NMAT

Question 1

Three animals have different forelimbs. Animal 1 has flippers, animal 2 has wings, and animal 3 has no limbs. Which of the following gives the corresponding functions of the forelimbs of these animals?

A. Animal 1 = running
Animal 2 = climbing
Animal 3 = swimming

B. Animal 1 = walking
Animal 2 = swimming
Animal 3 = crawling

C. Animal 1 = swimming
Animal 2 = flying
Animal 3 = crawling

D. Animal 1 = diving
Animal 2 = flying
Animal 3 = jumping

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Cardiac muscle cells are connected by regions of intercalated discs which contain the gap junctions and the ___.

A. T tubule
B. sarcomere
C. desmosome
D. cardiac myofibril

Answer 2

C

Question 3

What is the structure and function of lipids?

A. They have an amino acid sequence that is programmed by a unit of inheritance known as a gene; thus, they can store and transmit hereditary information
B. They include polymers, generally with molecular formulas that are multiples of the unit CH2O; thus, they can serve as fuel and building material
C. They have many structures, resulting in a wide range of functions; thus, they can serve as structures for support, storage, transport, and cellular signaling; and defense against foreign substances
D. They are assembled from smaller molecules such as glycerol by dehydration reactions; thus, they can store large amounts of energy

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following contribute to the speciation of an organism?

I. Genetic drift
II. Gene flow
III. Mutation

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III

Answer 4

D

Question 5

A woman consulted a doctor because she has the following symptoms: low energy level and fatigue; slow wound healing; poor concentration and trouble learning; and muscle, bone, and joint pain. The patient is most likely suffering from deficiency in ___.

A. carbohydrates
B. nucleic acids
C. proteins
D. lipids

Answer 5

C

Question 6

Which of the following comparisons between active and passive transport systems best describes them?

A. Active transport system does not require ATP molecules, while passive transport system does
B. Passive transport system does not require ATP molecules, while active transport system does
C. Both the active and the passive transport systems require ATP molecules
D. Neither the active nor the passive transport system requires ATP molecules

Answer 6

B

Question 7

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions which are used in the light-independent reactions to produce glucose?

A. H2O and ATP
B. H2O and CO2
C. ATP and NADPH
D. O2 and CO2

Answer 7

C

Question 8

A cell biologist is observing two types of cells, labeled as A and B. Cell A has ribosomes, circular DNA, and no distinct nucleus. Cell B has ribosomes and other organelles, DNA arranged in double helices, and a distinct nucleus. Based on these observations, what type of cells are Cells A and B?

A. Cell A is a eukaryotic cell while Cell B is a prokaryotic cell
B. Cell A is a prokaryotic cell while Cell B is a eukaryotic cell
C. Both Cells A and B are prokaryotic cells
D. Both Cells A and B are eukaryotic cells

Answer 8

B

Question 9

A molecular biologist had successfully determined the partial amino acid sequence of an Aedes aegypti intestinal protein. The tRNA molecules used in the synthesis have the anticodons UACCGAGGAGCUUUUGGA. Given this partial sequence, what is the nucleotide sequence of the DNA chain complementary to the DNA chain that encodes for the intestinal protein?

A. ATGGCTCCTCGAAAACCT
B. ATGGCTCCTCGATTTCCT
C. ATGGCTGGACGAAAACCT
D. ATGGCTCCTCGAAAAGGA

Answer 9

A

Question 10

Which statements is(are) true about mitosis and meiosis?

I. Both processes have two nuclear divisions
II. Both processes are forms of division of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells
III. Mitosis happens in sex cells while meiosis happens in body cells
IV. Mitosis produces two diploid daughter cells while meiosis produces four haploid daughter cells.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. II and IV only

Answer 10

D

Question 11

C6H12O6 + O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP+heat)

What type of metabolism is suggested by the chemical equation shown above?

A. Anabolic
B. Catabolic
C. Exergonic
D. Endergonic

Answer 11

B

Question 12

Cultured cells were treated with a compound in early Gap 1 (G1) phase resulting to arrest before entering S phase. It was identified that similar checkpoint acts during G1 phase to ensure that sufficient growth has occurred before the cells enter S phase. Which of the following was the most plausible mechanism of arrest?

A. Inhibition by Rb activity
B. Overproduction of E2F
C. Inhibition of DNA polymerase
D. Inhibition of G1 cyclin transcription

Answer 12

D

Question 13

Which of the following occurs during the Calvin cycle?

A. Release of O2
B. Release of CO2
C. Production of ATP
D. Production of NADP+

Answer 13

D

Question 14

Certain free ribosomes need to bind to the outer surface of the endoplasmic reticulum to complete their protein synthesis. What is the importance of this process?

A. It converts mRNA into protein
B. It acts as a messenger to produce the appropriate proteins
C. It transcribes proteins encoded by the mitochondrial DNA
D. It prevents the possibility that synthesis of certain proteins will be completed in the cytoplasm

Answer 14

D

Question 15

Which of the following mechanisms in cellular respiration generates the highest yield of ATP molecules?

A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Chemiosmosis
D. Glycogenolysis

Answer 15

C

Question 16

Which of the following diseases are most probably caused by both hereditary and environment?

A. Asthma, cancer, hypertension
B. Hemophilia, Huntington’s disease, osteoporosis
C. Spinal atrophy, muscular atrophy, cri-du-chat syndrome
D. Sickle-cell anemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, cystic fibrosis

Answer 16

A

Question 17

Descendants of Queen Victoria (1819-1901) of England is believed to have suffered from hemophilia B, otherwise known as Christmas disease. Suppose that her affected son married her carrier daughter, what would be the chances of having a normal child?

A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

Answer 17

B

Question 18

A few families in a very remote region show a high frequence of the blue offspring. The skin of affected individuals appears bright blue due to lack of diaphorase. Without diaphorase, a blue form of hemoglobin accumulates in the blood. Which of the following agents of microevolution must have caused this?

A. Artificial selection
B. Natural selection
C. Genetic drift
D. Gene flow

Answer 18

C

Question 19

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the formation of covalent bonds between deoxyribose of one DNA fragment and the PO4 of another DNA fragment?

A. Permease
B. DNA ligase
C. Endonuclease
D. tRNA synthetase

Answer 19

B

Question 20

In this process of gene transfer, the DNA is transferred through the donor that is temporarily joined to the recipient. What must be present in the donor for the process to occur?

A. Temperate phage
B. Lambda phage
C. R plasmid
D. F plasmid

Answer 20

D

Question 21

The following procedure was carried out in an experiment that tried to mass-produce a gene of interest from a newly discovered Bacillus species. Which of these steps allows the gene of interest to get inserted into the bacterial plasmid?

A. The pBR322 DNA and Bacillus DNA were isolated
B. The pBR3322 DNA and Bacillus DNA were cut with BamH1
C. The DNA ligase was added
D. The recombinant plasmid was inserted into the host bacterium

Answer 21

C

Question 22

A hemophiliac man marries a woman who is not hemophiliac. Their first son, as well as their first daughter, exhibited hemophilia. On the other hand, their third offspring, a boy, and their youngest daughter did not exhibit the condition. Which among the patterns of inheritance characterize hemophilia?

A. Incomplete dominance
B. Codominance
C. Sex-influenced inheritance
D. Sex-linked inheritance

Answer 22

D

Question 23

What function do root hairs, lenticels, and pneumatophores have in common?

A. Exchange of gases
B. Absorption of nutrients
C. Maintenance of hydrostatic pressure
D. Anchorage of the plant to its substrate

Answer 23

A

Question 24

A forest that was greatly affected by forest fire became a vast grassland. This is an example of ecological succession. Which of the following is(are) the effects of this succession to the previous organisms inhabiting the said ecosystem?

I. Most of the organisms will be gone or displaced since the new ecosystem is not the same as the previous one
II. Previous organisms will still be living there since it is their original habitat
III. New organisms will invade the place

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only

Answer 24

B

Question 25

What stage of early mammalian development shows that cells can be removed without damaging the development of the embryo?

A. Fetal stage
B. Neurulation stage
C. Gastrulation stage
D. Pre-gastrulation stage

Answer 25

D

Question 26

A pregnant woman has undergone a prenatal screening. It was found out that the embryo has a genetic disorder named Trisomy 21. Which of the following would be the effect of this genetic disorder to the development of the child?

I. The child will have poor neurologic performance
II. The child will experience lag in growth and development
III. The child will reach puberty; however, viability has no assurance

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

Answer 26

D

Question 27

Which of the following developmental stages in annual plants is characterized by fruits and seeds formation?

A. Reproductive
B. Ripening
C. Senescence
D. Vegetative

Answer 27

B

Question 28

A teenager is observed to be physically “immature” than his peers as manifested by his short stature and weak bones. The doctor diagnosed him with pituitary tumor. He was recommended to undergo a hormonal therapy as part of the treatment. To which hormone is he deficient?

A. Insulin
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Growth hormone
D. Insulin-like growth factor 1

Answer 28

C

Question 29

What happens to the stomach of a person who refuses to eat regularly?

A. The stomach constricts and the storage capacity is decreased.
B. The stomach becomes basic since acid is not secreted.
C. Ulcers are formed because gastric juices digest the stomach lining.
D. The opening between the esophagus and the stomach permanently closes.

Answer 29

C

Question 30

Which of the following statements is true about the relationship of antibody and antigen?

A. Antigens and antibodies float free in the blood plasma
B. Antigens and antibodies are substances that are attached to the outer surfaces of white blood cells
C. An antigen is any substance which provokes an immune response in the body, resulting in the production of antibodies.
D. An antigen is any substance which attaches itself to an antibody to kill disease-causing organisms.

Answer 30

C

Question 31

Why is cigarette smoking bad for one’s overall health?

A. When rbc get damaged by smoke and tar, they cannot transport carbon dioxide anymore
B. When the alveoli of the lungs get damaged by tar and carcinogenic chemicals, the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide cannot take place anymore
C. When the nasopharynx area gets damaged by cigarette smoke, a person cannot inhale deeply anymore
D. When the oral cavity and the nasopharynx area get damaged by cigarette smoke, a person will have shortness of breath

Answer 31

B

Question 32

Which of the following properties of lipids makes it hard to digest?

A. Their molecules need an acidic environment before being broken down by the body
B. Their molecules require proper folding before being absorbed by the body
C. They are water insoluble and must be emulsified before absorption by the body
D. They consist of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms that are too complex to be broken down by the body

Answer 32

C

Question 33

Alex suffered a car accident and it was found out that the affected part was his cerebellum. Which of the following symptoms is likely to be observed in Alex’s overall condition?

A. Loss of hearing ability
B. Difficulty of sensing pain
C. Impaired rational thinking
D. Loss of coordination of motor movement

Answer 33

D

Question 34

A patient is diagnosed to have an autoimmune disease that causes raised, red, scaly patches to appear on the skin. His skin cells have an abnormal growth rate, hence the older layers only pile up instead of sloughing off. Which of the following skin conditions is the patient suffering from?

A. Acne
B. Warts
C. Rosacea
D. Psoriasis

Answer 34

D

Question 35

Last summer, George noticed that his skin turned red. Which of the following explains this situation?

A. RBC count elevated due to high temperature, causing the skin to turn red
B. The skin changed color as its response to increasing atmospheric pressure during summer
C. Because of increased external temperature, blood vessels dilated, allowing rush of blood to the skin
D. Redness is one of the signs of inflammatory response of the body which indicates infection

Answer 35

C

Question 36

Which of the following happen(s) when our body temperature becomes higher than normal?

I. Sweat is produced
II. Skin hair is erected
III. Blood vessels constrict

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

Answer 36

A

Question 37

Which of the following modes of transmission of human immunodeficiency virus is(are) correct?

