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PHLEBOTOMY > NHA EXAM > Flashcards

NHA EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

After a phlebotomist introduces himself to a patient, What is the next step?

a) Correctly identify the patient
b) Determine the test order and specimen requirements
c) Choose the appropriate needle gauge
d) Select the proper collection tubes

A

a) Correctly identify the patient

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2
Q

When collecting a bilirubin sample from a newborn

a) The specimen is collected by scalp draw
b) The puncture depth should not exceed 2.6mm
c) The specimen must be protected from light
d) Milk the heel site vigorously

A

c) The specimen must be protected from light

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3
Q

If a specimen is submitted with the patient’s ward number, date of collection, patient’s DOB, and phlebotomist initials. The lab should do which of the following?

a) Add the patient’s name to the label
b) Reject the sample
c) Call the nurse for instructions
d) Call the phlebotomist to get the patient’s name

A

b) Reject the sample

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4
Q

When performing a dermal puncture on a 1-year-old, the lancet should be?

a) Middle finger
b) The thumb
c) Index finger
d) Pinky finger

A

a) Middle finger

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5
Q

Results from which of the following is point of care testing?

a) Elevated sweat chloride test
b) Positive HIV
c) Elevated blood glucose test
d) Positive hepatitis test

A

c) Elevated blood glucose test

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6
Q

Which of the following is correct when instructing a patient about the phlebotomy procedure?

a) Make a fist and pump once
b) Make a fist and pump twice
c) Make a fist and pump three times
d) Make a fist, but don’t pump

A

d) Make a fist, but don’t pump

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7
Q

Following the blood draw, the patient begins to twitch and shake, his eyes roll back into his head. What do you do?

a) Place an object in the patient’s mouth to protect against injury
b) Begin CPR
c) Restrain the patient
d) Observe the patient

A

d) Observe the patient

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8
Q

Which of the following steps should the phlebotomist take to ensure the safety of herself and a psychiatric patient?

a) Bring the necessary equipment to the patient’s room
b) Bring the entire tray
c) Bring the patient to a common area
d) Bring another phlebotomist

A

d) Bring another phlebotomist

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9
Q

If a patient who was very talkative during and after a blood draw suddenly becomes quiet and stares blankly while you are finishing u labeling the tubes. You should

a) Ask the patient if he is ok
b) Call for help
c) Finish labeling the tubes
d) Lower the patient to the floor

A

a) Ask the patient if he is ok

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10
Q

If you are asked to draw a multi-sample and you forget to draw a tube, what do you do?

a) Keep the specimen drawn and collect the tube missing
b) Obtain the tube from the other tube
c) Call another phlebotomist to draw the missing tube
d) Draw a discard tube and redraw the missing tube

A

d) Draw a discard tube and redraw the missing tube

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11
Q

If you observe a hematoma at the draw site, what do you do?

a) Observe the site to see if the hematoma get bigger
b) Ask the patient to apply pressure to the site
c) Release the tourniquet and stop the draw
d) Call for the nurse to assist

A

c) Release the tourniquet and stop the draw

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12
Q

According to CLSI order of draw, which tube should be collected first?

a) Coagulation
b) Culture
c) Electrolytes
d) Glucoses

A

b) Culture

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13
Q

When drawing blood on a toddler you should?

a) Explain the procedure to the parent and child
b) Not tell the child when the needle is going in
c) Obtain a heel stick
d) Obtain a thumb stick

A

a) Explain the procedure to the parent and child

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14
Q

The additive in the lavender tube is?

a) EDTA
b) Sodium citrate
c) ACD
d) Potassium oxalate

A

a) EDTA

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15
Q

Because of the time between collection and plasma separation, which of the following must be done?

a) Hemostasis
b) Centrifuge
c) Centripetal
d) Homeostasis

A

b) Centrifuge

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16
Q

All test results of hosptial patients are available via?

a) Phone
b) Intranet
c) Mail
d) Fax

A

b) Intranet

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17
Q

Which of the following violates a patient’s right to confidentiality?

