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T-38 NUB > Non Ops Limits Ops Limits > Flashcards

Non Ops Limits Ops Limits Flashcards

1
Q

Dry runway limit

A

30

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2
Q

Touch and go limit

A

25

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3
Q

Wet runway limit

A

20

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4
Q

Icy/standing water limit

A

10

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5
Q

MInimum rwy length no flap touch and go

A

10,000 ft

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6
Q

Min allowable rwy length

A

8.000 ft

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7
Q

True/false
No flap touch and go require barrier

A

True

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8
Q

No flap landing are not accomplished with greather than ____ lbs fuel

A

2500

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9
Q

Caution breaking between ___ and ___ knots, extreme caution when > ____

A

130, 100, 120

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10
Q

TOS (Takeoff Speed

A

Speed at which gear leave the runway

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11
Q

TOD (Takeoff Distance)

A

Distance required from brake release to main gear liftoff

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12
Q

SETOS (Single Engine Takeoff Speed

A

Speed at which the aircraft can climb 100’/min w/
flaps at 60%

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13
Q

CEFS (Critical Engine Failure Speed)

A

Speed at which with an engine failure, you can either
SETOS or stop in same distance w/ one engine

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14
Q

CFL (Critical Field Length)

A

Total runway length required to accelerate with both engines to
CEFS, experience engine failure, then either SETOS or stop in the same distance

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15
Q

NACS (Normal acceleration speed check):

A

speed an average T-38 should reach at a specific
distance

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16
Q

MACS (Minimum acceleration check speed):

A

Failure to reach this means other TOLD is
invalid because your plane sucks

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17
Q

Best angle of climb (Gear and 60% flaps):

A

200 KCAS

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18
Q

Best angle of climb (gear and no flaps):

A

220 KCAS

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19
Q

Best angle of climb (Clean

A

230 KCAS + fuel over 1000 (270 KCAS on initial T/O)

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20
Q

Max angle of climb (gear down, flaps 60%):

A

192 KCAS

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21
Q

Max angle of climb (gear down, flaps up):

A

222 KCAS

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22
Q

Max angle of climb (gear up, heavyweight):

A

267 KCAS

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23
Q

Max Glide airspeed

A

230 KCAS + 1 knot per 1000 pounds of fuel

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24
Q

Final turn airspeed

A

180 KCAS + fuel over 1000 (+15 for no-flap)

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25
Q

Final approach airspeed

A

160 KCAS + fuel over 1000 (+15 for no-flap)

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26
Q

Touchdown speed

A

135 KCAS + fuel over 1000 (+15 for no-flap)

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27
Q

Touchdown greater than ____ KCAS should not be attempted

A

200

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28
Q

Increase final approach and touchdown speeds by ___ the gust factor

A

1/2

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29
Q

T38 glide ratio

A

10.2 : 1

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30
Q

Max range AOA

A

0.18

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31
Q

Max endurance AOA

A

0.3

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32
Q

Thunderstorm penetration airspeed:

A

280 knots

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33
Q

Tech order climb schedule ___ KCAS at sea level minus ___ KCAS for per ____ feet

A

500, 30, 5000

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34
Q

Maximum permissible sink rate on landing (without crab) is ____ FPM

A

340

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35
Q

Holding Airspeed

A

250 - 265 KCAS

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36
Q

___ lbs fuel per radar pattern (this is a conservative estimate for Form 70 purposes)

A

400

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37
Q

___ lbs for Falls pattern

A

400

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38
Q

T/O is with ____ lbs, plan to arrive at MOA with ____ lbs

A

3600, 3000

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39
Q

____ lbs to go around container at KSPS

A

250

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40
Q

Closed pull up uses ____ lbs

A

125

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41
Q

Fuel low level light comes on after ___ seconds below ___ lbs

A

7.5, 250

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42
Q

Min fuel: less than ___ lbs of fuel

A

600 lbs

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43
Q

Emergency fuel: Less than ___ lbs of fuel

A

400 lbs

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44
Q

Crossfeed is recommended with fuel imbalance of __ lbs or more

A

200

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45
Q

Crossfeed is NOT recommended when:

A
  • Boost pump failure
  • Indicator failure
  • Leak
  • Low altitude
  • Low fuel
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46
Q

Pushing start arms ignition circuit for ___ seconds

A

30

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47
Q

Gearbox shift occurs at ____ RPM range

A

65-75%

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48
Q

Battery provides ___ volts and DC rectifiers provide __ volts

A

24, 28

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49
Q

AC generators cut in between ___

50
Q

Min battery voltage required to close batt relay: ___ volts, won’t start if voltage is between __ volts and ___ volts

A

18, 18, 10

51
Q

Battery energizes DC bus for ___ minutes at ___ power

A

15 min, 80%

52
Q

XFMR RECT OUT comes on if _______

A

both TRUs fail

53
Q

AC Instruments:

A
  • Fuel quantity indicators
  • Fuel flow indicators
  • Oil pressure indicators
  • Hydraulic Pressure indicators
  • Oxygen Quantity Gauge
54
Q

DC instruments:

A
  • EGT
  • Nozzle position
  • Flap indicator
  • Standby ADI
55
Q

Hydr Press Low comes on at ___PSI, goes back out when above ___ PSI

A

1500, 1800

56
Q

Powered by ________

A

8th stage bleed air

57
Q

Left Hydraulic system is _____ Hydraulic System and contains:

A

Utility

  • F light controls
  • A ugmentor
  • N osewheel Steering
  • G ear
  • S peed brake
58
Q

Right Hydraulic system is ______Hydraulic System and controls

A

Flight control

flight controls
(ailerons, rudder, horizontal tail)

59
Q

Less than ___º C, icing conditions exist (turn on anti-ice)

60
Q

Pitot heat cannot be on for more than ___ seconds on the ground to preclude bad things

61
Q

Gravity flow guaranteed up to ____ altitude

62
Q

Landing gear extension and retraction takes __ seconds, under windmilling hydraulics can take up to ____

63
Q

Gear horn comes on when gear is not down and locked and less than ____, ______, and both throttles below _____

A

210 knots, 10,000 feet MSL, 96%

64
Q

Alternate landing gear extension requires _____ of pull and _____ seconds to extend

A

10 inches, 15-35

65
Q

Delay takeoff a minimum of ___ minutes behind ____ aircraft and ___ minutes behind ____ aircraft

A

2, large, 4, heavy

66
Q

Normal rotation is ___ KCAS and takeoff is at ___ KCAS

67
Q

Anti-ice is always operating below __ regardless of switch position

68
Q

0 G flight is restricted to ___ seconds due to oil supply
Negative G flight is restricted to ___ seconds due to oil supply

69
Q

Radar altimeter is limited to ____ of pitch/roll and doesn’t work above ___ feet AGL

A

45 degrees, 5000’

70
Q

Radar altimeter is accurate to _______, whichever is greater

A

+/- 2 feet or 2%,

71
Q

Pressurization: A cabin pressure of ______ is maintained from _______

A

8000 feet +/- 1000, 8000 to FL230

72
Q

T5 system initiates after _____

73
Q

Left engine contains _____ fuel

74
Q

Right engine contains _____ fuel

75
Q

____ engine cannot be more than ___________________ in solo flight

A

Right, two times the amount of fuel in the left tank

76
Q

____ total through single point refueling

77
Q

Normal fuel pressure

78
Q

When does Low fuel PRESS light come on?

79
Q

A minimum RPM of ____ is required to achieve engine fuel flow

80
Q

_____ is the heart of the air start envelope (any altitude)

A

18-20% RPM

81
Q

How long to wait after aborted start?

82
Q

If EGT doesn’t rise within _____ of fuel flow indication, abort the start

A

12 seconds

83
Q

Engines are most efficient between ______

A

90% and 95% RPM

84
Q

Avoid max thrust dives when below ____ in either tank

85
Q

Set ____ fuel flow to maintain whatever your current speed is

86
Q

If you RAM/DUMP, you will lose/not lose:

A
  • D efog
  • C anopy Seals
  • G -suits
  • A ir Conditioning
  • P ressurization
    You will not lose:
    • Engine anti-ice
  • 2 Hydraulic Reservoirs
87
Q

Solos to Pattern only weather

A

4000’/5 mile vis

88
Q

Dual only weather

A

Min ceiling 3500’/3 mile vis

89
Q

Restricted pattern weather:

What is special about restricted pattern?

A

Min 2300’/3 mile vis

  • Only entry from initial T/O or straight in
  • 8 AC max in pattern
  • Breakouts not available
90
Q

Instruments weather:

A

Min 2000’/3 mile vis

91
Q

Sim Instruments weather:

A

Min 500’/2 mile vis
(Alternate and Touchdown fuel if below 1500’/3 mile vis)

92
Q

Alternating Instruments weather

A

Min ceiling and visibility of the lowest compatible approach

93
Q

High pattern requirements (other):

A

4000’/3 mile vis

94
Q

Min Falls weather:

A

2300’/3 miles (restricted pattern)

95
Q

Comer 1 & 2 MDA:

96
Q

Radar Pattern alt:

97
Q

High pattern alt:

98
Q

Breakout Altitude and Heading:

A

4000 feet, 240

99
Q

VFR pattern altitude:

100
Q

Departure end of runway altitude restriction:

101
Q

Restricted low approach minimum:

102
Q

Pattern base heading

103
Q

Pattern crosswind heading

104
Q

Begin the closed pull-up with a minimum of ___ KCAS and maintain a minimum of___ throughout

105
Q

When doing a closed pull up, ensure that anyone on inside downwind is > __ off, and ____ feet away

A

45º, 3000

106
Q

Break zone:

A

first 3000 ft of runway

107
Q

When u cannot break?

A
  • Straight-in between 9 and 4 miles
  • Unable to follow last aircraft on inside downwind with sufficient spacing
108
Q

When u cannot request closed?

A
  • Straight-in between 9 and 4 miles
  • Aircraft between 3-mile initial/initial and the break
109
Q

Inside downwind speed:

110
Q

Normal Final turn parameters:

A
  • 2/3 ground, 1/3 sky
  • FPM 6º - 8º nose low
  • 45º bank minimum
  • Power 88 - 90%
  • 3000 - 3500 VVI
111
Q

No-flap Final turn parameters:

A
  • 1/2 ground, 1/2 sky
  • FPM 4º - 4º nose low
  • 45º bank minimum
  • Power 88 - 90%
  • 2500 VVI
112
Q

ICAO Point: 15R

113
Q

ICAO point 15C

114
Q

ICAO point 33L

115
Q

ICAO point 33C

116
Q

ICAO point Alpha

117
Q

ICAO point Bravo

118
Q

ICAO point Charlie

119
Q

Dont aerobreak when faster than how many knots?

120
Q

Don’t apply brakes unless you’re in a ____ landing attitude or the nose gear will slam the ground

121
Q

EGI check:

A
  • ACCR < 7
  • FOM < 3
  • SAT = 4 (or more)

T-38 NUB (1 decks)

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