I. Contact with infected sexual fluids
II. An infected mother who breastfeeds
III. Closed-mouth kiss with an infected partner

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III

Answer 37

B

Question 38

Which of the following skin diseases is characterized by hyperproliferation of keratinocytes?

A. Eczema
B. Impetigo
C. Psoriasis
D. Urticaria

Answer 38

C

Question 39

Which disorder can be prevented if women of childbearing age would take 400 micrograms of folic acid daily before conception and during early pregnancy?

A. Microcephaly
B. Beta thalassemia
C. Neural tube defect
D. Congenital coronary heart disease

Answer 39

C

Question 40

Henry loves to eat foods rich in carbohydrates but he lacks regular exercise. What is most likely to be predicted out of the said situation?

A. His liver might fail to function; thus, digestion of fats could be affected
B. His pancreas might fail to function; thus, absorption of glucose could be affected
C. His parietal cells in the stomach might not secrete a normal amount of gastrin
D. His small intestine might over-secrete motilin which stimulates gastric activity

Answer 40

A

Question 41

Which of the following events results to the shortening of sarcomeres in muscle fibrils?

A. Shortening of the t-tubule after the release of calcium ions by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Conformational modifications of the trypomyosin-troponin complex within the muscle fiber
C. Release of ATP from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the attachment of myosin to actin filaments
D. Rapid influx of sodium ions into the cytoplasm after being released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Answer 41

B

Question 42

A cerebellar lesion is suspected in a patient with history of traumatic brain injury. Which of the following tests could NOT initially verify this condition?

A. Gait test
B. Finger to nose test
C. Babinsky reflex test
D. Rapid alternating finger movements test

Answer 42

B

Question 43

[Prostate]

Which part of the female reproductive gland is homologous to the structure of the male reproductive gland marked by the arrow in the diagram above?

A. Bartholin’s gland
B. Skene’s gland
C. Fimbrae
D. G-spot

Answer 43

B

Question 44

Which of the following reproductive hormones is correctly matched with its function?

A. Luteinizing hormone: stimulation of sperm production
B. Estrogen: thickening of uterine lining
C. Oxytocin: production of milk
D. Progesterone: formation of germ cells

Answer 44

A

Question 45

Which of the following statements on contraction of a skeletal muscle is FALSE?

A. A muscle fiber has many mitochondria
B. Acetylcholine is released at the end of the motor neuron
C. A nerve impulse is transmitted from the brain to the muscle
D. ATP is used to make a thin filament slide across the thick filaments of the sarcomeres, thereby causing them to contract

Answer 45

C

Question 46

[Economic development] –> [Global warming] [Ozone depletion] [Habitat destruction]

Which of the following is the best conclusion to the illustration shown above?

A. Industrialization has bad effects to the environment
B. Global warming has the greatest effect on economic development
C. Economic development is the solution to lessen the effects of ecological destruction
D. Global warming, ozone depletion, and habitat destruction may lead to economic development

Answer 46

A

Question 47

Which of the following outcomes of economic development projects have NO environmental impact?

I. Global warming
II. Ozone depletion
III. Wildlife habitat destruction
IV. Greenhouse effect

A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, and III only
D. II, III, and IV only

Answer 47

C

Question 48

[light energy] –> [W] –> [X] –> [Y] –> [Z]

The energy flow in a freshwater ecosystem is shown in the above diagram. Which group of organisms is represented by Box Z?

A. Producers
B. Decomposers
C. Primary consumers
D. Secondary consumers

Answer 48

C

Question 49

[Graph p.9]

What can be concluded from the survivorship curve shown above?

A. Full survival occurs until old age
B. Mortality rate is high for the young
C. Mortality rate is low for the young
D. Mortality occurs at a constant rate over the life span

Answer 49

C

Question 50

Which of the following fields of study best supports evidences from paleontology about evolutionary relationships among species?

A. Ecological genetics
B. Molecular genetics
C. Molecular biology
D. Population genetics

Answer 50

C