a) Sharing collection site info with another phlebotomist
b) Discussing the patients result with lab personnel
c) Posting the patient’s test result in the hospital computer
d) Providing the partner’s lab result on the telephone

A

d) Providing the partner’s lab result on the telephone

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18
Q

If you are asked to draw blood from newborn, which of the following is a possible complication?

a) Hemolytic anemia
b) Iatrogenic anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) Sickle cell anemia

A

b) Iatrogenic anemia

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19
Q

Hemoconcentration is most often caused by?

a) Site is prepared with iodine
b) Tourniquet is on for the longer than two minutes
c) Specimen is not refrigerated within 30 minutes
d) The needle is removed before the tourniquet

A

b) Tourniquet is on for the longer than two minutes

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20
Q

Stool specimens need to be refrigerated for 24 hour collection of

a) Ova and parasite
b) Guaiac
c) Fat and urobilinogen
d) Occult blood

A

c) Fat and urobilinogen

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20
Q

Which of the following causes hemolysis?

a) Using too large a needle
b) Allowing the blood to clot before centrifuging
c) Vigorously inverting the tubes
d) Leaving the tourniquet on for 30-60 seconds

A

c) Vigorously inverting the tubes

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20
Q

Which of the following is a sign of shock during venipuncture?

a) The patient has pale, cold, clammy and diaphoresis
b) A hematoma begins to form at the venipuncture site
c) The patient has rapid deep respirations
d) The patient reports feeling hot and faint

A

a) The patient has pale, cold, clammy and diaphoresis

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21
Q

Which of the following must be followed exactly when drawing samples for a legal proceeding

a) Tier II precautions
b) Isolation precautions
c) Chian of custody
d) Chain of command

A

c) Chain of custody

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22
Q

Two swabs are sent to the lab from the same patient. One is labeled and one is not. What do you do?

a) Run both test because the specimens arrived at the lab together
b) Run the test on the labeled swab
c) Contact the department to recollect the specimen
d) Call the department nurse to verify the unlabeled specimen

A

b) Run the test on the labeled swab

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23
Q

When labeling a non-blood specimen, why is it important to place the label on the container and not the lid?

a) It’s easier to read on the lid
b) The label is more susceptible to contamination if it’s on the lid
c) The id will become contaminated by the nonblood specimen
d) Once the lid is removed, the specimen is unlabeled

A

d) Once the lid is removed, the specimen is unlabeled

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24
Q

When performing capillary collection, which specimen is collected last

a) Serum tubes
b) Blood smears
c) EDTA tubes
d) Sodium citrate

A

a) Serum tubes

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25
Q

Which of the following actions is essential to prevent injury when lifting an object?

a) Lifting using leg muscle
b) Lifting higher than the waist
c) Lifting using the back muscles
d) Lifting using abdominal muscles

A

a) Lifting using leg muscle

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26
Q

Blood bank phlebotomy is performed using which gauge?

a) 12-14 gauge
b) 16-18 gauge
c) 21-22 gauge
d) 23-25 gauge

A

b) 16-18 gauge

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27
Q

If a patient becomes lightheaded or faint during the phlebotomy process, which of the following is done first?

a) Remove the needle
b) Remove the tourniquet
c) Remove patient from chair
d) Remove the ammonia inhalant from the tray

A

b) Remove the tourniquet

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28
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding peripheral blood smear?

a) Ridged edge
b) Feathered edge
c) Straight edge
d) Uneven edge

A

b) Feathered edge

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29
Q

Prior to collecting a dermal puncture, the phlebotomist should

a) Apply ice to numb area
b) Select lancet size
c) Use betadine to completely cleanse the area
d) USe chlorhexidine to completely cleanse area

A

b) Select lancet size

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30
Q

How can you tell if a tube contains serum or plasma?

a) SST in the collection tube indicated plasma
b) Sodium fluoride in the tubes indicates serum
c) Sodium citrate in the tube indicates serum
d) EDTA in the tube indicates plasma

A

a) SST in the collection tube indicates plasma

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31
Q

Which of the following pairs of blood tests are appropriate for fasting specimens?

a) Glucose and triglycerides
b) BUN and alkaline phosphatase
c) Creatinine and total protein
d) Lactate dehydrogenase and albumin

A

a) Glucose and triglycerides

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32
Q

If a patient has a running IV in their arm, the preferred drawing site is

a) Distal
b) Proximal
c) Medial
d) Lateral

A

a) Distal

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33
Q

Which of the following complication is associated with dermal puncture?

a) Osteomyelitis
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Osteoporosis
d) Osteosarcoma

A

a) Osteomyelitis

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34
Q

During a blood draw the patient moves and the needle comes out, what is the first thing you do?

a) Release the tourniquet
b) Engage the safety lock
c) Apply pressure to the puncture site
d) Reinsert the needle into the arm

A

c) Apply pressure to the puncture site

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35
Q

Which of the following is a common complication when using a needle that is too small?

a) Hemoconcentration
b) Collapsed vein
c) Hemolysis
d) Hemodialysis

A

c) Hemolysis

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36
Q

When transporting an ABG

a) Collect specimen in an SST
b) Place specimen in ice
c) Collect in sodium citrate tube
d) Insert the specimen in light-resistant package

A

b) Place specimen in ice

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37
Q

What is a safe volume of blood to be drawn before the patient faces iatrogenic anemia?

a) 5% of body weight
b) 10% of body weight
c) 15% of body weight
d) 20% of body weight

A

b) 10% of body weight

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38
Q

After cleaning the collection site the phlebotomist should?

a) Allow it to air dry
b) Wipe it dry with a piece of sterile gauze
c) Dry the agent by blowing it
d) Blot it dry using a piece of sterile gauze

A

a) Allow it to air dry

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39
Q

Dermal punctures performed on infants are routinely collected on?

a) Lateral plantar surface
b) Lateral surface of the index finger
c) Medial surface of the thumb
d) Medial antecubital fossa

A

a) Lateral plantar surface

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40
Q

When entering a patient’s room, the phlebotomist should?

a) Ask the nurse or doctor for the patient’s name
b) Wash your hands
c) Prepare the tubes and needles for procedure
d) Introduce yourself and explain the procedure

A

d) Introduce yourself and explain the procedure

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41
Q

Which of the following is the minimum amount of blood for an infant blood culture

a) 0.5 mL
b) 1.0 mL
c) 1.5 mL
d) 2.0 mL

A

d) 2.0 mL

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42
Q

Which of the following is the correct way to identify a hospital patient?

a) Ask the patient to state the name and date of birth that’s on the requistion
b) State the patient name and date of birth so the patient can verify their identity
c) Use the medical chart to verify the patient identity
d) Compare the patient’s identification band to the name assigned to the patient’s bed

A

a) Ask the patient to state the name and date of birth that’s on the requisition

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43
Q

Alcohol level is collected in a tube containing?

a) Sodium citrate
b) EDTA
c) SPS
d) Sodium fluoride

A

d) Sodium fluoride

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44
Q

When is hemostasis important after a venipuncture?

a) It prevents fibrinolysis of the blood
b) It prevents the process of clot formation
c) It promotes destruction of red blood cells
d) It promotes vasocontriction

A

d) It promote vasoconstriction

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45
Q

Which of the following veins should always be avoided unless patient’s physician permits it?

a) Basilic
b) Cephalic
c) Brachiocephalic
d) Dorsalis pedis

A

d) Dorsalis pedis

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46
Q

When instructing a patient on collection of C & S stool specimen, which of the following is correct?

a) Retrieve stool specimen from the toilet
b) Chill the stool specimen in the container
c) Avoid urinating in the stool specimen collection container
d) Collect the stool specimen in the morning

A

c) Avoid urinating in the stool specimen collection container

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47
Q

When instructing a patient on collecting a urine specimen for a UTI, the patient should?

a) Collect the sample in a clean container
b) Collect the sample mid-stream
c) Collect a first morning specimen
d) Collect a 24 hour urine specimen

A

b) Collect the sample mid-stream

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48
Q

Which is used when a patient has fragile veins?

