Normal Pregnancy And Prenatal Care Flashcards

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1
Q

Starting Folic Acid supplementation at least 1 month before conception reduces the risk of what congenital pathology?

A

Neural Tube Defects

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2
Q

What dose of Folic Acid would you want to give to a woman without a history of infants being born with Neural Tube Defects?

What about for a woman who DOES have a history of previous births with NTD’s?

A

O.4mg for a woman without previous NTD

4mg for a woman with a history of pregnancies with NTD’s

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3
Q

Managing Blood glucose control in pregnant patients with diabetes decreases the risk for what issues?

A
SAB’s
Maternal Morbidity
Fetal Malformations
Fetal Macrosomia 
IUFD
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4
Q

What term refers to the number of pregnancies that led to a birth at or beyond 20 weeks, or an infant weighing more than 500 grams?

A

Parida (Parity)

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5
Q

In what order are the subsections of Parity listed in discussing a woman’s pregnancy history?

A

Full term, Pre-term (20wk-36wk+6days), Abortions (less than 20wk or 500g), Living

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6
Q

What are some of the normal findings of the PE associated with pregnancy?

A

Systolic Murmurs (exaggerated splitting and S3)
Palmar Erythema
Spider Angiomas
Linea Nigra
Chadwick’s Sign (bluish coloration of female’s genitals)
Melasma/Chloasma (“mask” of pregnancy rash)

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7
Q

What prenatal labs do you want to get at a Pregnant woman’s first visit?

A
CBC
Blood Type and Screen
Rubella (Vaccinate postpartum if not immune)
Syphilis
Hep B
HIV
Cervical Cytology (Chlamydia, Gonorrhea)
Screen for Diabetes based on risk factors (obesity, previous history of gestational DM and/or macrosomia)
Urinalysis
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8
Q

What serum values are we most likely to see an increase in, in the mother, during pregnancies?

A
Clotting Factors
Leukocytes
Amylase
Fibrinogen 
(Uric Acid near term)
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9
Q

How is Gestational Age estimated?

A

Gestational Age is estimated as the number of weeks that have elapsed between the first day of the LMP and the date of delivery

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10
Q

Besides lab values, what other diagnostics would you absolutely want to do the first time you see a pregnant woman in the office?

A
Confirm pregnancy and viability
Estimate gestational age and due date
Discuss Teratology (meds)
Provide genetic counseling if necessary 
Advice on how to reduce early pregnancy symptoms
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11
Q

What lab value do pregnancy tests evaluate?
Values below what are considered negative?
Values above what are considered positive?
How many days after ovulation may hCG first be detected in the serum?

A

HCG
<5 is considered negative
>25 is considered positive
HCG may be first detected i the serum 6-8 days following ovulation

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12
Q

What level of hCG is often present approximately at the time of a woman’s next expected menses?

A

A hCG value of 100 is often reached by the time of a woman’s next expected menses

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13
Q

Most urine pregnancy tests can detect hCG starting at what level?

A

Most urine pregnancy tests can detect hCG starting at about a level of 25

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14
Q

What is the Discriminatory Zone of hCG levels?

What finding may be seen on a Transvaginal U/S when a woman is within the Discriminatory Zone of pregnancy?

A

The Discriminatory Zone is seen usually around 5 weeks of gestational age, at hCG levels between 1500-200

The Discriminatory Zone often presents with a Gestational Sac present on Transvaginal U/S

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15
Q

When may the Fetal Pole be seen on Transvaginal U/S?

A

The Fetal Pole may be seen on TVUS at about 6 weeks of gestational age (mean hCG of around 5200)

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16
Q

When may cardiac activity be seen on Transvaginal U/S?

A

Cardiac Activity may be seen on TVUS at around 7 weeks (mean hCG at around 17,500)

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17
Q

What is Naegel’s Rule for Estimating Gestational Age and due date?
What limits the application of Naegel’s Rule to all women?

A

Naegel’s rule is used to estimate the expected due date of a pregnancy. It is calculate as the date of a woman’s LMP - 3 months + 7 days

Naegel’s rule has limited application as it only is useful in women with regular menstrual cycles

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18
Q

How can you use U/S to estimate a pregnancy’s due date during the first trimester?

A

If an U/S is performed within the first 6-11 weeks, Crown Rump Length (CRL, head as the distance from the fetal head to bottom) may be used to estimate the due date +/- 1 week. CRL is relatively accurate.

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19
Q

How may you use U/S during the Second trimester of a Pregnancy to estimate due date?

A

During the second trimester of pregnancy (12-20 weeks), measuring Femur Length, Biparietal Diameter, and Abdominal Circumference can determine a pregnancies due date within 10 days

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20
Q

How accurate is U/S during the third trimester for determining the due date of a pregnancy?

A

U/S during the third trimester of pregnancy may be inaccurate when determining the due date by +/- 3 weeks

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21
Q

Fetal Demise may be diagnosed if there is absence of Cardiac Activity and a Crown Rump Length (CRL) value greater than what?

A

Fetal Demise may be diagnosed if there is an absence of Cardiac Activity and a CRL >5mm

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22
Q

What are some indications for maternal genetic counseling?

A

Maternal Age >35
Multiple fetal losses previously
Family History or Pregnancy history of birth defects/mental retardation
Abnormal serum markers on screening or abnormal U/S
Consanguinity
Exposure to teratogens
maternal Conditions

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23
Q

Chromosomal Disorders occur in what percent of all live births?

A

Chromosomal Disorders occur in 0.5% of all live births

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24
Q

What Chromosomal Disorder is the most common in congenital disorders of pregnancies?

A

Turner’s Syndrome (45 X0 Aneuploidy) is the most common Chromosomal Disorder

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25
Q

What class of chromosomal Disorders is the most commonly occuring?

A

Trisomies (Aneuploidy with an extra chromosome copy) are the most commonly occuring class of Chromosomal disorders

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26
Q

What specific Trisomy is the most commonly occurring trisomy in human pregnancies?

A

Trisomy 16 is the most commonly occuring trisomy in human pregnancies

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27
Q

Chromosomal Abnormalities are the most common cause of what pathology during the first trimester?

A

Chromosomal Abnormalities are the most common cause of SAB’s during the first trimester. There incidence with SAB’s is 50%

28
Q

Woman >35 years of age are at increased risk of what congenital abnormalities?

A

Women >35 years of age are at increased risk of autosomal trisomies and/or sex chromosome disorders

29
Q

How common is Trisomy 21 in mothers younger than 35?
In mothers 35-39yo?
In mothers 40-45yo?
In mothers >45yo?

A

Trisomy 21 occuris in 1/800 live births in moms <35yo
That increases to 1/300 in moms 35-39yo
1/80 in moms 40-45yo
1/35 in moms >45yo

30
Q

Chromosomal studies (Karyotyping) should be done on couples after what?
3-5% of these couples will be found to have what?
Those affected couples should be offered what?

A

Chromosomal studies should be done on couples following 3 or more SAB’s.
3-5% of these couples will be found to have balanced translocations and will be at increased risk of having an offspring with an unbalanced translocation. These couples should be offered prenatal diagnosis via Chorionic Villous Sampling and/or Amniocentesis

31
Q

What patients are offered CF screening?

A

All pregnant women (important due to 15% of carriers being undetected/unaware), people with a family history of CF, parents with U/S findings of echogenic bowel, sperm donors, and any patients requesting screening

32
Q

What are two of the most common examples of sex-linked chromsomal disorders?

A

Duchesse Muscular Dystrophy

Fragile X Syndrome

33
Q

Sex-Linked Disorders more frequently involve which chromosome?
Which gender is affected more often by these conditions for that same reason?

A

Sex chromosomal disorders more often affect the X chromosome, thus males are more often affected

34
Q

What is the most common form of inherited mental retardation, and the second most common cause of mental retardation behind Down Syndrome?

A

Fragile X Syndrome (X-Linked Mental retardation)

35
Q

What are some of the examples of multifactorial Disorders resulting in birth defects?

A

Cleft lip/palate
Pyloric Stenosis
Congenital heart Defects
Neural tube Defects

36
Q

What is the incidence of neural tube Defects?

A

NTD’s are seen in 1/1000 live births

37
Q

When is Nerual Tube closure completed post-conception?

A

Neural Tube Closure is completed 28 days post-conception

38
Q

What First trimester screenings are available for fetal Aneuploidy?

How accurate are these means of detecting Aneuploidy. Such as Down Syndrome?

A

Fetal Nuchal Translucency (FNT)
Pregnancy Associated Plasma Protein A (PAPPA)
Maternal Age
Maternal Serum beta-hCG

Elevated beta-hCG and low PAPPA have about a 79% detection rate for Down Syndrome, the addition of Nasal Bone Assessment (Absence of the bone) and FNT increase the detection rate up to 93%

39
Q

What findings does Fetal nuchal Translucency look for?

What are these findings potentially indicative of?

A

FNT looks for Increased Thickness of an Echo-free area (lymphatic drainage filled) at the back of the fetal neck between 10-14 weeks. Increased thickness is associated with both chromosomal and congenital abnormalities

40
Q

What Second Trimester Screenings are available for fetal Aneuploidy?

A

Triple Screen: beta-hCG, estriol, maternal serum AFP biomarkers
Between 16-20 weeks
70% detection rate of trisomy 21

Quadruple Screen: beta-hCG, estriol, Maternal serum AFP, Inhibin A
80% detection rate of trisomy 21

41
Q

What prenatal testing is Cell-Free Fetal DNA useful for?
What are the pros of it?
What are the cons of it?

A

Cell-Free fetal DNA tests DNA from the apoptosis of trophoblastic cells that have entered maternal circulation that is highly useful in detecting Chromosomal Aneuploidy.

Cell-Free fetal DNA testing may be done in the first or second trimester, it is noninvasive, and it is very accurate.

Cell-Free DNA testing does not test for NTD defects and thus Maternal AFP or U/S must still be done, it is also expensive as hell

42
Q

Who are the ONLY patients that should get Cell-Free Fetal DNA testing performed due to the excessive cost of the screening?

A

Mothers of advance maternal age or with a history of a pregnancy with a trisomy
Family history of chromosomal abnormalities
fetal U/S suggestive of Aneuploidy
Positive serum screening test including first trimester, or triple/quadruple screen (second trimester)

43
Q

If you perform a Cell-Free Fetal DNA screen, and the results come back positive, what should be done to confirm the diagnosis?

A

If you receive a positive Cell-Free fetal DNA, you should proceed with an invasive diagnostic test (amniocentesis or CVS) to confirm the results

44
Q

What are the two Invasive Diagnostic tests that may be done during the Second trimester to confirm the diagnosis of Aneuploidy?

A

Amniocentesis

Chorionic villous Sampling (CVS)

45
Q

When is Amniocentesis performed? What are some of the risks involved with it?

A

Amniocentesis is performed between 16-20 weeks.

Amniocentesis has a 0.3% miscarriage rate

46
Q

When is CVS (Chorionic Villous Sampling) performed? What risks are associated with CVS/

A

CVS may be performed starting at 11 weeks of age

CVS has a 1% miscarriage rate

47
Q

Does Amniocentesis or CVS carry with it a greater risk of Miscarriage?

A

CVS has a greater rate of miscarriages (1%) than Amniocentesis (0.3%)

48
Q

How often can exact causes of a Teratogenic-induced fetal defect be determined?

A

Exact causes of a teratogen induced fetal defect are identified in less than 50% of cases

49
Q

Thalidomide, a well known teratogen, was prescribed for what indication?

What defects is Thalidomide known to cause?

A

Thalidomide was indicated to treat the nausea/morning sickness or pregnancy

Thalidomide is responsible for causing Phocomelia

50
Q

What percent of women take medications during the first 4 weeks of gestation when organogenesis is occuring?

A

At least 40% of women take medication during the first 4 weeks of gestation while organogenesis is occuring

51
Q

How does Dose relate to the effects of Teratogens?

