NHA Flashcards
Analgesics
To relieve pain ex: acetaminophen
Antacids
Neutralize stomach acid
Antibiotics
Kills bacteria
Anticoagulants
Delay blood clotting
Anticholinergic’S
Reduce bronchospasm
Schedule I drugs
High abuse potential
No approved med use in U.S.
Which schedule drug is considered illegal in the U.S.?
Schedule I
Schedule II
High abuse potential, physical and psychological
Dependence
Ex:morphine, methadone, fentanyl
Schedule Ill
Moderate to low abuse potential
Ex: ketamine, testosterone
Schedule lv
Low potential for abuse and dependence
Schedule v
Substances that contain limited quantities of some narcotics, usually for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes
Can be refilled 5 times in 6 months
Advanced directive
Document that communicates a patient’s specific wishes for end of life care should patient become unable to do so
Durable power of attorney
Document-in which patient’s designate someone to make health caredecisions for them if they are unable to do so themselves
Stages of grief: denial
Shock, can’t believe it
deny existence of illness
“No, not me”
Stages of grief: anger
Feelings of hostility at others including health care staff
“Why me?”
Stages of grief: bargaining
Avoid loss by making a deal ex: wantingtolive long-enough to attend a family event
Searching for alternative solutions
“Yes me,but”
Stages of grief: Depression
Sad, lonely, hopeless
Feelings of regret and self blame
Stages of
Grief: acceptance
Trying to make the best of it
Making new goals
“Yes, it’s me”
Stages of grief
Denial, anger, bargaining, Depression, acceptance
2 routes of administration
Enteral and parental
Parental
Outside of gastrointestinal track ex: vaginal, topical, injections
Enteral
Through the gastrointestinal tract
Buccal
Against cheek
Ex: tablets
Oral
Mouth, stomach
Ex: tablets, capsules, caplets, lozenges,syrups
Sublingual
Under tongue
Nasal
Sprays, mist, drops
Ophthalmic
Eyes
ex: drops, ointment
Otic
Ears
Ex: drops, ointment
Which two body systems are primarily responsible for maintaining homeostasis?
Nervous system and endocrine system
What is
Bacteria?
Single-cell.
Reproduces rapidly and causes infections
Which
Organism can survive without other living tissues?
Bacteria
Coccus
Round
Spirillum
Spiral
Vibrio
Comma
Bacillus
Rod shaped
What-is a virus
A parasite that requires living tissue to survive and grow
HPV, HIV,
And influenza are an example of what?
A virus
What attaches to host cells in persons, destroying them and infecting nearby cells?
Virus
What is
Fungi?
Single cell, yeast, multicell varieties are spore producing molds
Examples of fungi
Athletes foot vaginalyeast infections
Those with a weakened immune system are at a higher risk for more serious what?
Internal fungal infections
Protozoa are
Single cell parasites that thriveindamp environments and replicate rapidly inside a living host
What are examples of multicellular parasites?
Lice, bedbugs, scabies, pinworms
Lactobacillus acidophilus
Assist
With digestion
In what foods can you find probiotics?
Yogurt, kimchi, sauerkraut
Exudate
Pus
When doing a stapler suture removal, when do you soak with saline?
When there is dry, crusty blood and exudate
What equipment is used in staple/suture removal?
Scissors, forceps, staple remover
How do you
Convert inches to feet?
Divide by 12
6 2 inches is
How many feet?
5ft. 2 in.
How do you convert pounds to kilograms
Divide lbs by 2.2
How do you convert kilograms to pounds?
Multiply weightin kilograms by 2.2
Pyrexia
Fever
Normal respiration’s for a newborn
30-50
Where is the probe attached in pulse oximetry
Finger but canbe attached to earlobe
What is normal pulse
Oximetry reading?
95% or higher
How many times should you check meds?
3 times
Triage
Ranking based on most critical to least critical
Supplies for mole/cyst
Removal
Local anesthetic, scalpel or punch device and suture supplies
Colposcopy/ hysteroscopy supplies
Colposcope /hysteroscope exam table with stirrups
Toenail removal/ingrown toenail supplies
Sterile scissors, forceps or hemostats anesthetic, bandaging materials
Hemostat
Used in surgical procedures to control bleeding and used for initial incision
What does OSHA stand for
Occupational safety and health admin.
HIV
Inactivated helper t-cells of immune system and is cause of AIDS
Hepatitis B is an infection of the what?
Liver
What are the 6 links in the chain of infection
Infectious-agent,reservoir portal of exit,mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host
When should a sharps container be emptied?
When it is 2/3 full
Rales
Clicking or crackling sound heard on inspiration that can sound moist or dry
Needle
Length for ID?
27-28 g x 3/8
Sub-q injection length
25-26g x 1/2 - 5/8 in.
Im injection length
20-23g x 1-3 in
Angle for
Intradermal
10-15
Subcutaneous
Injection
Angle
45
Intramuscular injection
90
Transdermal meds.are
For
Continuous, slow absorption of various meds.
Definition of sanitation
Reducing# of micro- organisms by removing debris W/ soap and water prior to disinfecting
Sterilization
Definition
Technique for destroying pathogens and their spores on inanimate objects using heat, water, chemicals, and gases
Disinfect definition
Clean something using chemicals that kill pathogens but not their spores
Hemoglobin normal ranges for men
13-18g/dL
Hemoglobin normal ranges for women
12-16 g/dL
Normal hematocrit ranges for men
42%-52%
Normal hematocrit ranges for women
36%-48%
Normal range for fasting blood glucose (FBS)
60-110 mg/dL
Normal range for total cholesterol
Less than 200 mg/dL
How far away
From the eyes should the chart be when doing a near vision test?
14-16ft.
The snellan test is an example of a _ Vision test
Distance
True or false: a patient can wear corrective lenses during a near vision test?
False, pt should wear corrective lenses during distance test
Hyperopia
Difficulty seeing things close by but able to see from a distance
Nearsightedness
Is also known as
Myopia
Myopia
Difficulty seeing things from a distance, ability to see close up
When performing a venipuncture where should you anchor the vein?
1 inch
Below draw site
What position
Should patients prone to fainting be placed in during blood draw?
Semi-fowlers or supine
Angle of
Insertion for
Blood draws
15-30
Edema
Swelling excessive build up of fluid in body tissue
Hemoconcentration
High in concentration of red blood cells circulating blood
What is a
Common
Cause of hemoconcentration
Exceeding torniquet time of 60 seconds
Vasovagal response
Fainting because of extreme triggers
What is the order of draw (tube colors)?
Yellow, light blue, red, gold, green, lavender, pink,, grey
What additive is in the yellow tube?
Sodium polyethanol sulfonate
Lt. Blue additive?
SodiumCitrate
Red additive?
None
Gold additive
Clot activator
Green additive
Heparin
Lavender additive
EDTA
Grey
Additive
Sodium fluoride potassium oxalate
Wave
Scheduling
3pt@same time to be seen in order they arrive
Modified wave
Allocating two pt to arrive @ a specified time and the third to arrive 30 min. Later repeated throughout the day
Double booking
Scheduling two pt @ the same time with the same provider often to fit in a pt W/ an acute illness
How many characters do icd-10-ch codes have?
3-7
How many digit numeric codes
Do current procedural
Terminology codes have?
5
What are current procedural terminology codes-used for
Evaluation/management service rendered by providers
What are two
Reasons claims
Are denied
Technical errors and insurance
Policy coverage issues
What are the steps to appeal a denial?
Determine why claim was deniedand obtain and complete insurance company’s appeal document
Debit
Amount owed
Credit
Monetary balance in an individuals favor
Accounts
Receivable
Money owed
To provider
Accounts
Payable
Debts incurred, notyet paid
Fat soluble
Vitamins
A, D, E, K
Water soluble
Vitamins
B1, b2, b3, b6, folate, biz, pantothenic acid, biotin, c
Night vision, cell growth, health of skin, and health of mucous membranes are all functions of which vitamin?
A(retinol)
If your doctor wants you to increase your vitamin A intake what foods would you eat?
Milk fat, butter, meat, leafy vegetables, egg yolks, fish oil, yellow and orange fruits
What is the function of vitamin B1 (thiamine)
Carbohydrate metabolism and heart, nerve, and muscle function
What foods contain vitamin B1
Whole grains, meat, seeds, yeast, rice, nuts
Which vitamin functions in fat and protein metabolism?
Vitamin b2
B2 food source?
Organ meat, eggs,dairy products,fortified grains
Which vitamin functions in carbohydrate and fat metabolism?
B3
B3 food source
Fish, meat, poultry fortified grains
Function of b6
Enzyme assistance in amino acid synthesis
B6 food source
Fish, grains, legumes, prunes, meat, nuts, avocados bananas, poultry, nuts
Function of B 12
Protein and fat metabolism, nerve cell metabolism, cell development
B 12 food source
Meats, seafood, dairy products, yeast, molasses
Function of biotin
Carbohydrate, protein, fat metabolism
Food source
Of biotin
Liver, grain, cereals, yeast, legumes
Vitamin c function
Immunity, iron absorption. Structure of bones, muscle, and blood vessels
Vitamin c food source
Berries, green peppers, broccoli, citrus fruits, potatoes, tomatoes, cauliflower
Vitamin D
Function
Calcium absorption, bone and tooth structure, support of heart and nerve function
Vitamin E function
Protection of cells from destruction, formation of blood cells
Folate function
Maintenance of red blood cells, genetic material development
Liver dysfunction primarily affects which of the following pharmacokinetic processes?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
C. Metabolism
In a problem oriented medical record, the pages are organized according to which method?
Chronological
A provider has prescribed the following diagnostic tests for a patient: gallbladder series, chest X-ray, abdomen CT scan and lower GI studies the medical assistant should schedule which of the following tests first?
Chest X-ray
A Medical assistant is preparing to do an EKG on a patient who has known dextrocardia which of the following leads requires placement modification for this patient?
A. Limb
B. Precordial
C. Bipolar
D. Augmented
Pericardial
Which method of taking a pt’S temperature poses a risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
Rectal
A Medical assistant opens the door and enters a patient's exam room without introducing themselves or asking permission to enter. This is considered: A. Negligence B. Breach of confidentiality C. Invasion of privacy D. Malpractice
Invasion of privacy
A Medical assistant should take which of the following actions when removing sutures?
A. Perform a sterile hand scrub
B. Lift knot toward wound
C. Begin cutting the sutures in the middle of the wound
D. Clean the wound with a disinfectant
Lift the knot toward the wound
If a conscious adult patient is experiencing a hypoglycemic emergency should you offer pt A. Water B. Orange juice C. Sandwich D. Sugar free candy
Orange juice
An MA should recognize and report to the provider that which of the following patients has an apical pulse rate outside of the expected reference range?
A. 6 week old infant with heart rate of 80/min
B. 6 year old child with heart rate of 80/min
C. 16 year old with heart rate of 80/min
D. 60 year old patient with heart rate of 80/min
6 year old patient
Which of the following is beyond the scope of practice of a medical assistant? A. Urinalysis B. Throat culture C. Occult blood D. Pathogenic identification
Pathogenic identification
What solution is used in autoclave for sterilization
Distilled water
A medical assistant should expect a referral to which of the following allied health professionals for a patient who has an increased hemoglobin A1c level?
Endocrinologist
An MA is performing a pulmonary function test using spirometry. How many maneuvers are required from the patient before the assistant can calculate the average measurements and record the results?
Three
Which of the following accounts for more than half of the white blood cells? A. Basophils B. Eosinophil C. Monocytes D. Neutrophil
Neutrophil
Basophils
Type of whitebloodcell,least common type of granulocyte (0.5% - 1%)
Eosinophils
Variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections invertebrates
Monocytes
A large phagocytic white blood cell with a simple oval nucleus and clear, grayish cytoplasm
Largest type of leukocyte
Neutrophil
Most abundant, make up 40% to 70% of all white blood cells inhumans
How many compressions should be done in one minute?
100
Which should a Medical assistant perform to maintain quality control for clia- waivered tests in the physician’s office lab?
Perform routine in-house testingfor accuracy
Which action should an MA take before disposing of a sharps container?
Place sharps container into a secondary bionazardous waste container
A patient is considered new for billing and coding purposes if he has not seen the provider in how long?
3 years
A provider instructs an MA to refer a patient to community resources for additional statistical information following a CABG surgery. To which resource should the ma refer the pt to for this service?
American heart association
CABG
Coronary artery bypass surgery
An MA is scheduling a pt for a ct scan with contrast of the abdomen. What information should the assistant obtain from pt before the procedure
Patient’s possible allergy to shellfish
The timing for a glucose tolerance test begins
When the patient finishes drinking the glucose solution
When performing a 12-lead EKG on a patient which of the following leads is used as a ground to help decrease interference?
Right leg
Which action is correct when performing a capillary puncture?
A. Wipe away the first five drops of blood after puncturing
B. Apply even pressure to the finger during collection
C. Puncture index finger at tip
D. Puncture parallel to finger print
Apply even pressure to the finger during collection
Which of the following techniques should an MA use to supply support when applying a bandage to an ankle? A. Figure 8 B. Recurrent C. Tubular D. Triangular
Figure 8
A pt is having a cardiac stress test and reports to the MA that she is perspiring. Which of the following actions should the MA take?
A. Notify cardiologist
B. Contact emergency dept.
C. Continue the test without interruption
D. Document perspiration
Continue the test without interruption
Which of the following methods should an MA use when weighing a pt who has balance issues?
A. Have pt hold on to the wall while weighing
B. Position walker over scale
C. Position cane on scale between his feet
D. Have pt sit in a chair on scale
Position a walker over the scale
An MA is acting as a sterile scrub assistant. Which of the following actions should the MA take?
A. Tear corner when opening the 4x4 package
B. Maintain a 1-inch border around sterile field
C. Wear no latex gloves
D. Lay instruments gently on sterile field
Maintain a 1-inch border around the sterile field
An MA is setting up a chart for a new patient. The office uses the soape method of documentation The pt’S vital signs should be documented in which of the following areas?A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Objective
Which of the following is a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus? A. Retinopathy B. Deafness C. Renal calculi D. Acute appendicitis
Retinopathy
Retinopathy
Impairment or loss of vision
Renal Calculi
Kidney stones
Which of the following is an effect of homeostasis?A. Prevents fibrinolysis of the blood
B. Prevents the process of clot formation
C. Promotes destruction of RBC’s
D. Promotes coagulation
Promotes coagulation
What describes the movement of medication from its site of admin to the body system it affects? A. Absorption B. Distribution C. Metabolism D. Excretion
Distribution
A patient's blood stains an MA uniform, which of the following should the MA do first? A. Dispose uniform B. Finish procedure C. Clean area D. Report to supervisor
Finish procedure
An MA is measuring an infant client from heel to head. In which of the following positions should the infant be placed? A. Prone B. Sims C. Lithotomy D. Supine
Supine
A decrease in blood calcium normally stimulates the release of which of the following? A. Thyroxine B. Luteinizing hormone C. Parathyroid hormone D. Oxytocin
Parathyroid hormone
Basal State
Minimum 12 hours of fasting
An MA is submitting an urgent referral request to the insurance company for authorization which of the following describes how long the authorization process will take?
24 hours
When an MA is taking a pt blood pressure, which of the following korotkoff sounds represent systolic blood pressure?
Tapping
Alopecia
Sudden hair loss that starts with one or more circular bald patches
Uritcaria
Hives
Pruritus
Itching
Petechiae
Tiny, round, brown-purple spots due to bleeding under the skin
ESR
Erythrocytes sedimentation rate
An MA should include which instruction when providing a pt with info about the proper use of a transdermal patch?
A. Maintain same site when applying new patches
B. Avoid exercise while the patch is in use
C. Do not shower while patch is in place
D. Include date and time on each patch applied
Avoid exercise while the patch is in use
According to the cp t main text which of the following types of codes should a MA use to indicate one procedure was used multiple times on a pt
A. Modifier
B. Add on
C. Revised
D. New
Modifier
Cpt
Current procedural terminology
Trendelenburg
Supine with feet at an angle of roughly 16 degrees
Lithotomy
Supine with-knees bent and lifted
Which of the following actions should an MA take when sanitizing instruments using aseptic technique?
A. Wear surgical gloves when separating the instruments
B. Place the instruments in a closed position
C. Wipe the instruments down with a paper towel
D. Use a metal brush to remove debris from instruments
B
Ischemia
Inadequate blood supply to an organ or part of the body, especially heart muscles
Hypertrophy
An increase and growth in muscle cells
Hypo-trophy
Progressive degeneration of an organ or tissue caused by loss of cells
Necrosis
Death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease injury, or failure of the blood supply
Which of the following should an MA do as a first step when sanitizing a soiled hemostat
A. Rinse instrument under cold water
B. Soak instrument in bleach solution
C. Place instrument in autoclave using heat tape
D. Wipe instrument with cavicide wipe and towel dry
B.
