe fits too tightly on a SACH foot, which of the following problems can results?

a. posterior lean of pylon
b. less compression of the heel
c. decrease in push-off resistance
d. decrease in external rotation of the foot

A

Answer coming soon

122
Q

One week after receiving a new prosthesis, a BK patient complains of hyperextension of the knee at midstance. The most likely cause is that the patient…

a. has been fitted with a SACH foot with too soft a heel cushion
b. has changed to a show with a lower heel
c. needs more gait training
d. has an AP measurement that is too large
e. has atrophied and needs to add more socks

A

Answer coming soon

123
Q

Which of the following bony landmarks is not used to determine the correct length of a prosthesis?

a. medial tibial plateau
b. posterior superior iliac spine
c. anterior superior iliac spine
d. iliac crest
e. greater trochanter

A

Answer coming soon

124
Q

The anterior stop in a single axis foot substitutes for which of the following muscles?

a. tibialis anterior
b. gastrocnemius
c. extensor digitorum longus
d. peroneus tertius

A

Answer coming soon

125
Q

According to Burgess et al., when a rigid plaster dressing is applied following a below knee amputation, the relief pads should be placed…

a. on the patellar tendon
b. on the tibial tubercle
c. to cover the fibular head
d. to bridge the tibial crest

A

Answer coming soon

126
Q

With a PTB prosthesis, excessive knee flexion occurs after heel strike. Which of the following foot and socket adjustments best corrects the problem?

a. move foot anterior, decrease socket flexion
b. move foot anterior, increase socket flexion
c. move foot posterior, decrease socket flexion
d. move foot posterior, increase socket flexion

A

Answer coming soon

127
Q

One reason for aligning the PTB prosthesis so that the patient’s knee is partially flexed is to…

a. minimize the tendency of the knee to hyperextend
b. limit the weight bearing capacity of the limb
c. give the amputee better balance while standing
d. insure equal stride length
e. decrease the pressure on the popliteal area

A

Answer coming soon

128
Q

In BK alignment, correct ML placement of the foot with reference to the midline of the socket is…

a. inset up to 1/2 inch (12mm)
b. inset 1/2 inch to 1inch (12mm-25mm)
c. outset up to 1/2 inch (12mm)
d. outset 1/2 inch to 1 inch (12-25mm)

A

Answer coming soon

129
Q

Improperly located PTB studs can cause all of the following problems except…

a. swing phase whips
b. inadequate suspension
c. peroneal nerve impingment
d. difficulty in sitting

A

Answer coming soon

130
Q

The plantarflexion bumper substitues in part for which of the following muscles?

a. extensor digitorum brevis
b. gastrocnemius
c. flexor hallucis longus
d. peroneus longus
e. tibialis anterior

A

Answer coming soon

131
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of multiaxial prosthetic foot?

a. absorbs torque
b. accommodates uneven ground
c. minimizes shear forces on the skin
d. requires less maintenance

A

Answer coming soon

132
Q

When the BK patient controls the tendency of the knee to flex after heel strike, the pressures are increased on which areas of the limb?

a. proximal anterior, proximal posterior
b. proximal anterior, distal posterior
c. distal anterior, proximal posterior
d. distal anterior, distal posterior

A

Answer coming soon

133
Q

Which of the following conditions would would require the removal of an immediate post surgical (IPSF) rigid dressing?

a. blood staining of the cast
b. phantom pain at night
c. sudden increase in the patient’s temerature
d. sensation that the cast is tight distally

A

Answer coming soon

134
Q

Compared to a PTB S/C prosthesis, the joints and corset PTB offers all the following advantages except…

a. enhanced ML stability
b. more positive knee extension stop
c. less quadriceps atrophy
d. greater weight bearing distribution

A

Answer coming soon

135
Q

During dynamic alignment of a PTB prosthesis, excessive knee flexion occurs at the beginning of heel rise. Which of the following adjustments best corrects the problem?

a. move foot posterior, decrease socket flexion
b. move foot posterior, increase socket flexion
c. move foot anterior, decrease socket flexion
d. move foot anterior, increase socket flexion

A

Answer coming soon

136
Q

A long posterior flap in a BK amputation secondary to ischemia is preferred because of…

a. better blood supply
b. more fat to protect the skin
c. better cover over the cut end of fibula
d. easier flap closure

A

Answer coming soon

137
Q

A tendon that is readily visible or palpable in the popliteal area when the knee is flexed is that of the…

a. pectineus
b. vastus intermedius
c. rectus femoris
d. biceps femoris
e. popliteus

A

Answer coming soon

138
Q

During static alignment of a PTB prosthesis, the prosthetist noted that the patient’s knee was going into hyperextension while standing, even though bench alignment had been correct. The prosthetist should…

a. slide the foot anteriorly
b. slide socket posteriorly
c. check the compression of the SACH heel
d. plantarflex the foot

A

Answer coming soon

139
Q

If the foot of the PTB prosthesis is moved too far laterally on the adjustable leg, it will cause excessive pressures on which areas of the residual limb?

a. distal lateral, proximal medial
b. distal lateral, distal medial
c. proximal lateral, proximal medial
d. proximal lateral, distal medial

A

Answer coming soon

140
Q

Knee flexion built into a PTB socket increases the weight bearing capacity of the…

a. end of the residual limb
b. crest of the tibia
c. patellar tendon
d. shaft of the fibula

A

Answer coming soon

141
Q

Which one of the following muscles is not a plantarflexor of the foot?

a. tibialis posterior
b. plantaris
c. extensor hallucis longus
d. peroneus longus
e. gastrocnemius

A

Answer coming soon

142
Q

Which of the following muscles undergoes a lengthening contraction between heel strike and foot flat?

a. tibialis posterior
b. tibialis anterior
c. peroneus longus
d. flexor hallucis longus
e. gastrocnemius

A

Answer coming soon

143
Q

Following a transmetatarsal amputation, the patient loses…

a. plantarflexion
b. inversion
c. heel off
d. toe off
e. push off

A

Answer coming soon

144
Q

Inversion of the foot is accomplished primarily by the…

a. peroneal muscles
b. flexor digitorum longus
c. tibialis anterior and posterior
d. gastrocnemius-soleus group

A

Answer coming soon

145
Q

The talus does not articulate with the…

a. tibia
b. cuboid
c. calcaneus
d. navicular
e. fibula

A

Answer coming soon

146
Q

Active plantarflexion of the ankle joint is strongest with the…

a. hip extended
b. hip flexed
c. knee extended
d. knee flexed

A

Answer coming soon

147
Q

The chopart level of amputation is performed through the…

a. metatarsal shafts
b. synovial membranes
c. tarsal metatarsal joint
d. mid-tarsal joint
e. neck of the talus

A

Answer coming soon

148
Q

The anterior trim line of the symes prosthesis usually extends to the level of the patellar tendon in order to…

a. provide a long lever arm to distribute force
b. achieve better suspension
c. decrease compression loads on the prosthesis
d. improve cosmetic appearance

A

Answer coming soon

149
Q

The plantarflexors are most active during…

a. heel strike
b. foot flat
c. mid-stance
d. heel-off
e. mid-swing

A

Answer coming soon

150
Q

The function of the tibialis anterior muscle is…

a. dorsiflexion and inversion
b. dorsiflexion and eversion
c. plantarflexion and inversion
d. plantarflexion and eversion

A

Answer coming soon

CJ P Mock Exams (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions