Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CBP P3 > Norm Procedures TB > Flashcards

Norm Procedures TB Flashcards

1
Q

While flying with the #1 engine shutdown for loitering, a malfunction requiring immediate shutdown of the #2 engine exists. What action should you take?

A

Shutdown the malfunctioning engine and complete the emergency shutdown checklist through alternate HRD, then restart #1 starting with PCO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The maximum airspeed for engine restart at 15,000 feet is:

A

Formula = 345 - 6/1000’ of altitude
6*15 = 90
345 -90 = 255 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The min recommended airspeed for a normal in-flight restart is:

A

170 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The max permissible indicated airspeed for an inflight restart at 10,000’ is:

A

345 - (6*10) = 285 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

During an approach the pilot directs the copilot to select the gear down. The copilot shall repeat the approach/landing speeds and DH/MDA (as applicable) [T/F].

A

TRUE after the landing checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum power may be applied for takeoff provided:

A

Oil temp > 40C and rising, and gear case oil pressure is NOT fluctuating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A GND start should be discontinued if:

A

Engine fails to light off by 33% rpm or max starter motoring rpm, whichever occurs first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

During a GND start of the #2 engine, TIT rises to 860 C prior to reaching low rpm. The crew should:

A

(Discontinue the start)
Place the fuel and ignition switch off, record peak TIT. If the TIT did not exceed 965 C, another start may be attempted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A satisfactory NTS check consists of a stabilized RPM less than the mechanical propeller governing RPM (not below 95%) with the power lever at flight idle in addition to which of the following?

A

Initial and/or continued flashing of the FX valve light OR
Aircraft Yaw OR
Initial and/or continued negative SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During starts, if the engine does not accelerate to low rpm within 60 seconds you should:

A

(Abort Start Hung start)
Discontinue the start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If hot brakes are suspected, utilize the brake cooling procedure during taxi for at least:

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the LRT, maintain at least ____ airspeed until touchdown when the crosswind component is above ____ in order to provide adequate directional control and allow runway line without exceeding 15 degrees of sideslip.

A

130 KTS, 30KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Before moving the RPM selector switch from LOW to NORMAL (or from NORMAL to LOW), which of the following parameters must be met?

A

Discontinue use of compressor bleed air from the engine to be shifted.
Set power at or as near minimum Q as taxi requirements allow.
Do not move power levers of the engine being shifted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Upon T/O, after a positive rate of climb is established and airspeed is at least ____, the pilot call, “FLAPS to MAN”.

A

140 KTS (if Lightweight LRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Upon shifting the #3 engine to low RPM, the TIT stabilizes at 860 C. The crew should:

A

Fuel chop the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During a touch and go the copilot performs which duties?

A

Resets FLAPS and Trim, then calls go when ready.
Calls refusal and/or Rotate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Any movement of the flaps from the land position with reverse thrust applied should be avoided as a FLAP asymmetry may occur. [T/F]

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Factors that may cause observed and predicted takeoff performance to differ from actual performance are:

A

Tire Inflation.
Engine efficiencies less than 100%.
Wing Leading edge condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Discontinue the engine start (prior to reaching Low RPM) on the ground if:

A

There is fuel spewing from the nacelle drain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During an engine start on the ground, a torch (visible burning in the exhaust nozzle) does not require a fuel chop if it is less than 3 seconds in duration. [T/F]

A

FALSE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

While taxiing back for T/O after a practice 3ENG full stop landing, the #1 prop pump light illuminates (engine is in low rpm).

A

This is acceptable if the prop pump light goes out in normal RPM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

After using brakes heavily for a mid-field turn off, you decide to cool them during the taxi back. The proper procedure is to:

A

Adjust #2 & #3 power levers forward of the ground start position using Normal RPM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Whenever praticable, 100% O2 should be used at night by the pilot, copilot, and FE for ____ out of the last _____ minutes prior to commencing an approach to a field or descent to an operating area when flying enroute at cabin altitudes above _______ feet.

A

15 minutes; 45 minutes; 5000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A high speed, high power approach and landing with the flap handle above the LAND position may negate the operability of which of the following systems?

A

Landing Gear Warning Horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The use of a fuel log enables the flight crew to detect malfunctioning ____ and entries may be entered ____.

A

Fuel Qty Indicators or Fuel Flow gauges; hourly or in 5000lbs increments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Qmeter “flopover” can occur with too rapid an application of power. This means that at least _____ SHP has been momentarily exceeded and the engine shall be _____.

A

5300; Inspected as soon as practicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

While conducting an NTS check, if NTS action is attained prior to reaching flight idle, further aft movement of the PL is not required. [T/F]

A

FALSE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During ground engine start, your are required to have light off by _____ or maximum starter motoring RPM, which ever occurs first.

A

33% RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An engine anti-ice check may be performed:

A

In either low or Normal RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following techniques is/are recommended for landing on wet or slippery runways?

A

Apply reverse thrust slowly, then after substantial decrease in airspeed, use the brakes lightly and intermittently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The minimum airspeed for raising the flaps above Takeoff/Approach during the climb out (3 of 4 engines operating) is ______.

A

140 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During heavy weight, high altitude, or unusual environment including turbulence associated with windshear conditions, the flaps should be retracted to maneuver after attaining ____, and then fully up after attaining _____.

A

160 KIAS, 180 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During flight, no more than one flight station crewmember may be absent from his/her seat at any given time. [T/F]

A

TRUE

32
Q

Cancelling of the landing gear warning system shall be done only at the direction of the:

A

Pilot at the controls.

33
Q

During night ground taxi operations, wheelwell lights:

A

Shall be on

34
Q

The minimum operational safe altitude (MOSA) is defined as:

A

1000’ above the highest obstacle within 15NM of the aircraft.

35
Q

During NTS checks on climbout, the #1 engine overspeeds to 103% RPM when the lever is retarde to flight idle. The proper procedure is to:

A

Discontinue use of all bleed air from the #1 engine and attempt to advance the PL.

36
Q

During NTS checks on climbout, the FE should ensure a minimum of ____ SHP prior to opening the engine bleed air valve.

A

800

37
Q

It is acceptable for the “PROP PUMP 1” light of any propeller to come on momentarily when the power lever is pulled into the Beta range as a result of pitchlock reset actuation. [T/F]

A

TRUE

38
Q

During a ground start of the #2 engine, the TIT rises to 860C prior to reaching Low RPM. The crew should:

A

DISCONTINUE START…Place the fuel and ignition switch off and record peak TIT. If the TIT did not exceed 965C, another start may be attempted.

39
Q

During starts, if the engine does not accelerate to Low RPM within 60 seconds you should:

A

DISCONTINUE START

40
Q

Normal takeoff rejection criteria may or may not apply during a touch-and-go landing. Careful consideration should be given to aircraft speed, engines available, runway condition, and runway remaining prior to rejecting a touch-and-go takeoff.

A

TRUE

41
Q

Maintain at least ____ prior to touchdown with a crosswind component greater than 30KTS to ensure adequate directional and allow runway lineup without exceeding 15 degrees of sideslip.

A

130KTS (LRT) / 120KTS (AEW)

42
Q

While conducting an NTS check on the #4 engine, the FE encounters binding of the #4 power lever at flight idle. After securing all bleed air, the #4 power lever still blinds. You should:

A

Increase TAS and reattempt to advance the power lever. If successful, a second NTS check shall not be attempted.

43
Q

While starting the #2 engine, the bleed air manifold gauge indicates 20psi at 16% RPM. The crew should:

A

Secure the engine with the fuel and ignition switch.

44
Q

The pilot at the controls shall notify the crew of a descent:

A

Prior to starting the descent

45
Q

A stagnated start is evident when:

A

The RPM is reluctant to accelerate above 35 to 50% RPM and the TIT does not rapidly rise to the starting limit.

46
Q

According to the P3 operating manual, touch and go landings shall not be performed on RWYs less than _____ in length.

A

6000

47
Q

During an NTS check on the #1 ENG, NTS action should initiate between _____ SHP.

A

-150 to -500

48
Q

Failure of an engine NTS light to illuminate following engine shutdown from LOW RPM with the fuel and ignition switch requires maintenance action. [T/F]

A

TRUE

49
Q

If the “PROP PUMP 1” light remains on in low RPM after the initial start, you should:

A

Secure the engine with the fuel and ignition switch.

50
Q

Which statement is true concerning crossfeed operations during the low fuel quality operations (less than 2000lbs per tank)?

A

The use of multiple crossfeed configurations should be set up only when necessitated by known empty tank conditions.

51
Q

Reverse thrust is most effective at speeds above 80 KTS and should, therefore, be initiated as soon as possible after the nose wheel touches the runway. Maintain directional control, using the rudder down to _____. Below _____, use engine power, nose wheel steering, or both.

A

60KTS; 60KTS

52
Q

The proper setting of the rudder trim tab for takeoff is:

A

3-4 degrees Right

53
Q

The proper setting of the elevators trim tab for takeoff is:

A

10degrees NU

54
Q

All aircrew and maintenance personnel shall minimize their exposure to the airflow multiplier when ______.

A

Ground air is on.

55
Q

When executing any engine shutdown or restart procedure in flight or on the runway, the FE shall be visually checked and verbally confirmed by a pilot prior to:

A

Pulling E-handle
Moving a fuel and ignition switch
Actuating a feather button

56
Q

Select the correct response concerning the ground air conditioning system operation.

A

Do not operate the system in the manual mode full hot for more than one minute as system component damage may occur.
Repeatedly changing temperature selections will increase the time reared for system stabilization in the auto mode.
If the temperature control system does not stabilize in the auto mode within 30 minutes, maintain the conditioned air duct temperature above 5C in the man mode and report the discrepancy.

57
Q

Do not allow conditioned air duct temperature to decrease below _____ as turbine howl caused by ice formation on blade tips and water separator icing may occur.

A

5 C

58
Q

What is the minimum fuel required in tanks 2 and 3 for proper cooling of the hydraulic fluid?

A

1000lbs each.

59
Q

During some conditions, hot air from the left heat exchanger fan discharge duct may enter the air multiplier inlet, causing the air multiplier duct temperature sensing switch to automatically terminate ground air conditioning. To reactivate ground air:

A

The “GRD AIR COND” switch must be placed to off and back to on.

60
Q

To prevent overheat damage to avionics equipment, do not operate avionics with the cabin ambient temperature above _____.

A

27 C

61
Q

______ volts minimum should be available when placing the battery test switch to “TEST” prior to staring the APU on the ground.

A

22

62
Q

Automatic shutdown of the APU will occur with:

A

A loss of APU oil pressure
An APU overspeed in excess of 106%
An APU compartment fire

63
Q

During ground operation of the APU the #2 fuel boost pump should be on or crossfeed set up:

A

As required to maintain RPM within limits.

64
Q

While preflighting your smoke mask, you notice an exposed wire inside the mask (connected to the microphone), you should:

A

Unplug copilots mask from the ICS system.

65
Q

During an air start, if no light-off occurs within _____, push in the feather button and secure the engine.

A

10 seconds

66
Q

Prior to shutting down #4 for loiter, ensure the GEN 4 XFR CNTRL, BUS A, and BUS B CBs are all set. [T/F]

A

TRUE

67
Q

prior to the deliberate shutdown of any engines for loiter operation, the following item(s) must be considered:

A

2 or 3 ENG loiter operations should not be performed when the OAT is below 0 C.

68
Q

The FE should stand by to shutdown the engine during an INFLT restart if:

A

TIT exceeds 850 C
Engine RPM stagnates or begins to decay

69
Q

During completion of the restart checklist prior to loiter operations, the PCO switch need only be depresses momentarily to ensure proper operation of the AUX PMP (RGB) / FX valve solenoid. [T/F]

A

TRUE

70
Q

If the propeller fails to feather during loiter shutdown, you should:

A

Perform the propeller fails to FX procedure.
*1. Verify Prop FX button is in.
*2. PCO the applicable engine
*3. Select the alternate bus for engine 1 or 4.
*4. Check prop FX CB in
If the prop does not successfully FX in the first four steps, complete the propeller fails to feather procedure, followed by the emergency shutdown procedure.

71
Q

During an inflight restart the “PROP PUMP 1” caution light does not extinguish as RPM accelerates through 55%. The correct action would be to:

A

Continue the restart. The mission should be aborted.

72
Q

Prior to the deliberate shutdown of any engines for loiter operation, the condition of all engines and systems must be checked carefully. Certain items assume prime importance when considering loiter operations. Which of the following items assume prime importance?

A

Engine Loiter operations should not be performed when the OAT is below OC

73
Q

During an INFLT restart of #1 your FE turns on the Fuel and Ignition switch after achieving stabilized RPM and does not have light off w/in 10 seconds. What is the correct course of action?

A

Push in the FX button
If desired, attempt another restart

74
Q

While performing an INFLT restart, the prop does not rotate as the blades unfeather. This may be caused by:

A

A stuck prop brake

75
Q

After RPM has stabilized during an INFLT restart, the FX valve light remains on steady. If fluid is visible or any other abnormal indications exist, the restart should be:

A

Secured by pushing in the feather button and executing the emergency shutdown procedure.

76
Q

During an INFLT restart, blade angle/rotation is observed after pushing PCO, you should:

A

Execute the Emergency Shutdown Checklist

77
Q

During a loiter shutdown, RPM stabilizes at 8% after the E-HDL is pulled, you should:

A

Perform the prop fails to FX procedures.

78
Q

During an INFLT restart, the FX button remains on following PCO, you should:

A

Pull the E-HDL. If the light goes out, push the E-HDL in and continue the INFLT restart procedures.

79
Q

Dung takeoff, all malfunctions will be called out by type and engine number. If a malfunction occurs prior to refusal, the pilot will abort the takeoff. If a PROP malfunction occurs prior to refusal, the pilot will:

A

Initiate an abort and call for the e-handle as the PL are retarted to flight idle.

CBP P3 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions