NEW HY INCORRECT Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract?

A

Meckel’s Diverticulum

True Diverticulum (all 3 layers) – Persistence of the VITELLINE DUCT

Abnormal fibrous connection b/t ILEUM & Umbilicus

Can cause Vitelline duct cysts

TERMINAL ILEUM

Can cause Iron Deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Markers for Down Syndrome?

A

INCREASED HCG & Inhibin

DECREASED AFP & Estriol

AML most common BEFORE 5 years old

Atrial Septal Defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pancoast Tumor affects what part of the lung?

MC Symptoms?

A

Carcinoma that occurs in APEX of lung

SHOULDER pain is MC sx – Unilateral symptoms d/t damage to AUTONOMIC GANGLIA

Stellate Ganglion damaged – LMN pattern

Hoarseness (Recurrent laryngeal nerve)

Horner syndrome – Ipsilateral ptosis, Miosis, Anhidrosis
– Pupil Asymmetry more prominent w/ DIM LIGHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Erythema Multiforme most commonly presents with which type of infection?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

Rash looks like Targets with rings surrounding them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

G6PD deficiency labs?

What type of Anemia?

A

Normocytic – Intrinsic hemolytic anemia

Patients present with back / abdominal pain along with DARK URINE a few days after oxidant stress i.e. Sulfa Drugs, Dapsone, Fava beans

Increased Reticulocyte count produced by bone marrow in response to the anemia

Increased Indirect bilirubin from the hemoglobin degradation

Increased Lactate dehydrogenase – breakdown of hemoglobin

DECREASED Haptoglobin – Haptoglobin binds free hemoglobin, so naturally it decreases due to hemoglobin destruction

Heinz Bodies – Denatured hemoglobin inclusions

Bite Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Posterior Hip Dislocation affects what nerve?

A

Sciatic nerve & Inferior gluteal nerve (Gluteus maximus)

Affected leg appears shortened & internally rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Arginase Deficiency is a part of what cycle?

A

Urea Cycle

Arginase is a urea cycle enzyme that produces Urea & Ornithine from Arginine

Deficiency leads to spastic diplegia, growth delay, & abnormal movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Huntington Disease Inheritance?

Neurotransmitter’s that are high? low?

Presentation?

A

Autosomal Dominant – CAG repeats – Toxic Gain of Function

INCREASED dopamine (Hence the Chorea)

DECREASED GABA & Acetylcholine

Chorea, Psychiatric symptoms, & Subsequent dementia

Atrophy of the CAUDATE & Putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Albinism caused by deficiency of what enzyme?

A

Tyrosinase

Tyrosinase is responsible for conversion of DOPA to Melanin – w/o it you don’t get melanin you stupid fuck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Potter Sequence?

A

Due to severe Oligohydramnios

Urinary tract anomaly – Bilateral renal agenesis = Decreased Urine output = Very low amniotic fluid = Baby is getting crushed and everything is flat

Lungs get crushed, Pulmonary Hypoplasia = Hypoxia, which is the MCC death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Polyhydramnios associated with which fetal malformations?

A

Esophageal & Duodenal atresia

So now baby can’t swallow amniotic fluid which results in a LOTTTT of it

Also associated with Anencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is HY about Charcot-Marie-Tooth?

A

Abnormal function of Myelin Protein

Progressive hereditary nerve disorders d/t defective production of proteins needed for peripheral nerves / myelin sheath

HY association – Foot Deformities – Hammer toe & Pes Cavus (High Foot Arches that don’t flatten)

LE weakness & Sensory deficits

CMT1A is most common

Differentiate from Duchenne & Becker because these disorders have PSEUDOHYPERTROPHY rather than Atrophy of the calf muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome pathogenesis?

A

Superantigens (Exotoxins) bind to MHC-II & then nonspecifically activate T cells – This activation causes a huge release in inflammatory cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Left-Dominant Heart supplies AV node by which artery?

Right-Dominant Heart supplies AV node by which artery?

A

Left Circumflex in left heart

Right coronary in right heart (90%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tenofovir main SE?

A

Can damage Proximal Tubule – AKI

Specific focal damage to the proximal tubule is the key here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PTH given in a PULSATILE manner has what affect on bone?

A

ANABOLIC

Stimulates osteoblast proliferation & Increases formation of new bone

  • literally opposite of what PTH normally does. Regularly, Increased PTH would induce osteoclasts to breakdown bone which then increases serum calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HY for Membranous Nephropathy?

A

If it’s Primary = IgG-4 Antibodies to Phospholipase-A2 receptor

Secondary = NSAID, Penicillamine, HEPATITIS, SLE

GMB Thickening

GRANULAR d/t immune deposition

SUBEPITHELIAL DEPOSITS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How to Differentiate Kawasaki vs. Hand/foot/mouth

A

HFM has Oropharyngeal sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Kawasaki HY?

A

FEVER for MORE than 5 days – Doesn’t subside w/ medication

Children UNDER 5 YO

Bilateral Conjunctivitis

Fissured lips w/ STRAWBERRY tongue

Distal Extremity changes – erythema & edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gastric surgery to place a band around the stomach must pass through which structure?

A

Lesser Omentum – Divided into hepatogastric & hepatoduodenal ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

VSD Murmur type? pathology?

A

Holosystolic murmur @ left lower sternal border (Tricuspid Area)

Insufficient development of inter-ventricular septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

H. Pylori is Urease positive which means what?

A

Urease splits Urea into Co2 & AMMONIA – Neutralizes local acidic gastric pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How to Glucocorticoids lead to loss of bone density?

A

They inhibit replication & differentiation of OSTEOBLAST precursor cells, Increase osteoclast activity & promote renal calcium wasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which diuretic is used for its beneficial effect on calcium homeostasis - thus helping fight osteoporosis?

A

Thiazide Diuretics – HCTZ

Inhibits NaCl reabsorption in DCT – DECREASES CALCIUM EXCRETION

SE = Hyperglycemia, Hyperlipidemia, Hyperuricemia, Hypercalcemia

Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What cells proliferate during lung injury?

A

Type II Pneumocytes

Source of pulmonary surfactant & produce Type I Pneumocytes

When they mention alveolus / alveolar in the question… Pick TYPE 2 2 2 2 22 2 2 2 22 2 2 2 2 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What results in an abnormal connection b/t the bladder & the umbilicus?

A

Patent Urachus (Median umbilical ligament)

if it’s fully patent – Urinary leakage through your belly button

Partial patency results in bladder diverticulum & Increases UTI risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Patients with previous BCG vaccination can have what type of TB test?

A

FALSE POSITIVE – not false negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why would a patient with an active TB infection have a negative TB test?

A

Impaired cell mediated immune response – Inadequate lymphocytic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hyperthyroidism causes an up-regulation of beta-adrenergic receptor expression – Leads to increased catecholamine effect

So giving a patient Propranolol works by doing what?

A

Reduce the conversion of T4 to T3 by inhibiting 5-Monodeiodinase in peripheral tissues (Similar to PTU & Glucocorticoids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Candida Vulvovaginitis signs / symptoms?

Labs?

Treatment?

A

Pruritic w/ inflammation & Thick white COTTAGE CHEESE PUSSY

Normal pH & Pseudohyphae

Associated w/ Recent antibiotic use that decrease gram (+) Lactobacillus

FLUCONAZOLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis signs / symptoms?

Labs?

Treatment?

A

Thin white discharge with FISHY SMELLY PUSSY

Clue cells with pH >4.5 (Alkaline) & (+) KOH whiff test

Metronidazole / Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Trichomonas Vaginitis signs / symptoms?

Labs?

Treatment?

A

Inflamed STRAWBERRY PUSSY

Frothy YELLOW GREEN foul discharge

Motile Pear-shaped & pH >4.5 (Alkaline)

Metronidazole & Treat SEXUAL PARTNERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What causes neonatal hypoglycemia?

A

Infants of Diabetic mothers

Maternal hyperglycemia causes fetal hyperglycemia w/ a compensatory HYPERFUNCTIONING PANCREAS

This hyperfunctioning causes hyperinsulinemia – so after birth this increased insulin leads to transient hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Growth of Candida on sputum cultures almost always indicates what?

A

Oral contamination of normal flora rather than pulmonary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Normal morphological changes of an aged heart?

A

Decreased LV chamber

Sigmoid shaped ventricular septum

Myocardial atrophy w/ collagen deposition

Brown Lipofuscin pigment (lipid oxidation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which NRTI is contraindicated in patients with the HLA-B*57:01 Allele?

A

Abacavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which Hepatitis virus Lacks a 3’-5’ Exonuclease activity?

A

Hepatitis C

– So it can’t proofread, which then causes antigenic variation of the enveloped proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cavernous sinus syndrome has what affect on CN?

A

Compresses / stretches the Abducens Nerve causing weakness of the Lateral rectus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What effect does low BP have on Baroreceptor firing & ANP?

A

Low BP = Decreased arterial distension = REDUCED firing of aortic & carotid baroreceptors

This leads to Increase in sympathetics = Increased contractility

& since we have Hypovolemia, there is less atrial stretch which means DECREASED ANP

Overall – INCREASED contractility & DECREASED baroreceptor firing & ANP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Narcolepsy CSF levels of Hypocretin-1?

A

DECREASED Hypocretin-1 in CSF

Shortened REM latency – knocking the fuck out fast

Cataplexy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Urinary concentration of which substance is indicative of early diabetic nephropathy?

A

ALBUMIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Polymyositis characterized by what?

Most often involves what body part?

A

Overexpression of MHC-1 leads to infiltration with CD8+ T Lymphocytes w/ endomysial inflammation

Anti-Jo-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How to differentiate b/t Polymyositis & Dermatomyositis?

A

Dermatomyositis Involves Gottron papules – Heliotrope edema of the eyelids

Hyperkeratosis of the skin

Perimysial inflammation w/ CD4+ T cells

(Vs. CD8+ in Polymyositis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica characterized by? What does it NOT have that polymyositis has?

A

Myalgias of the shoulder & pelvic girdle w/ fever & weight loss

NO WEAKNESS (differ from polymyositis)

Almost exclusively in patients over 50 (& Females)

Increase in ESR & CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Digoxin MOA & SE?

A

Direct inhibition of Na/K ATPase

Increases intracellular calcium to increase contractility. Stimulates Vagus nerve = Decreases HR

HYPERKALEMIA – sign of digoxin toxicity

Blurry yellow vision

Underlying Hypokalemia is the MCC of Digoxin toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does infection lead to leukocytosis?

A

Neutrophils are most prominent in blood, however, the vast majority are held in reserves in the BONE MARROW

Infection mobilizes the BM – Mediated by increased cytokines i.e. TNF alpha – This then demarginalizes neutrophils from endothelial attachment & contributes to leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for infection from Clostridium Septicum?

A

Underlying colonic malignancy

C. Septicum is the MCC of spontaneous gas gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Spironolactone in patients w/ cirrhosis is used to induce natriuresis without blocking what?

A

W/o blocking the critical vasoconstrictive effects of Angiotensin

Commonly used w/ Furosemide (Loop)

Background: Cirrhosis – Portal hypertension leads to splanchnic vasodilation – this decreases the effective arterial volume & Lowers BP – This drop causes RAAS activation which promotes vasoconstriction (Angiotensin) & Fluid & sodium retention by kidneys (Aldosterone)

Aldosterone antagonist (Spironolactone) interrupts the cycle but allows the vasoconstriction to occur while getting rid of the ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

HOCM leads to obstruction of what?

A

Left ventricular outflow tract d/t hypertrophied interventricular septum & abnormal anterior motion of the MITRAL VALVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Placental abruption pathophysiology?

A

Rupture of the maternal vessels @ the uteroplacental interface – Leads to placental separation from the myometrium

Tender & firm uterus

Abrupt, Painful vaginal bleeding in 3rd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Placenta Accreta pathophys?

A

Trophoblast attaches to myometrium w/o invading it

Diagnosed after baby delivery – Postpartum hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Placenta Previa pathophys?

A

Extension of placental tissue over the cervix

MCC of PAINLESS vaginal bleeding in the 3rd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hyper-IgM Syndrome pathophysiology?

Labs?

A

Defective CD40L on CD4+ Lymphocytes – Impaired T cell activation of B cells

NO GERMINAL CENTERS

ONLY increased IgM, everything else is decreased

Recurrent Sinopulmonary infections, GI (Giardia) & Pneumocystis

Fungal & CMV

Background - CD40 Ligand is on the surface of CD4 cells. This CD40 Ligand binds to the CD40 on B cells – a necessary step for class-switching, allowing them to produce IgE, IgA, & IgG INSTEAD of IgM & IgD

So, defective CD40L defectiveness is unable to generate anything other than IgM

CD40 is expressed on B cells. CD40-Ligand is expressed on T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia is due to a mild deficiency in what enzyme?

A

21-Hydroxylase

21-Hydroxylase converts Progesterone to 11-Deoxycorticosterone

It also converts 17-Hydroxyprogesterone into 11-Deoxycortisol

Since this is Nonclassical (Meaning not @ birth) – Presents as adolescent girls w/ signs of Hyperandrogenism (Hirsutism, acne)

INCREASE in 17-Hydroxyprogesterone & Testosterone

Increase in potassium & sex hormones

Decrease in mineralocorticoids & BP & Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which enzyme converts Testosterone to Estradiol?

A

Aromatase

Aromatase deficiency therefore leads to primary amenorrhea, NO breasts, & virilized genitalia (BIG CLIT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a Pathognomonic finding of Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

GIANT CYTOPLASMIC GRANULES within neutrophils

CHS = Defect in lysosomal trafficking

Microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion

ALBINISM & Neurologic sx (Nystagmus)

Background: Neutrophil phagosome-lysosome fusion is defected = prevents release of cytotoxic granules = Can’t kill bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What’s the best medication to use in patient’s having a Hypertensive emergency but with Renal insufficiency?

A

FenoldopamPeripheral Dopamine-1 Receptor AGONIST

Vasodilates systemic & RENAL ARTERIOLES to lower BP but also increasing renal perfusion & NATRIURESIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Donepezil is 1st line TX for?

A

Alzheimer’s – provides improvement of cognitive symptoms BUT does NOT alter the inevitable disease progression

AChE Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When you hear FIXED WIDE SPLITTING OF S2 – Automatically what?

What murmur is associated?

A

ASD

Midsystolic ejection murmur – due to increased flow from pulmonic valve

Background: ASD cause fixed wide splitting of S2 d/t right-sided volume overload d/t left-to-right shunting

When left uncorrected, defects lead to irreversible hypertrophy of the pulmonary arteries w/ pulmonary HTN & reversal right-to-left shunting (i.e. Eisenmenger syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Old man with bilateral flank pain & Renal dysfunction - What is causing it?

A

Urethral compression due to BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

NF type 1 has what type of inheritance?

A

Autosomal Dominant w/ 100% penetrance – Gene located on Chromosome 17
* Cafe Au Lait Spots
* Optic gliomas
* Seizures
* Pheochromocytomas

NF type 2 is also AD but on CH. 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction – Calcium released from SER binds to what?

A

Calcium binds to Troponin C – Allowing the binidng of actin to myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Lats innervated by what nerve?

A

Thoracodorsal Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a Capitation Payment model?

A

The Payor pays a fixed & predetermined fee to provide all services required by a patient

Used by some HMOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

MEN Type 1 classified by what?

A

Primary Hyperparathyroidism (Parathyroid adenomas or hyperplasaia)

Pitutiary tumors (Prolactin, visual defects)

Pancreatic tumors (Gastrinomas)

Only MEN with Pituitary & Pancreatic involvement & MEN-1 Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

MEN type 2 classifed by what?

A

Medullary thyroid cancer (Calcitonin)

Pheochromocytoma

Primary Hyperparathyroidism

RET Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

MEN type 3 classified by what?

A

Medullary Thyroid cancer (Calcitonin)

Pheochromocytoma

Mucosal Neuromas & Marfanoid habitus

RET mutation – Only one without hyperparahyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the most common cause of T1D?

A

Autoimmune Insulitis w/ Progressive beta cell loss

Leukocytic infiltration of islets by inflammatory cells is called insulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

PPI MOA? SE?

A

Irreversibly inhibit parietal cell Hydrogen-Potassium-ATPase

MALABSORPTION of Calcium, Iron, Magnesium, & B12

However, enhances Fat absorption in patients given pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy

Pneumonia, Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Loperamide MOA?

A

Opioid AGONIST – Binds to mu opiate receptors – inhibits the release of Acetylcholine release – Slows Peristalsis

Traveler’s Diarrhea

DOES NOT CROSS BBB – Avoiding systemic opiate-related adverse events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Jersey Finger affected tendon?

A

Flexor Digitorum Profundus

Susceptible to rupture when an actively flexed DIP joint is forcefully hyperextended

Rupture = Inability to flex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome mechanism? Presentation?

A

Immune mediated polyneuropathy due to cross reacting Antibodies – MOLECULAR MIMICRY

Following Viral illness or mainly Campylobacter

Affects Schwann cells & Myelin sheaths

SYMMETRICAL ASCENDING WEAKNESS beginning @ legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Postpartum thyroiditis differentiating features?

A

Hyperthyroid phase for first 1-3 months d/t release of PREFORMED THYROID HORMONE

Hypothyroid phase d/t depletion of thyroid hormone stores

Recovery phase w/ euthyroid state

Autoimmune disorder w/ lymphocytic thyroid inflammation

DECREASED Radioiodine uptake & Decreased blood flow on doppler US

Positive TPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Polyarteritis Nodosa mainly involves which vessels?

What is it commonly associated with?

A

Typically involves Renal & Visceral vessels – NOT pulmonary

Transmural inflammation w/ Fibrinoid necrosis

Hepatitis B Seropositivity (Sometimes Hep C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Rhabdomyolysis pathogenesis? Cause?

A

Myoglobin, Electrolyte release d/t myocyte injury

Common with crush injuries, SEIZURES, & Statins

Can cause ATN due to heme pigment released from myoglobin

Positive BLOOD on urine dipstick in the ABSENCE of RBC suggests myoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Severe tetraology of Fallot neonate w/ cyanosis immediate administration of which drug?

A

Prostaglandin E1 – Prevents closure of the ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Regardless of hydration status – majority of water reabsorption in the nephron occurs where?

A

Proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Apixaban, Edoxaban, & Rivaroxaban MOA?

Uses?

Reversal?

A

Binds active site of Xa & Prevents the conversion of Prothrombin to Thrombin

Used as stroke prophylaxis in patients w/ AFib

Bleeding reversed with AndeXAnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia is associated with which translocation?

Responds to what?

MC presentation?

A

15;17 Translocation

Responds to All-Trans Retinoic Acid

DIC is the most common presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Glucocorticoids increase the Apoptosis of which cells?

Increase the production of which Interluekin?

A

Eosinophils, T cells, & Monocytes

Increase IL-10 (Anti-inflammatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Testes drain into?

Scortum drains into?

A

Testes = Para-Aortic

Scrotum = Superificial inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Anytime SVR is decreased + SVO2 Increased – What type of shock is it?

A

Distributive Shock – Sepsis / Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Why is the Right Ventricle relatively protected after an MI?

A

Because it is perfused throughout the cardiac cycle

Vs. the LV only diffused during diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

21-Hydroxylase catalyzes the conversion of what?

A

Conversion of Progesterone to 11-Deoxycorticosterone (Aldosterone precursor) – Zona Glomerulosa

Also Converts 17-Hydroxyprogesterone to 11-Deoxycortisol (Cortisol Precursor) – Zona Fasiculata

Deficiency means ACTH levels are increased as a result of low cortisol levels

High serum 17-Hydrooxyprogesterone confirms the DX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Barrett Esophagus epithelium?

What type of cancer are you prone to when you have Barrett’s?

A

You go from Nonkeratinized Stratified Squamous epithelium to Nonciliated COLUMNAR epithelium w/ Goblet cells

Increased risk of Esophageal ADENOCARCINOMA

Adenocarcinoma of the Distal 1/3 of Esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Hydralazine MOA?

A

ARTERIAL Vasodilator that has little effect on veins

Increases cGMP & Reduces Afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Nitroprusside MOA?