A

Teratogens show:
No effect at low doses
Organ Malfunction at medium doses
SAB’s at high doses

*Effects may differ if taking the medication in a large single dose versus smaller doses over several days

52
Q

When is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?

A

The fetus is most vulnerable from day 17 to day 56 (week 2-8) post-conception during Organogenesis

53
Q

From the Fourth month post-conception until birth, fetal growth primarily consists of what process?
If this process is disrupted by teratogens, what consequences may be seen?

A

From the fourth month post-conception until birth, fetal growth consists primarily of increasing organ size.

If a teratogen disrupts this process, it usually results in stunted/delayed growth more often than a true malformation (excluding the brain and gonads)

54
Q

What is the most common teratogen to which Fetuses are exposed?
What condition may result due to this?

A

Alcohol

Exposure may result in fetal Alcohol Syndrome

55
Q

What Medications have been implicated as Teratogens?

A

Anti-Anxiety Drugs: four increase in defects

Anti-neoplastic Drugs: Aminopterin and Methotrexate are folic acid antagonists, and EXPOSURE TO FETUS BEFORE 40 DAYS IS LETHAL, later exposure causes issues such as IUGR, mental retardation, miscarriage, stillbirth, neonatal death, craniofacial abnormalities

56
Q

What PE findings may be seen with FAS?

A

Growth retardation
Low set ears, smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, shortened palpebral fissures, flat mid face
CNS dysfunction - microcephaly, mental retardation, behavioral disorders

57
Q

Are Anticonvulsant agents okay to give during Pregnancy?

A

Anticonvulsants MAY be used during pregnancy, BUT you should really try not to use them unless you really need to

58
Q

How often should Prenatal visits occur?

What should be checked regularly at these visits?

A

Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
Every 2 weeks between 28-36 weeks
Then Weekly until delivery

BP, Weight, Urine Protein, Measurement of uterine size (20 weeks), fetal heart rate (Doppler device at 12 weeks, fetoscope at 18-20 weeks)

59
Q

What is the term for the first sensation of movement? When does it usually occur?

A

The first sensation of movement is known as “Quickening” and usually occurs on average at 20 weeks

60
Q

What screening/tests/procedures should be done at 20 weeks gestation?

A

Fetal Survey U/S

Measurement of Uterine Size

61
Q

What screening/tests/procedures should be done at 28 weeks gestation?

A

Screening for Gestational Diabetes
Repeat Hemoglobin and HCT
Rhogam Injection to Rh negative moms
TDAP (between 27-36 weeks)

62
Q

What screening/tests/procedures should be done at 36 weeks?

A

Screening for Group B Strep carrier with vaginal culture (treat in labor if positive)

63
Q

Describe the Fetal Kick Counting used in the assessment of fetal well being.

A

Fetal Kick Counting - monitoring of fetal movements, we would expect 10 movements in 2 hours

64
Q

Describe What a Nonstress Test is used for in the assessment of Fetal well being.

A

A Nonstress Test checks for normal accelerations in fetal heart rate.

A Normal/reactive test result is qualified by 2 qualifying accelerations, of at least 15 beats above baseline, lasting for at least 15 seconds, within 20 minutes of monitoring

If a Nonstress Test is nonreactive (i.e. doesn’t fit the criteria above) then Rutherford evaluation is warranted with a contraction stress test or biophysical profile

65
Q

Describe the Contraction Stress test.

A

In performing the Contraction Stress Test, Oxytocin is administered, and you would look to observed at least 3 contractions within 10 minutes. If late decelerations are noted with the majority of contractions (fetal heart rate lags behind contractions with little or no variability between them) the test is positive and delivery is warranted as Late Decelerations with decreased variability is an ominous sign

66
Q

Describe the Biophysical profile and its scoring system.

A

Total Score 8-10 = reassuring
6 = Equivocal, deliver if patient is at term gestation
4 or less = non-reassuring, consider delivery

Components include Nonstress Test, fetal Breathing Movements, Fetal Movement, fetal Tone, Amniotic Fluid Volume