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Nn Flashcards

1
Q

When can we reduce RVR’s from 300/125/75 (CAT II) and 200/125/75 (CAT IIIA) to 300/75/75 and 200/75/75?

A

If we have a rollout guidance system for the middle part and the end part is not relevant.

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2
Q

What is alert height?

A

100ft RA. It’s the characteristics of the airplane and it’s fail operational landing system which we will execute a missed approach above it if we get any failure on the redundant part of the automatic landing system or the ground equipment. Below AH, we will continue even if we get any failures ECXEPT if the LAND red light flashes.

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3
Q

When is the red Autoland armed and when can it be triggered? 4

A

Armed below 200ft RA,
triggered if: both AP’s trips off, Excessive beam deviation is sensed, LOC or GS transmitter fails and discrepancies between the both RA’s more than 15ft.

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4
Q

What does CAT III DUAL mean on FMA

A

It’s the airplanes fail operational system which means if one part of the automatic landing system fails below alert height, the other will take over to complete the automatic landing, flare and rollout.

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5
Q

What does CAT III single means in FMA?

A

It’s the aircraft fail passive system. In case of failure below AH, there is no remaining part that can take over to complete the landing, flare and rollout which means that the pilot needs to complete it manually or perform a go around.

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6
Q

What do we need to see to continue a CAT II approach on the DH?

On CAT III A?

A

Three consecutive lights of the approach lighting system, the threshold lights, runway centerline lines runway edge lights, touchdown zone light or a combination of these.

Also a lateral element of the ground pattern like approach lighting crossbar, threshold lights (green) or barrette of the TDZ lights.

The DH is to low, so the same except the approach lighting system because we have passed them and also not the lateral element of the ground pattern.

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7
Q

When does LAND, flare/no flare and rollout/no rollout appears on FMA?

A

Land = earliest 400ft, latest 350ft RA
Flare = earliest 40ft, latest 30ft.
Rollout = as soon as one of the main landing gears touches the ground.

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8
Q

What does LAND arm on the FMA? What happens when we see LAND on FMA?

A

Arms the flare and rollout mode. The FMGC and FCU freezes and aircraft is in land mode. We can only get out of it by applying TOGA thrust.

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9
Q

How far is it between centerline lights and the edge lights?
Can the towers RVR report be overridden by pilots?

A

15m between centerline lights and 60m between the edge lights.

Yes? We calculate amount of centerline lights we see. 9x15=135. We need to see at least 9 centerline lights to be able to depart with lowest LVO (125m).

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10
Q

When must LVP procedure be in force?

A

Depends from airport to airport but it should be when RVR is below 400m.

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11
Q

An LVTO is a take off on a runway where the RVR is? Performed by?

Is use of flex permitted?
What about if RVR is below 150m?

A

Below 550m = LVTO. (New, before it was 400m)
Performed by CM1.

Yes.
Then we need special approval from the authority.

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12
Q

Pilot incapacitated = what do we do during climb/descend or approach?

A

Climb = climb to MSA
Descent = monitor MSA = don’t descend below MSA unless everything is finished.
Approach = go-around.

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13
Q

What is the detection capability of the TCAS?
MAXIMUM ALTITUDE RANGE?

A

30NM either side (laterally) and 30-80NM longitudinally
9900FT above and below.

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14
Q

TCAS RA = collision after?
TCAS TA = collision after?

A

Real collision threat = 25s.
Potential collision threat = 40s

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15
Q

If we have TA/RA selected, when does it automatically reverts to TA? 4

A

If we get wind shear warning, stall warning, GPWS alert and aircraft is below 1000ft.

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16
Q

When is AP/FD TCAS inhibited? 2

A

If we have TA and not TA/RA and below 900ft AGL.

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17
Q

When is TA inhibited during climb and descend?

A

Below 600ft AGL in climb and below 400ft AGL in descent.

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18
Q

When is RA inhibited during climb and descend?

A

Below 1100 AGL in climb and 900ft AGL in descent.

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19
Q

Fuel leak procedure: if not confirmed it’s coming from the engine or leak is not located we need to isolate each wing. We maintain the cross feed valve closed and switch off the center pumps to?

If fuel symmetrically decreases in both wing tanks and the fuel quantity in the center tank decreases it means?

A

Because when we do like this each wing tank feeds it’s associated engine. We monitor the fuel and If fuel decreases faster in one wing = we know that the fuel leak comes from that side.

It means fuel leak comes from the center tank or APU feed line.

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20
Q

What does the cross feed button in the overhead FUEL do?

A

When we press it (on) = allows both engines to be fed from one side or one engine to be fed from both sides.

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21
Q

When does tailpipe fire occur and Why does tailpipe fire occur?

A

Only on ground/during engine start/engine shutdown.

Occur because we have excessive fuel in the combustion chamber, turbine or exhaust nozzle.

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22
Q

There is no ECAM alerts of tailpipe fire, which indications can maybe help us?

Procedure in QRH.

A

The EGT will increase due to fire in the turbines, we can check the EGT in E/WD.

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23
Q

Why do the QRH tell us to shut down the engine and to dry crank the engine in case of tailpipe fire?

A

To stop the fuel flow to the engine (shut down) and to remove the remaining fuel in the engine. We want to clean the fuel in the engine.

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24
Q

The performance impact of a tire burst is equivalent to?

A

To a brake released = we put ONE BRK release failure in case of 1 tire and TWO BRK release failure in case of 2 tires in the PERF calculation application.

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25
Q

Why does the QRH tell us to not apply reversers if we have fuel leak?

A

To prevent contact between fuel and hit surfaces of engines and brakes.

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26
Q

What does engine stall mean?

How do we detect it? 4.

We have QRH ENG 1(2) stall to this.

A

When the compressor blades are stalled = they are not able anymore to compress the air from the front to the end of the engine.

Loud bang, instant loose if thrust in affected side, fluctuation of the engine parameters and an increase of EGT.

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27
Q

When is engine secured?
No damage,
Damage,
Fire

A

No damage = when thrust lever idle and ENG master off on the affected side.

Damage = Thrust lever idle, ENG master off, ENG fire push button push and Agent 1 pressed.

Fire = Damage = Thrust lever idle, ENG master off, ENG fire push button push and Agent 1 and agent 2 pressed. Check the red lights goes blank on the overhead and beside the ENG masters.

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28
Q

When can we see that the engine is damaged? 5

A

Loud noise/bang, Amber crosses, N1 or N2 = 0, high EGT, loss of oil/hydraulic fluid

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29
Q

How is the flow when PF initiates go around and calls “Go around Flaps” 3

A

1: PM sets the flaps 1 step up normally from full to 3.

2: PM says positive climb. PF responds gear up

3: PM says gear up, flaps 3, 3000ft checked.

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30
Q

If we get go around above the missed approach altitude how do we do?

A

We call cancel approach, we don’t touch the thrust levers, disarm the APPR button and descends to the missed approach altitude with V/S.

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31
Q

When does ECAM inhibits the warnings? 2

A

From 80kt during rolling up to 1500ft or 2min after lift-off whichever occurs first.

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32
Q

If the airplane tends to skid sideways, what is god to do?

A

To release the brakes = press to deactivate the auto brake = contributing to maintaining and regaining directional control.

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33
Q

RWYCC 6 = dry = max crosswind on TOF/LDG/Narrow

A

TOF/LDG = 38kt.
Narrow = 20kt.

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34
Q

RWYCC 5 = good = max crosswind on TOF/LDG/Narrow

A

TOF = 29kt.
LDG = 33kt.
Narrow = 20kt.

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35
Q

RWYCC 4 = good to medium = max crosswind on TOF/LDG/Narrow

A

TOF and LDG = 20kt.
Narrow = 10kt.

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36
Q

RWYCC 3 = medium = max crosswind on TOF/LDG/Narrow

A

TOF and LDG = 15kt.
Narrow = 10kt.

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37
Q

What is pitch angle?

A

Angle between the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the horizon.

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38
Q

What is flight path angle?

A

Angle between the flight path vector and the horizon.

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39
Q

What is AOA?

A

Difference between the pitch angle and the flight path angle.

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40
Q

What is VA prot? When mach increases?
What is VA Max? When mach increases?

A

Maximum AOA speed at which alpha protection becomes active in normal law. The AOA value of it decreases as the mach increases = the alpha protection strip on the PFD moves upwards.

Maximum AOA speed in normal law = maximum AOA aircraft can fly in normal law. It decreases when mach increases.

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41
Q

When does the alpha floor protection kicks in?

What does it do?

A

Between Valpha prot and Valpha max.

It orders TOGA thrust = we get TOGA lock in FMA = thrust locked in TOGA.

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42
Q

How do we get out of TOGA lock?

A

We disconnects the auto thrust from the two red buttons, we increase the thrust to the dot (required thrust) and we activate auto thrust again from the FCU.

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43
Q

IR1 and IR2 give information to?

A

IR1 to PFD/ND 1 and IR2 to PFD/ND 2

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44
Q

What is mixed IRS position?

A

Each IR calculates its own values and are then compared to give an average position = mixed IRS position.

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45
Q

What is an IR and what does it provide? 8

A

Laser based inertial reference system (aircraft sensors) which provides attitude, heading, aircraft position, track, heading, acceleration, ground speed and the flight path vector.

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46
Q

Each laser gyro measures the rotation around its three axis (yaw = heading, pitch and roll = bank). The IR’s also have three accelerometers aligned with each axis of the aircraft to measure the?

A

Speed changes/acceleration.

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47
Q

When aircraft on ground, the only acceleration detected by the accelerometers are?

A

The earths gravity. = based on that it can measure the true north. Then it counts for the variation to show us the heading on the ND after the alignment.

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48
Q

What does the alignment time on the IR’s depends on?

A

Temperature and latitude. Lower temp = longer time to warm up the alignment process.

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49
Q

What is VREF?

A

Landing approach speed when we pass 50ft over the threshold in CONFIG FULL. (1.3 times the stalling speed)

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50
Q

How do we insert VREF+15 in the FMGC?

A

VREF = VAPP in config full (speed we pass 50ft over the threshold).

  1. We check the value on our VLS with CONFIG FULL. Say VLS = 135.
  2. Then we change from CONFIG FULL to CONFIG 3.
  3. We then add 15kt to it and now we set VAPP as (135+15) = 150kt.
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51
Q

VAPP is calculated by?
VLS is calculated by?

A

VAPP = FMGC (values we have inserted like QNH, wind, temp etc.)

VLS = FAC.

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52
Q

VAPP = greater of VLS?

A

VLS+5kt or VLS + 1/3 of the TWR reported headwind limited to 0-15kt.

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53
Q

What should we do if we get NAV ATT discrepancies?

A

We compare both of our attitudes on the PFD with the STBY. The PFD that matches with the STBY = correct. If we have the IR3 = we can turn the ATT/HDG switching button to the affected side.

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54
Q

What do we get if we get dual LGCIU failures? 6

Why do we set the GPWS SYS button to off?

A

We will get AUTO FLT A/THR OFF on E/WD, THR LK displayed in the FMA, Reverse 1+2 INOP, AP 1+2 INOP, Flap 3 for landing, Gravity gear extension.

Because GPWS will shout because it receives L/G is in up position even if the LDG gear is down.

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55
Q

The landing gear panel is connected to?
Which means if it fails?

A

LGCIU1.
The landing gear panel will be blank and the wheel page will have Amber crosses only = we can’t see the status of the landing gear.

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56
Q

GPS primary lost: how does it work?

A

Airplane determines it’s position on the map by the satellites and the IRS. Aircraft receives at least 4 satellite signals to pin point its location. If we loose the GPS = we can still rely on the IRS (check we have accuracy high).

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57
Q

Navigation FM/GPS POS disagree: how do we check?

We have QRH for this.

A
  1. We check the PROG page. If estimated ACCUR = above required = don’t rely on NAV, fly HDG/TRACK = raw data.
  2. Compare the positions of both FM’s with the GPIRS position on the MCDU position monitor page. If one FM position agrees with the onside GPIRS = use the associated AP/FD.
    If both FM positions don’t agree with the onside GPIRS = deselect GPS and use raw data.
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58
Q

Auto flight map shift slow: How can we perform a navigation accuracy check?

What is the maximum difference?

A

We compare the FM positions (PROG PAGE calculated with FMGC) with the radio position/IR positions (bearing and distance VOR/DME or DME/DME). We insert the VOR in the PROG page and then we compare the bearing and distance on PROG page with the bearing and distance on the bottom left and right side on the ND.

If difference below 3NM = check is positive and realible.

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59
Q

One landing gear in abnormal position means what to auto brake and ground spoilers?

A

Auto brake can not be activated and the ground spoilers not armed.

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60
Q

Why do we select NWS STRG off/anti skid off if we have landing with abnormal gear?

A

The reference speed used by the anti skid to detect a wheel blockage is not correct = anti skid must be turned off to prevent permanent brake release.

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61
Q

Why do we turn RAM AIR on when we have landing with abnormal LG?

Limitation for ram air?

A

To ensure full depressurization of the aircraft before landing.

Below 10000ft and delta P is 1 PSI

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62
Q

Loss of braking memory items

Why do we say NWS/STRG off?

A
  1. Full reverse
  2. Release brakes
  3. Order NWS/STRG off (anti skid off = ABCU takes over from BSCU = alternate brakes are now active).
  4. Apply max 7 brake applications (ABCU automatically limits the brake pressure to 1000 PSI).
  5. If still no braking = use parking brake (short parking brake applications)

Because the ABCU kicks in (alternate brakes).

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63
Q

Localiser approach, deviation calls:
XTK more than?
LOC deviation more than?

A

Announce crosstrack = XTK more than 0.1NM (check on ND)
Announce LOC = LOC deviation more than 0.5 dot.

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64
Q

PM anoounces during approach:
SPEED?
RATE?
BANK?
PITCH?

A

Speed VAPP -5kt or +10kt.
V/S more than 1000ft/min.
More than 7 degrees.
-2.5 or above 10 degrees.

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65
Q

FPA approach:
Descent point
On the mile

A

Descent point, next 7 miles 2380.
7 miles, on profile/20ft high/low, next 6 miles 1770ft.

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66
Q

How does the GPS work?

A

It receives information from the satellites and gives very accurate position to the FMGC. The MMR process the data received and transfer the data to each ADIRS which then performs a position calculating.
The FMGS also use then this calculation to determine the position/heading and FM position of the aircraft = what we see on FMGC DATA MONITOR page.

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67
Q

What is SRS? When is it triggered and when does it disengage?

What should we not do during SRS? 3

A

Speed reference system. Managed mode used at take-off or go-around to maintain SRS speed (V2, V2+10) etc.

Triggered when we set thrust to FLX or TOGA and it disengages automatically at acceleration altitude.

Don´t clean up the aircraft, don´t switch to standard, and don´t change speed.

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68
Q

AP/FD and A/THR are all connected to?
What happens with the auto thrust if we takeoff without FD on?

A

Connected to the FMGC.

The A/THR will not be armed when we set FLEX and on acceleration altitude when we set the thrust to CLB, it will not activate the A/THR.

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69
Q

What is V2?
It ensures?

A

Minimum speed that needs to be maintained up to acceleration altitude in the event of engine failure after V1. Ensures minimum required climb gradient is achieved.

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70
Q

Is the STBY ports connected to the 3 ADIRUs? It means?

A

No, it is not. It means if we get total ADIRU failure, we will still have the STBY information. The aircraft takes the information direct from the STBY port = shown on ISIS.

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71
Q

Fully stabilized is defined as:
ON profile =
Estbalished on correct x and x =
Configuration =
IAS =
V/S =

A

Within 1 dot GS, within 1 light high or low on the PAPI
Established on correft lateral and vertical flight path
Landing configuration
IAS = VAPP target, -5/10kt
V/S not higher than 1000FPM

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72
Q

What is GS mini?

A

Wind changes due to gust etc. Function is to keep the aircraft energy level above a minimum value.

GS mini = VAPP - Tower headwind component

IAS target speed (VAPP) = GS mini + current headwind

IF VLS = 130kt. THR HDW = 20kt, VAPP = 130 + 1/3 HWC = 137kt. GS mini = 137 - 20kt = 117kt.

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73
Q

What is the two different thrust modes? SPEED/MACH and THR CLB/THR IDLE

When does the A/THR enganges during climb?

A

SPEED/MACH = system adjust the thrust to maintain a target speed/mach number. It´s priority is the speed.

THR CLB/THR IDLE= the system provides constant thurst. It´s priority is to keep constant thrust.

When we set the THR levers to CLB DETENT when passing thrust reduction altitude.

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74
Q

What is MCTA? How much does it cover during SID/STAR and in cruise? Lowest possible MCTA and when MCTA is not provided?

A

MINIMUM TERRAIN CLEARENCE ALTITUDE. COVERS TERRAIN AND OBSTACLES ON SID/STAR/ROUTE.

5NM EITHER SIDE OF CENTERLINE FOR SID/STAR.

10NM EITHER SIDE OF CENTERLINE FOR ROUTES.

TERRAIN UP TO 6000FT = 1000FT CLEARENCE. TERRAIN ABOVE 6000FT = 2000FT CLEARENCE

Lowest = 3100ft = means if it is not provided 3000ft is a safe altitude always.

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75
Q

When is speed brake extension inhibited on A320 and on A321?

A

A320 = flaps full.
A321 = CONF 3 and FLAPS full.

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76
Q

To loose altitude on low altitudes, A320 and A321. Flaps, speed and?

A

A320 = Flaps 2, SELECTED speed 185, half speedbrakes. WE CAN DISCONNECT AP TO USE FULL SPEEDBRAKES.
A321 = Flaps 2, speed 185-200kt, full speedbrakes.

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77
Q

When does the FMA changes from SRS to CLB on FMA and where does the speed trend jump?

A

At the acceleration altitude, jumps to managed target speed, constraint (250kt) or preselected speed.

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78
Q

What is NADP 2/ICAO B?

A

1000/1000 AAL.

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79
Q

What is NADP1?

A

1000/3000 AAL.

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80
Q

ICAO A/NADP A?

A

1500/3000 AAL.

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81
Q

AP connection at takeoff.

AP disconnection at landing with ILS and FINAL APP

A

100ft above AAL and at least 5s after liftoff.

ILS = 160ft AAL and FINAL APP = 250ft AAL.

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82
Q

Maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended

A

20000ft.

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83
Q

First action from the PF when we get engine failure during cruise? And then? Continue the procedure. 6 things.

When it is time for the descend what do we do? 3

When do we rengage the A/THR?

A

Speed drops quickly, we need not delay the descend.

  1. I have control, I have communication.
  2. Set both the thrust levers to MCT.
  3. Disconnect the A/THR.
  4. HDG = set and pull as appropriate. Check were the terrain is on the ND and turn away from it.
  5. Check PROG page EO MAX altitude
  6. WZZ151 PAN PAN PAN, engine failure descending to FL240 (EO MAX).
  7. We set speed mach 0.82/300kt and pull.
  8. Altitude on FCU set and pull.
  9. Don´t hurry with the ECAM actions, do it during the descend.

When V/S becomes less than 500ft/min, we set V/S 500ft/min and A/THR on.

84
Q

What should we think about when it comes to the VLS in icing conditions?

A

VAPP = VLS+5kt (config full) and VAPP=VLS+10 other than config full.

85
Q

Limitation for ILS beam. 3. (To be required to perform autoland)

A

G/S angle between 2.5 and -3.15 degrees.
Airport elevation at or below 5750ft.
Below maximum landing weight.

86
Q

Climb flight level 310 and pass IRKED at FL310. How do we do?

A

We go to Irked and put vertically altitude constraint at 31000ft. Then we go to selected speed and reduce our speed to get a higher climb rate. We check the level off arrow on ND and we adjust our speed so we put the arrow on the point.

87
Q

How does the FMGC compute it´s own radio position?

Which navaids are available? Ordning.

What does it use to compute lateral position?

A

Use onside navaids to compute its own radio position = displayed on selected navaid page.

DME/DME (position from two different DME stations), VOR/DME (position from one VOR and one DME station), LOC/DME,

The LOC beam during ILS approach also used for quick update.

88
Q

Maximum altitude for APU START?

Max altitude for APU bleed?

A

41000ft.
20000ft.

89
Q

Minimum oil quantity for A320 ceo and A321 ceo.

Minimum oil quantity for A320 neo and A321 neo.

A

11qts +- 0.3/h.

Minimum 14qts.

90
Q

Maximum gear extension altitude:
Maximum speed which landing gear may be extended?
Maximum speed which landing gear may be retracted?

A

25000ft.
250kt/0.6 MACH
220kt/0.54 MACH.

91
Q

How many Engine ANTI-ICE valves do we have? CEO and NEO.

The hot air is taken from?

How are the valves controlled and operated?

A

We have 1 valve on CEO.
We have 2 valves in the NEO.

Taken from the HP compressor.

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.

92
Q

If we fly near CB and we want to minimise to get in touch with turbulence, with how much should we avoid it?

A

Minimum 5000ft vertically and 20NM Laterally.

93
Q

When and how do we set the pack flow to LO on A320?

A

UNTIL T/C = below 188 passengers
AFTER T/C = IF passengers below 136 = keep on LO otherwise set to normal

94
Q

When and how do we set the pack flow to LO/ECON on on A321?

A

UNTIL T/C = below 225 passengers
AFTER T/C = IF passengers below 162 = keep on LO/ECON ON, otherwise set to normal

95
Q

When will we get ”NAV ATT DISCREPANCY” on ECAM?

A

When the difference between the roll or pitch angle displayed on CAPT and F/O PFDs is greater than 5 degrees.

96
Q

How much is the drift rate on the IRS?

A

0.6NM/h.

97
Q

We will both loose normal indicated airspeed. What should we do?

What does G-loads depends on?

A

We can set the Air data switching to either side to recover.

Depends on AOA and is not related to speed and or/attitude.

98
Q

Pitch is equal to what in level flight?

A

AOA.

99
Q

Why do we push/unload first during stall?

A

Because we need to regain lift in the aircraft wings = speed increases. It’s the first priority, the altitude we loose is secondary. We can only trade altitude for airspeed.

100
Q

Why do we loose more altitude if we do the stall recovery in high altitudes?

A

Because the air is less dense = takes more time to regain lift and we have less margin to critical AOA.

101
Q

What do we do if we get side stick fault?

A

We transfer the controls to the other pilot.

102
Q

What will be displayed on PFD when we get direct law?

A

USE MAN PITCH TRIM. We need to trim the aircraft manually.

103
Q

Landing gears are hydraulically operated. (Green hydraulic system). In some cases we need to the gravity gear extension. We turn it 3 times clockwise.

What does the first, second and third turn do?

A

1st turn = depressurizing the green hydraulic system from the landing gears.

2nd turn = mechanically release the landing gear doors = they open.

3d turn = mechanically release of the landing gears = falls down by it’s own weight and gravity.

104
Q

Engine failure: With engine mode selector on ignition and thrust lever to idle what will the FADEC do?

A

It will try an automatic relight of the engine.

105
Q

If we get ENG 1 or 2 A.ICE valve fault, what happens with we valve?

If we get WING anti ice fault?

A

It will stay in open position.

It will stay in closed position.

106
Q

EVAL1 = 1. We will get “Landing gear right or left main gear tire burst” close to V1.

  1. We will get ”fuel leak R-inner or L-inner tank at V1”.
  2. When we retract the gear, we will get ”landing gear retraction fault.

What should we do?

A

We continue to climb to MSA (3600ft). We continue on our SID to Duzla and can Ask for a hold there. Since we get landing gear retraction fault we will fly with the gears down = 180% more fuel consumption. Request ECAM actions only when climbing on a safe climb.

We will probably get “L/G gear uplock fault or L/G not uplocked on ECAM” and we will do the procedure.

We will do the fuel leak procedure on QRH and shut down one engine. When the engine is shut down the leak should stop. This means we are going to perform the approach and landing with one engine only.

We will perform FDODAR, on A = we will inform the crew and make a NITS, we can report PAN PAN to the tower and our intention is to come back for an approach.

Since we will have poor visibility RVR 200m the captain should land with autoland. Below 1000ft the required visibility is below minima but we can continue to the DH and decide otherwise go-around.

107
Q

When we get landing gear retraction fault in the STATUS page we will see “FMS PRED unrealiable” what does this mean? 4

A
  1. Disregard FMS fuel predictions. Refer to the QRH/fuel penalty factors/ECAM alert table.
  2. Disregard FMS altitude and speed predictions.
  3. So not use managed speed mode except in approach.
  4. Do not use CLB and DES autopilot modes. Very important.
108
Q

EVAL 2: 1. Downwind LHBP RWY31R 4000ft. We will get TCAS TA and RA. Shortly before it we will get AUTO FLT TCAS MODE FAULT = we need to fly it manually. How is the procedure for PF and PM?

  1. We continue to approach, icing conditions, before we descend below 3000ft and we set the ENG A/ICE on = we will get ENG 1 or 2 A.ice fault. The valves will stay on open position. At DA = we go around and PF will be incapacitated.
A
  1. PF: TCAS I HAVE CONTROL, when RA comes = AP OFF order FD’s off climb to the green area.