SE?

A

Strong acting Vasodilator for both arteries & veins

SE = Cyanide poisoning

TX = Amylnitrite w/ B12 & then Methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is Acanthosis Nigricans?

A

Hyperpigmented plaques @ flexural areas – Neck / & Armpit

Associated with Diabetes, Obesity, Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is Actinic Keratosis?

A

Hyperkeratotic lesions in SUN EXPOSED areas of scalp, ears, face, & hands

Unpigmented

Risk of squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is Lichen Planus?

A

Polygonal, Planar, Pruritic, Purplish Plauqes on wrists, hands, trunk, legs

Fine white lines (Wickham Striae) present on plaque surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which nerve root is MC affected in patients with cervical radiculopathy?

A

C7 root

Deficits across the median & radial distributions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What arterial blood gas has the most powerful effect on cerebral blood flow?

A

PaCO2

Drop in PaCO2 d/t hyperventilation causes vasoconstriction

Lowering PaCO2 is one of the measures employed to reduce ICP in mechanically ventilated patients with cerebral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which test can you run to confirm the diagnosis of Chronic Granulomatous disease?

A

Absence of fluorescence on dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry = Confirmatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Carcinoid tumors are typically confined to the intestine – The secretory products of these tumors go through 1st pass metabolism and therefore don’t reach systemic circulation – But when they do, it is now called what?

A

Carcinoid Syndrome

METS has already reached the liver – Avoid 1st pass metabolism & now systemic issues

Flushing, Diarrhea, Bronchospasm

Increased 5-HIAA in urine

Can also cause PellagraNiacin deficiency

TX = Octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Hepatic Angiosarcoma associated with exposure to?

A

Vinyl Chloride / Arsenic

Express CD31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Hepatic Adenoma MC in which population?

What are main risk facotrs?

A

Women

OCP’s & Steroids

Rupture & shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is increased in Hemophilia?

A

Only PTT; all other tests normal

Autosomal Recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Colorectal cancer has bad prognosis when the tumor penetrates what strcuture?

A

Muscularis Propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Anal Squamous Cell Carcinoma strong association with which virus?

Histology?

A

Strong HPV association

Presents w/ Rectal bleeding, Pruritis, Pain, Ulcerated anal lesion

Histology will show Eosinophilic squamous cells arranged in islands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

VIPoma Leads to hypersecretion of VIP – What electrolyte abnormalities do you see?

A

Increased VIP = Excess chloride LOSS in the stool along w/ Water, Na+ & K+

HYPOKALEMIA

WATERY DIARRHEA

VIP inhibits Gastric acid secretion

TX = Somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Glucokinase where?

Hexokinase where?

A

Glucokinase – Liver

Hexokinase – Brain, Heart, Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

D-Xylose in stool is a sign of what?

A

Osmotic Diarrhea

D-Xylose test is ABNORMAL in Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

4 causes of Secretory diarrhea?

A

Vibrio Cholera – Curved

VIPoma

ETEC - E. Coli

Cryptosporidium

V-VEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Increase in Insulin & C-Peptide?

A

Endogenous insulin production / Insulinoma

i.e. Sulfonyureas (Glyburide)

This is considered endogenous because these medications are increasing insulin production – therefore it is also producing C-peptide vs. exogenous insulin which is just an analog

Also increased in Insulinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Increase in insulin but LOW C-Peptide?

A

Factitious – Injecting yourself w/ Insulin

This is exogenous because it is an insulin analog

106
Q

cAMP works w/ Sympathetics & Catabolic processes

cAMP activates what?

A

Activates Protein Kinase A

Magnesium as a cofactor

Phosphodiesterase 1

107
Q

cGMP works w/ Parasympathetic & Anabolic Processes

A

Phosphodiesterase 5

Guanylate cyclase

108
Q

Exogenous Thyrotoxicosis i.e. Levothyroxine use – Labs?

A

Increased T4/T3

Decreased TSH (-) feedback

RAIU is LOW

RAIU correlates w/ synthesis of new thyroid hormone so w/ exogenous administration, endogenous synthesis is suppressed, making RAIU low

Thyroglobulin serves as a source of tyrosine residues for thyroid synthesis – So w/ exogenous abuse, serum thyroglobulin is LOW

109
Q

What does Aortic Regurgitation do to diastolic BP?

A

Reduces diastolic BP w/ a compensatory increase in LV stroke volume

Widened pulse pressure

Head bobbing

Pistol shot femoral pulses

110
Q

Buzz word for Ebstein anomaly?

A

Atrialization

Lithium exposure in utero

Tricuspid Regurgitation

111
Q

Rhonchi seen in?

A

Obstructive

Air over mucus

112
Q

Crackles seen in?

A

Restrictive

Collapsed airways popping open

113
Q

Fremitus

Consolidation on which side?

Atelectasis on which side?

A

Consolidation on same side

Atelectasis on opposite side

Seen in Lobar Pneumonia & Pulmonary Edema

114
Q

Fat Embolism syndrome presentation?

A

24-72 hours after long bone / pelvic fracture

115
Q

Which artery supplies the Posteromedial papillary muscle?

Which artery supplies the Anteromedial papillary muscle?

Which one of these muscles is more prone to ischemic infarct?

A

Posteromedial is solely supplied by the posterior descending artery

Anteromedial is supplied by both the left anterior descending artery & the left circumflex

Since the posteromedial is supplied exclusively by one artery, it is more susceptible to ischemic infarct

116
Q

What is the MCC of Bronchiolitis in babies <2 YO?

A

RSV

Paramyxoviruses

117
Q

Effects of Glucocorticoids?

A
118
Q

Filtration Fraction is usually what % in healthy adults?

A

20%

119
Q

TMJ disorder presentation?

Nerve dysfunction?

A

Facial pain, HA, Ear pain / Muffled hearing

d/t Hypersensitivity of the Mandibular Nerve CN V3 (Trigeminal)

120
Q

IVC is formed by the union of?

A

Right & Left common iliac veins @ the level of L4-L5

121
Q

Proto-oncogenes & Tumor Suppressor associations

A
122
Q

Streptococcus chart

A
123
Q

Leuprolide

Pulsatile for…

Continuous for…

A

Pulsatile for PREGNANCY

Continuous for CANCER

GnRH Agonist in Pulsatile

GnRH Antagonist in continuous

124
Q

Anti-Centromere Antibodies seen in?

A

CREST Syndrome

125
Q

Metabolic effects of administering Glucagon in a patient with Hypoglycemia?

A

Primarily Increases Glycogenolysis

126
Q

What bug causes Achalasia & Megacolon?

A

T. Cruzi

127
Q

Babesiosis spread by which tick?

A

Ixoides Tick

128
Q

Octreotide MOA & SE?

