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11-2T-38V3 + 47OG_SUP > Normal Operating Procedures > Flashcards

Normal Operating Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Where will objects not be placed during start with the canopies open?

A

On top of the glareshield

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2
Q

Can you carry cans of oil or hydraulic fluid in the aircraft?

A

Yes, but only in the WSSP

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3
Q

Normal recovery fuel in the T38?

A

As established locally, or 800 lbs, whichever is higher

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4
Q

Minimum fuel in the T38

A

Declare when it becomes apparant you will land with less than 600 lbs

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5
Q

Emergency fuel in the T38

A

Declare when it becomes apparent you will land with less than 400 lbs

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6
Q

Taxi interval - staggered (day)

A

150 ft

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7
Q

Taxi interval in trail (or with snow/ice)

A

300 ft

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8
Q

Regardless of runway width, what clearance must be maintained between wingman and element leader for any formation takeoff?

A

At least wingtip clearance

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9
Q

For a formation takeoff, place wingman on upwind side if crosswind component exceeds ___ knots.

A

5

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10
Q

Do not takeoff with a RCR less than ___.

A

10

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11
Q

For a single ship or interval takeoff, pilots will not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds ___ percent of the available runway

A

80

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12
Q

For a formation takeoff, pilots will not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds ___ percent of the available runway

A

70

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13
Q

Runway width needed for formation takeoff

A

150

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14
Q

Takeoff interval between aircraft or elements

A

10 seconds minimum

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15
Q

Takeoff spacing when join-up will be conducted above the clouds

A

20 seconds minimum

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16
Q

Day weather criteria for join-up underneath a ceiling

A

1500’ and 3

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17
Q

Flight lead will maintain ___ knots until join up is accomplished unless briefed or directed otherwise

A

300 knots

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18
Q

Flight lead will not normally exceed __ degrees of bank during a turning join-up

A

30

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19
Q

For a SRJ, #2 will normally join to the __ side while the element will join to the __ side.

A

Left, Right

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20
Q

Except for range procedures, min altitude for low altitude maneuvering.

A

500 ft AGL

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21
Q

Min altitude during any portion of aerobatic maneuvering

A

5000 ft AGL

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22
Q

Flight through wingtip vortices should be avoided. If it cannot be, what should you do?

A

Unload immediately to approx 1 G. Use asymmetric G limits if evaluating a jetwash induced over-G

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23
Q

Min airspeed for all maneuvering unless conducting training under a formal syllabus that specifies or allows it

A

150 KTS

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24
Q

Pilots will conduct a Gx anytime aircrews plan or are likely to maneuver above ____ Gs during the mission

A

5 (4 for UPT students)

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25
Q

Minimum separation between aircraft during Gx

A

4000 ft

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26
Q

Primary means of ensuring aircraft deconfliction during Gx

A

Visual lookout and formation contract

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27
Q

Conduct the Gx in the following airspace preference (4)

A
  1. Special use airspace
  2. Not in special use airspace but above 10,000
  3. In a MTR or LL training route
  4. Not in special use airspace and below 10,000
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28
Q

Maximum flight size in IMC

A

4

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29
Q

Pilots will not use rolling maneuvers to maintain or regain formation position below _____.

A

5000 ft AGL

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30
Q

Can you initiate a lead change from non wings level attitude? What if you are in limited visibility conditions?

A

Yes, No

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31
Q

Min altitude for changing lead over land, over water, and in IMC (or at night) unless on radar downwind (3 answers)

A

500ft, 1000ft, 1500ft AGL

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32
Q

When a flight member or element calls blind, initial actions for other flight member or element

A
  1. Be directive
  2. Make an informative position call
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33
Q

Min altitude separation for deconfliction in double blind scenario

A

500 ft (11-2T38v3)

1000 ft is normal

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34
Q

What to do in the case there is no timely response to an initial blind call (3 things)

A
  1. Maneuver away from last known position of #1
  2. Alter altitude
  3. Repeat blind call
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35
Q

Chase spacing

A

30-60 degree cone out to 1000 ft

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36
Q

Chase aircraft will stack no lower than lead aircraft below ____.

A

1000 ft AGL

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37
Q

What is the T38 approach category?

A

E

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38
Q

What to do if there are no published category E minimums on an approach?

A

Use category D minimums if…
1. Straight-in approach is flown

  1. Aircraft is flown at final approach airspeed of 165 or less
  2. Aircraft is flown at 260 knots true airspeed or less for missed approach (at higher pressure altitudes and temps, 260 knots true airspeed may not be compatible with published missed approach airspeeds and cat D should not be flown)
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39
Q

Instrument trail departure: min spacing

A

20 seconds

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40
Q

Instrument trail departure: airspeed / power control

A
  1. Accelerate in AB to 250
  2. Accelerate in Mil to 300
  3. Climb at 300 knots setting 600 EGT until reaching cruise airspeed
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41
Q

Instrument trail departure: bank angle in turn

A

30 degrees

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42
Q

Instrument trail departure: min vertical separation until visual

A

1000 ft

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43
Q

If formation breakup must be accomplished in IMC, what information should lead transmit

A

Altitude, Airspeed, Heading, Altimeter (make sure also to accomplish a good alpha check)

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44
Q

Max number of aircraft for a formation penetration if weather at base of intended landing is less than overhead traffic pattern minimums

A

2

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45
Q

Formation penetration: when should wingman be placed on the correct side if formation landing is intended

A

Prior to weather penetration

46
Q

VMC Drag: min weather

A

1500’ and 3

47
Q

VMC Drag: What to coordinate for if VMC drag is to be executed under IFR

A

Nonstandard formation

48
Q

VMC Drag: min airspeed for either wing or lead

A

Final approach airspeed

49
Q

VMC Drag: min spacing

A

3000 ft

50
Q

VMC Drag: definition of latest drag point

A

Adequate time for wingman to establish required separation and then for the flight lead to slow to final approach airspeed prior to 3 nm from the runway. Normally accomplished prior to FAF or glideslope intercept for instrument final approaches

51
Q

VMC Drag: what should wingman do if uncertain about spacing

A

Go around or execute the missed approach, notify ATC, comply with local procedures

52
Q

Climbs or descents through icing conditions more severe than ____ are prohibited

A

light rime

53
Q

T or F. The T38 can fly in areas of known or reported icing

A

False

54
Q

G and bank limitations in high or hilly terrain

A

Positive G and 120 degrees of bank max

55
Q

Do not stack lower than lead below ___.

A

1000 ft AGL

56
Q

Min airspeed for low level navigation

A

300 KTS

57
Q

During low altitude training, maintain a minimum of ___ above the highest terrain within ____ of the aircraft

A

500 ft, 1/2 nm

58
Q

During low altitude training, pilots will set the altitude warning function to alert the pilot at no less than _____ percent of planned altitude during low-level operations

A

90%

59
Q

What should be the reaction in low-level environment to task saturation, diverted attention, KIO, or emergencies

A

Climb to MSA or RAA

60
Q

Reaction in low-level environment to birdstrike / aircraft loses canopy

A

Immediately select MIL or MAX on both engines and climb away from the ground

61
Q

Weather minimums for visual low-level training

A

1500’ and 3

62
Q

Night taxi spacing

A

300 ft, taxi on centerline

63
Q

T or F. Landing/taxi light will normally be used during all night taxi ops

A

True, unless it might interfere with the vision of another pilot

64
Q

How to initiate brake release / gear retraction for night formation takeoff?

A

Radio

65
Q

Desired touchdown point for a VFR approach

A

150 - 1000 feet (AFMAN, what does the 251 say about this?)

66
Q

Min low approach altitude for chase aircraft in emergency

A

300 ft

67
Q

Min weather for formation approach

A

500’ and 1.5 miles vis

68
Q

Max crosswind component: dry runway (solo UPT stud)

A

15 knots (including gusts)

69
Q

Max crosswind component: wet runway (solo UPT stud)

A

10 knots (including gusts)

70
Q

Min runway length with crosswind greater than 15 knots and no suitable barrier, for 60% and 100% flaps touch and go’s

A

10,000 feet

71
Q

Do not perform ____ on runways without a suitable barrier when the crosswind component exceeds ____ knots

A

no-flap touch-and-go’s, 15 knots

72
Q

AETC: The speed at which the aircraft can experience an instantaneous engine failure and still accelerate to SETOS and takeoff in the remaining runway

A

Decision speed

73
Q

AETC: The maximum speed to which the aircraft is able to accelerate with both engines operating in MAX, and either: Abort with Both Engines Operating (BEO) or abort with an Engine Failure (EF)

A

Refusal speed

74
Q

AETC: Defined as the speed at which main gear lifts off the runway

A

Takeoff Speed (TOS)

75
Q

AETC: Pilots will ensure calculated landing distance is less than or equal to which Declared Distance

A

Landing Distance Available (LDA)

76
Q

AETC: Prior to performing a rolling takeoff, the pilot must consider TOLD with a runway length _____ less than the available runway.

A

300 feet

77
Q

AETC: If performing a rolling takeoff, if using Declared Distances, subtract ____ ft from both ASDA and TORA calculations as applicable.

A

300 feet

78
Q

AETC: Single ship rolling takeoffs are authorized only _____.

A

during daylight hours

79
Q

AETC: Which type of arresting system is the only one suitable for stopping an aircraft with a travel pod?

A

BAK-15

80
Q

AETC: Which type of arresting system is suitable only for clean aircraft?

A

MA-1A

81
Q

AETC: Minimum runway length required for operations

A

8000 ft (OG/CC can waive this to 7000)

82
Q

AETC: Required wingtip clearance for engine run-up with a solo in any position

A

50 ft

83
Q

AETC: Min altitude for stalls or slow flight

A

8000 ft AGL

84
Q

AETC: Max altitude for stalls or slow flight (and min power setting)

A

FL200, 80%

85
Q

AETC: Max altitude and weather requirements for practice unusual attitude recoveries

A

FL240 and VMC

86
Q

AETC: Do not fly formation above what altitude

A

FL350

87
Q

AETC: Do not fly above this altitude except in case of emergency

A

FL390

88
Q

AETC: It is prohibited to practice no-flap patterns and landings with more than ____ fuel.

A

2500 lbs

89
Q

AETC: UFT pilots will accomplish a G-awareness exercise when maneuvers in excess of ___ Gs are anticipated

A

4

90
Q

AETC: Low altitude training should commence no earlier than ___ after sunrise (___ in mountainous terrain)

A

30 minutes, 1 hour

91
Q

AETC: Plan to exit the low altitude structure no later than ___ prior to sunset (___ in mountainous terrain)

A

30 minutes, 1 hour

92
Q

AETC: Max airspeed for UFT low level training

A

420 knots

93
Q

AETC: Min altitude for flying VFR point-to-point navigation missions

A

3000 ft AGL

94
Q

AETC: All night landings require ___

A

operational glidepath guidance (precision approach or visual glidepath guidance)

95
Q

AETC: All descents below MDA on a night non-precision approach require ____

A

an operational visual approach system

96
Q

AETC: For parallel runway configurations that do not allow for ____ to ____ ft of lateral spacing, local procedures can dictate spacing to a minimum of ___ ft of lateral spacing

A

4000, 6000, 2000

97
Q

AETC: Max crosswind for single ship touch and go’s for a dry runway

A

20 knots

98
Q

AETC: Extended daylight definition. For local area training only, what daylight operations can be conducted during this time.

A

15 minutes before official sunrise - 15 minutes after official sunset. Daylight traffic pattern, and MOA operation.

99
Q

AETC: What maneuvers may be performed during extended daylight?

A

Everything (all maneuvers normally accomplished during normal daylight hours) including solo syllabus sorties

100
Q

AETC: Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ___ knots. Why?

A

35 knots. Hazard posed to crew members in case of ejection

101
Q

AETC: Overwater wind/wave restriction for ejection considerations

A

10 ft waves, surface winds > 25 knots

102
Q

AETC: Min weather for extended trail or aerobatics

A

3nm vis, clear of clouds, discernible horizon

103
Q

47 OG: Do not _______, or _______, if actual refueling or oxygen servicing is in progress on the aircraft in an adjacent parking spot.

A

turn aircraft power on, start engines

104
Q

47 OG: Maximum taxi speed is __ kts GS in congested areas and the parking rows, and __ kts otherwise

A

10, 25

105
Q

47 OG: Do not taxi into a parking spot if ground personnel are _______.

A

actively refueling or servicing oxygen on the aircraft in an adjacent parking spot. Taxiing in front of, or behind, an aircraft being serviced is permissible.

106
Q

47 OG: Flight leads must confirm what with solo students prior to initial takeoff?

A

That they have armed their seats

107
Q

47 OG: Runways under 8,000ft waived for use by the OG/CC

A

18/36 at KSJT
16R/34L at KAFW (16L/34R preferred)
14R/32L at Scott AFB (14L/32R preferred)
07R/25L at Phoenix Sky Harbor (arrivals only)

108
Q

47 OG: Do not perform formation takeoffs over a raised approach end _________-type arresting cable.

A

BAK-9/12/14

109
Q

47 OG: For non-standard formation departures, lead squawks assigned code and the last aircraft/element squawks ____ until rejoined to standard formation. Complete the rejoin to standard formation NLT ___ DME. Notify RAPCON if unable.

A

0000, 46

110
Q

47 OG:

A

11-2T-38V3 + 47OG_SUP (3 decks)

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