a) Syringe
b) Evacuated tube system
c) Winged infusion set
d) Heel stick

A

c) Winged infusion set

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49
Q

What happens when you use a tube that has expired?

a) Loss of vacuum
b) Hemoconcentration
c) Hemolysis
d) Elevation of red blood cell count

A

a) Loss of vacuum

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50
Q

If a patient tells you they faint while having their blood drawn, which position should you put them in?

a) High fowlers
b) Lateral recumbent
c) Supine
d) Anatomical

A

c) Supine

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51
Q

Failure to introduce yourself to the patient and entering their room without permission is?

a) Negligence
b) Breach of confidentiality
c) Malpractice
d) Invasion of privacy

A

d) Invasion of privacy

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52
Q

After collecting a bilirubin sample, you must do what?

a) Chill the sample
b) Protect the specimen from light
c) Spin down and freeze the specimen
d) Transfer specimen to light blue tube

A

b) Protect the specimen form the light

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53
Q

What’s the correct order of draw for capillary specimen?

a) SST, green, lavender, gray
b) Lavender, SST, green, gray
c) Green, gray, SST, lavender
d) Lavender, green, gray, SST

A

d) Lavender, green, gray, SST

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54
Q

OSHA guidelines and standards are for which of the following?

a) Patient identification and protection of health information
b) Point of care testing and ensuring quality control
c) Reduction of risks and injuries to the employee
d) Quality assurance and control for safety and health administration

A

c) Reduction of risks and injuries to the employees

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55
Q

When performing a heel stick or the purpose of obtaining a PKU test, it is important to?

a) Wrap the site with a heel warmer for minutes
b) Wipe away the first drop of blood
C) Keep pressure dressing on the site for a day
d) Target the central arch area of the foot for the least amount of comfort

A

b) Wipe away the first drop of blood

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56
Q

Which vein is preferred vein for venipuncture?

a) Brachial
b) Median basilic
c) Cephalic
d) Median cubital

A

d) Median cubital

57
Q

When obtaining blood cultures from an adult patient, it is recommended that the Phlebotomist collect how many mL per bottle?

a) 1-2 mL
b) 3-4 mL
c) 5-7 mL
d) 8-10 mL

A

d) 8-10 mL

58
Q

What do you do if you have to draw blood from a patient who had a right sided mastectomy?

a) Use a 23 gauge needle
b) Do not use a tourniquet
c) Draw from opposite arm
d) Clean the site with chlorhexidine

A

c) Draw from opposite arm

59
Q

When collecting blood in an evacuated tube, hemolysis would most likely occur with which of the following needles?

a) 18 gauge
b) 21 gauge
c) 23 gauge
d) 25 gauge

A

d) 25 gauge

60
Q

If you are doing a draw and after you insert the second tube there is no drawback, what do you do?

a) Rotate the bevel of the needle
b) Release the tourniquet
c) Activate a new evacuated tube
d) Withdraw the needle completely

A

a) Rotate the bevel of the needle

61
Q

Chain of custody documentation is required for which of the following test?

a) TDM
b) Crosshatch
C) Drug screen
d) Blood culture

A

c) Drug screen

62
Q

Heel sticks are done for which of the following neonatal screening?

a) MCHB
b) HRSA
c) PKU
d) BIU

A

c) PKU

63
Q

Which of the following sites should be a phlebotomist’s first choice for a venipuncture on a 3 yr old?

a) Median cubical vein
b) Dorsal veins of the hand
c) Basilic vein
d) Cephalic vein

A

a) Medium cubical vein

64
Q

A female patient refuses to have blood drawn by a male because of religious beliefs, the phlebotomist should

a) Tell the patient she needs to go back to her primary care physician
b) Offer to have female present in the room
c) Reassure her that protocol is being followed
d) Have a female phlebotomist collect specimen

A

d) Have a female phlebotomist collect specimen

65
Q

If you preform a bedside glucose check the level is above the expected level, what do you do?

a) Contact the physician immediately
b) Contact the nurse immediately
c) Redraw the sample
d) Repeat the glucose test in 3 hours

