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NHA CCMA REVIEW > NHA CCMA review > Flashcards

NHA CCMA review Flashcards

1
Q

Chief Complaint

A

The reason why the patient came to see the physician.

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2
Q

History of Present Illness

A

Explanation of the CC to determine the onset of the illness.

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3
Q

Past, family, and social history

A

Summary of personal and family health problems as well as social to include martial status, occupation, use of drugs, etc.

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4
Q

Body Processes necessary for life

A

Body Temperature, Respiration, Heart Function

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5
Q

Vitial Signs of body function

A

Temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure.

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6
Q

Febrile

A

Presence of fever

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7
Q

Afebrile

A

Absence of fever

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8
Q

Intermittent fever

A

Fluctuating fever that returns to or below baseline

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9
Q

Remittent fever

A

Fluctuating fever that remains elevated and does not return to baseline.

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10
Q

Continuous fever

A

Fever that remains constant; does not fluctuate.

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11
Q

Axillary temperature

A

Least accurate; taken under the arm

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12
Q

Tympanic temperature

A

Useful for children; placed in the ear.

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13
Q

Rectal temperature

A

Per rectum; most effective

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14
Q

Normal adult pulse range

A

Between 60-100 bpm

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15
Q

Apical pulse

A

Taken over the apex of the heart by auscultation.

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16
Q

Normal respiration rate

A

12-20 per minute (Adults)

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17
Q

Apnea

A

Temporary complete absence of breathing.

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18
Q

Tachypnea

A

Respiration rate greater than 40 per minute.

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19
Q

Bradypnea

A

Decrease in the number of respiration.

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20
Q

Cheyne Stokes

A

Regular pattern of irregular breathing rate.

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21
Q

Orthopnea

A

Decrease in numbers of respiration.

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22
Q

Hypoventilation

A

Reduced amount of air enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen level.

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23
Q

Hyperpnea

A

Abnormal increase in the the depth and rate of breathing.

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24
Q

Hyperventilation

A

Increased amount of air entering the lungs.

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25
Q

Systole

A

The highest amount of pressure exerted during the cardiac cycle.

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26
Q

Diastole

A

The lowest amount of pressure exerted during the cardiac cycle.

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27
Q

Palpation

A

The sense of touch to determine the characteristics of an organ system.

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28
Q

Percussion

A

Tapping or striking the body to determine the position, size and density of the underlying organ/tissue.

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29
Q

Auscultation

A

Listening to sounds produced by internal organs.

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30
Q

Horizontal Recumbent Position

A

Patient lies on back with legs extended (used for most physical exams)

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31
Q

Dorsal Recumbent Position

A

Patient lies on back with knees flexed and soles of the feet flat on the bed.

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32
Q

Fowler’s Position

A

Semi/sitting position where back of the table is elevated.

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33
Q

Dorsal Lithotomy Position

A

Patient lies on back with knees flexed, legs separated and thighs are acutely flexed. Feet are usually in stirrups.

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34
Q

Prone position

A

Patients lies on abdomen with head turned to side.

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35
Q

Sim’s position

A

Patient lies on left side with right knee flexed against the abdomen and left knee slightly flexed.

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36
Q

Knee-chest position

A

Patient is on knees with chest resting on the bed and elbows resting on the bed above head.

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37
Q

OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

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38
Q

External hemorrhage

A

Controlling the bleeding is most effectively accomplished by elevating the affected part above heart level.

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39
Q

Shock

A

Occurs when there is insufficient return of blood flow to the heart.

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40
Q

Orthopnea

A

Decrease in numbers of respiration

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41
Q

Hypoventilation

A

Reduced amount of air enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen level.

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42
Q

Hyperpnea

A

Abnormal increase in the depth and rate of breathing.

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43
Q

Hypoventilation

A

Increased amount of air entering the lungs.

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44
Q

Systole

A

The highest amount of pressure exerted during the cardiac cycle.

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45
Q

CPR

A

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

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46
Q

AMS

A

Agent, Modes of Transmission, Susceptible Hosts.

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47
Q

Agents

A

Infectious microorganisms that can be classified into groups; viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites.

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48
Q

Portal of Exit

A

The method by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir.

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49
Q

5 modes of Transmission

A

Droplet, Airborne, Common Vehicle, Vector borne, Contact (direct or indirect)

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50
Q

Susceptible Host

A

Not Resistant or Immune

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51
Q

Medical Asepsis

A

The destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body.

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52
Q

Body disinfection

A

Use of various chemicals that can be used to destroy many pathogenic microorganisms.

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53
Q

1:10 Solution

A

All readily available and least expensive disinfectant.

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54
Q

Surgical Asepsis

A

All microbial life, pathogens and non pathogens are destroyed before an invasive procedure.

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55
Q

Gas Sterilization

A

Often used for wheelchairs and hospital beds.

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56
Q

Dry Heat Sterilization

A

Requires higher temperature than steam sterilization but longer exposure times.

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57
Q

Chemical Sterilization

A

Use of the same chemical used for chemical disinfection.

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58
Q

Steam Sterilization (autoclave)

A

Uses steam under pressure to obtain high temperature of 250-254F with exposure of 20-40 min.

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59
Q

Handwashing

A

The most important means of preventing the spread of infection.

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60
Q

Personal Protective Equipment

A

Masks, goggles, face shields, respirators.

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61
Q

Isolation precautions

A

Method of infection control that assumes all human blood and other body fluids using PPE.

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62
Q

Transmission based precautions

A

The second tier of precautions are to be used when the patient is known or suspected of being contagious.

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63
Q

po

A

By mouth/orally.

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64
Q

pr

A

Per rectum

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65
Q

s1

A

Sublingual (under the tongue)

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66
Q

iv

A

Intravenous

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67
Q

im

A

Intramuscular

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68
Q

sq

A

Subcutaneous

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69
Q

qd

A

Everyday.

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70
Q

bid

A

Twice a day.

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71
Q

tid

A

Three times day.

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72
Q

qid

A

Four times a day.

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73
Q

pc

A

After meals/ not on empty stomach.

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74
Q

qhs

A

Each night

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75
Q

prn

A

As needed.

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76
Q

Heart location

A

In the thoracic cavity between the lungs just behind the sternum.

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77
Q

Upper chambers of the heart

A

Right and left atria (atrium-singular)

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78
Q

Lower chambers of the heart

A

Right and left ventricles.

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79
Q

Endocardium

A

Innermost layer of the heart.

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80
Q

Myocardium

A

Middle layer of the heart.

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81
Q

Epicardium

A

Outermost layer of the heart.

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82
Q

Pericardium

A

The sac in which the heart is contained.

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83
Q

Right Atrium

A

Receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart via the superior vena cava.

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84
Q

Transmissions based precautions

A

The second tier of precautions are to be used when the patient is known or suspected of being contagious.

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85
Q

Right ventricle

A

Receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs for oxygenation through the pulmonary artery.

86
Q

Pulmonary arteries

A

The only arteries in the body that carry deoxygenated blood.

87
Q

Left atrium

A

Receives deoxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the right and left pulmonary veins.

88
Q

Pulmonary veins

A

The only vein in the body that carry oxygenated blood.

89
Q

Left Ventricle

A

Receives the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body through the aorta.

90
Q

Aorta

A

The largest artery of the body.

91
Q

Atrioventricular Valves (AV)

A

Tricuspid & Mitral Valve

92
Q

Tricuspid Valve

A

Between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

93
Q

Mitral Valve

A

Between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

94
Q

Pulmonic Valve

A

Between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk.

95
Q

Aortic Valve

A

Between the left ventricle and aorta.

96
Q

Murmurs

A

Caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities.

97
Q

S1

A

First heart sound.

98
Q

S2

A

Second heart sound.

99
Q

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

A

Subdivided into sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

100
Q

ANS

A

Automatic Nervous System.

101
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Affect both the atria and ventricles by increasing the heart rate.

102
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Affects only the atria by decreasing the heart rate.

103
Q

Automaticity

A

The ability of the cardiac pacemaker cells to spontaneously initiate their own electrical impulse without being stimulated from another source.

104
Q

Excitability

A

The ability of all cardiac cells to receive an electrical stimulus and transmit the stimulus to other cardiac cells.

105
Q

Contractility

A

The ability of the cardiac cells to shorten and cause cardiac muscle contraction in response to an electrical stimulus.

106
Q

Depolarization

A

Positive- Contracting

107
Q

Repolarization

A

Negative- Relaxation

108
Q

SA Node

A

Primary pacemaker of the heart and has a normal firing rate of 60-100 bpm.

109
Q

LEAD I

A

Left arm is positive, Right Arm is negative.

110
Q

LEAD II

A

Left leg is positive, right arm is negative.

111
Q

LEAD III

A

Left leg is positive, Left arm is negative.

112
Q

LEAD aVR

A

Right arm is positive and the other limbs are negative.

113
Q

LEAD aVL

A

Left arm is positive and the other limbs are negative.

114
Q

LEAD aVF

A

Left leg/foot is positive and the other limbs are negative.

115
Q

V1

A

4th intercostal space, right sternal border.

116
Q

V2

A

4th intercostal space, left sternal border.

117
Q

V3

A

Between v2 and v4.

118
Q

V4

A

5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line.

119
Q

V5

A

5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line.

120
Q

V6

A

5th intercostal space, midaxillary line.

121
Q

Horizontal axis

A

Represents time: 1mm

122
Q

Vertical axis

A

Measured in millivolts

123
Q

Running speed

A

25mm/sec

124
Q

Waveform

A

Refers to movement away from the isoelectric line.

125
Q

Segment

A

Line between two waveforms.

126
Q

Interval

A

Waveform plus a segment

127
Q

Complex

A

Several waveforms

128
Q

P WAVE

A

Deflection produced by atrial depolarization.

129
Q

QRS COMPLEX

A

Represents ventricular depolarization (activation)

130
Q

Q WAVE

A

Initial negative deflection

131
Q

R WAVE

A

First positive deflection

132
Q

S WAVE

A

First negative deflection

133
Q

T WAVE

A

Deflection produced by ventricular depolarizations.

134
Q

Wandering Baseline

A

Causes the baseline of the tracing to move up and down; due to interference with the signal.

135
Q

Stress Test

A

Noninvasive diagnostic procedure to determine the presence and severity of coronary artery disease.

136
Q

Ischemia

A

Decrease in the amount of blood flow.

137
Q

Holter monitor

A

Contains 5 electrodes attached to the patients trunk.

138
Q

Code of ethics

A

Standards of right and wrong.

139
Q

Blood vessels

A

Aorta, arteries, capillaries, venules, veins, superior and inferior vena cava.

140
Q

Tunica adventitia

A

Outer connective tissue.

141
Q

Tunica media

A

Middle smooth layer.

142
Q

Tunica intima

A

Inner endothelial layer

143
Q

Average blood amount for adults

A

5-6 liters.

144
Q

Plasma

A

Liquid portion of blood.

145
Q

Erythrocytes

A

Red blood cells

146
Q

Waveform

A

Refers to movement away from the isoelectric line.

147
Q

Leukocytes

A

White blood cells

148
Q

120 days

A

Normal life span is an RBC

149
Q

Leukocytes function

A

Protects against infection.

150
Q

Thrombocytes- Platelets

A

Small irregularly shaped packets of cytoplasm.

151
Q

Hemostasis

A

Process by which blood vessels are repaired after injury.

152
Q

Vascular Phase

A

Stage 1 of hemostasis.

153
Q

Platelet Phase

A

Stage 2 of hemostasis.

154
Q

Coagulation phase

A

Stage 3 of hemostasis.

155
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

Stage 4 of hemostasis.

156
Q

Antecubital fossa

A

Preferred site for venipuncture.

157
Q

Cephalic vein

A

Second choice vein for venipuncture.

158
Q

Basilic vein

A

Third choice vein venipuncture.

159
Q

Winged infusion sets

A

Used for pediatric and elderly patients.

160
Q

Fasting specimen

A

Require patient to abstain from eating for at least 12 hours.

161
Q

Edema

A

The accumulation of fluid in the tissues.

162
Q

Fistula

A

The permanent surgical connection between the artery and vein.

163
Q

Yellow Top Tube

A

Blood cultures (1st)

164
Q

Light Blue Top Tube

A

Sodium (2nd)

165
Q

Red or Tiger Striped Tube

A

Serum/ non-additive tubes (3rd)

166
Q

Green Top Tube

A

Heparin (4th)

167
Q

Lavender Top Tube

A

EDTA (5th)

168
Q

Gray Top Tube

A

Glucose (6th)

169
Q

Hematoma

A

Blood accumulation in the tissue surrounding the vein.

170
Q

Hemoconcentration

A

Results of tourniquet being left on too long.

171
Q

Phlebitis

A

Inflammation of a vein.

172
Q

Petechiae

A

Tiny non-raised red spots due to the tourniquet being left on too long.

173
Q

Thrombus

A

Blood clot

174
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

Inflammation of being with formation of clot.

175
Q

Two- hour postprandial test

A

Used to evaluate diabetes mellitus.

176
Q

Oral glucose tolerance test

A

Used to diagnose diabetes mellitus.

177
Q

PKU

A

Test ordered for infants to detect phenylketonuria.

178
Q

Blood cultures

A

Ordered to detect presence of microorganisms in the patients blood.

179
Q

Chilled specimens

A

Ammonia, lactic acid, gastrin, acth.

180
Q

Light sensitive specimens

A

Bilirubin, beta-carotene, vitamin A and b6.

181
Q

Dermal puncture site for infants

A

Middle of the fourth and fifth toes of the heel.

182
Q

Dermal puncture site of adults

A

Third or fourth finger of the non dominant hand.

183
Q

1st draw for capillary

A

Lavender tube.

184
Q

2nd draw for capillary

A

Tubes with additives

185
Q

3rd draw for capillary

A

Tubes without additives

186
Q

Bacteriology

A

Study of bacteria

187
Q

Parasitology

A

Study of parasites.

188
Q

Mycology

A

Study of fungi

189
Q

Virology

A

Study of viruses

190
Q

Meter

A

Basic unit of length

191
Q

Liter

A

Basic unit of capacity or volume.

192
Q

Gram

A

Basic unit of weight or mass.

193
Q

Kilo

A

One-thousand

194
Q

Deci

A

One-tenth

195
Q

Centi

A

One-hundredth

196
Q

Milli

A

One-thousandth

197
Q

Micro

A

One millionth

198
Q

Nano

A

One billionth

199
Q

Components of the urinary system

A

Two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder, and a urethra.

200
Q

First morning sample

A

Most commonly used for routine urinalysis

201
Q

Mid- stream specimen

A

Collected not at the beginning or end of voiding but in the middle of urination.

202
Q

Clean catch specimen

A

Requires special cleaning of the external genitalia.

203
Q

Urine output avg

A

1200-1500ml every 24 hours

204
Q

Examination of urine

A

Physical, chemical and microscopic.

205
Q

Glucose

A

Sugar typically found in urine.

206
Q

Duty

A

Duty of care.

207
Q

Derelict

A

Breach of duty of care

208
Q

Direct cause

A

Legally recognizable injury.

209
Q

Damage

A

Wrongful activity must have caused the injury.

210
Q

Tort

A

Wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another.

211
Q

Good Samaritan Law

A

Rendering of first aid by health care providers professionals at the scene of an accident or sudden injury.

NHA CCMA REVIEW (1 decks)

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