A

Long-acting Somatostatin analog

Causes indirect vasoconstriction by inhibiting splanchnic vasodilatory hormones

Used in Acute variceal bleeds to decrease portal blood flow

SE = Cholelithiasis d/t CCK inhibition

129
Q

MifepristONE MOA? Indication?

A

Competitive inhibitor of Progestin @ ProgesterONE receptors

Used for abortion

Used with Misoprostol (Prostaglandin E1 agonist)

130
Q

If a child with absence seizures also develops tonic-clonic seizures, what is the best long-term management?

A

Valproic Acid – Treats both types

Increases Na+ channel inactivation

Increases GABA concentration by inhibiting GABA transaminase

SE = Hepatotoxic, Pancreatitis, P-450 inhibitor, Tremor

131
Q

Huntington’s repeat of what gene?

Which NT are increased? What is decreased?

What gets atrophied?

A

AD CAG repeat’s – Toxic gain of function

Increase in dopamine

Decrease in GABA & ACh

Neuronal death via NMDA-R binding & glutamate excitotoxicity

Caudate atrophy – Results in enlargement of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricle

132
Q

How to differentiate Asbestos from Silica exposure?

A

Asbestos – Interstitial pattern in the LOWER zones

Silica – Nodules in the UPPER lobes

133
Q

Romberg sign indicates what?

A

Sensory Ataxia

Defects in the posterior columns or peripheral nerves

Classically Tabes Dorsalis & Vitamin B12 deficiency

134
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux in infants is due to what?

A

Physiologic (normal) low tone in lower esophageal sphincter

135
Q

Sesnsation from anterior 2/3 of tongue?

Taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue?

Taste & Sensation from posterior 1/3 of tongue?

A

Mandibular division of trigeminal (V)

Facial (VII)

Glossopharyngeal (IX)

136
Q

Intention tremor is d/t dysfunction of what?

A

Cerebellar dysfunction

Intention tremors described as low frequency

Tremor increases as hand reaches target

137
Q

Resting tremor is due to dysfunction of what?

A

Basal Ganglia

Seen in Parkinson’s

Loss of Dopaminergic neurons in sunstantia nigra

138
Q

Serratus anterior innervated by what nerve? What procedure is commonly associated?

A

Damage to long thoracic nerve (C5-C7) Wings of heaven

Commonly seen in axillary node dissection after mastectomy

Impaired Abduction of arm

139
Q

Villous Adenomatous polyps aka Villous Adenoma present how?

A

Villous adenomas produce prostaglandin E2 – which increases MUCIN & secretory diarrhea

Mucin is a potassium rich glycoprotein; excessive production leads to hypoproteinemia & hypokalemia

140
Q

CNS lesions typically cause upper or lower facial weakness?

A

LOWER facial weakness that SPARES the forehead on one side of the face

141
Q

HPV Viral protein E6 binds what?

HPV viral protein E7 binds what?

A

E6 Binds TP53 = unregulated cell growth

E7 binds to RB = Promotes unregulated DNA replication

142
Q

Craniopharyngioma presentation & histology?

A

Cystic masses w/ brown & yellow fluid d/t cholesterol crystals

Dystrophic calcificiation of the cysts are highly characteristic

Embryological precursor to anterior pituitary

143
Q

High dose dexamethasone test in a patient w/ ACTH & Small cell lung cancer?

A

NO change in ACTH or cortisol

ACTH & Cortisol will remain elevated

144
Q

Anterior cerebral artery stroke presentation? Lesion occurs proximal or distal to Acom?

A

CONTRALATERAL LOWER limb weakness / sensory loss

Distal to Acom = more severe / symptomatic

Also presents with Urinary incontinence

145
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma presentation?

Likely progression?

A

Pink, pearly nodules

Appear as nonhealing ulcers w/ infiltrating growth

Palisading nuclei

Local growth w/ tissue destruction

Rarely metastasizes

146
Q

Klinefelter chromosomal structure?

Lab findings?

A

Male – 47 XXY

Infertility, gynecomastia, long LE, small & firm testes

Destruction of Seminiferous tubules

Sertoli cell damage causes decreased Inhibin B – Increase in FSH

Leydig cell damage causes decreased testosterone – Increase in LH

Azoospermia (Absent sperm)

147
Q

Which type of beta blockers should you use in acute MI w/ underlying COPD?

A

Cardioselective (A-M)

Predominantly affect beta-1 receptors

Metoprolol

148
Q

SGLT-2 MOA?

SE?

A

Blocks reabsorption of glucose in PCT – thereby decreasing blood glucose levels

SE = Glucosuria (UTIs & Vulvovaginal candiadiasis)

Orthostatic hypotension

Caution w/ Renal insufficiency – Always check serum creatinine

CanagliFLOZIN, DapagliFLOZIN, EmpagliFLOZIN

149
Q

What ages exhibit magical thinking about death?

A

Ages <6

They don’t understand the finality of death usually until age 7

So before this, it is age appropriate to have magical thinking that they will come back to life

150
Q

Lambert-Eaton pathophysiology?

Association?

A

Autoantibodies to PRE-synaptic Ca2+ channel

Proximal muscle weakness w/ HYPOreflexia

Associated w/ SCLC

151
Q

What causes metabolic alkalosis?

A
  1. Vomiting
  2. Loop / Thiazide diuretics
  3. Antacids
  4. Hyperaldosteronism
152
Q

Asbestos pathognomonic

Risk of what cancer?

Which lobes affected?

Sputum sample shows what?

A

Causes pulmonary fibrosis

Ivory white, calcified, supradiaphragmatic, & pleural plaques are pathognomonic

Risk of bronchogenic carcinoma

Affects LOWER lobes

Ferruginous bodies

153
Q

Berylliosis what type of granulomas?

Affects what lobes?

A

Granulomatous (noncaseating)

Upper lobes

Associated w/ aerospace & manufacturing industries

All affect upper except Asbestos

154
Q

Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis have macrophages laden with what?

Affects what lobes?

A

Macrophages laden w/ CARBON

Upper lobes

Small rounded nodular opacities

155
Q

Silicosis associated with what?

Affects what lobes?

CXR?

A

Associated w/ Sandblasting, foundries, mines

Fibrosis – Increased susceptibility to TB

Upper lobes

Eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes on CXR

156
Q

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus pathogenesis?

A

ELDERLY

CSF Pressure is episodically elevated; NO increase in subarachnoid space volume

VENTRICLE EXPANSION

WET WOBBLY WACKY

Form of communicating hydrocephalus

157
Q

Neonatal manifestations of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

CHORIORETINITIS

Hydrocephalus

Intracranial calcifications

+/- blueberry muffin rash

158
Q

Neonatal manifestations of Rubella?

A

Cataracts

Deafness

PDA

+/- blueberry muffin rash

159
Q

Neonatal manifestations of CMV?

A

Hearing loss

Seizures

Blueberry muffin rash

Chorioretinitis

Periventricular calcifications

160
Q

Neonatal manifestation of HIV infection?

A

Chronic diarrhea

161
Q

Neonatal manifestations of HSV-2?

A

Meningoencephalitis

Herpetic vesicular lesions

162
Q

Neonatal manifestations of syphilis?

A

Hydrops fetalis

Facial abnormalities – Saddle nose & Malformed teeth

CN VIII deafness

163
Q

Which 2 bugs cause neonatal conjunctivitis?

A

Neisseria = 3-5 days

Chalmydia = Anything after 5 days

164
Q

Bisphosphonates MOA? SE?

A

Inhibit Osteoclast activity / Increase osteoclast apoptosis

Esophagitis - remain upright for 30 min

OSTEONECROSIS OF THE JAW

Atypical femoral stress fractures

165
Q

Which structure should be ligated prior to Oophrectomy

A

Suspensory ligament of the Ovary – Infundibulopelvic

166
Q

Opioid MOA?

SE?

Toxicity TX? Relapse TX?

A

Agonists @ opioid receptors

CLOSE Presynaptic Ca2+ channels

OPEN Postsynaptic K+ channels = Efflux of K+ = Hyperporalize

Pruritis (histamine release), Constipation

Treat toxicity w/ Naloxone

Treat relapse w/ Naltrexone once detoxified

167
Q

What is unique about the labs in Intravascular hemolysis?

Extravascular hemolysis?

A

Intravascular: Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria & Microangiopathic hemolytic anemias

Decreased Haptoglobin

Increase in schistocytes

Characteristic hemoglobinuria

Extravascular: Herditary sphocytosis & autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Macrophages in the spleen are clearing RBCs = Splenomegaly

Spheroocytes

NO hemooglobinuria

168
Q

Interferon-Gamma action?

A

Activates macrophages

169
Q

TGF-Beta action?

A

Attenuate inflammatory response – Along with IL-10

170
Q

Tuberous sclerosis pathophysiolgy?

A

Mutation in tumor suppressor genes

Hamartomas in CNS

Ash-Leaf spots

Renal angiomyolipoma

Seizures

171
Q

What inclusions on histology are highly specific for Hepatitis B?

A

Homogenous, pale eosinophilic cytoplasm

Ground glass hepatocytes

172
Q

Criteria for exudative pleural effusions?

A

High pleural fluid protein

High lactate dehydrogenase

173
Q

What is Ex Vacuo Ventriculomegaly?

A

NOT a CSF disorder

There is an apperance of increased CSF but it is actually due to decreased brain tissue & neuronal atrophy

Alzheimers, advanced HIV, huntingtons

ICP is normal

174
Q

Key finding in Acute Tubular Necrosis?

What happens in each of the 3 phases?

A

Granular casts – Muddy brown

  1. Inciting event
  2. Maintenance phase = OLIGURIC; lasts for 1-3 weeks. Risk of Hyperkalemia, Metabolic acidosis. Volume overload
  3. Recovery phase = POLYURIC; Risk of Hypokalemia

Why hypokalemia in recovery phase? Because GFR is restored before the tubular resorptive capacity is restored. Thus you’re peeing a lot and not reabsorbing potassium

175
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage d/t rupture of?

Vasospasm occurs when?

Drug used to prevent vasospasm?

A

Rupture of Saccular (Berry) Aneurysm

Vasospasm occurs 3-10 days after

Nimodipine (CCB) Dihydropyridine (which acts on vascular smooth muscle)

Blood pools in the Cerebral Sulci or Basal Cisterns

176
Q

CF in infancy & early childhood MC bug?

CF in adulthood MC bug?

A

S. Aureus in children (Sometimes HIb)

Pseudomonas in Adults

177
Q

Cystic Fibrosis autosomal recessive – Defect in what gene?

Diagnosis?

Presentation?

A

Defect in CFTR gene on chromosome 7

Diagnosis = Increased Cl- concentration in Pilocarpine-induced sweat test

Meconium ileus in newborn

DECREASED FECAL ELASTASE = DX for pancreatic insufficiency (diarrhea)

Nasal Polyps, Hyperinflated lungs, Barrel chest, Digital clubbing

178
Q

Montelukast MOA?

Uses?

A

Block Leukotriene receptors on bronchial smooth muscle – Reduces bronchoconstriction

Good for exercise-induced asthma

179
Q

Fluticasone & Budesonide MOA?

1st line?

A

Inhibit synthesis of all cytokines

Inactivates NF-kB (needed for production of TNF-Alpha)

Decreases activity of Phospholipase A2

1st line for chronic asthma

180
Q

Tiotropium & Ipratropium MOA?

Uses?

A

Stimulate Bronchodilation by competitively blocking muscarinic receptors (block ACh binding to muscarinic receptors)

More so used for COPD than asthma

Tio is longer acting

181
Q

Capsaicin decreases release of what?

Used in what?

A

Decreases Substance P release

Used for musculoskeletal & neuropathic pain

182
Q

Pleural effusion:

Breath sounds?

Tactile Fremitus?

Percussion?

A

Breath sounds decreased

Tactile fremitus decreased

Dullness to percussion

183
Q

What is the only lung pathology with INCREASED breath sounds & Tactile Fremitus?

A

Consolidation (Pneumonia)

Suggests Alveolar consolidation

184
Q

What is the only lung pathology w/ HYPERRESONANCE on percussion?

A

Pneumothorax

185
Q

MC viral infection of the GI tract in a patient w/ advanced AIDS?

A

CMV (Herpesvirus)

CMV Colitis is the second most common reactivation syndrome after CMV retinitis

186
Q

What is the treatment for diabetic gastroparesis?

A

Metoclopramide – D2 receptor antagonist

Increases gastric emptying

187
Q

Aortic Dissection pathophysiology?

Presenting symptoms?

A

Longitudinal INTIMAL TEAR

Intimal tear = Cleavage of aortic Tunica Media

Associated w/ HTN, CT disorders (Marfan)

Sudden chest pain radiating to the back

UNEQUAL BP in arms

CXR = Mediastinal widening

Type A = Ascending aorta – Proximal

Type B = Descending aorta – Distal – Below subclavian artery (MCC trauma)

188
Q

Thoracic aortic aneurysm pathophysiology?

Presentation?

A

Cystic MEDIAL degeneration

Associated with Tertiary syphilis – Obliteration of vasa vasorum & Associated with Marfans

189
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm pathophysiology?

Presentation?

A

Transmural inflammation

Palpable Pulsatile abdominal mass

Most often Infrarenal

Presents w/ Resistant HTN

190
Q

Repetitive pronation/supination of forearm i.e. screwdriver use affects which nerve?

Presentation?

A

Weakness of finger & thumb EXTENSION

Occurs @ the SUPINATOR muscle

NO wrist drop or sensory deficits

Radial = C5-T1

191
Q

Desmopressin for tx of vWF has what MOA?

