Normans Fire Tactics Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following must take precedence when there is a shortage in personnel?

A. Staging
B. Fire extinguishment
C. Exposure protection
D. Rescue

A

D. Rescue

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2
Q

What is one of the most basic principles of fire fighting?

A. Firefighters responsibility is to educate the public about the job
B. Firefighters responsibility is to protect life and property
C. Firefighters responsibility is to risk his life at all times
D. Firefighters responsibility is to ensure code compliance

A

B. Firefighters responsibility is to protect life and property

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3
Q

What should be started when a fire unit arrives at the fire scene?

A. Extinguishment
B. Staging
C. Size up
D. Rescue

A

C. Size up

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4
Q

What must be allowed to dictate procedures at a fire?

A. guidelines
B. Circumstances
C. Training
D. Operations

A

B. Circumstances

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5
Q

How many directions can a fire spread, that the firefighter must be constantly aware of?

A. five
B. Four
C. Seven
D. Six

A

D. Six

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6
Q

What is normally the second action taken at the fire scene?

A. Extinguish the fire
B. Confine the fire
C. Locate the fire
D. Scene size up

A

B. Confine the fire

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7
Q

What should be done first when you do not have sufficient personnel to perform all of the tasks that need to be done?

A. tasks that extinguish the fire
B. tasks that protect the greatest amount of property
C. tasks that extinguish the fire in exposures
D. tasks that protect the greatest number of human lives

A

D. tasks that protect the greatest number of human lives

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8
Q

What should the scouting team be equipped with when initially performing recon?

A. hoselines
B. site map
C. portable radios
D. Portable extinguishers

A

C. portable radios

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9
Q

Which victims in general will need to be given the highest priority?

A. Those one or more floors below the fire
B. Those on the top floor of the building
C. Those in the immediate vicinity of the fire
D. Those directly above the fire

A

C. Those in the immediate vicinity of the fire

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10
Q

What is often the best way to reduce or eliminate the life hazard at a fire when sufficient personnel are present?

A. Remove all of the victims
B. Extinguish the fire
C. Vent the building
D. Confine the fire

A

B. Extinguish the fire

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11
Q

In which type of construction does the 20 minute rule apply?

A. Class 2
B. Class 1
C. Class 4
D. Class 5

A

D. Class 5

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12
Q

What is used to vent the products of combustion in a below grade fire?

A. Wall space
B. Stairway
C. Windows
D. Upper floor

A

B. Stairway

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13
Q

When does proper size up begin?

A. While enroute to the scene
B. Once the victims have been located
C. After the building has been searched
D. When the alarm is received

A

D. When the alarm is received

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14
Q

In what amount of time have most class 2 buildings with metal C joists or bar joists been proven to collapse when exposed to fire?

A. 20 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 10 minutes

A

B. 5 minutes

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15
Q

What should the firefighter be alerted to the possibility of finding in a large, open occupancy?

A. Severe life hazard
B. Common cockloft
C. Numerous exposures
D. Truss construction

A

D. Truss construction

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16
Q

What can be used when construction trenches divide the apparatus from the building?

A. Passing line
B. Aerial apparatus
C. Ladder company
D. Quint truck

A

B. Aerial apparatus

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17
Q

What is the front of the fire building labeled under the NIMS system?

A. D
B. C
C. A
D. B

A

C. A

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18
Q

Where will exposure 4 be located when using a numerical identification system?

A. rear of the fire building
B. Right side of the fire building
C. Left side of the fire building
D. Front of the fire building

A

B. Right side of the fire building

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19
Q

Which of the following translates into a severe life hazard?

A. multiple exposure
B. Large fire in a building
C. Many people in a fire building
D. People who are unable to flee

A

D. People who are unable to flee

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20
Q

Which exposure should be selected to protect when possible?

A. Closest to the the hydrant
B. Most severely exposed
C. most important
D. easiest to protect

A

C. Most important

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21
Q

After what amount of time of fire exposure should a building of standard wood frame construction NOT be entered due to a collapse hazard?

A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 5 minutes

A

B. 20 minutes

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22
Q

Which of the following describes the smoke’s presentation of a fire in the incipient stage?

A. rolling
B. Wispy
C. Dark in color
D. Heavy

A

B. Wispy

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23
Q

What should be done if auxiliary equipment is found inoperable at a fire scene?

A. Stage resources
B. Proceed without it
C. Call another alarm
D. Try to repair it

A

C. Call another alarm

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24
Q

Water flows in what amount for each 100 square feet (9 square meters) have been determined to be sufficient to control fires in areas of light fire loads of ordinary combustibles, provided the area has not been vented?

A. 25 GPM (95 L/min)
B. 10 GPM (38 L/min)
C. 100 GPM (379 L/min)
D. 50 GPM (189 L/min)

A

B. 10 GPM (38 L/min)

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25
Q

What type of fire should be suspected when you encounter a floor that is full of hot smoke but no visible fire?

A. Cellar
B. Structure
C. Void space
D. Cockloft

A

A. Cellar

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26
Q

What precent of all civilian fire deaths occur in residential buildings?

A. 90%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 60%

A

C. 80%

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27
Q

Which statement is correct?

A. Generally the lower the fire is in the building, the more serious the hazard
B. The physical location of the fire has no bearing on the tactics used
C. The only thing that gives firefighters a clue about what to expect is building height
D. Initial report information is inaccurate too often to rely upon it

A

A. Generally the lower the fire is in the building, the more serious the hazard

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28
Q

What is the major exception to the statement that newer buildings of metal construction add little or nothing to the fire load?

A. Interior contents fire
B. Façade fire
C. Structural member fire
D. metal deck roof fire

A

D. Metal deck roof fire

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29
Q

What fire resistance rating do the walls of a class 3 building have?

A. 3 hour
B. 2 hour
C. 4 hour
D. 1 hour

A

B. 2 hour

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30
Q

What can be looked at upon arrival to estimate the amount of time since flashover?

A. Number of responding units
B. Venting windows
C. Number of victims outside
D. Peeling paneling

A

B. Venting windows

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31
Q

What is the most important decision the IC will make?

A. To stage far from the building
B. To respond to a second alarm
C. To order additional resources
D. To pull troops from a building

A

D. To pull troops from a building

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32
Q

Which construction factor is probably the most important to firefighters?

A. The degree of compartmentalization of a building
B. The ability of a building to resist collapse when threated by fire
C. The number of hidden voids within which the fire can travel
D. The degree of which the building itself contributes to the fire load

A

B. The ability of a building to resist collapse when threatened by fire

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33
Q

Up to what flow rate can the modern 1 1/2 inch (3.8cm) nozzle deliver?

A. 125 GPM (473 L/min)
B. 150 GPM (568 L/min)
C. 100 GPM (379 L/min)
D. 175 GPM (662 L/min)

A

A. 125 GPM (473 L/min)

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34
Q

Whose primary function is normally water supply?

A. Engine company
B. Ladder company
C. truck company
D. Quint Company

A

A. Engine company

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35
Q

In Which construction type are the walls, partitions, columns, floors, and roofs noncombustible?

A. Class 5
B. Class 3
C. Class 7
D. Class 1

A

D. Class 1

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36
Q

What is a life hazard at every fire incident?

A. Occupants
B. Bystanders
C. Firefighters and occupants
D. Firefighters

A

D. Firefighters

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37
Q

How many sides are included in the fire scene examination?

A. four
B. Six
C. Eights
D. Two

A

B. Six

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38
Q

Where does the fire attack begin at a structure?

A. Rear
B. Front
C. Roof
D. Side

A

B. Front

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39
Q

At what point does the 20 minutes rule begin?

A. At arrival
B. At first ignition
C. At alarm
D. At flashover

A

D. At flashover

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40
Q

How often must the IC give status updates for the first hour of the incident in new york city?

A. Every 5 minutes
B. Every 10 minutes
C. every 20 minutes
D. Every 15 minutes

A

B. Every 10 minutes

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41
Q

What refers to the fuel contributed by the structural components?

A. Extension
B. Resistance
C. Noncombustible
D. Fireproofing

A

C. Noncombustible

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42
Q

What is the best way to deal with high life hazards?

A. Reduce it before the incident occurs
B. Document where the life hazards are located
C. Have evacuation drills in the occupancy
D. Enforce building codes strictly

A

A. reduce it before the incident occurs

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43
Q

What is the recommended flow rate per 100 square feet (9 square meters) in a commercial occupancy today?

A. 25 GPM (95 L/min)
B. 35 GPM (132 L/min)
C. 10 GPM (38 L/min)
D. 70 GPM (264 L/min)

A

B. 35 GPM (132 L/min)

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44
Q

What is the preferred way to ensure that a large loss will not occur due to water supply issues?

A. have drafting operations in place
B. have preconnected lines on site
C. Put mutual aid in motion at the first call
D. Ensure sprinklers are installed

A

D. Ensure sprinklers are installed

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45
Q

What is the first visible indication of a working fire but is not an accurate indicator of location?

A. Victims
B. Charring
C. Flames
D. Smoke

A

D. Smoke

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46
Q

Which type of buildings are the least stable in terms of collapse when exposed to fire?

A. Class 3
B. Class 5
C. Class 2
D. Class 4

A

C. Class 2

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47
Q

What is a key indicator of the likelihood of a structural collapse?

A. Age of the structure
B. Elapsed burn time
C. Location of fire
D. Total fuel load

A

B. Elapsed burn time

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48
Q

Where is the best place to get information about what is burning and if there are victims in the fire building?

A. Neighbors
B. Occupants
C. Bystanders
D. Dispatch

A

B. Occupants

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49
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using the indirect attack method?

A. It can be used in an occupied building
B. It can extinguish fire in areas remote from the application
C. It can reduce firefighters exposure to potential backdraft situations
D. It often uses less water for extinguishment

A

A. It can be used in an occupied building

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50
Q

What is often the best course of action when a potential BLEVE is a danger?

A. Offensive, exterior attack
B. Defensive, interior attack
C. Take no action
D. Offensive, interior attack

A

C. Take no action

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51
Q

What fog pattern is used when performing the indirect attack?

A. 60 degree
B. 45 degree
C. 15 degree
D. 30 degree

A

D. 30 degree

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52
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic used to determine the stage a fire is in?

A. Amount of time that has lapsed
B. Differences in room temperature
C. Content type and fuel load
D. Number of potential ventilation openings

A

B. Differences in room temperature

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53
Q

What saves more lives each year?

A. properly positioned and operated hose lines
B. properly times ventilation operations
C. Education about sheltering in place
D. Aggressive search operations

A

A. properly positioned and operated hose lines

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54
Q

What is the only thing needed to ignite the explosive mixture during the smoldering stage?

A. Ignition source
B. Chemical reaction
C. Fuel
D. Oxygen

A

D. Oxygen

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55
Q

How should you move when advancing the hose line to avoid burns during the free burning stage

A. on your belly
B. Duck walk
C. On your knees
D. Walk upright

A

B. Duck walk

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56
Q

Where should extra hose be flaked out when the fire is above the ground floor of a multi story building?

A. Down the hallway
B. Out the window
C. Down the stairway
D. Up the stairway

A

C. Down the stairway

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57
Q

Approximately how much does 1 length of charged 1 3/4 inch (4.4 cm) hose weigh?

A. 60 pounds (27 kg)
B. 80 pounds (36 kg)
C. 40 pounds (18 kg)
D. 100 pounds (45 kg)

A

B. 80 pounds (36 kg)

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58
Q

In general what is the highest priority during defensive operations?

A. Life safety
B. Exposure protection
C. Search and rescue
D. Property conservation

A

B. Exposure protection

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59
Q

After what amount of time if the fire is not under control, should the commander switch to a defensive mode of operations?

A. 30 minutes
B. 40 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 10 minutes

A

C. 20 minutes

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60
Q

What is the best way to protect an exposure?

A. Coat the fire building with water
B. Coat the exposed surface with water
C. create a water jet between the buildings
D. Create a water curtain between the buildings

A

B. Coat the exposed surface with water

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61
Q

Up to how many stories of frontage can a master stream cover from an elevated platform when operated in front of the building?

A. Six
B. Four
C. Three
D. Five

A

C. Three

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62
Q

What has lead to the ability to improve our ability to inside and put out a fire before it kills the remaining occupants?

A. hand lines
B. Large crews
C. Large master streams
D. Protective clothing

A

D. Protective clothing

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63
Q

During which stage will a hand extinguisher often be capable of halting further extention?

A. Smoldering
B. Incipient
C. Decaying
D. Free burning

A

B. Incipient

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64
Q

When should you open the hose line while advancing into a room with the fire in the free burning stage?

A. When the area is vented
B. When the smoke is thick
C. When you can see fire
D. When the temperature is high

A

C. When you can see fire

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65
Q

What should be started as soon as possible to make other operations more easily performed?

A. Overhaul
B. Suppression
C. Search
D. Rescue

A

B. Suppression

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66
Q

Where should the straight stream be directed when moving from one involved room to another?

A. floor
B. Contents
C. Ceiling
D. Wall

A

A. Floor

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67
Q

Which attack method should be used with a fire in the incipient stage?

A. Combination
B. Direct
C. Indirect
D. Defensive

A

B. Direct

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68
Q

What is the primary purpose of an engine company?

A. Absorb toxic fumes
B. Flush flammable liquids
C. Extinguish the fire
D. Protect Exposure

A

C. Extinguish the fire

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69
Q

What can result if the fog pattern is too wide when beginning the combination attack?

A. Oxygen deprivation
B. Gas layer cooling
C. Backdraft
D. Steam burns

A

D. Steam burns

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70
Q

What is the minimum number of firefighters required to drag 300 feet (91 m) or more of hose up stairways in large buildings?

A. Six
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Four

A

A. Six

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71
Q

After what amount of time of operating the hose stream into the broken store front window should the likelihood of a backdraft occurring (in the area) be over?

A. 20 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 10 seconds

A

B. 30 seconds

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72
Q

What should be done when backdraft conditions are suspected in a store fire in a middle store of a strip mall?

A. Breach the store’s exterior wall
B. Break the store front window
C. Attack through the neighboring store
D. ventilate the roof

A

B. break the store front window

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73
Q

which of the following is NOT a key requirement for the use of a indirect attack method?

A. No occupants
B. limited ventilation
C. limited size of potential fire area
D. low heat

A

D. low heat

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74
Q

Approximately how long should the ceiling level attack be done during the free burning stage?

A. 5 to 10 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 25 seconds
D. 15 to 20 seconds

A

A. 5 to 10 seconds

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75
Q

What is the first tactic that should be attempted when you suspect that a backdraft explosion is possible?

A. Vent the highest portions of the affected area
B. Perform horizontal ventilation in the affected area
C. remove the fuel from the affected area
D. Use a fog spray pattern in the affected area

A

A. Vent the highest portions of the affected area

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76
Q

What should the water application used in the indirect attack be timed with for optimal effectiveness?

A. Topside ventilation
B. Forcible entry
C. Fuel load reduction
D. Horizontal ventilation

A

A. Topside ventilation

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77
Q

What will happen to any hidden fire when you have darkened down the fire using the combination attack?

A. It will smoke
B. Extinguish it
C. It will ignite
D. Nothing will happen

A

C. It will ignite

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78
Q

What is the main source of fuel in a well involved room fire?

A. Gaseous layer
B. Ceiling
C. Structural members
D. contents

A

D. Contents

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79
Q

What will be observed when the fog stream has cooled the area significantly in a third stage fire?

A. Amount of steam diminishes
B. Amount of steam increases
C. There is no sound from the area
D. There is a hissing sound from the area

A

A. Amount of steam diminishes

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80
Q

When should the decision change from offensive mode be made?

A. When a second alarm must be declared
B. When fire is entering nearby exposures
C. When firefighters are fatigued
D. When there are no more savable victims

A

D. When there are no more savable victims

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81
Q

What pattern is most often used when moving from one involved room to another?

A. Z
B. T
C. L
D. U

A

A. Z

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82
Q

What are the only two things that should prevent the hose line from being advanced in fires today?

A. Heat and smoke
B. Flame and smoke
C. Heat and flame
D. Flames and fumes

A

C. Heat and flame

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83
Q

What will dilute the effect of the steam generated using the indirect attack method?

A. Use of a fog pattern
B. Small fire area
C. Type of fuel load
D. Ventilation openings

A

D. ventilation openings

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84
Q

What floor should you survey to determine the layout of the fifth floor of a seven story building?

A. First
B. Third
C. Sixth
D. Fourth

A

D. Fourth

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85
Q

Where should you investigate when using a fog pattern and you notice a great deal of heat from behind you?

A. Behind the team
B. Above the team
C. Ahead of the team
D. A side room

A

A. Behind the team

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86
Q

What can be done when a strong wind is blowing in from the fire escape side?

A. Pull out and go defensive
B. Fight against the wind
C. Work with the wind at your back
D. Use a different entry location

A

C. work with the wind at your back

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87
Q

What can be used when estimating the amount of hose needed for a large one story building?

A. Divide the area of the building by two
B. Add the length and depth of the building
C. Multiply the width of the building by 5
D. Subtract the depth from the height of the building

A

B. Add the length and the depth of the building

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88
Q

What is the ideal geometric arrangement for the spread of fire?

A. Two angled surfaces
B. Two widely spaced vertical surfaces
C. Two perpendicular surfaces
D. Two closely facing vertical surfaces

A

D. Two closely facing vertical surfaces

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89
Q

What type of valve is usually found on the nozzle that regulates the amount of water flowing past the opening?

A. Ball
B. Pressure relief
C. Yoke
D. Hose gate

A

A. Ball

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90
Q

How many paces should be put between members when more then one person is carrying the hose?

A. One to two
B. Three to four
C. Two to three
D. Four to five

A

C. Two to three

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91
Q

How many lengths of hose should the nozzle operator arrive at the fire area with at a minimum?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. One

A

D. One

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92
Q

Where should the hose stream be directed when entering the cellar filled with high expansion foam for extinguishment?

A. Floor
B. Ceiling
C. Into the foam
D. Out the vent

A

B. Ceiling

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93
Q

How many extra lengths of hose should the nozzle team arrive at the fire area with to ensure there is enough hose for the building?

A. One to two
B. Two to three
C. Three or four
D. Four or five

A

A. One to two

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94
Q

What is a reasonable estimate of the number of lengths of hose needed when needing to stretch the hose line along the stairs?

A. Four
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

A

B. One

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95
Q

Up to what expansion ratio do air aspirating nozzles typically create?

A. 15:1
B. 5:1
C. 7:1
D. 10:1

A

D. 10:1

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96
Q

What reach does the baker pipe have?

A. About 25 feet (8m)
B. About 100 feet (30m)
C. about 75 feet (23m)
D. About 50 feet (15m)

A

D. About 50 feet (15m)

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97
Q

Within what distance can the muffled voices in the SCBA facepiece barely be heard within a foam blanket?

A. 2 or 3 feet (0.6m to 0.9m)
B. 4 or 5 feet (1.2m to 1.5m)
C. 5 or 6 feet (1.5m to 1.8m)
D. 3 or 4 feet (0.9m to 1.2m)

A

D. 3 or 4 feet (0.9m to 1.2m)

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98
Q

What can be done to the nozzle opening to make the stream blast through materials?

A. Make it larger
B. Make it smaller
C. Leave it unchanged
D. Make it fluctuate

A

B. Make it smaller

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99
Q

What is the maximum number of lengths of 1 1/2 inch (4cm) hose can be used as a preconnect if you want to flow 125 GPM (473 L/min)?

A. Seven
B. Five
C. Four
D. Six

A

C. Four

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100
Q

What is the key to stretching the correct hose line at the scene?

A. Briefly look at the situation
B. Pull out all available hose line
C. Utilize SOPs for hose selection
D. Always stretch the same hose

A

A. Briefly look at the situation

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101
Q

What can be used to prevent the airbag shock absorber from rupturing during a fire?

A. Piercing stream
B. Flooding applicator
C. Bent applicator
D. Straight stream

A

C. Bent applicator

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102
Q

As a rule of thumb, what should the maximum size opening a nozzle should have?

A. 1/3 the diameter of its supply
B. 1/8 the diameter of its supply
C. 1/4 the diameter of its supply
D. 1/2 the diameter of its supply

A

D. 1/2 the diameter of its supply

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103
Q

Where do members usually stage when the hose has been hoisted up the outside of the fire building?

A. One floor below the fire floor
B. On the opposite end of the fire floor
C. In the stairway of the fire floor
D. One floor above the fire floor

A

A. One floor below the fire floor

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104
Q

What must remain constant for the gallonage to remain the same with a constant gallonage nozzle?

A. Nozzle usage
B. Nozzle height
C. Nozzle pressure
D. Nozzle pattern

A

C. Nozzle pressure

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105
Q

What about the stream is affected by narrowing the area the water has to pass through in a nozzle?

A. Area
B. Reach
C. Pressure
D. Temperature

A

B. Reach

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106
Q

What is used to regulate the size of the discharge opening of the constant pressure nozzle?

A. Spring
B. Flap
C. Pulley
D. Ball

A

A. Spring

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107
Q

What type of nozzle should be used to limit the difficulty of changing to a more specialized nozzle type once the hose has been stretched?

A. Break apart design with male hose threads on the discharge side of the shutoff handle
B. Break apart design with female hose threads on the intake side of the shutoff handle
C. Break apart design with male hose threads on the intake side of the shutoff handle
D. break apart design with female hose threads on the discharge side of the shutoff handle

A

A. break apart design with the male hose threads on the discharge side of the shutoff handle

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108
Q

What purpose does the hose line serve in an outside fire of significant proportions?

A. Move the fire around
B. Cut the fire off
C. Push the fire back
D. Chase the fire down

A

B. Cut the fire off

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109
Q

What must be determined first when analyzing hose line choices that are available to your company?

A. Amount of crew
B. Nature of the district
C. Level of the training
D. Limit of the budget

A

B. Nature of the training

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110
Q

What is the recommended flow rate for most commercial occupancies?

A. 0.35 gpm/sq ft
B. 0.74 gpm/sq ft
C. 0.15 gpm/sq ft
D. 0.55 gpm/sq ft

A

A. 0.35 gpm/sq ft

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111
Q

At what concentration is the class B foam used with the commercial compressed air foam system?

A. 2-4%
B. 0.3-0.6%
C. 3-6%
D. 0.2-0.4%

A

C. 3-6%

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112
Q

At what number of bends in a hose line must a member be positioned to feed the hose to the advancing hose team?

A. One
B. Three
C. Four
D. Two

A

D. Two

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113
Q

What can the piercing applicator be forced through when putting out a fire in trunk?

A. Backseat
B. Taillight housing
C. Trunk lid
D. Under carriage

A

B. Taillight housing

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114
Q

What is the first consideration when deciding where to place a hose line?

A. Confine the fire
B. Protect valuable property
C. Extinguish the fire
D. Protect human life

A

D. Protect human life

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115
Q

Which of the considerations when placing a line into operation will probably have the greatest effect on the fire?

A. Length of the hose line moved
B. Operation pressure of the line
C. Size of the line
D. Ultimate destination of the line

A

D. Ultimate destination of the line

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116
Q

What must be done before water can be started for a cellar nozzle?

A. Close off any vent holes
B. Advance a hose line down the stairs
C. Cut a hole in the floor
D. Perform a pressure test

A

C. Cut a hole in the floor

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117
Q

Which member(s) must be in position of a pike pole or hook probe when operating in a cellar with high expansion foam?

A. rear
B. Back up
C. All
D. Lead

A

D. Lead

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118
Q

Which of the following is a factor into determining the length of hose needed?

A. Occupancy type
B. Setback of the building
C. Size of the fire
D. Area of the building

A

B. Setback of the building

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119
Q

What should be avoided when a hose line is needed on an upper floor and there is no fire escape?

A. Using the platform to remove victims
B. Using the platform as a standpipe
C. Using the platform to transport hose line
D. Using the platform to move crews

A

B. Using the platform as a standpipe

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120
Q

Where should the hose line priority location be most often in any multi level building?

A. Exterior fire escapes
B. Interior staircases
C. Interior hallways
D. Elevator shafts

A

B. Interior staircases

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121
Q

What happens to gasoline tank trucks when they are exposed to fire?

A. Melt from the top down
B. Rupture at the front
C. Burn a hole in the side
D. Explode violently

A

A. Melt from the top down

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122
Q

Where is the air added when using a commercial compressed air foam system?

A. At the pump
B. Along the line
C. After expulsion
D. At the nozzle

A

A. At the pump

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123
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the residence that plays an important role when selecting hose lines?

A. The need for speed
B. Relatively low fire loading
C. Increased use of plastics
D. Presence of dividing walls

A

C. Increased use of plastics

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124
Q

What amount is the fire load increased when the same building contains large amounts of plastics as opposed to ordinary combustibles?

A. Double
B. Quadrupled
C. Triple
D. It remains the same

A

A. Double

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125
Q

Which statement is correct?

A. Residual pressure will give you an indication of the amount of pressure in a line
B. Flow testing is not needed if an adequate static pressure is present
C. If water is flowing the pressure is adequate
D. Static pressure is no indicator of the volume of water available from the hydrant

A

D. Static pressure is no indicator of the volume of water available from the hydrant

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126
Q

Which statement about water is NOT correct?

A. The pressure in a confined body of water at rest is the same at all points
B. The pressure a fluid exerts is proportional to the density of that fluid
C. The pressure of a fluid in an open container is proportional to its depth
D. Fluid pressure is parallel to the surface on which it acts

A

D. Fluid pressure is parallel to the surface on which it acts

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127
Q

Which of the following is often the better solution when the desired flow cannot be accomplished?

A. Change the location of the hydrant used
B. Change the number of pumpers used
C. Change the size of hoses used
D. Change the opening pressure used

A

C. Change the number of pumpers used

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128
Q

What is concerned primarily with ensuring that the proper volume of water is available at the required location on the fireground?

A. Hydraulics
B. Fuel load
C. Water supply
D. Fire physics

A

C. Water supply

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129
Q

What can be added to increase the flow to an inline pumping engine?

A. Extra hose line
B. Second pumper
C. Relief valve
D. Gated wye

A

B. Second pumper

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130
Q

What happens to the friction loss when the hose lay is tripled?

A. Quadruples it
B. Doubles it
C. Triples it
D. Nothing happens

A

C. Triples it

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131
Q

What pressure is most likely being referred to when the statement is made that there are no supply problems in an area because there is 110 psi (758 kPa) at all of the hydrants?

A. Backflow
B. Static
C. Elevated
D. Head

A

B. Static

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132
Q

At what flow would a 6 inch supply line be a better choice?

A. 1,250 GPM (4,731 L/min)
B. 1,750 GPM (6,624 L/min)
C. 1,500 GPM (5,678 L/min)
D. 1,000 GPM (3,785 L/min)

A

B. 1,750 GPM (6,624 L/min)

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133
Q

What size supply hose is best used with a 1,250 - 1,500 GPM (4,731 L/min - 5,678 L/min) pumper?

A. 4 inch (10 cm)
B. 6 inch (15 cm)
C. 3 inch (8 cm)
D. 5 inch (13 cm)

A

D. 5 inch (13 cm)

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134
Q

What is considered to be the minimum acceptable residual pressure, except when drafting?

A. 25 psi (172 kPa)
B. 15 psi (103 kPa)
C. 20 psi (138 kPa)
D. 10 psi (69 kPa)

A

D. 10 psi (69 kPa)

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135
Q

How should the LDH be used to take advantage of its low friction loss and work around its relatively low maximum discharge pressure?

A. Inline supply
B. Positive pump
C. Reverse lay
D. Drop lay

A

A. Inline supply

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136
Q

How many 5 inch (13 cm) supply lines would be needed to equal the performance of one 6 inch (15 cm) supply line?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

A

A. Two

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137
Q

What maximum discharge pressure does NFPA recommend for LDH?

A. 100 psi (689 kPa)
B. 200 psi (1,379 kPa)
C. 250 psi (1,724 kPa)
D. 150 psi (1,034 kPa)

A

B. 200 psi (1,379 kPa)

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138
Q

What does LDH deliver?

A. Pressure
B. Volume
C. Pressure and reach
D. Reach

A

B. Volume

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139
Q
Which is the most versatile, most highly maneuverable master stream on the fireground today? 
A. Tower ladder
B. Ladder tower
C. Ladder pipe
D. Pipe ladder
A

A. Tower ladder

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140
Q

With which size supply lines are low intake pressures most commonly encountered when inline pumping?

A. 1 inch (3 cm)
B. 2 1/2 inch (6 cm)
C. 2 inch (5 cm)
D. 1 1/2 inch (4 cm)

A

B. 2 1/2 inch (6 cm)

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141
Q

What percent of the one line loss is experienced when the flow is split among three lines?

A. 10-15%
B. 35-45%
C. 15-20%
D. 25-35%

A

A. 10-15%

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142
Q

What is the amount of pressure that is exerted on the surface of water in a container for every foot of height that the water rises?

A. Density pressure
B. Draft pressure
C. Static pressure
D. Head pressure

A

D. head pressure

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143
Q

What is the most common resistance to flow?

A. Hose kinks
B. Friction loss
C. Head pressure
D. Backflow

A

B. Friction loss

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144
Q

About how much does 1 cubic foot of water weigh?

A. 27.9 lb (13 kg)
B. 62.5 lb (28 kg)
C. 87.9 lb (40 kg)
D. 95.5 lb (43 kg)

A

B. 62.5 lb (28kg)

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145
Q

Where should the pumper often be located when low flowing pressure is encountered?

A. Near the nozzle
B. Near the fire building
C. Near the hydrant
D. Between the hydrant and the fire building

A

C. Near the hydrant

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146
Q

Which pressure is being represented when the higher the nozzle pressure, the higher the flow, as long as the tip size remains constant?

A. Engine
B. Nozzle
C. Pump
D. Gate

A

B. Nozzle

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147
Q

What is normally sufficient for preconnected lines during routine operations?

A. Pressure gauge
B. Nothing is needed
C. Flow meter
D. Pressure gauge and flow meter

A

A. Pressure gauge

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148
Q

What pushes the water up through the suction hoses to the intake of the pump when drafting from an open topped source?

A. Air above us
B. increased tide
C. Current in the water
D. Pumper on the ground

A

A. Air above us

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149
Q

What is a single line of 4 inch (10 cm) almost exactly the same as in terms of friction loss?

A. Two lines of 3 inch (8 cm) hose
B. Two lines of 2 inch (5 cm) hose
C. One 2 inch (5 cm) hose
D. One 3 inch (8 cm) hose

A

A. two lines of 3 inch (8 cm) hose

150
Q

What allows the pump operator to concentrate on delivering the proper volume to the nozzle?

A. Regulator
B. Flow meter
C. Pressure gauge
D. Nozzle reaction

A

B. Flow meter

151
Q

How many pumpers could be needed if the hydrant flowing pressures are not enough to support a long lay of LDH up a tower ladder?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

B. Two

152
Q

What is one atmosphere?

A. 11.2 psi (77 kPa)
B. 13.5 psi (93 kPa)
C. 14.7 psi (101 kPa)
D. 12.8 psi (88 kPa)

A

C. 14.7 psi (101 kPa)

153
Q

Which type of pressure is being observed when a hydrant is opened to see how much energy is available to push the water out of the hydrant?

A. Static
B. backflow
C. Flowing
D. Residual

A

C. Flowing

154
Q

How much force is required to push a column of water up 2.3 feet (0.7 m)?

A. 3 psi (21 kPa)
B. 2 psi (14 kPa)
C. 4 psi (28 kPa)
D. 1 psi (7 kPa)

A

D. 1 psi (7 kPa)

155
Q

What happens to the pumpers ability to deliver water when the pressure is raised above the 150 psi (1,034 kPa) rating?

A. It shuts down
B. It remains the same
C. It delivers more water
D. It delivers less water

A

D. It delivers less water

156
Q

What is a majority of friction loss due to?

A. Resistance from exiting the nozzle
B. Turbulence within the stream
C. Pumper obstructions
D. Friction between water and inside of the hose

A

B. Turbulence within the stream

157
Q

Which of the following about water supply and pressures is NOT correct?

A. Pressure differences will not balance themselves out
B. Operating devices with different pressure requirements from the same wye is inefficient
C. Don’t try to operate appliances requiring substantially different pressures from the same wye
D. Water takes the path of least resistance

A

A. Pressure differences will not balance themselves out

158
Q

What is used to determine the amount of pressure you can afford to lose due to friction loss or elevation pressure?

A. Subtract minimum end pressure from the starting flow pressure
B. Subtract minimum end pressure from static pressure
C. Subtract minimum end pressure from starting backflow pressure
D. Subtract minimum end pressure from head pressure

A

A. Subtract minimum end pressure from the starting flow pressure

159
Q

What does the pressure in an open container depend on?

A. Length of the container
B. Volume of the container
C. Shape of the container
D. Depth of the container

A

D. Depth of the container

160
Q

Which of the following is superior when battling a fire in a taxpayer?

A. Telescoping boom device
B. A-frame ladder device
C. Articulating boom device
D. Straight ladder device

A

A. Telescoping boom device

161
Q

Which statement is correct?

A. By increasing the diameter of the hose, more water can be delivered farther using a slightly increased pump discharge energy
B. By increasing the diameter of the hose, more water can be delivered farther using the same pump discharge energy
C. When using small diameter hose, increasing the amount of water flowing through the hose will decrease the friction loss
D. When using large diameter hose, increasing the amount of water flowing through the hose will decrease the friction loss

A

B. By increasing the diameter of the hose, more water can be delivered farther using the same pump discharge energy

162
Q

Which class of standpipe is expected to be used by fire department personnel?

A. Class ll
B. Class lV
C. Class lll
D. Class l

A

D. Class l

163
Q

How long is the nonautomatic sprinkler system used in new York telephone building designed to withstand 1,500 degrees Fahrenheit (816 degrees Celsius)?

A. 20 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 25 minutes
D. 15 minutes

A

D. 15 minutes

164
Q

What does the type of standpipe system relate to?

A. Location
B. Pressure rating
C. Connection types
D. Water supply

A

D. Water supply

165
Q

At what level should the water be in a pressure tank?

A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 3/4

A

C. 2/3

166
Q

What should be done if a large break in the sprinkler piping is found?

A. Close the entire system
B. Switch to manual control
C. Shut down the control valve
D. Open the control valve

A

C. Shut down the control valve

167
Q

Up to what pressure is the piping in newly installed sprinkler systems hydrostatically tested?

A. 150 psi (1,034 kPa)
B. 200 psi (1,379 kPa)
C. 250 psi (1,724 kPa)
D. 100 psi (689 kPa)

A

200 psi (1,379 kPa)

168
Q

What type of layout is seen today in the sprinkler system piping?

A. Grid
B. Curve
C. Tree
D. Criss-cross

A

A. Grid

169
Q

How will you know if a building has a standpipe in it?

A. look for supply lines
B. Visit each one
C. Ask bystanders
D. Follow building codes

A

B. Visit each one

170
Q

What is the most commonly used type of sprinkler system control?

A. Post
B. Wall
C. OS&Y
D. Flip

A

C. OS&Y

171
Q

Before 1993 what was the maximum pressure allowed for civilian use on 1 1/2 inch (4 cm) outlets with a class lll standpipe system?

A. 100 psi (689 kPa)
B. 110 psi (758 kPa)
C. 90 psi (621 kPa)
D. 80 psi (552 kPa)

A

D. 80 psi (552 kPa)

172
Q

Where is it recommended that the hose line be connected to the standpipe outlet?

A. Floor below the fire
B. On the ground floor
C. On the fire floor
D. Floor above the fire

A

A. Floor below the fire

173
Q

What is the preferred type of standpipe system?

A. Automatic dry
B. Manual wet
C. Automatic wet
D. Manual dry

A

C. Automatic wet

174
Q

What should be done until the dry pipe system can be reset if firefighters find a valve trip at 3am where there is no fire present and no water flowing?

A. Put a security guard in place
B. Nothing needs to be done
C. Shut the alarm off and disconnect the system
D. Reset the system themselves

A

A. Put a security guard in place

175
Q

What will the pump operator compare to get an idea of the volume of water being supplied?

A. Static pressure to discharge pressure with water flowing
B. Static pressure to intake pressure without water flowing
C. Static pressure to discharge pressure without water flowing
D. Static pressure to intake pressure with water flowing

A

D. Static pressure to intake pressure with water flowing

176
Q

Which type of system is often installed over very expensive electronic equipment?

A. Dry pipe
B. Deluge
C. Preaction
D. Automatic wet

A

C. Preaction

177
Q

What volume will each sprinkler head operating at 50 psi (345 kPa) deliver?

A. 50 GPM (189 L/min)
B. 20 GPM (76 L/min)
C. 40 GPM (151 L/min)
D. 30 GPM (114 L/min)

A

C. 40 GPM (151 L/min)

178
Q

When fire is on which floor of a ten story building will standpipe use begin to be a better option?

A. Second floor
B. Ground floor
C. Top floor
D. Ninth floor

A

A. Second floor

179
Q

Which type of standpipe system is often found in public parking garages?

A. Manual dry
B. Automatic wet
C. Manual wet
D. Automatic wet

A

A. Manual dry

180
Q

What will happen to the pump suction housing when the pump is churning the water with little or no flow?

A. It will crack
B. It will explode
C. It will warm up
D. It will slide off

A

C. It will warm up

181
Q

What size team should be stationed at the sprinkler system controls?

A. one person
B. Three person
C. Two person
D. Four person

A

C. Two person

182
Q

At what angle are the feed and discharge of the main drain to each other usually?

A. 45 degree
B. 60 degree
C. 90 degree
D. 30 degree

A

C. 90 degree

183
Q

What allows water to discharge over the fire area in a preaction system?

A. Choked sprinklers
B. Closed sprinklers
C. Deluge sprinklers
D. Open sprinklers

A

B. Closed sprinklers

184
Q

Up until 1993, what was the maximum distance that the NFPA stated no point on the floor could be from a standpipe riser?

A. 60 foot long (18 m) hose stream from the nozzle of a 50 foot (15 M) line
B. 15 foot long (5 m) hose stream from the nozzle of a 100 foot (30 m) line
C. 30 foot long (9 m) hose stream from the nozzle of a 50 foot (15 m) line
D. 30 foot long (9 m) hose stream from the nozzle of a 100 foot (30 m) line

A

D. 30 foot long (9 m) hose stream from the nozzle of a 100 foot (30 m) line

185
Q

What will be extremely difficult to accomplish in a sprinklered building?

A. Search and rescue
B. Extinguishment
C. Darkening the fire
D. Ventilation

A

D. Ventilation

186
Q

For which fire floors would an initial pump pressure of 300 psi (2,068 kPa) be needed when using a solid tip nozzle?

A. 31-40
B. 11-20
C. 41-50
D. 21-30

A

A. 31-40

187
Q

Where is the hose line located on a class lll standpipe per NFPA recommendations?

A. In the stairwell
B. On the fire floor
C. Center of the hallway
D. In a central room

A

B. On the fire floor

188
Q

Who is responsible for resetting the dry pipe system when an alarm has sounded?

A. Building owner
B. Sprinkler contractor
C. Maintenance supervisor
D. Fire department

A

B. Sprinkler contractor

189
Q

What is carried in the standpipe bag to help operate the wheel of the standpipe outlet?

A. Replacement wheel
B. Thread adaptors
C. Pipe wrench
D. Spanner wrench

A

C. Pipe wrench

190
Q

What are automatic dry sprinkler system pipes filled with?

A. Wiring
B. Agent
C. Water
D. Air

A

D. Air

191
Q

How many remote siameses are required after 1993 by NFPA 14 in high rise buildings?

A. One
B. Four
C. Three
D. Two

A

D. Two

192
Q

In what position is the clapper of an automatic dry system maintained?

A. One third open
B. Fully closed
C. Fully open
D. One half closed

A

B. Fully Closed

193
Q

Where is the outlet valve normally located that makes stairway selection especially important?

A. Head height
B. Waist height
C. Ceiling height
D. Floor height

A

A. Head height

194
Q

What can need to be done to bypass the pressure reducing device for fire department use?

A. Remove the pin
B. Move the valve
C. Break the plate
D. Push the gauge

A

A. Remove the pin

195
Q

What may be useful for ventilation in relatively small areas with openings to the exterior with an operating sprinkler system?

A. Fans
B. HVAC
C. NPV
D. Natural openings

A

A. Fans

196
Q

At what pressure should the pumper being used to supply the sprinklers be operating?

A. 150 psi (1,034 kPa)
B. 100 psi (689 kPa)
C. 50 psi (345 kPa)
D. 200 psi (1,379 kPa)

A

A. 150 psi (1,034 kPa)

197
Q

What is considered a good starting discharge pressure when using a fog nozzle on a standpipe?

A. 200 psi (1,379 kPa)
B. 100 psi (689 kPa)
C. 250 psi (1,724 kPa)
D. 150 psi (1,034 kPa)

A

D. 150 psi (1,034 kPa)

198
Q

What can sprinkler heads be equated to in the way they bank smoke?

A. Solid nozzle
B. Wind current
C. Straight nozzle
D. Fog nozzle

A

D. Fog nozzle

199
Q

What is used to open and close a wall indicator valve?

A. Hand wheel
B. Nut/bolt combination
C. Detachable handle
D. Wrench

A

A. Hand wheel

200
Q

What is considered the greatest advance in overhauling?

A. Thermal imaging camera
B. Pike pole
C. Portable hose extension
D. Halligan tool

A

A. Thermal imaging camera

201
Q

Where should the officer be when the ladder company is on the scene of an occupied private house?

A. Hose line connection team
B. Interior search team
C. Rooftop ventilation team
D. Risk evaluation team

A

B. interior search team

202
Q

Which should be checked first for extension during overhaul operations?

A. Horizontal voids
B. Floor directly under the fire
C. Vertical voids
D. Floor directly over the fire

A

C. vertical voids

203
Q

Where is the best location for the tip of the ladder when using it for entry and exit through a window?

A. Just at or slightly above the window sill
B. three or four rungs inside of the window
C. One or two rungs inside of the window
D. Just at or slightly below the window sill

A

D. Just at or slightly below the window sill

204
Q

What kind of load is avoided when the aerial ladder is positioned square to the building?

A. Compressive
B. Shear
C. Tension
D. Torsional

A

D. Torsional

205
Q

Under the FDNY method of operating a ladder company at a private house fire, how many members are assigned to the interior search team?

A. Three
B. Two
C. Five
D. Four

A

A. Three

206
Q

What color will the exterior of class A material be when it is no longer able to reignite?

A. Gray
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Black

A

D. Black

207
Q

What should be the first consideration go to when selecting ladders for length?

A. A-Frame ladders
B. Tillered ladders
C. Extension ladders
D. Aerial ladders

A

C. Extension ladders

208
Q

What is the second sense that firefighters will probably use to determine when and where to open up during overhaul?

A. Smell
B. Hearing
C. Touch
D. Sight

A

B. Hearing

209
Q

What should be done when a telescoping boom with its basket on the roof before retracting the boom?

A. Push the basket forward and to the side
B. Pull the basket to the corner of the building
C. Sound an audible alarm before moving
D. Raise the basket above the roof

A

D. Raise the basket above the roof

210
Q

In FDNY what is the roof person’s assignment when operating under “Ladder 4” guidelines at a private house?

A. Route, stage, direct
B. Look, listen, feel
C. Enter, recon, report
D. Vent, Enter, search

A

D. Vent, enter, search

211
Q

Which is considered the better option when you encounter a smoldering material?

A. Completely dismantle the item
B. Drown it with a large stream
C. Open around it and use a little water
D. Remove the item to outside the building

A

C. Open around it and use a little water

212
Q

When do a large proportion of ladder failures occur?

A. During field operations
B. During training
C. During maintenance
D. During testing

A

B. During training

213
Q

How many members should be sent to shut down utilities?

A. Four
B. Two
C. Three
D. One

A

B. Two

214
Q

What can be done to ensure that the ladder company understands the needs and duties of the engine company?

A. There is no need to make them learn about the engine companies duties
B. Perform classroom training sessions for the ladder company on engine company duties
C. Allow engine company personnel to talk with ladder company personnel about there job
D. Have ladder company personnel work as engine company personnel for a period of time

A

D. Have ladder company personnel work as engine company personnel for a period of time

215
Q

What is the most common drawback to aluminum ladders?

A. Electrical conductivity
B. Tendency to corrode
C. Overall strength
D. Maximum allowable length

A

A. Electrical Conductivity

216
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the safe use of ladders?

A. Do not overload the ladder
B. Use the proper length and type of ladder
C. When working on a ladder, always use ladder locks
D. Aluminum ladders are the only ones that can be charged

A

D. Aluminum ladders are the only ones that can be charged

217
Q

What is the best location to overhaul stuffed furniture?

A. Outside the structure
B. In the location found
C. Middle of the room
D. In an open room

A

A. Outside the structure

218
Q

What is the single most important factor in ladder selection?

A. Material
B. Length
C. Safety
D. Strength

A

B. Length

219
Q

Which of the following factors does NOT affect the selection and placement of a portable ladder?

A. Aerial devices on scene
B. materials of construction
C. Reach
D. Weight

A

A. Aerial devices on scene

220
Q

What is the least often used sense during overhaul operation?

A. Touch
B. Hearing
C. Smell
D. Sight

A

C. Smell

221
Q

Where should the first opening in the ceiling be made from when extreme damage to the ceiling construction is suspected?

A. Near origin
B. Window
C. Doorway
D. Pipe chase

A

C. Doorway

222
Q

Where will the lone firefighter work when operating a five person team at a private house?

A. At the command post
B. Rear of the building
C. Front of the building
D. In the exposures

A

C. Front of the building

223
Q

If no immediate need is apparent, how far past the corner of the building that you approached first should the aerial device be placed?

A. 10 feet (4 m)
B. 20 feet (6 m)
C. 5 feet (3 m)
D. 15 feet (5 m)

A

D. 15 feet (5 m)

224
Q

Which is a more realistic place to secure a ladder when climbing to a roof?

A. On the bottom fourth
B. In the middle
C. At the tip
D. At the bottom

A

C. At the tip

225
Q

What direction of overreaching often results in falling from the ladder?

A. Vertical
B. Downward
C. Horizontal
D. Forward

A

C. Horizontal

226
Q

Which statement is NOT correct about the ladder company functions at structural fires?

A. A hose line should be stretched to the smoke’s location before the engine company enters
B. If the engine will be delayed, a truck member can enter with the officer to locate the fire
C. Find out where the fire is located before committing a line
D. Flexible plans should be made for common types of structural fires in the area

A

A. A hose line should be stretched to the smoke’s location before the engine company enters

227
Q

What is considered the area of the highest life hazard regardless of the time of day in the private house?

A. Kitchen
B. Bedroom
C. Bathroom
D. Living room

A

B. Bedroom

228
Q

An area does not necessarily need to be opened up if a firefighter can leave an ungloved hand on the area for what amount of time?

A. 10-15 seconds
B. 20-25 seconds
C. 15-20 seconds
D. 25-30 seconds

A

C. 15-20 seconds

229
Q

What is the best position to place the basket on an elevated platform?

A. As close to the building as possible, with the basket in line with the water supply
B. As close to the building as possible, with the basket in line with the buildings corner
C. As close to the building as possible, with the basket in line with the turntable
D. As close to the building as possible, with the basket in line with the window

A

D. As close to the building as possible, with the basket in line with the window

230
Q

What should be done if an opening is made during overhaul that does not show fire?

A. Leave the area completely
B. move back towards the source
C. move to rooftop operations
D. Open an area a little farther up

A

B. Move back towards the source

231
Q

Approximately what amount of ladders height is lost due to the necessary climbing angle that must be achieved?

A. 6%
B. 12%
C. 8%
D. 10%

A

A. 6%

232
Q

What direction can the aerial ladder be moved when it is being used to vent windows?

A. In and up
B. In and to the left
C. In and down
D. In and to the right

A

C. In and down

233
Q

What has proven to be the most effective tool when pulling a tin ceiling?

A. Pike pole
B. K tool
C. Halligan hook
D. Flat head axe

A

C. Halligan hook

234
Q

What is the minimum distance from overhead power lines that all aerial devices should be kept?

A. 5 feet (3 m)
B. 20 feet (6 m)
C. 10 feet (4 m)
D. 15 feet (5 m)

A

C. 10 feet (4 m)

235
Q

What is the NFPA requirement for total length of ground ladders?

A. 222 feet (68 m)
B. 325 feet (99 m)
C. 168 feet (51 m)
D. 275 feet (84 m)

A

C. 168 feet (51 m)

236
Q

In which manner should the telescoping device, aerial ladder, ladder tower never be moved when a person is climbing on the ladder?

A. Lower
B. Extend
C. Raise
D. Rotate

A

B. Extend

237
Q

What is the most important ingredient to successful ladder company operations?

A. Having good luck
B. Having willing members
C. Having the tools
D. Having a plan

A

D. Having a plan

238
Q

At about what height above or below the lock should you place the fork end of the forcible entry tool when breaching an inward opening door?

A. 6 inches (15 cm)
B. 8 inches (20 cm)
C. 2 inches (5 cm)
D. 4 inches (10cm)

A

A. 6 inches (15cm)

239
Q

What is the smallest size cutters that will be needed to cut a high security padlock?

A. 42 inch (107 cm)
B. 36 inch (91 cm)
C. 18 inch (46 cm)
D. 22 inch (56 cm)

A

B. 36 inch (91 cm)

240
Q

What point on the HUD window should be attacked first when removing it from the inside?

A. Window sash
B. Top brace
C. plywood
D. Bottom brace

A

B. Top brace

241
Q

What percentage of residential doors open inward?

A. 95%
B. 87%
C. 99%
D. 91%

A

C. 99%

242
Q

What should be attacked as a last resort when forcing an inward swinging door?

A. Seal space
B. Jamb
C. Hinges
D. Lock

A

C. Hinges

243
Q

Where is the rectangular steel plate located that shields the lock cylinder of fox lock?

A. Center of the door
B. Inside the door jamb
C. On the wall near the door
D. Top of the door

A

A. Center of the door

244
Q

Up to how many steel may be pushed or pulled in or out of all four sides of the mul-t-lock door?

A. Eight
B. Seven
C. Six
D. Nine

A

B. Seven

245
Q

Up to how many turns may it take the retract the bars of the fox lock completely?

A. Five
B. Two
C. Four
D. Three

A

B. Two

246
Q

What is used to hold the simplest HUD window in place?

A. Bracing
B. Nails
C. Screws
D. Gluing

A

A. Bracing

247
Q

What is typically attached to a hand pump for use as a hydraulic forcible entry tool?

A. Set of lines
B. Set of clips
C. Set of jaws
D. Set of pikes

A

C. Set of jaws

248
Q

Which type of door does the hydraulic forcible entry tool work best on?

A. Solid doors set in steel doorjambs
B. hollow doors set in wood doorjambs
C. Hollow doors set in steel doorjambs
D. Solid doors set in wood doorjambs

A

A. Solid doors set in steel doorjambs

249
Q

Which statement about conventional forcible entry is NOT correct?

A. The more experienced person should be the one on the halligan tool
B. Both people should be on the same side of the tool
C. Two people should perform the forcible entry
D. A halligan and flat headed axe is the most efficient combination of tools

A

B. Both people should be on the same side of the tool

250
Q

What gauge perforated steel is used to make the newest version of HUD windows known as the vacant property security system?

A. 18
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16

A

C. 14

251
Q

How many people should be needed to force a door with a Halligan type tool and a flat head axe?

A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four

A

A. Two

252
Q

What should be the overriding concern when forcing entry at a serious fire?

A. Damage to the door
B. Type of lock
C. Type of lock
D. Need for speed

A

D. Need for speed

253
Q

Ideally, what is the minimum number of saws to arrive with the first arriving units?

A. Three
B. Two
C. Five
D. Four

A

B. Two

254
Q

What portion of the height of the American lock 2000 gate lock should a cut be made, away from the keyway, to force the gate?

A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/3

A

B. 2/3

255
Q

What type of force should be applied to the padlock when using a halligan tool to shatter lock?

A. Twisting
B. Pulling
C. Pushing
D. Crushing

A

A. Twisting

256
Q

Why should you not break a plate glass door to gain entry?

A. Occupants will not be able to use it to escape
B. It is used to control the oxygen supply
C. Firefighters will need to use it for overhaul
D. It will create a slipping hazard

A

B. It is used to control the oxygen supply

257
Q

Which of the following is NOT a tool that can be used to pull the cylinder on a fox lock?

A. Claw of the Halligan
B. K tool
C. Lock puller
D. Sunilla tool

A

B. K tool

258
Q

What should be examined to determine what kind of lock is being dealt with?

A. Door jamb
B. Inlay
C. Pin
D. Cylinder

A

D. Cylinder

259
Q

What is the preferred method of cutting all doors that you intend to enter?

A. Oval well method
B. Three cut method
C. Inverted V
D. Balloon cut

A

B. three cut method

260
Q

What should be used to open the mechanical gate once the padlocks are off?

A. Chain
B. Panels
C. Roll arm
D. Flashing

A

A. Chain

261
Q

Which is an incorrect statement of the rules of forcible entry?

A. Don’t ignore the obvious
B. Use an entry that is not frequented
C. Maintain the integrity of the door
D. Try before you pry

A

B. Use an entry that is not frequented

262
Q

Which forcible entry method centers around duplicating the action of a key in the lock?

A. Through the lock
B. Over the lock
C. Around the lock
D. Under the lock

A

A. Through the lock

263
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the hydraulic forcible entry tool?

A. Works well in conditions of limited visibility
B. Working pressure ensures success with a variety of locks
C. Lesser amount of damage than conventional
D. Faster operation than conventional

A

C. Lesser amount of damage than conventional

264
Q

Which part of the tool is recommended when forcing an outward opening door?

A. Adze
B. Claw
C. Pile
D. Hook

A

A. Adze

265
Q

Which method of removing a HUD window is still effective when sheet metal covering is on the window?

A. Chainsaw
B. Handsaw
C. Torch
D. Circular saw

A

D. Circular saw

266
Q

What direction should the fox lock be turned to find the unlocked position?

A. Toward the lower set of supporting bolts
B. Toward the upper set of supporting bolts
C. towards the interior door control mechanism
D. Toward the flashing of the door frame

A

A. Toward the lower set of supporting bolts

267
Q

Where should you check the door for heat before trying to open it?

A. hinges
B. Middle of the door
C. Bottom of the door
D. Doorknob

A

D. Doorknob

268
Q

Which types of locks are recessed into the door itself?

A. Fox
B. rim
C. Police
D. Mortise

A

D. Mortise

269
Q

On which type of metal gate must the slide bolt be removed before it can be opened?

A. manual
B. Mechanical
C. electric
D. Hydraulic

A

A. Manual

270
Q

Where are wind tabs located on the gate that prevent the slats from being pulled in toward the center?

A. At the top of the gate
B. At the ends of the slats
C. At the center of the slats
D. At the bottom of the gate

A

B. At the ends of the slats

271
Q

What is the fastest way to gain entry through the Mul-T-Lock door?

A. Use a circular saw
B. Use a chainsaw
C. Use a set of irons
D. Use a sledgehammer

A

A. Use a circular saw

272
Q

What shape should you be looking for when looking into the cylinder hole of the narrow stile door?

A. Oval
B. Triangle
C. Light bulb
D. Leaf

A

C. Light bulb

273
Q

What shape shaft will you encounter with a police lock?

A. Keyhole
B. Round
C. flat
D. Square

A

D. Square

274
Q

What will be seen on a door that opens toward you?

A. Hinges
B. Knobs
C. Locks
D. Flashing

A

A. Hinges

275
Q

At what angle should the circular saw with a metal cutting blade be used to remove a HUD window?