A

c) Redraw the sample

66
Q

The duties of phlebotomist include

a) Evaluating stained blood smears
b) Calibrating instruments within the lab
c) Establishing test protocols for specimen analysis
d) Greeting and instructing patients

A

d) Greeting and instructing patients

67
Q

Which of the following is a method used for preventing nosocomial infections?

a) Using anti microbial sanitizers
b) Using non disposable items
c) Avoiding expired collection tube
d) Wearing goggles

A

a) Using microbial sanitizers

68
Q

Lumbar tap is used to collect which non blood specimen?

a) Synovial fluid
b) Amniotic fluid
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
d) Pleural fluid

A

c) Cerebrospinal fluid

69
Q

All the following are components of professional communication except?

a) Self-confidence
b) Integrity
c) Dependability
d) Control

A

d) Control

70
Q

What does the word “ Hemostasis” mean?

a) The process of stopping bleeding
b) Process of continued bleeding
c) Maintaining a state of equilibrium
d) Breaking down of a complex substance

A

a The process of stopping bleeding

71
Q

Which of the following blood vessels carries deoxygenated blood?

a) Pulmonary artery
b) Aorta
c) Pulmonary vein

A

a) Pulmonary artery

72
Q

The basilic vein in the antecubital fossa is generally not preferred for venipuncture because it is

a) Not well anchored
b) Easy to palpate
c) Located close to the brachial artery
d) Located close to the median nerve

A

c) Located close the brachial artery

73
Q

How much percentage of blood is formed by cells?

a) 85%
b) 20%
c) 45%
d) 55%

A

c) 45%

74
Q

All of the following are parts of a complete blood count (CBC) except?

a) Hemoglobin
b) Platelet count
c) Blood urea nitrogen
d) Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

A

c) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

75
Q

Prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin and D-dimers are examples of which category of tests?

a) Hematology tests
b) Coagulation tests
c) Chemistry tests
d) Microbiology tests

A

b) Coagulation tests

76
Q

What does the ‘ESR’ check for

a) Detects abnormal cells in the bone marrow
b) Rate of RBC settling to the bottom
c) Number of red blood cells

A

b) Rate of RBC settling to the bottom

77
Q

All the following are tests performed in the blood banks except

a) Type and Rh
b) Type & crossmatch
c) Comprehensive metabolic panel
d) Antibody screen

A

c) Comprehensive metabolic panel

78
Q

The sites to avoid during heel puncture includes all the following except

a) Lateral planter surface
b) Arch of the foot
c) Over the heel bone
d) Previous puncture site

A

a) Lateral plantar surface

79
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding dermal puncture in an adult?

a) Use the ring or the middle finger
b) Puncture the skin across the skin grooves
c) Puncture the tip of the finger
d) Wipe away the first drop if blood

A

c) Puncture the tip of the finger

80
Q

What is the preferred way to prevent patient complications arising from a dermal puncture?

a) Use a device with a preset depth
b) Use a retractable lancet
c) Use the index finger in adults
d) Use the sole of the heel in infants

A

b) Use a retractable lancet

81
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of draw for capillary tubes?

a) Lavender-Gold-Green-Red
b) Lavender-Gray-Green-Red
c) Lavender-Green-Gray-Red
d) Lavender-Red-Gold-Green

A

c) Lavender-Green-Gray-Red

82
Q

A dermal puncture is preferred over a venipuncture in an infant because of all of the following reasons except?

a) Veins are small and not well developed
b) Risk of damage to adjacent structures
c) The volume of blood required is usually small
d) It allows for instant test results

A

d) It allows for instant test results

83
Q

What is the stopper color of a micro-collection tube is used for hematology?

a) Light blue
b) Lavender
c) Red
d) Gray

A

b) Lavender

84
Q

Which additive is usually found in a capillary tube used for arterial blood gas analysis?

a) Ammonium heparin
b) Sodium heparin
c) Potassium oxalate
d) EDTA

A

b) Sodium heparin

85
Q

When drawing blood form a child, you should follow all of the following except:

a) Distract the child
b) Never lie to the child
c) Take parents/guardian’s consent
d) Tell the child “ it won’t hurt”