A

Releases vWF stored in endothelium

vWF carries & protects Factor VIII

192
Q

Aplastic Anemia – What type of anemia?

Labs show what?

What viruses?

Splenomegaly?

vs. aplastic criss?

A

Destruction of Hematopoietic stem cells

EBV, HIV, Hepatitis B

Decreased reticulocyte count / Increased EPO

Pancytopenia (pale lips), leukopenia, thrombocytopenia (Vs. aplastic criss which causes anemia only)

HYPOCELLULAR Bone marrow w/ Fatty infiltration

NO splenomegaly bc stem cells are damaged & unable to generate in any organ

193
Q

MCC of hyponatremia after subarachniood hemorrhage?

A

SIADH

LOW SERUM OSMOLALITY

HIGH URINE OSMOLALITY w/ high urine sodium

194
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is what type of anemia?

Common Triad?

Labs?

A

INCREASED COMPLEMENT intravascular hemolysis

Deficiency in CD55 & CD59

Triad of hemolytic anemia, hypercoaguability, & Pancytopenia

Coombs (-)

Flow cytometry is gold standard

195
Q

DOC for alcohol withdrawal seizures?

A

ChlorDIAZepoxide

Can Also use Diazepam

a Benzodiazepine

196
Q

What is the difference between Transference & Countertransference?

A

Transference describes how the PATIENT reacts to the provider

Counter describes how the PROVIDER reacts to the patient

197
Q

What is Achalasia?

A

Motility Disorder caused by reduced number of inhibitory Ganglion cells = INCREASED LES TONE = incomplete relaxation

Degeneration of the Muscularis Externa = Absent Peristalsis

Absent relaxation of LES during swallowing

198
Q

Pathology of Hirschsprung disease?

Clinical features?

A
  • Failure of neural crest cell migration
  • Absent parasympathetic ganglia (unable to relax) in affected SUBMUCOSAL (Meissner) & Myenteric (Auerbach) plexus
  • Chronically contracted colonic segment – Narrow rectum & dilated bowel proximal to obstruction
  • Failure to pass meconium within 48 hours
  • Chronic constipation
  • (+) Squirt sign (+) RET mutation

Rectosigmoid is most commonly involved

199
Q

Mercury toxicity symptoms?
Treatment?

A

Mercury toxicity leads to increased serum & urinary epi & NE (similar to Pheochromocytoma)

Diaphoresis, tachycardia, hypertension, & anxiety

Crosses BBB = Insomnia, tremor

Hypersensitivity rash = Desquamating, pink rash on palms & soles = HY

200
Q

Pathogenesis of Parkinson disease?

Presentation?

Treatment?

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurons of the substantia Nigra of the basal ganglia (DECREASE in Dopamine)

Resting tremor, Akinesia, Postural instability, shuffling gait

Dementia is a late finding

Lewy bodies: Eosinophilic inclusions of Alpha-Synuclein

TX = Non-ergot = Pramipexole & Ropinirole

Levodopa (immediate precursor to dopamine) is used & is rapidly metabolized in PERIPHERAL tissues to dopamine via COMT – so only a small amount reaches the brain

COMT inhibitors such as ENTACAPONE & TOLCAPONE & CARBIDOPA (DOPA decarboxylase inhibitors) = DECREASE the peripheral levodopa degradation & Increase the amount of Levodopa available to cross the BBB

Carbidopa is almost always used with Levo – But if more is needed then you add ENTACAPONE

201
Q

Infection Associated Glomerulonephritis features?

A

Type III HS rxn – Hypocomplementemia (C3 decreased)

Immune complex deposition – Subepithelial humps

Granular deposition along GBM & mesangium due to IgG, IgM, & C3

202
Q

IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease) features?

A

IgA immune complex deposition in mesangium

EPISODIC hematuria that usually occurs concurrently with respiratory or GI infection

Recurrent self-limited painless hematuria

203
Q

RPGN Featres?

A

Crescents in Bowman space

Crescents composed of fibrin & macrophagesCRESCENT FORMATION IS DIAGNOSTIC

LINEAR – Goodpasture syndrome (Type II HS) = Antibody against collagen in glomerular BM, presents as hematuria & hemoptysis in young adult males

GRANULAR – PGSN or diffuse proliferative = subendothelial; most common type of renal disease in SLE

204
Q

Diffuse Proliferative glomerulonephritis features?

A

Often due to SLE

Wire looping of capillaries

Subendothelial IgG based often with C3 deposition

205
Q

Alport Syndrome features?

A

Inherited defect in type IV collagen

Thinning & Thickening splitting of BM

Isolated hematuria, sensory hearing loss, ocular disturbances

Can’t see, Can’t pee, Can’t hear a bee

`

206
Q

MPGN features?

A

Nephritic syndrome that presents with nephrotic syndrome

Type 1 = Hepatitis B or C infection = Subendothelial IC deposits w/ granular IF

Type 2 = C3 nephritic factor (IgG autoantibody that stabilizes c3 convertase – persistent complement activation – Decreased C3 levels)

Intramembranous deposits

Tram track (AKA GBM splitting) appearance in both

207
Q

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis features?

A

Abeed

Associated w/ HIV, Sickle cell, obesity

Segmental sclerosis & hyalinosis

Focal deposits of IgM, C3, & C1

Effacement of foot processes similar to MCD

MC Nephrotic disease

208
Q

Membranous nephropathy AKA membranous glomerulonephritis features?

A

Antibodies to phospholipase A2 receptor (primary) or NSAIDs, penicillamine, HBC, HCV (secondary)

Diffuse GMB thickening

Granular due to immune complex deposition

Spike & dome of SUBEPITHELIAL DEPOSITS

209
Q

Diabetic glomerulonephroaphy features?

A

Nonenzymatic glycosylation of vascular BM = Hyaline arteriosclerosis

Efferent affected more than afferent = Increase in GFR

Microalbuminumeria

Eosinophilic nodular glomerulosclerosis

Kimmelstiel Wilson lesions – Sclerotic eosinophilic nodules w/ Central Acellular region

Nephrotic Syndrome

210
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Characterized by?

Clinical features?

Lab findings?

A

Hallmark is synovitis leading to Pannus formation

Associated with HLA-DR4

Morning stiffness that improves w/ activity

PIP joints – Swan neck

MCP joints – Boutonniere

Ulnar finger deviation

Loves to attack the cervical spine

IgM antibody that targets IgG Fc region

Anti-CCP is most specific

Rheumatoid factor for disease activity

TX = Methotrexate or TNF-alpha inhibitor (Infliximab)

SPARES the DIP

211
Q

Herpes Zoster Opthalmicus caused by?

A

VZV

Latent in dorsal root or trigeminal ganglia; CN V1 of Trigeminal nerve

Painful rash w/ corneal ulceration

212
Q

Complete vs Partial mole?

