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Aviation Part 2 > Next 200 flash cards for FAA test > Flashcards

Next 200 flash cards for FAA test

1
Q

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication
A: Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
B: Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
C: Altimeter will indicate .15” Hg higher.

A

B

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2
Q

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude
A: When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
B: When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92” Hg.
C: When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

A

A

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3
Q

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value
A: At standard temperature.
B: At sea level, when the temperature is 0 °F.
C: When the altimeter has no installation error.

A

A

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4
Q

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A: lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
B: higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C: the actual altitude above sea level.

A

A

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5
Q

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A: the actual altitude above sea level.
B: lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
C: higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

A

C

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6
Q

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude
A: When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
B: In warmer than standard air temperature.
C: In colder than standard air temperature.

A

C

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7
Q

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude
A: Air temperature lower than standard.
B: Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
C: Air temperature warmer than standard.

A

C

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8
Q

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport
A: An increase in barometric pressure.
B: An increase in ambient temperature.
C: A decrease in relative humidity.

A

B

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9
Q

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A: stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
B: stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
C: friction between the wind and the surface.

A

C

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10
Q

What is meant by the term “dewpoint’’
A: The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
B: The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
C: The temperature at which dew will always form.

A

B

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11
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
A: stability of the air.
B: dewpoint.
C: air temperature.

A

C

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12
Q

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
A: relative humidity reaches 100 percent.
B: water vapor is present.
C: water vapor condenses.

A

C

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13
Q

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air
A: Evaporation and sublimation.
B: Heating and condensation.
C: Supersaturation and evaporation.

A

A

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14
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost
A: The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface.
B: The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface.
C: The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.

A

C

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15
Q

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
A: is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.
B: are thunderstorms in the area.
C: has been cold frontal passage.

A

A

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16
Q

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere
A: Atmospheric pressure.
B: Surface temperature.
C: Actual lapse rate.

A

C

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17
Q

What would decrease the stability of an air mass
A: Warming from below.
B: Cooling from below.
C: Decrease in water vapor.

A

A

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18
Q

What is a characteristic of stable air
A: Stratiform clouds.
B: Unlimited visibility.
C: Cumulus clouds.

A

A

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19
Q

Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to
A: produce stratus type clouds.
B: cause showers and thunderstorms.
C: develop convective turbulence.

A

A

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20
Q

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected
A: Stratus clouds with little vertical development.
B: Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence.
C: Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.

A

C

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21
Q

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion
A: Chinook winds on mountain slopes.
B: An unstable layer of air.
C: A stable layer of air.

A

C

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22
Q

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F
A: 4,000 feet MSL.
B: 5,000 feet MSL.
C: 6,000 feet MSL.

A

C

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23
Q

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82 °F and the dewpoint is 38 °F
A: 11,000 feet AGL.
B: 10,000 feet AGL.
C: 9,000 feet AGL.

A

B

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24
Q

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass
A: Poor visibility and smooth air.
B: Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
C: Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.

A

B

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25
Q

What are characteristics of unstable air
A: Turbulence and good surface visibility.
B: Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
C: Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.

A

A

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26
Q

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic
A: Turbulent air.
B: Showery precipitation.
C: Smooth air.

A

C

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27
Q

The suffix “nimbus,’’ used in naming clouds, means
A: a rain cloud.
B: a middle cloud containing ice pellets.
C: a cloud with extensive vertical development.

A

A

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28
Q

Clouds are divided into four families according to their
A: height range.
B: composition.
C: outward shape.

A

A

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29
Q

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as
A: a funnel cloud.
B: an inactive frontal cloud.
C: a lenticular cloud.

A

C

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30
Q

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as
A: roll clouds.
B: standing lenticular clouds.
C: mammatocumulus clouds.

A

B

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31
Q

What clouds have the greatest turbulence
A: Towering cumulus.
B: Nimbostratus.
C: Cumulonimbus.

A

C

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32
Q

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence
A: Nimbostratus clouds.
B: Cirrus clouds.
C: Towering cumulus clouds.

A

C

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33
Q

The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a
A: frontogenesis.
B: frontolysis.
C: front.

A

C

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34
Q

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
A: an increase in cloud coverage.
B: a change in temperature.
C: an increase in relative humidity.

A

B

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35
Q

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
A: stability of the air mass.
B: type of precipitation.
C: wind direction.

A

C

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36
Q

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
A: cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
B: stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
C: stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

A

C

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37
Q

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
A: down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.
B: parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.
C: across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

A

C

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38
Q

Where does wind shear occur
A: Only at lower altitudes.
B: Only at higher altitudes.
C: At all altitudes, in all directions.

A

C

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39
Q

When may hazardous wind shear be expected
A: When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.
B: In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
C: Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.

A

B

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40
Q

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
A: 10 knots.
B: 15 knots.
C: 25 knots.

A

C

41
Q

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
A: visible moisture.
B: stratiform clouds.
C: small temperature/dewpoint spread.

A

A

42
Q

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate
A: Freezing drizzle.
B: Freezing rain.
C: Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.

A

B

43
Q

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight
A: Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
B: Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby decreasing lift.
C: Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

A

C

44
Q

How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff
A: Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing lift during takeoff.
B: Frost may cause the airplane to become airborne with a lower angle of attack at a lower indicated airspeed.
C: Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.

A

C

45
Q

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and
A: unstable, moist air.
B: either stable or unstable air.
C: unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei.

A

A

46
Q

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm
A: Continuous updraft.
B: Roll cloud.
C: Frequent lightning.

A

A

47
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm
A: Maximum growth rate of the clouds.
B: Precipitation beginning to fall.
C: The appearance of an anvil top.

A

B

48
Q

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms
A: High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
B: High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
C: Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.

A

B

49
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts
A: Cumulus.
B: Dissipating.
C: Mature.

A

B

50
Q

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
A: cumulus stage.
B: mature stage.
C: downdraft stage.

A

B

51
Q

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
A: squall line thunderstorms.
B: warm front thunderstorms.
C: steady-state thunderstorms.

A

A

52
Q

A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known as a
A: squall line.
B: prefrontal system.
C: dry line.

A

A

53
Q

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach
A: Steady rain.
B: Wind-shear turbulence.
C: Precipitation static.

A

B

54
Q

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain
A: Constant altitude and airspeed.
B: Constant angle of attack.
C: Level flight attitude.

A

C

55
Q

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog
A: The movement of cold air over much warmer water.
B: Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
C: Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.

A

B

56
Q

If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 °F, what type weather is most likely to develop
A: Thunderstorms.
B: Freezing precipitation.
C: Fog or low clouds.

A

C

57
Q

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form
A: A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.
B: A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains.
C: An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.

A

C

58
Q

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist
A: Radiation fog and ice fog.
B: Steam fog and ground fog.
C: Advection fog and upslope fog.

A

C

59
Q

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog
A: Rain-induced fog.
B: Upslope fog.
C: Steam fog.

A

C

60
Q

The development of thermals depends upon
A: solar heating.
B: temperature inversions.
C: a counterclockwise circulation of air.

A

A

61
Q

Which is considered to be the most hazardous condition when soaring in the vicinity of thunderstorms
A: Static electricity.
B: Wind shear and turbulence.
C: Lightning.

A

B

62
Q

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by
A: warm, dense air moving inland from over the water.
B: water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land.
C: cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

A

C

63
Q

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm
A: Hail.
B: Lightning.
C: Heavy rain.

A

B

64
Q

Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source
A: Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB’s).
B: Area Forecasts.
C: Terminal Forecasts.

A

A

65
Q

Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB’s) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain
A: VOR and NDB frequencies.
B: airport advisory frequencies.
C: ATIS frequencies.

A

A

66
Q

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
A: fuel on board.
B: true airspeed.
C: the aircraft identification or the pilot’s name.

A

C

67
Q

To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request
A: a standard briefing.
B: a general briefing.
C: an abbreviated briefing.

A

A

68
Q

Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received
A: Outlook briefing.
B: Standard briefing.
C: Abbreviated briefing.

A

B

69
Q

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data
A: An abbreviated briefing.
B: An outlook briefing.
C: A supplemental briefing.

A

A

70
Q

To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request
A: a standard briefing.
B: an abbreviated briefing.
C: an outlook briefing.

A

B

71
Q

A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is
A: an outlook briefing.
B: a prognostic briefing.
C: a forecast briefing.

A

A

72
Q

When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request
A: an outlook briefing.
B: a standard briefing.
C: an abbreviated briefing.

A

A

73
Q

(Refer to figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather
A: KINK, KBOI, and KLAX.
B: KINK, KBOI, and KJFK.
C: All.

A

A

74
Q

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the
A: lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.
B: lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.
C: lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

A

C

75
Q

(Refer to figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from
A: 180° true at 4 knots.
B: 040° true at 18 knots.
C: 180° magnetic at 4 knots.

A

A

76
Q

(Refer to figure 12.) What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)
A: Calm.
B: 111° at 2 knots, gusts 18 knots.
C: 110° at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots.

A

C

77
Q

(Refer to figure 12.) The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means
A: blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM.
B: the barometer has risen .35” Hg.
C: rain began at 1835Z.

A

C

78
Q

(Refer to figure 12.) What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)
A: Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, rain.
B: Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2SM, with rain.
C: Sky 7000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, heavy rain.

A

A

79
Q

(Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
A: 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.
B: 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL.
C: 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL.

A

A

80
Q

Refer to figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
A: 009° at 121 MPH and 90 °F.
B: 090° at 21 knots and -9 °C.
C: 090° at 21 knots and -9 °F.

A

B

81
Q

(Refer to figure 14.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling
A: 1,295 feet AGL.
B: 505 feet AGL.
C: 6,586 feet AGL.

A

B

82
Q

(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is
A: moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet.
B: moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.
C: light to moderate from 7,200 feet to 8,900 feet.

A

B

83
Q

(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is
A: light to moderate.
B: moderate rime.
C: light to moderate clear.

A

C

84
Q

From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast
A: Weather Depiction Chart.
B: Area Forecast.
C: Low-Level Prognostic Chart.

A

B

85
Q

(Refer to figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM
A: 1200Z to 1800Z.
B: 1200Z to 1200Z.
C: 1800Z to 1800Z.

A

C

86
Q

(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF for KMEM, what does “SHRA” stand for
A: A significant change in precipitation is possible.
B: A shift in wind direction is expected.
C: Rain showers.

A

C

87
Q

Refer to figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be
A: 3 statute miles.
B: 1/2 statute mile.
C: 6 statute miles.

A

A

88
Q

(Refer to figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast
A: No significant wind.
B: 020° at 8 knots.
C: Variable in direction at 4 knots.

A

C

89
Q

(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the “FM (FROM) Group” is
A: forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from 160° at 10 knots, becoming 210° at 15 knots.
B: forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from 160° at 10 knots.
C: forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from 160° at 10 knots, becoming 220° at 13 knots with gusts to 20 knots.

A

B

90
Q

(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes
A: overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
B: overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
C: overcast at 200 feet with a 40% probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

A

A

91
Q

(Refer to figure 15.) During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what significant weather is forecast for KOKC
A: Visibility - possibly 6 statute miles with scattered clouds at 4,000 feet.
B: Wind - 210° at 15 knots.
C: No significant weather is forecast for this time period.

A

C

92
Q

(Refer to figure 15.) The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is
A: Scattered cumulus.
B: Cumulonimbus.
C: Nimbostratus.

A

B

93
Q

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to
A: Area Forecasts.
B: Weather Depiction Charts.
C: Satellite Maps.

A

A

94
Q

(Refer to figure 16.) What is the forecast ceiling and visibility for Tennessee from 2300Z through 0500Z
A: 3,000 feet or greater, and 5 miles or greater.
B: 500 feet to less than 1,000 feet, and 1 mile to less than 3 miles.
C: 1,000 to 3,000 feet, and 3 to 5 miles.

A

A

95
Q

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the
A: Weather Depiction Chart.
B: Radar Summary Chart.
C: Area Forecast.

A

C

96
Q

The section of the Area Forecast entitled “SIG CLDS AND WX’’ contains a summary of
A: weather advisories still in effect at the time of issue.
B: cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by states or other geographical areas.
C: forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to vision along specific routes.

A

B

97
Q

(Refer to figure 16.) What hazards are forecast in the Area Forecast for TN, AL, and the coastal waters
A: Thunderstorms with severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear.
B: Moderate rime icing above the freezing level to 10,000 feet.
C: Moderate turbulence from 25,000 to 38,000 feet due to the jetstream.

A

C

98
Q

(Refer to figure 16.) What type obstructions to vision, if any, are forecast for the entire area from 2300Z until 0500Z the next day
A: None of any significance, VFR is forecast.
B: Visibility 3 to 5 miles in fog.
B: Visibility below 3 miles in fog over south-central Texas.

A

A

99
Q

(Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for all the area except TN from 1040Z until 2300Z
A: Generally ceilings 3,000 to 8,000 feet to clear with visibility sometimes below 3 miles in fog.
B: 8,000 feet scattered to clear except visibility below 3 miles in fog until 1500Z over south-central Texas.
C: Ceilings 3,000 to 5,000 feet broken, visibility 3 to 5 miles in fog.

A

B

Aviation Part 2 (1 decks)

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