Non JQS Flashcards

1
Q

What does DOD UCNI stand for?

A

Department of Defense Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The SRT is used to respond exclusively to what type of situation?

A

Covered Wagon situations or as directed by flight leadership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

LFs containing a nuclear weapon cannot be penetrated without a functional what?

A

Personal Alarm System (PAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who must authorize penetrating a site with an RS without a PAS?

A

Wing Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the exception to MCC being the sole approval Authority for LF entry?

A

CAT 1 convoys and teams authorized in writing by OG/CC & SFG/CC to conduct no-notice exercises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What section is a 24 hr SF command and control center that monitors security activities within the missile complex through close coordination with MMOC and FSCs?

A

MSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What section is a 24 hr operation that distributes “A” and “B” codes to authorized personnel?

A

KCCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is KCCC responsible for?

A

Dispatches, EALs, MEED issuing, and Wing’s controlling agency for MECS, documents, and canisters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What will take place immediately after emergency Vehicles/ crews depart and why?

A

Inspections of all areas emergency Personnel had access. Ensure no unauthorized Personnel or materials remain on site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

who may conduct inspections?

A

SF, escort officials, authorized MX, MCC, individuals on afgsc form 246 or m a d o, MAF support personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What must all Personnel assigned to the base and Wing have on file with kccc to be granted unescorted entry to LFs and MAFs?

A

AFGSC 245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the afgsc form 2 4 6 and what is it used for?

A

Multiple dispatch / pre dispatch / approved dispatch notification. Used to process groups of base and Wing Personnel who perform the same duties at multiple locations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For Non PRP Personnel on an afgsc form 246, what statement must be included on the dispatch?

A

Non PRP - no combinations - no vouching Authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is MADO?

A

Missile alert Duty order. Authorizes MCCs access to the MAF, LCC, & LCEB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are authenticators used for?

A

unescorted entry to LFs. Authenticate security status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What form is used to issue, transfer, and be a receipt for the KL - 85?

A

AFGSC Form 247

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What form is used by the FSC to maintain a continuous inventory of all MECS material?

A

AF COMSEC Form 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When will a field key in a KL - 85 be changed?

A

Master key is changed.
Available Pages run low.
SF change over day.
(whichever comes first)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What instruction list reportable comsec incidents, requirements for reporting the incidents, and the comsec deviations?

A

AF system security instructions (AFSSI) 4212.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who generates sufficient response elements to respond and assess additional alarms as quickly as possible and prioritizes alarms / incidents to ensure appropriate SF response?

A

FSC or MSC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What direction do all launcher closures open?

A

South.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the 6 o’clock of the site?

A

The gate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When a site is deemed RC II, how frequently must SF reattempt to respond?

A

At least daily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can both road conditions exist in the missile field at the same time?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who is authorized to approve RC changes?

A

Wing/CC or designated representative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If two miss authentications or incorrect VCNs are passed, is it a sign of duress? Why or why not?

A

No. Indicates unidentified/unauthorized personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does MIIDS stand for and what is it designed to do?

A

Missile interior intrusion detection system. Detects intrusions into the Elevator Shaft way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

LF A circuit and B circuit, with operational combinations installed are classified as what?

A

Secret/NOFORN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When will cat 7 teams not have access to the A circuit combination?

A

When the B plug is unsecure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

While in authorized team is on site, what is required anytime and unauthorized / uncoordinated alarm occurs?

A

Two authentications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

May cell phones be used to pass dispatch at an LF?

A

Yes, but only as a last resort if the radios or other encrypted methods of communication fail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which teams will not be used to perform OZ/IZ function checks without prior coordination through MSC with MMOC?

A

MX teams.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who must approve penetration of sites at night or limited visibility?

A

MW/CC. May delegate to MXG/CC or SFG/CC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How often will an individual clean and inspect their gas mask?

A

upon Issue, 6 months during peacetime, prior to deployment, 7 days during deployment, before long-term storage of 30 days or more, after completion of each training exercise and use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What form is used to inspect your gas mask?

A

DD Form 1574 serviceable tag material?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when are commercial stops not permitted?

A

during yellow and red road conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Commercial facilities will be utilized in accordance with what?

A

local directives and federal regulations

38
Q

The wing Commander is the EAL approval Authority; however, this Authority may be delegated to whom?

A

OG/CC
MXG/CC
SFG/CC

39
Q

The sfg / CC May approve EAL for what only?

A

MAF entry.

40
Q

what regulations are used to annotate comsec critical component handling and Storage?

A

AFI 91-105 Critical Components
AFGSC 91-1005 ICBM launch control and code systems
EAP-STRAT Vol. 16 ICBM code component control policy and procedures

41
Q

what is on each flight time - dispatch Matrix?

A

Flight MAF and each flight LF, closest available MAFs to respond to MAFsecurity situation, speed limits for each type of Road, mileage of primary and Alternate Routes, response time with* for 30+ minutes), location and type of security upgrades with in Flight.

42
Q

What provides the most situational awareness to SF controllers, enabling them to assess LF topsides?

A

Remote visual assessment (RVA)

43
Q

Packet loss is indicated by jumping more than how many seconds between reported images?

A

10

44
Q

Who will be notified when a major loss of RVA function occurs?

A

20 AF / A7

45
Q

Will escorted Personnel be allowed to remain overnight?

A

No.

46
Q

How many authentications are required to terminate a no-notice exercise and from whom will the FSC receive it from?

A

1, from initiator.

47
Q

Termination of the alarm situation generated during an exercise requires what?

A

Two authentications from MEED equipped security personnel.

48
Q

No-notice exercises will not be conducted in which FPCONs?

A

Charlie and Delta

49
Q

Exercises must be initiated within how much time from the agreed upon initiation time?

A

15 minutes, plus or minus

50
Q

How many segments are in a USYAK 23A canister?

A

16 segments of two copies for a total of 32 segments.

51
Q

When is the new USYAK 23A master key segments placed into effect? When is the old one deleted?

A

0001 every Saturday morning loaded Friday. 0000 Monday night.

52
Q

within how long must the keying material be destroyed after supersession?

A

ASAP, no longer than 12 hours unless directed by the controlling Authority.

53
Q

Where are the three copies of the effective USNAL 45A kept?

A

parent MAF, sister MAF, kccc

54
Q

With how many combinations left on the USNAL 45 will the FSC order a new combination page?

A

5

55
Q

What are the four blank spaces used for on the USNAL 45?

A

transfer the last four valid combinations, three previous and current.

56
Q

each copy of the USYAA 273A contains how many pages?

A

30

57
Q

What are the three groups of comsec incidents and what do they mean?

A

Cryptographic - equipment malfunction or operator error.
Personnel - capture, attempted recruitment, or control of personnel by a hostile intelligence entity and AWOL, defection of Personnel, withdrawal of access.
Physical - loss of control, theft, capture, recovery by salvage, tampering, unauthorized viewing, access, photographing, or copying.

58
Q

What is the AF COMSEC Form 16 used for?

A

Daily, shift, or other local inventory.

59
Q

Persons performing and witnessing the destruction of key tapes complete which AFGSC Form?

A

AFGSC Form 135 - COMSEC Destruction Report, CDR

60
Q

What is the AFGSC Form 135 classified as?

A

Confidential.

61
Q

How does the FSC and KCCC authenticate for dispatch purposes?

A

KCCC passes the first four of the FSCs authenticator and FSC passes the last four back to KCCC.

62
Q

What happens if 2 mis-authentications occur from either the KCCC controller or the FSC during dispatch authentication?

A

Investigation of both individuals.

63
Q

What two functions is missile field security broken into?

A

Site security, support security.

64
Q

Prior to CAT 1 movements entering a MAF what will the convoy commander accomplish?

A

Pre announce convoy composition to FSC/MCC.

65
Q

Upon initial entry to an LF, how long does a team have to establish contact with MCC/FSC after breaking the OZ field?

A

5 minutes.

66
Q

Upon initial entry to an LF, how long does a team have to establish contact with MCC/FSC after breaking the OZ field?

A

5 minutes.

67
Q

What form is used to account for emergency personnel?

A

AF Form 1109.

68
Q

How many methods are used to store certified critical Components that are not under TPC control?

A

3, Reinforced concrete vault with intrusion detection system, approved storage container with volumetric motion detector and door detector for storage area, protect components with tamper detection indicators approved IAW AFI91-104.

69
Q

What functions do FSC/ART/SRTs fall under in the missile field?

A

Site security.

70
Q

What functions do SET/CAT/15&5s fall under in the missile field?

A

Support security.

71
Q

What is NUCFLASH

A

An accidental or unauthorized, launching, firing, or use of nuclear weapons by the US or US allied forces which could cause the risk of war.

72
Q

What is broken arrow?

A

Accident or unexpected event involving nuclear weapons or critical Components that does not create the risk of war.

73
Q

What is bent spear?

A

An incident or event involving damage to the nuclear weapon or components.

74
Q

What is bent spear?

A

An incident or event involving damage to the nuclear weapon or components.

75
Q

What is empty quiver?

A

Loss, theft, seizure, or destruction of a nuclear weapon, component or warhead.

76
Q

What is dull sword?

A

A nuclear safety deficiency that is not severe enough to be reported as a bent spear or broken arrow.

77
Q

What are the 8 circumstances for deadly force?

A

Self defense, defense of others, assets vital to national security, national critical infrastructure, inherently dangerous property, serious offense against others, escape, arrest.

78
Q

What protection levels are assigned to LFs with RS present, the topside of the MAF, and operational LCCs.

A

LFs:PL1
MAF:PL3
LCC:PL2

79
Q

What 3 references cover information regarding Nuclear Weapon Security Standards(NWSS)?

A

DoDD 5210.41M
AFI 91-101
AFMAN 31-108

80
Q

For MAF exercises what can be used to verify termination if the evaluator is within the fence line?

A

Personal recognition.

81
Q

Describe a valid VCN.

A

Four 0s and two other numbers between 0 & 9 in any order.

82
Q

How does MCC verify the security status of the relieving FSC on SF changeover day before establishing a VCN?

A

By monitoring an authentication between FSC and A-side KCCC.

83
Q

A hostile action is not imminent until the threat has what?

A

Opportunity, capability, demonstrates clear intent.

84
Q

What is the nuclear threat capabilities assessment (NSTCA) and who is it prepared by?

A

Compilation of information from many sources that attempt to anticipate credible threats to US DOD nuclear weapons. Prepared by Defense Intelligence Agency(DIA).

85
Q

What is a critical component?

A

Component of a nuclear weapon that if bypassed, activated, or tampered with could result in or contribute to NUCFLASH, BROKEN ARROW, or BENT SPEAR.

86
Q

What is ALARA?

A

As low as reasonable achievable. Major philosophy concerning radiation exposure and the necessary steps needed to keep that as limited as possible.

87
Q

What is the definition of a no-lone zone?

A

An area where TPC must be enforced.

88
Q

How far are security teams supposed to separate escorts from escorted personnel? Why?

A

10 feet, to allow for opportunity to pass duress.

89
Q

The NSTCA forms the what of threat planning for nuclear security systems updated or superseded?

A

Cornerstone.

90
Q

What are the two positions under PRP and what do they mean?

A

Controlled: (SF) control access but have no technical knowledge of the weapon and systems.
Critical: (MX/OG) has technical knowledge of the weapon and systems.