PM: Turns off the FD’s and inform ATC, WZZ131 TCAS RA

When clear of conflict = PF descend to the last altitude (4000ft), engage AP and FD’s.
PM informs ATC “WZZ131 clear of conflict, descending to 4000ft”.

109
Q

ENG STALL before V1 at LVO 125m= RTO. What should the F/O call out? 5.

Which procedure should we do?

A

Spoilers, reverse green, decel, inform ATC “WZZ132 stopping” and locate EMER EVAC checklist.

Since we are in ground we don’t use the QRH ENG STALL procedure. We can because it has a ground section but it’s same as ECAM. It’s read and to with no confirmation on ground = THR lever affected engine = idle and ENG master affected engine = OFF. We don’t need to discharge the fire bottles/agents.

110
Q

Tailpipe fire. Which procedure do we do?

On the checklist it says “Establish air bleed pressure”, what do they mean?

A

We don’t have ECAM for this, we stop the aircraft with parking brake and do the ENG tailpipe procedure on QRH.

Select APU ON or opposite bleed (opposite engine) to motor the engine. In this case we have the other engine which are supplying bleed we don’t need APU.

111
Q

Engine failure, threshold 31R with RVR125m. Which engine failure will we get?

A

ENG failure (damage) and extinguishable fire by first agent.

112
Q

ENG failure (damage) with fire at V1.

A

PF: Establish centerline with rudder, climb gently to 12.5 degrees pitch and then follow SRS. Start trimming of the rudder to have the ball centered.

PM says positive climb and then gear up, cancel master caution and announces the title of the failure on ECAM.

PF gets NAV on FMA, reads it and says pull heading. Connects the AP.

PF: At 400ft RA or 900ft on altimeter = I have control, I have communication confirm failure.
PF inform to ATC: MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY engine failure STBY.

PM: Confirms the failure with the indication on ECAM and overhead panel.

PF: ECAM actions.

PM: ENG mode SEL = IGNITION,
THR LEVER 1 idle -> PF: THR LEVER 1 idle confirm? PM: confirmed -> PF: IDLE.
PM: ENG master 1 off, confirm? -> PF: Confirmed. PM: OFF.
PM: ENG 1 fire push button push, confirm? -> PF: Confirmed, PM; pushed.
PM: Agent 1 discharge = discharged.
Fire extinguishers and PM says “Engine is secured”

PF: STOP ECAM. At D3 BUD = set direct Zurfa and set FCU altitude 3000ft.
PF: INFORMS tower “mayday WZZ131 intentions is to fly to Zurfa and hold at 3000ft”

PF: At ENG ACC altitude = 2000ft = pushes to level off. At S-speed = flaps 0.
PM disarm the spoilers and turn off taxi and RWY turnoff lights.

PF: Activate secondary.

PF: At green dot speed = pull altitude to climb with OPEN climb.

PF: Continue ECAM.

PM: Continue with the ECAM and say “Clear ENG 1 fail?” PF: Clear.
PM: Status, PF: STOP ECAM, any paper checklists or computer resets? PM: negative, PF = continue ECAM. PM reads status and asks remove STATUS? PF: Remove status. PM: ECAM ACTIONS completed.

113
Q

Final 31R CAT3B at 200FT = we will get AUTO FLIGHT drift LOC beam = red Autoland light flashes.

A

PF = Go-around flaps.
PM: sets the flaps om step up and says positive climb.
PF = gear up.
PM = gear up, flaps 3, 3000ft Checked.
PM = informs Tower ”WZZ131 going around”

114
Q

Final 31R, Autoland CAT3B. Actions from PM. 5

A

1.Flare/no flare earliest at 40ft latest at 30ft,
2. Rollout when one main landing gear touches the ground
3. Spoilers, reverse green, decel, 70kt.
4. Check CPT disconnects AP before runway vacated.
5. Inform TWR = WZZ131 RWY vacated.

115
Q

Base leg RWY31R RNP Z with OEI go-around at DA. Manually flown = both AP’s fails. When do we arm the approach?

Fully managed. Final APP? Continue with the procedure until landing.

A

CPT orders and F/O sets everything since the AP’s are failed.

When FDP is the next TO point on ND = after BP865 = BP864.

Final APP = we set go around altitude 3000ft.

F/O: Next distance 5, 2060. On profile, next distance 4 1740 etc. continue with this until CPT says visual.

At or before DA 700ft CPT will say: FD’s off, bird on, set RWY track
F/O = will turn off the FD’s, set the bird on, and set RWY track 307 degrees.

Then normal go around procedures.

116
Q

2D approach LOC 31R OEI. What should we do? 8 steps.

A
  1. Increase MDA by 30ft. = 820ft.
  2. Select GPWS G/S mode switch to off.
  3. Onside AP only.
  4. Select bird on.
  5. PM: 1 mile to descent point at D9.1 BPR.
    - PF preselects -3.0 degrees on FPA
  6. PM: Descent point at D8.4 BPR, next distance 7 2650
    - PF pulls the V/S and sets the go around altitude when we are below 3000ft. In this case both the platform altitude and the go around altitude is same (3000ft).
  7. PM: On profile, next distance 6 2330 etc.
  8. At MDA or before PF will say: A/P, FD’s off, set RWY track (307 degrees).
117
Q

F/O: Go around with 2 engines (high energy) 500ft below go-around altitude.

If we get go around above go-around altitude?

A

We can set TOGA to activate the go around phase and then go back to CLB.
PF: Go-around flaps.
PM: Sets flaps one step up. If gear was down he announces positive climb.

Follow the missed approach procedure.

PF: Call cancel approach, disarm the APP mode, keep the thrust on CLB and descend to missed approach altitude with V/S.

118
Q

RHS RTO. 6.

A
  1. I have control.
  2. Apply full reverse.
  3. Stop the aircraft, set parking brake.
  4. Inform ATC, WZZ131 stopping.
  5. Senior to the flight deck.
  6. Inform ATC about this that we need medical assistance, vacate the runway.
119
Q

What is VLS?
It depends on? 2

A

Lowest selectable speed with A/THR.
Depends on aircraft weight and slats/flaps configuration.

120
Q

FUEL USED in the fuel page is derived from?

When will we get that we have LO fuel in the tanks on ECAM?

A

From the fuel flow meters in the tanks. We have 3 of them in each tank.

When the fuel is below 750kg.

121
Q

In case of we do a RTO and after that we want to depart again and ask for a new line up CLEARENCE. What should we do? 2

A
  1. Reset both FD’s and set FCU
  2. Restart standard SOP from the after start checklist.
122
Q

When is the low energy aural alert “speed speed speed” available?

A

Config 2,3 or full.

123
Q

If we perform a RTO and captain says ECAM actions, how do we do it?

A

It is read and do. We don’t need any confirmation on the thrust levers, engine masters, fire push buttons etc.

124
Q

If the A/THR fails, how can we try to recover it?

What happens if A/THR is recovered with AP2?

A

By engaging the other AP or to try to re-engage the A/THR again.

Then The A/THR will be lost again at AP2 disengagement.

125
Q

To minimize flaps wear, when should we extend flaps?

A

VFE - 15kt (FCOM)

126
Q

What happens with FINAL APP if we need to temperature correct?

A

The FINAL APP Will not engage = we can’t fly RNP VNAV/LNAV approach.

127
Q

What is the maximum discrepancy between the altimeters during descend when we EX read the approach checklist?

A

100ft.

128
Q

We fly RNAV (GNSS) approach, what happens if we get GPS PRIMARY LOST or NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on one ND?

If we get Maximum XTK more than how much and VDEV how much we perform go around?

A

We switch the AP to the remaining one.

XTK 0.3 NM
VDEV = 3/4 = 75ft.

129
Q

Low visibility operations are operations which includes: 4

A

Manual TAKEOFF RVR below 550m
Autocoupled approach to below DH with manual flare, landing and rollout
Autocoupled approach followed by auto land, auto flare and manual rollout
Autocoupled approach followed by auto land, auto flare and auto rollout when RVR is below 400m.

130
Q

The TCAS system consists of? 4

A

Single chanel TCAS computer
Two TCAS antennas
Two mode S transponders, one active one on STBY.
An ATC/TCAS control panel.

131
Q

If we have AP/FD TCAS onboard and AP is not working, how should we fly when RA comes?

A

We can follow the FD´s in this case, we don´t need to turn them off.

132
Q

If we have intruders with no reporting altitude, we will see them on the ND but without altitudes.
The TCAS never triggers any?
TCAS inhibits the TA when the own aircraft is above?

A

RA.
Above 15500ft.

133
Q

If we choose THRT on TCAS panel it means?
If we select ALL?

A

Proximate and other intruders are only displayed if a TA or RA is present, It detects 2700ft above and 2700ft below.

Proximate and other intruders are displayed even if no TA or RA is present, range is 2700ft above and 2700ft below.

134
Q

The traffic on ND is presented on which modes and which range?

A

In all Rose modes and ARC mode (not planned mode) when range 10, 20 or 40NM is selected.

135
Q

How is other intruders displayed on ND?
How is proximate displayed on ND?
When is the vertical speed arrow displayed beside?

A

White empty diamond.
White filled diamond.
Only if the intruders VS is more than 500ft/min.

136
Q

In case of TA detection, which warning to we get?
What do we do if we get the message LEVEL OFF LEVEL OFF

A

TRAFFIC TRAFFIC
Set V/S = 0. Level off.

137
Q

What do we do if we get any CLIMB RA in approach in CONF 3 or FULL?

A

GO around.

138
Q

If we have AP/FD TCAS and we get an TA adivisory what do we do? RA?
If we don´t have AP/FD TCAS and gets an TA? RA? When clear of conflict?

A

We read FMA TCAS BLUE and guard the stick. We check FMA that TCAS is green and call TCAS.
We call “TCAS I HAVE CONTROL”. AP off, order FD´s off and go to the green area. Clear of conflict = smoothly recover to cleared flight level, order FD´s on , set AP on.

139
Q

How do we perform a fuel check?

A

We add the fuel used to the remaining fuel and compare it with the FINAL BLOCK fuel we had on departure.

140
Q

If fuel of one wing tank decreases abnormally fast what can we expect?
If the fuel flow is excessive?

A

Leak from engine/pylon or hole in a tank.
Leak from engine, it uses abnormally more fuel.

141
Q

Why don´t we use the ENGINE FIRE pushbuttons or agents in case of TAILPIPE FIRE?
What is important to ask ATC/GROUND after the procedure is done?

A

FIRE PUSHBUTTONS = It will cut the FADEC power supply and this prevents the dry crank sequence which is the only action against tailpipe fire.

AGENTS = they will be discharged outside of the engine core on the part of engine that is not affected by tailpipe fire.

Ask if they still see fire and if not, we can continue to complete the checklist.

142
Q

When landing on contaminated runway it is recommended to?

A

To perform a positive landing to minimze the risk of hydroplanning.

143
Q

If we land with decrabbing and we apply full reverse we can get a tendacy of skidding to the wind, what should we do?

A

We set the thrust reversers to idle to cancel the thrust reverse force and when aligned on centerline, we can re-apply full reverse.

144
Q

Which ilussions can we get when landing on narrow runway?
The dispatch TO/FROM a narrow runway is not allowed in case of? 2

A

That we are higher than what we actually are.
Nose wheel steering is inoperative and if one brake or more is inoperative.

145
Q

A RED MASTER WARNING REQUIRES? (level 3)
A AMBER MASTER WARNING REQUIRES? (level 2)
AMBER CAUTION REQUIRES? (level 1)

First pilot to notice (usually PM) any warning does what?

A

Immediate action but does not take priority of the safety of the flight.
Require crew actions when time permits.
Requies crew awereness only.

Resets the warning/caution and read the title of the failure on ECAM.

146
Q

What should we do after the FDODAR and we have informed ATC that we are ready for approach?

A

We do the approach checklist.

147
Q

What does the callout READY mean before applying TOF THRUST? 3

A

RWY and departure area has been checked (cleared of birds etc.)
WX radar has been checked.
Airborne frequency is prepered in the standby window.

148
Q

What is the 100kt callout?
WIZZ AIR POLICY, above 100kt we should not reject the TOF in case of?

A

To assist the decision making of RTO, the takeoff is divied into two regimes, low and high speed where 100kt is the dividing line.

In case of electrical failures.

149
Q

As mach number increases, airflow over?

What happens at the critical AOA?

Difference between straight and swept wings?

A

Airflow over parts of the airplane begins to exceed the speed of sound = shock waves = can cause local flow seperation and buffet.

The flow breaks down and the surface is considered stalled.

Swept wings stall at higher AOA = stall may not be well defined.

150
Q

The flight path angle is the same as?

A

Same as the bird. Difference between the flight path vector and the horizon.

151
Q

Only what directly determines whether the aerodynamic surfaces on the airplane is stalled or not?

A

Only the AOA, the wings only know the AOA.

152
Q

Load factor (n) is a measure of?
n = x/y

To maintain altitude in a banked turn?

A

Measure of loads on the airplane structure during flight.
n = lift / weight.
The lift produced by the airplane must be more than the weight of the airplane = load factor will increase. Otherwise we will descend.

153
Q

Any changes of the G-LOAD changes what?
At higher g-loads, critical AOA is?

A

Changes the stall speed.
Reached at higher speeds.

154
Q

Green dot and VLS is based on?
Why can we sometine has different values on VALPHA PROT AND VALPHA MAX on the both PFD´s?

A

On the weight of the aircraft (when we insert ZFW).
Becuase CAS comes from different sources for the left and right PFD.

155
Q

In normal law, what will happen if we exceed the AOA value of the Valpha prot?

A

High AOA protections kicks in = nose down pitch rate ordered by the flight controls. Further increasing the AOA = Valpha MAX = Alpha floor = TOGA = TOGA lock.

156
Q

Valpha prot and Valpha MAX air mainly computed based on the and will vary with? 3

A

AOA and it will vary with configuration, weight and load factor.

157
Q

The engines and the APU have a fire and overheat detection system. How many loops are installed on each?

How many engine fire sensing elements?

What process all the warnings and cautions to the cockpit?

A

Two identical detection loops (A and B).

Three or four engine fire sensing elements.

A fire detection unit FDU.

158
Q

Maximum bank in normal law?
Above how many degrees will the aircraft go back to in normal law during bank?
If AOA protection is active, what is the maximum bank?
If high speed protection is active?
What happens if the bank angle exceeds 45 degrees?

A

67 degrees.
33 degrees. Below 33 we can just put the aircraft in a bank and it will keep it. Above 33 degrees if we release the side stick it will go back to 33 degrees.
It will not go beyond 45 degrees.
40 degrees.
AP disconnects and the FD bars dissapears.

159
Q

What appears on the PFD when we loose normal law?

A

The green = is replaced with amber X crosses.

160
Q

What dissapears if we get alternate law?
Which law is still there?

A

High speed-, pitch attitude- and AOA protection are not available.
The load factor protection is there.

161
Q

Do we have any protections in direct law?

A

No, everything is lost. Inputs are direct sent to the control surfaces, skips the computers.

162
Q

From which tank do we first use the fuel airborne after slats extension and why?

When does the center tank pumps stop during ground operation? How long does it work after engine start regardless of the slats? Which pumps has priority?

A

We use from the center tank first because the center tank pumps has priority over the wing tank pumps.

When the slats are extended. Run for 2 min. Center tank pumps have priority over the wing pump = they run = fuel to the engines from the center tanks for 2min. After 2min they close again because the slats are extended. While airborne and slats extended = they takes over again.

163
Q

Can the hydraulic fluid be transferred from one system to another?

Which hydraulic system pressurize the landing gear?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize slats?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize flaps?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize normal brakes?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize the rudder?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize Reverse 1?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize Reverse 2?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize nose wheel steering?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize alternate brakes and the parking brake?

Which hydraulic systems pressurize cargo doors?

A

No, we can´t transfer fluid but we can transfer pressure with the PTU.

Green.

Green and blue

Green and yellow.

Green.

Green, yellow, blue

Green

Yellow

Yellow

Yellow

164
Q

In order to start the pushback, we must check that the nose wheel steering selector is in towing position = disconnected. What MEMO needs to be displayed on the ECAM memo?

When does the NW STRG DISC becomes amber and what does it indicate?

A

Green NW STRG DISC.

When one engine is started, indicate that taxi is not possible because we don´t have any nose wheel steering. This means that NW STRK DISC memo should be dissapeared from the E/WD before we start the taxi.

165
Q

What do we check before we set the parking brake and why? 2

A
  1. We check the side that aircraft is not moving.
  2. We check the accumulator pressure if it is in the green area = the accumulator should be able to hold the brake pressure for 12h (if we loose the yellow hyd system). We check how much pressure is sent to the left and right brakes.
166
Q

When does the amber L/G CTL come on the WHEEL page?

A

In transit position, never stop the lever in transit position.

167
Q

IR in ATT position it means?

A

ADIRU´s provide only attitude and heading data (IR) and the heading must be inserted by the crew thorugh MCDU and must be reset every 10min.

168
Q

How is the engine built up? 7

A
  1. We have the FAN.
  2. LP compressor
  3. Variable bleed valve
  4. HP compressor
  5. Combustion chamber
  6. LP turbine
  7. HP turbine
169
Q

Why do we start the ENG 2 first?

A

It powers the yellow hydraulic system, that pressurize the parking brake.

170
Q

What is the N1 and the N2?

A

N1 = The rotation speed of the fan.
N2 = The rotation speed of the HP rotor/compressor.

171
Q

Which 3 modes do we have in normal law?

A

Ground mode = when aircrafts wheel touches the ground
Flight mode = Becomes active from 80kt and remains active until shortly before touchdown.
Flare mode = Active at 50ft RA.

172
Q

In normal law, the pitch and bank is limited to? “the green =”

A

30 degrees up and 15 degrees down and 67 degrees bank.

173
Q

Engine failure with no damage may be recognized by? 5

A

Just check the N2. If you have N2 = it’s not damage.

Rapid decrease in EGT, N2, FF followed by decrease in N1 or EPR.

174
Q

We can suspect engine damage if the crew observes two or more of the following symptoms; 5

A

Rapid increase of EGT above the red line
Significantly increase of vibrations/buffeting
Hydraulic system loss
Repeated or uncontrollable engine stalls
Amber crosses

175
Q

Ground mode to flight mode in pitch transition occurs when?

A

After liftoff only after 5s and after pitch 8 degrees is set.

176
Q

In ground mode the relationship between side stick deflection and elevator deflection is?

After transition to flight mode?

A

Direct with no auto trim.

The side stick controllers set the elevator and THS to maintain load factor proportional to stick deflection and independent of speed.