A. 45 degree
B. 30 degree
C. 60 degree
D. 90 degree

A

A. 45 degree

276
Q

Into what room should you never retreat from a fire?

A. Bedroom
B. Dining room
C. Bathroom
D. Living room

A

C. Bathroom

277
Q

Where should you being your primary search on floors above the fire?

A. As soon as you enter the floor area
B. Reported last known victim location
C. Area farthest from the entrance
D. Area above the seat of the fire

A

A. As soon as you enter the floor area

278
Q

What is often the first action taken on entry into a fire building?

A. Ventilation
B. Fire location
C. Primary search
D. Fire knockdown

A

C. Primary search

279
Q

What should you maintain your hold on when performing the emergency escape maneuver?

A. Right shoulder strap
B. Left shoulder strap
C. Chest strap
D. Waist strap

A

B. Left shoulder strap

280
Q

Which statement about the helmet mounted TIC is NOT correct?

A. Persons with weaker vision in one eye tend to have difficulty with the dual screen
B. The stereovision screen allows for no adjustment needed to maintain the picture
C. Use by many firefighters over many shifts presents a sanitary consideration
D. The unit is heavy on the wearer’s head and neck

A

B. The stereovision screen allows for no adjustment needed to maintain the picture

281
Q

Which type of tool is ideal for searching under beds and closing doors to isolate the fire during a primary search?

A. Light on a sling
B. Pike pole
C. Flat headed axe
D. Halligan tool

A

B. Pike pole **? pg. 279

282
Q

What can be placed at the entrance when a tag line is being used in a fire building?

A. Sound machine
B. Fog spray
C. Flood light
D. Strobe light

A

C. Flood light

283
Q

What is NOT an accurate description of the primary search?

A. It is performed with a charged hose line
B. A determined person could hide from you during this search operation
C. It is a quick search for live victims before the fire is under control
D. Emphasis is put on searching areas that victims will most likely be located

A

A. it is performed with a charged hose line

284
Q

What is the secondary search often combined with?

A. Investigation
B. Overhaul
C. Primary search
D. Salvage

A

B. Overhaul

285
Q

What should the member be able to do if a victim is located during a primary search?

A. Report the victims location
B. Drag the victim out
C. Offer oxygen via buddy breathing
D. Knockdown fire in the area

A

B. Drag the victim out

286
Q

What must firefighters continue to do even when using a TIC?

A. Move straight to a visible victim
B. perform fire darkening operations
C. Perform buddy breathing
D. Maintain situational awareness

A

D. maintain situational awareness

287
Q

What percent of victims where found to be unable to act?

A. 10%
B. 3%
C. 2%
D. 8%

A

A. 10%

288
Q

According to the NFPA’s analysis, where did 36% of all civilian deaths occur?

A. While victims were attempting fire control
B. While victims were trying to escape
C. While victims where hiding from fire
D. While victims were asleep

A

D. While victims were asleep

289
Q

How many members should make up a secondary search team for each apartment and each floor in a private dwelling as a good rule of thumb?

A. Four
B. One
C. Two
D. Five

A

C. Two

290
Q

What part of the firefighter in particular may appear black on a TIC?

A. SCBA cylinder
B. Gloved hands
C. Boots
D. Facepiece

A

A. SCBA cylinder

291
Q

What type of sweep is a good habit to get into when using the TIC?

A. Modified M
B. Modified X
C. Modified T
D. Modified Z

A

D. modified Z

292
Q

What is the best location to begin your primary search?

A. Last known location
B. At the building entrance
C. Close to the fire
D. On the first floor

A

C. Close to the fire

293
Q

What color will the cooler objects appear on the TIC?

A. Gray
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Black

A

D. Black

294
Q

What should be done with the SCBA when performing the emergency escape maneuver?

A. Place it on the floor
B. Leave it in place
C. You should face it
D. Put it through the wall

A

C. You should face it

295
Q

Who is responsible for keeping the tag line taut?

A. Rear search team
B. First search team
C. Officer
D. Anchor

A

D. Anchor

296
Q

What is a good way to avoid duplicating efforts during the primary search?

A. Placing the mattress on the window
B. Removing doors on searched rooms
C. Pushing furniture to the walls
D. Using latch straps on searched rooms

A

D. Using latch straps on searched rooms

297
Q

What is an excellent training technique for finding young children in a fire environment?

A. Ask children where to hide from a fire
B. Hide a doll that can cry and make noise
C. Play hide and seek with young relatives
D. Cover the facepiece and search a child’s room

A

C. Play hide and seek with young relatives

298
Q

What is loosened first when performing the reduced profile maneuver to help a firefighter escape from a tight spot?

A. Left shoulder strap
B. Waist strap
C. Right shoulder strap
D. Chest strap

A

C. Right shoulder strap

299
Q

In general, how many floors below the fire would require forcible entry during the secondary search if locked?

A. Two floors
B. Three floors
C. Four floors
D. One floor

A

D. One floor

300
Q

Which is an area occasionally overlooked during the primary search?

A. Cribs
B. bathrooms
C. Couches
D. Kitchens

A

A. Cribs

301
Q

What material can the tag line be constructed from that offers superior resistance to heat and abrasion?

A. Cotton
B. Polyfiber
C. Nylon
D. Kevlar

A

D. Kevlar

302
Q

What needs to be in place if you close doors on a room while performing primary searches?

A. Protective handline
B. Door chocks
C. Second exit route
D. Vented window

A

C. Second exit route

303
Q

What would be considered the point the member must return to fresh air when performing a team search in a complex area with a nominal 30 minutes SCBA?

A. 20 minute point
B. 25 minute point
C. 15 minute point
D. 10 minute point

A

D. 10 minute point

304
Q

What is often the most critical action to take at the scene of a downed firefighter?

A. Disentangling the member
B. Placing a new air supply
C. Moving them out of danger
D. Moving to a new area

A

B. Placing a new air supply

305
Q

What is the only thing that can save a trapped member?

A. Training
B. Self preservation action
C. Response of others
D. Sufficient equipment

A

C. Response of others

306
Q

How many people need to remain outside the search area and act as the control during a team search?

A. Two
B. None
C. Three
D. One

A

D. One

307
Q

Where is the main search rope secured once a wall is encountered while performing a T pattern search?

A. Searcher
B. Corner
C. Floor
D. Encountered wall

A

B. Corner

308
Q

What can be used in the event of poor radio communications with the search team during a team search?

A. Tugs on the rope
B. Enlist a runner
C. Morse code
D. Light flashes

A

A. Tugs on the rope

309
Q

Where is the rope passed when being redirected out of the window when using it to lower an unconscious firefighter out of a window?

A. Down the outside of the ladder
B. Down the inside of the ladder
C. Along the rail of the ladder
D. Woven through the rungs of the ladder

A

B. Down the inside of the ladder

310
Q

Up to what distance will two portable radios be able to produce the feedback effect?

A. One and a half mile
B. Two miles
C. A mile
D. A half mile

A

D. A half mile

311
Q

How long could it take to perform roll call and recognize a member is missing at a routine operation?

A. 30 seconds
B. 90 seconds
C. 1 minutes
D. 2 minutes

A

C. 1 minute

312
Q

What should be the first thing that is done before attempting the emergency escape maneuver?

A. Remove the facepiece
B. Move to a window
C. transmit a mayday
D. Activate the PASS

A

C. Transmit the mayday

313
Q

Which piece of equipment should every member possess when stepping off the rig?

A. Suitable ladder
B. Rabbit tool
C. Combination knife and wire cutter
D. Portable radio for each team

A

C. Combination knife and wire cutter

314
Q

What rung do you grab with your second hand when making an emergency exit from a window?

A. Second
B. First
C. Third
D. Fourth

A

C. Third

315
Q

How many rescuers should be able to grab and pull the rope lowered to the ground when moving an unconscious firefighter out a window?

A. Three or four
B. Four or five
C. Two or three
D. One or two

A

A. Three or four

316
Q

What is the primary goal of the RIT?

A. Firefighter safety
B. Exposure protection
C. Attack team backup
D. Property conservation

A

A. Firefighter safety

317
Q

After what approximate amount of time will the PASS device sound an alarm if the firefighter does not move?

A. 45 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds

A

D. 30 seconds

318
Q

What should be put first on the backboard when using one to haul an unconscious firefighter up a staircase?

A. Feet
B. Left arm
C. Right arm
D. Head

A

A. Feet

319
Q

What should be done with the search rope when a change of direction is made?

A. Cut the rope
B. Keep it taut
C. Use a new rope
D. Secure the rope

A

D. Secure the rope

320
Q

Where must the search team return before proceeding to the next set of aisles when performing a T pattern search?

A. Tag line
B. Room entrance
C. Main search rope
D. Anchor position

A

C. Main search rope

321
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way your department can reduce the rates of firefighter injury and mortality?

A. Improve hazard awareness and recognition
B. Provide emergency escape or self rescue capability
C. Increase the level of high tech equipment
D. Provide rescue capability by deploying RITs

A

C. Increase the level of high tech equipment

322
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three things that needs to happen when the report of a firefighter down is received?

A. Call additional firefighter personnel
B. Bring in a protective hose line, a spare mask, and a bag valve mask resuscitator
C. Call for ALS ambulance
D. Send in every firefighter on the scene to begin the search

A

D. Send in every firefighter on the scene to begin the search

323
Q

Where should the SCBA be attached if it must be removed with the mask left on while performing a vertical removal of an unconscious firefighter through a hole in the floor?