A

d) Tell the child “it won’t hurt”

86
Q

What is the maximum time a tourniquet can be left on for?

a) 1 minute
b) 2 minutes
c) 3 minutes
d) 4 minutes

A

a) 1 minute

87
Q

When inserting a needle in the antecubital fossa for venipuncture, what should be the angle of the needle?

a) 5-15 degrees
b) 15-30 degrees
c) 30-45 degrees
d) 45-90 degrees

A

b) 15-30 degrees

88
Q

How many attempts are allowed for a phlebotomist to try a venipuncture, after which another phlebotomist should take over?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

b) 2

89
Q

After a phlebotomist introduces himself to a patient, what is the next step?

a) Select the proper collection tube
b) Correctly identify the patient
c) Determine the test order and specimen requirement
d) Choose the appropriate needle gauge

A

b) Correctly identify the patient

90
Q

An individual health information transmitted or maintained electronically is considered to be part of

a) CLIA
b) PHI
c) OSHA
d) HIPAA

A

d) HIPAA

91
Q

If a patient is on contact isolation precautions, what PPI would you wear other than gloves?

a) surgical mask
b) Face shield or goggles
c) Gown
d) N95

A

c) Gown

92
Q

After centrifuging a green top tube yields a specimen of

a) Clotted blood
b) Plasma
c) Whole blood
d) Serum

A

b) Plasma

93
Q

For patient compliance with GTT testing, a phlebotomist should

a) Verify the patient’s med
b) Confirm the patient s fasting
c) Obtain the patient weight
d) Check the patient’s vital signs

A

b) Confirm the patient is fasting

94
Q

Which of the following information is required for proper outpatient identification?

a) Patient social security number and DOB
b) Patient’s name and DOB
c) Patient’s age and gender
d) Physicians name & test ordered

A

b) Patient’s name and DOB

95
Q

Which of the following is likely result of filling a light blue tube with a ratio of 1:6?

a) Normal PT/PTT results
b) The specimen will not clot
c) False elevation
d) The specimen will be redrawn

A

d) The specimen will be redrawn

96
Q

Why is it important to deliver microbiology specimen to the lab as soon as possible?

a) Pathogenic organism decay can occur quickly in specimen
b) Specimens are allowed to be stored in the refrigerator
c) Additional exposure to light will alter the color of the specimen
d) Specimens will clot quickly and will not be able to separate in the centrifuge

A

a) Pathogenic organism decay can occur quickly in specimen

97
Q

While on the floor, a phlebotomist is paged STAT, which of the following information would be most useful?

a) Medical record number
b) Test requested
c) Room location
d) DOB

A

a) Medical record number

98
Q

If you perform a bedside glucose check and the level is above the expected level what do you do?

a) Contact the nurse immediately
b) Contact the physician immediately
c) Redraw the sample
d) Repeat the glucose test in 3 hours

A

c) Redraw the sample

99
Q

A phlebotomist should explain the procedure prior to venipuncture to

a) Evaluate the patient’s understanding
b) Maintain compliance with CLIA guidelines
c) Obtain the patient’s consent
d) Maintain compliance with OSHA standard

A

c) Obtain the patient’s consent

100
Q

Which of the following factors determine whether a child should have his capillary collection by heel stick or finger stick method?

a) Parent’s preference
b) Most accessible body parts
c) Obtain the patient’s consent
d) Age and development

A

d) Age and development

101
Q

The most common reason for glucose monitoring through point of care testing

a) Check for sporadic glucose in the urine
b) Diagnose glucose metabolism problems
c) Monitor glucose levels
d) Control glucose induced hot flashes

A

c) Monitor glucose levels

102
Q

A NIOSH certified N95 or higher mask should be worn when entering what type of isolation room?

a) Airborne
b) Droplet
c) Direct contact
d) Indirect contact

A

b) Airborne

103
Q

For inpatient, in addition to basic demographic information what else should be on the requisition form?

a) Type of tests to be performed
b) Patient’s diagnosis and health status
c) Patient’s lab result
d) Type of treatment to be performed