177
Q

Automatic pitch trim freezes below?

A

50ft. Thereafter follow SRS and release stick to neutral.

178
Q

If engine fails at 1000ft AAL what should we do?

A

Select TOGA and climb to minimum 1500ft AAL and engine secured before clean-up.

179
Q

If engine fails after the SID turn what should we do?

A

Continue on SID, select TOGA, climb to MSA before level off and clean up.

180
Q

In case of OEI, why should we delay the gear for landing?

A

Because Large amounts of power will be required to maintain level flight at high weights and/or high altitude airports.

181
Q

TOF: below which speed will the ground spoilers not deploy and the auto brake not active?

A

Below 72kt.

182
Q

In CONF 1+F, F-speed is not displayed on the PFD. Where is it displayed?

A

On the PERF TAKEOFF page. We should check there and then clean up.

183
Q

If the decision has been taken to delay the acceleration (to secure the engine), what shouldn’t we do?

It corresponds to?

A

We should not exceed the engine out MAXIMUM acceleration altitude.

Very important because it Corresponds to maximum altitude that can be achieved with one engine out and the other engine operating at takeoff thrust for a maximum of 10min.

184
Q

The minimum level or altitudes of the standard holding patterns in the chart are only valid for?

A

Only valid for all engines operating.

185
Q

If we have rotation on N2, we can consider?

A

That engine is not damaged

186
Q

When aircraft stationary = on ground, what does the IR’s do with the accelerometers?

The only acceleration detected by the accelerometers is?

What does it do with the gyroscopes on ground?

A

It level the accelerometers with the horizon and determine the direction of true north.

Rotation of the earth.

Gyroscopes detects only earths gravity and based in that it can measure the true north. Then it uses the variation to give us the magnetic north/heading.

187
Q

Emergency evacuation: What do you say 1000ft above aerodrome?

500ft AAL?

A

Cabin crew at stations, cabin crew at station

Brace brace

188
Q

If we are going to land with one engine, what should we do with the rudder when we disconnect autopilot with 1 engine inoperative?

A

IMPORTANT: Even if you disconnect the AP, the aircraft is already trimmed so don’t puss the rudder! Just leave it. At 50ft over threshold PM will reset the rudder and then for landing you can use it to maintain directional control.

189
Q

What does it mean with ”clearence limit” on LIDO chart?

A

We can not pass the point without CLEARENCE = we should enter the holding in the FMS and go in to the gold if we don’t get further CLEARENCE to proceed.

190
Q

When the A/THR is active, the A/THR thrust target is sent to the? Continue with the whole process.

A

To the FADECs. They computes thrust commands in accordance with the aircraft environment and status. The commands are then sent to the engines.

191
Q

When is the soft go around function active?

How do we perform a soft go-around?

A

Only with both engines operative.

We apply TOGA initially, and then we read FMA and set the thrust to MCT (MAN GA SOFT will appear on FMA). At thrust reduction altitude, we see LVR CLB on FMA and we set CLB.

192
Q

For a nose low upset = speed, altitude and VSI?

A

Airspeed increasing, altitude decreasing and VSI indicates descend.

193
Q

For a nose high upset = speed, altitude and VSI?

A

Airspeed decreasing, altitude increasing and VSI indicates a climb.

194
Q

High upset: 6

A
  1. Confirm stalled condition = “stall I have control.”
  2. AP and A/THR OFF
  3. Nose down below horizon, keep it there
  4. Increase thrust to decrease the nose down pitch moment.
  5. Roll to wings level
  6. Recover to level flight.
195
Q

Low upset, 5

A
  1. Confirm stalled condition (nose high upset/nose low upset).
  2. AP and A/THR OFF
  3. Roll to wings level
  4. Adjust A/THR = decrease/use speed brakes to not over speed.
  5. Recover to level flight.
196
Q

When do we get “LDG GEAR NOT UPLOCKED” on ECAM?
When passing 750ft RA, we can get an ECAM warning saying “L/G not selected down”, it means?

A

When both LGCIU´s detects that it´s not downlocked. BOTH triangles are red on the WHEEL SD PAGE.

It just a warning to the crew that the gear is not set to DOWN while the aircraft is in landing configuration. Nothing with the LGCIU´s.

197
Q

How can we confirm that the L/G is down if one LGCIU detects that it´s not? 2

The name of this failure is?

A

One green triangle is enough on the WHEEL SD PAGE and also the memo on the E/WD = LDG LDG GEAR DN”.

A sensor failure.

198
Q

What is critical angle of attack?
Corresponds to which value?
How to recover?

A

Where lift reaches maximum and begins to decrease = the AOA where the lift startes to decrease is critical AOA.

CLMAX.
AOA must be decreased below the CLMAX value.

199
Q

What affects the stall speed? 3

A

Changing weight, manueveuring the aircraft (increase in load factor), configuration changes.

200
Q

Stall is only what problem?

A

Only AOA problem, not a speed problem.

201
Q

Stall recovery: 5

A

Stall I have control.
Nose pitch control = down to the bird
Bank = wings level.
Thrust increase when AOA of stall.
Flight path recover.

202
Q

Stall recovery should be applied as soon as? 3

A

(aural warning, buffeting, lack of pitch and roll control.)

203
Q

When we get IR fault, status tell is that IR may be available at ATT mode. How can we see if it is available in ATT mode or not?

A

We check overhead IR, if we have a fault light in it = it’s not available in ATT mode.

204
Q

If you don’t have a FMA, should we arm the LOC and APPR?

What about the LS Button?

A

It doesn’t matter to be honest. You don’t have it so it Will not help you.

Probably we will fly manually so It’s important to set the LS button on and just follow the FD’s.

205
Q

If we get Low fuel in one tank, ECAM will tell us to set the X-feed button to ON and pumps of one the lighter side. What should we do?

What can the consequence of it be?

A

We set the X-feed on and we don’t switch of the pumps, we disregard that part.

Because when we select the pumps off, it will only feed fuel from the side where the pumps are on. Imagine in case of go around, we have almost nothing on the feeding side and we have very low fuel there and the pumps are off on the other side = we will end up with no fuel fuel in the side we had the pumps on = it will end up with we have no fuel on that side = engines will shut down and we will crash.

206
Q

If we are going to perform autoland and we get red master warning below approach ban. Should we perform a go-around?

A

No. Any red Master warning = we continue even if we don´t see anything.

LPC (1 decks)

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