A. Helmet
B. Bunker coat
C. Bunker pants
D. Boot

A

B. Bunker coat

324
Q

What is NOT an accurate description of the method used during forcible exit through a door?

A. Lie on the floor close to the door
B. Kick with the heels of both feet
C. Lie flat on your back or side
D. Draw both knees up

A

B. Kick with the heels of both feet

325
Q

Where do the greatest fire related loss of civilian life occur?

A. One family dwellings
B. Dry cleaning stores
C. Apartment complexes
D. Large storefronts

A

A. One family dwellings

326
Q

What is put on the search rope to indicate distance and direction of travel?

A. Cuts
B. Knots
C. Tags
D. Marks

A

B. Knots

327
Q

About how much of a body length should be on the stairs when moving an unconscious firefighter up stairs?

A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 2/3

A

C. 3/4

328
Q

After what amount of time that a member is missing or unaccounted for should a mayday be sounded?

A. 30 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 45 seconds

A

C. 60 seconds

329
Q

Where should the unconscious firefighter be rolled to be able to lift him/her to the windowsill?

A. Rescuer’s head
B. Rescuer’s arms
C. Rescuer’s legs
D. Rescuer’s back

A

D. Rescuer’s back

330
Q

What part of the body will need to go out of the window first when escaping fire through a window onto a ladder?

A. Right arm
B. Head
C. Left arm
D. Feet

A

B. Head

331
Q

What should mayday be reserved for?

A. Firefighter’s life if at risk
B. Property loss is great
C. Backup is needed for operations
D. Victim’s cannot be located

A

A. Firefighter’s life if at risk

332
Q

What is the simplest method of keeping up with member assignments at the command post?

A. Magnetic board
B. Diagram sketch
C. Building model
D. Command chart

A

D. Command chart

333
Q

What is the first thing the IC should do when informed a mayday for a missing, trapped, or unconscious member has been transmitted?

A. Assign appropriate resources for the search
B. Gather information about the member(s)
C. Take control of walkie talkie channel(s)
D. Consider the need to additional lighting

A

C. Take control of walkie talkie channel(s)

334
Q

Which is often the most direct route to access a firefighter who has fallen through a floor?

A. Via a window
B. Via a breached wall
C. The same hole
D. Inside stairway

A

C. The same hole

335
Q

What is usually the best thing to do when you experience an entanglement in cable wires?

A. Back up
B. Remove the SCBA
C. Cut the wires
D. Stay put and call mayday

A

A. Back up

336
Q

Over which rung should a rope be passed over when using a ladder to lower an unconscious firefighter out of a window?

A. One level with the window
B. One slightly below the window
C. One slightly above the window
D. One far above the window

A

C. One slightly above the window

337
Q

What has been found to help deal with the panic mode that tends to set in for rescuer’s when a firefighter is trapped?

A. Using manuals
B. Fresh crew
C. Training
D. Using officers

A

C. Training

338
Q

What is the additional danger with fires in a cellar?

A. One entry/exit point
B. Fire getting into void spaces
C. Limited access points
D. Exposed structural members

A

B. Fire getting into void spaces

339
Q

What action is taken that will activate the integrated PASS device on the SCBA?

A. Turn on the mask
B. Tighten the shoulder straps
C. Don the SCBA tank
D. Prime the line

A

A. Turn on the mask

340
Q

Where should the ends of the Halligan hook be placed when using it in a vertical removal?

A. In the roofing material
B. On the sides of the opening
C. On two rescuer’s shoulders
D. In the ladder’s rungs

A

C. On two rescuer’s shoulders

341
Q

What is the primary hazard of the metal deck roof?

A. Falling into the ventilation opening while cutting it
B. Sudden catastrophic collapse
C. Pushing out of the walls due to connector failure
D. Fire erupting in the roofing material

A

A. Falling into the ventilation opening while cutting it

342
Q

Which roof is constructed nearly identical to the bowstring truss, but does not offer the visual indicator that the roof is dangerous?

A. Hip rafter truss
B. Lightweight truss
C. Flat timber truss
D. Metal deck truss

A

C. Flat timber truss

343
Q

Under what amount of time do the new roof systems fail under fire conditions?

A. 20 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 25 minutes
D. 10 minutes

A

D. 10 Minutes

344
Q

Until what time did construction involve the use of relatively large members?

A. 1950s
B. 1980s
C. 1960s
D. 1970s

A

C. 1960s

345
Q

What should be used that will make operating in a building with a metal deck roof possible?

A. TIC
B. Reach of hose stream
C. Horizontal ventilation
D. Multi directional attack

A

B. Reach of hose stream

346
Q

Which is NOT a location that can be operated from safely with a bowstring truss roof pushing out on walls?

A. In front of
B. Above
C. Back from
D. To the side of

A

A. In front of

347
Q

Where should large streams sweep when operating in a building with a metal deck roof?

A. Ceiling
B. Contents
C. Walls
D. Floors

A

A. Ceiling

348
Q

Where is the metal deck supported?

A. At three points along the length
B. On one end
C. On both ends
D. At three points along the width

A

B. On one end

349
Q

What shape is the steel bar bent into when making a steel bar joist?

A. T
B. W
C. Z
D. L

A

C. Z

350
Q

What is the most dangerous style of roof construction per incident of all the modern styles?

A. Wooden bowstring truss
B. Flat timber truss
C. Lightweight truss
D. Metal deck truss

A

A. Wooden bowstring truss

351
Q

Who must establish policies for operations at structures that have been renovated?

A. Dispatch operators
B. Command officers
C. Training officers
D. Line operators

A

B. Command officers

352
Q

Which part of the truss is under compression?

A. Bottom chord
B. Connections
C. Webbing
D. Top chord

A

D. Top chord

353
Q

What served as a horizontal fire stop in older structures?

A. Solid joists
B. Roof decking
C. Floor materials
D. Trusses

A

A. Solid joists

354
Q

Who will have ample warning that the metal deck roof is going to fail?

A. On the deck over the fire
B. Working under the roof
C. No one will have warning
D. Any on the fireground

A

A. On the deck over the fire

355
Q

What is used to help hold down the insulating material on a metal deck roof?

A. Gusset plate
B. Tacks
C. Tar
D. Glue

A

C. Tar

356
Q

What type of profile is seen with the bowstring truss roof?

A. Flat
B. Uneven
C. Hump
D. Pitched

A

C. Hump

357
Q

What about the truss poses the greatest danger to firefighters?

A. Connectors
B. Lightweight materials
C. Large spans
D. Interdependence of the parts

A

D> Interdependence of the parts

358
Q

What is the biggest drawback of lightweight truss design?

A. Lack of voids
B. Lack of mass
C. Lack of span
D. Lack of connection

A

B. Lack of mass

359
Q

What should be the minimum size collapse zone established when end walls have rafters resting on a truss and bearing on a wall?

A. 2 1/2 times the height of the wall
B. 1 1/2 times the height of the wall
C. 1 time the height of the wall
D. 2 times the height of the wall

A

A. 2 1/2 times the height of the wall

360
Q

Which statement about operations in a building with a lightweight roof after the fire is knocked down is NOT correct?

A. Provide emergency shoring as needed
B. Provide total window ventilation and maximum lighting
C. Used computer aided dispatching system to identify a buildings trusses
D. Operate with the maximum number or personnel in the danger area for speed

A

D. Operate with the maximum number of personnel in the danger area for speed

361
Q

What can conduct heat to the inside of the material being used on a truss?

A. Connectors
B. Coatings
C. Chords
D. Webbing

A

A. Connectors

362
Q

Approximately how far into the wood does the gusset plate penetrate in lightweight truss construction?

A. 1/8 inch
B. 1/2 inch
C. 1/3 inch
D. 1/4 inch

A

D. 1/4 inch

363
Q

What is the device of choice when performing horizontal ventilation on a building with a lightweight roof?

A. Aerial ladder
B. Operate from the ground
C. Elevated platform
D. Ground ladder

A

C. Elevated platform

364
Q

What is a key element in the decision making process on operations at a lightweight building?

A. Potential to save contents
B. Potential to save lives
C. Size of the building
D. Contents in the building

A

B. Potential to save lives

365
Q

When does the truss design become a danger?

A. Under fire conditions
B. During construction
C. During renovations
D. Under normal conditions

A

A. Under fire conditions

366
Q

What is the usual spacing between trusses in a bowstring truss building?

A. 20 feet
B. 25 feet
C. 15 feet
D. 30 feet

A

A. 20 feet

367
Q

Where should roof cutting NOT take place when operating in a building with a metal deck roof?

A. Over the fire
B. Near a column
C. Near a corner
D. Over the entrance

A

A. Over the fire

368
Q

What creates the truss loft in a lightweight truss?

A. Roofing materials
B. Void spaces
C. Web spacing
D. Fasteners

A

B. Void spaces

369
Q

What size is the plywood web in the wooden I-beam?

A. 3.8 inch
B. 1/4 inch
C. 1/2 inch
D. 3/4 inch

A

A. 3/8 inch

370
Q

What is the main drawback of the metal deck roof?

A. Creation of void spaces
B. Lack of fireproofing
C. Creating a slippery surface
D. Lack of mass

A

B. Lack of fireproofing

371
Q

What shape is used to construct the truss in lightweight construction?

A. Rectangle
B. Triangle
C. Oval
D. Square

A

B. Triangle

372
Q

What orientation to the corrugation should the cuts be made when battling a metal deck roof fire?

A. Parallel
B. Criss-cross
C. Diagonal
D. Perpendicular

A

D. Perpendicular