A

a) Types of tests to be performed

104
Q

Which of the following compounds is appropriate for routine skin puncture

a) 3% hydrogen peroxide
b) 90% hydrogen peroxide
c) 10% povidone iodine
d) 70% isopropyl alcohol

A

d) 70% isopropyl alcohol

105
Q

Which of the following is the most important step in phlebotomy or any other medical procedure?

a) Tests request
b) Collecting priority
c) Requesting physician
d) Patient identity

A

d) Patient identity

106
Q

If a patient turns pale and complains of nausea, this is a sign of

a) Syncope
b) Seizures
c) Stroke
d) Sepsis

A

a) Syncope

107
Q

Which of the following standards include procedure manuals, instrument maintenance, quality control, and proficiency testing?

a) Proficiency standards
b) Personnel standards
c) Quality assurance standards
d) laboratory standards

A

c) Quality assurance standards

108
Q

The most often venipuncture site is

a) Median cubical vein
b) Basilic vein
c) Dorsal hand vein
d) Cephalic vein

A

a) Median cubical vein

109
Q

What information does the phlebotomist document on the quality control log?

a) Specimen collected and sent to the lab
b) Incident reports regarding workplace injury
c) Contamination rate of specimen
d) Tests performed with reagent products

A

a) Specimen collected and sent to the lab

110
Q

Which vein is located laterally on the arm

a) Basilic
b) Median
c) Brachial
d) Cephalic

A

d) Cephalic

111
Q

When receiving a specimen from a patient, you do which of the following?

a) Compare the lab requisition form to the lab on the container lid
b) Compare the lab requisition form to the patient photo id
c) Compare the lab requisition form to label on the container
d) Ask the patient to state his name and compare it to the lab requisition form

A

d) Ask the patient his name and compare it to the lab requisition form

112
Q

Failure to demonstrate proper care tat results in an injury to another person is

a) assault
b) battery
c) negligence
d) fraud

A

c) negligence

113
Q

Quality control testing of a glucometer is important because?

a) Promotes accurate test results
b) contributes to meeting HIPAA guidelines
c) prevents error code readings
d) Ensure the cleanliness of the machine

A

a) Promotes accurate test results

114
Q

OSHA guidelines and standards are for which of the following?

a) Patient identification and protection of health information
b) Point care testing and ensuring quality control
c) Reduction of risks and injurie to the employee
d) Quality assurance and control for safety and health adminstration

A

c) Reduction of risks and injuries to the employee

115
Q

Which type of blood vessels have valves

a) Arteries
b) Arterioles
c) Capillaries
d) Veins

A

d) Veins

116
Q

The fluid part of the blood without any cells in it is called

a) Serum
b) Plasma
c) Whole blood
d) Formed elements

A

b) Plasma

117
Q

The factor that is responsible to convert fibrinogen to soluble fibrin is

a) Prothrombin
b) Thrombin
c) Factor XI a
d) Factor XII a

A

b) Thrombin

118
Q

Which of the following statement best describes a nosocomial infection

a) Acquired in a doctor’s office after am invasive procedure
b) Acquired at a home care setting from the health care personnel
c) Acquired after 2 hours in an emergency department
d) Acquired after 48 hours of admission in a hospital

A

d) Acquired after 48 hours of admission in a hospital

119
Q

Which of the following is the immediate step to be taken in case of accidental needle stick injury?

a) Wash with soap and water for at least 30 seconds
b) Report incident to a supervisor
c) Wash the site for at least 30 minutes
d) Report immediately for a medical evaluation

A

a) Wash with soap and water for at least 30 seconds

120
Q

When palpating the antecubital the patient’s vein feels sclerosed. Which of the following statements best describes the veins?

a) soft and bouncy
b) hard and lack of resilience
c) pulsating and resilient
d) inflamed and painful

A

b) hard and lack of resilience

121
Q

Which of the following blood test will be primarily affected by high altitude

a) RBC count
b) Ammonia
c) Cardiac enzymes
d) Glucose

A

a) RBC count

122
Q

What is ergonomics?

a) System of planned activity to assess the quality of procedures
b) Process of adapting to perform a job safely and effciently
c) Process to ensure steps in a procedure meet acceptance standards
d) System to identify mistakes and rectify them

A

b) Process of adapting to perform a job safely and efficiently

123
Q

What should be the position of the patient’s arm when drawing blood from the median cubital vein?

a) extended down in a straight line
b) The arm should be bent at the elbow
c) Raise the arm above the level of the heart
d) Extend the arm and rotate the wrist by 180 degrees

A

a) Extended down in a straight line

124
Q

A patient’s requiring “protective environment” will include all the following except

a) patient with AIDS
b) immunosuppressed patients
c) hepatitis patients
d) patients on chemotherapy

A

c) Hepatitis patients

125
Q

Which of the following is the most important step in preventing the spread of infection

a) face mask
b) gown
c) gloves
d) hand washing

A

d) hand washing

126
Q

An infection transmitted by dispersal of infective particles in the air prolonged periods is called

a) airborne transmission
b) droplet transmission
c) contact transmission
d) vehicle transmission

A

a) airborne transmission

127
Q

After a procedure you notice that your hands are visibly contaminated. What is the immediate action to be taken

a) Wash with soap and water for 30 minutes
b) Wash hands as per standard precautions
c) Use an alcohol based hand sanitizer
d) Wash with water and dry with paper towel

A

b) Wash hands as per standard precautions

128
Q

How should all surfaces used for a specimen collection and processing to be decontaminated?

a) 70% isopropyl alcohol
b) 1:10 bleach solution
c) 1:20 bleach solution
d) chlorhexidine

A

b) 1:10 bleach solution

129
Q

What are the 4 steps in case of a fire emergency response as per the national fire protection association

a) Revive, close, water, help
b) Rescue, contain, extinguish, revive
c) Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish
d) Contain, alarm, revive, extinguish

A

c) Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish

130
Q

The important principles involved in radiation safety include all of the following except

a) distance
b) time
c) shielding
d) extinguish

A

d) extinguish

131
Q

Which tube should be used to check for blood lead levels

a) black
B) tan
c) white
d) royal blue

A

b) tan

132
Q

Which of the following tubes can be used to draw blood for routine chemistry test

a) yellow
b) gray
c) gold
d) light blue

A

c) gold

133
Q

Which additive is in a yellow tube used for microbiology

a) sodium citrate
b) sodium polyanethol sulfonate
c) EDTA
d) Heparin

A

b) Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

134
Q

Which of the following tubes can be used as a discard tube

a) light blue
b) red
c) green
d) yellow

A

b) red

135
Q

How does EDTA act?

a) binds to calcium
b) prevents glycolysis
c) neutralizes antibiotics
0 promotes clotting

A

a) binds to calcium

136
Q

What does the test status saying “fasting” mean

a) nothing by mouth for 12 hours
b) avoid only food or 6 hours
c) avoid all fluids including water for 8 hours
d) avoid food and fluids except water for 12 hours

A

d) avoid food and fluids except water for 12 hours

137
Q

What gauge is a syringe needle used for phlebotomy?

a) 12-18 g
b) 18-20 g
c) 21-23 g
d) 19-21 g

A

c) 21-23 g

138
Q

Which tubes should be used to collect blood for a blood alcohol test?

a) gold
b) green
c) lavender
d) gray

A

d) gray

139
Q

Which is the term that describe that blood should be collected immediately?

a) ASAP
b) STAT
c) routine
d) times

A

b) STAT

140
Q

You have a requisition for CBC, which tube should you use to draw blood?

a) yellow
b) lavender
c) light blue
d) red black speckled

A

b) lavender

141
Q

All of the following can be used to locate a vein except

a) using a tourniquet
b) asking the patient to pump his fist
c) ask for patient to make a fist
d) gently messaging the arm

A

b) asking the patient to pump his fist

142
Q

When are the blood cortisol levels at their peak?

a) morning
b) noon
c) evening
d) night

A

a) morning

PHLEBOTOMY (1 decks)

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