A

Complete: 46 XX (Enlarged uterus)

Duplicates paternal DNA (Maternal is absent)

Extremely HIGHHHHH B-HCG

Diffuse trophoblastic proliferation & Edematous chorionic villi

NO fetal parts – P57 NEGATIVE

Partial: 69 XXX (Normal uterus)

Focal trophoblastic proliferation

Maternally expressedP57 POSITIVE

Fetal parts are seen

213
Q

Retroperitoneal structures?

A

SAD PUCKER

  1. Suprarenal (adrenal) glands
  2. Aorta & IVC
  3. Duodenum (Except 1st part)
  4. Pancreas (Except tail)
  5. Ureters
  6. Colon
  7. Kidneys
  8. Esophagus
  9. Rectum
Cardiac catherization ABOVE the inguinal ligament increases risk of retroperitoneal hemorrhage
214
Q

LAD occlusion leads to infarct of what part of heart?

Right coronary artery leads to infarct of what part of heart?

A

Anterior wall & Anterior septum of LV

Posterior wall, Posterior septum, & papillary muscles of the LV

215
Q

Which muscle becomes abscessed due to HIV infection / IV drug use?

A

Psoas abscess due to hematogenous spread

Psoas is a primary hip flexor

216
Q

Fragile X syndrome caused pathogenesis?

A

CGG Trinucleotide repeat causes Hypermethylation & Silences FMR1

Self-mutilation is common & can be confused w/ Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

MCC of inherited cause of intellectual disability

217
Q

Edwards syndrome findings?

A

Hypertonia

Clenched fists

Rocker bottom feet

Every prenatal screening is decreased

Death usually occurs by 1 – VSD vs. ASD in Down’s

218
Q

Urothelial carcinoma of the bladder arises from?

Major risk factor?

Presentation?

A

Also called Transitional cell carcinoma

Arises from urothelial lining of the renal pelvis, ureter, bladder

Major risk factor is cigarette smoke / Long term cyclophosphamide use

Classically presents with painless hematuria

P53 mutation

219
Q

How does Uterine Rupture present?

Risk factors?

A

Presents w/ painful vaginal bleeding

Fetal HR abnormalities, easily palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station

Prior C section = Increased risk (usually occurs during labor in a subsequent pregnancy)

220
Q

Vasa Previa presentation?

A

PAINLESS vaginal bleeding (Fetal blood from injured vessels)

Absent Wharton Jelly

Fetal HR abnormalities

Path = Fetal vessels run over the internal cervical OS

221
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris pathophysiology?

Morphology?

A

Autoimmune destruction of desmosomes b/t keratinocytes

IgG antibodies against Desmoglein (Type II HS)

Acantholysis (separation) of stratum spinosum

Oral mucosa is involved

Nikolsky sign (+)

Reticular pattern around epidermal cells

222
Q

Bullous Pemphigoid pathophysiology?

Morphology?

A

Less severe than Pemphigus vulgaris

IgG antibodies against hemidesmosomes (Epidermal BM – “Bullow”)

Oral mucosa is Spared

Nikolsky sign (-)

Linear pattern @ epidermal-dermal junction

Basal Layer is detached

223
Q

Median Nerve causes of injury?

Presentation?

A

Supracondylar fracture of humerus – Proximally

LOSS of wrist flexion

Weakness of thumb flexion & Thumb opposition

Opponens pollicis, Abductor Pollicis Brevis, Flexor Pollicis Previs

224
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis in older males?

Younger males?

A

E. Coli in older males

C. Trachomatis & N. Gonorrhoeae in younger males

225
Q

S4 in patients who are under 70 years old indicates what?

A

Ventricular wall stiffening d/t concentric left ventricular hypertrophy in response to chronic hypertension

i.e. aortic Stenosis / Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

226
Q

Which murmurs Increase with Hand grip?

A

AR – Heard at base or left sternal border

MR – Loudest @ apex, radiate toward axilla

VSD – Holosystolic harsh sounding murmur, loudest @ left lower sternal border

Hand grip Increases afterload & Increases LV volume

AS Decreases w/ Hand grip

227
Q

Pathogenesis of Theca Lutein Cysts?

A

Caused by overstimulation from high levels of hCG

Patient w/ recent history of spontaneous abortion & elevated B-hCG levels

Found within the ovary - also associated w/ Hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma

228
Q

Which receptors activate the Gs pathway?

Gi?

Gq?

A

Gs = All the betas, D1, H2, V2

Gi = 2 MAD (m2, a2, D2)

Gq = HAV 1 M&M (H1, a1,V1,M1, M3)

229
Q

Which genital lesions are painful?

Which are painless?

A

Painful = HSV-2 (Multiple & vesicular) & Chancroid (Haemophilus Ducreyi)
Chancroid usually a solitary lesion w/ Gray exudate

Painless =
Granuloma Inguinale – Beefy red ulcer that bleeds easily (Klebsiella granulomatis)

Lymphogranuloma Venerum – Painful lymphadenopathy but not painful lesion (C.
Trachomatis (L1-L3)

Primary syphilis

Secondary Syphilis - Condyloma Lata

HPV (Condylomata acuminata)

230
Q

Obstrutive vs. restrictive lung disease PFTs?

A

ObstructiveFEV1 is decreased more than FVC

Restrictive – Literally everything decreases

FEV1/FVC ratio is normal in restrictive

231
Q

Erythema Nodosum description & disease associatons?

A

Painful inflammatory lesion of subcutaneous fat – usually on anterior shins

Sarcoidosis, Coccidiodomycosis, Histoplasmosis, TB, Streptococcal, Leprosy, & IBD

232
Q

What type of cardiac tumor is present in an INFANT with tuberous sclerosis?

A

Cardiac Rhabdomyoma (Smaller word for smaller baby)

Rhabdomyosarcoma is the MC sarcoma in children

233
Q

Umbilical cord arteries and veins?

A

2 Umbilical arteries – From internal iliac (Carry deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta)

1 Umbilical vein (carries oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus

Both vessels surrounded by Wharton Jelly

234
Q

Posterior columns convey which sensations? Ipsilateral or Contrlateral?

A

Light touch, vibration, proprioception from the IPSILATERAL extremities

235
Q

Left Anterior descending ECG leads?

A

V1-V4

236
Q

Left circumflex ECG leads?

A

I, aVL, V5, V6

237
Q

Right coronary ECG leads?

A

2,3, aVF

238
Q

Posterior descending ECG leads?

A

V1-V3
Posterior Leads V7-V9

239
Q

Cushing disease Low-dose dexamethasone test?

A

ONLY condition that will have ELEVATED cortisol (AKA no suppression) levels with low dose test

Suppressed cortisol w/ high dose

240
Q

Go Find Rex–Make Good Sex

A

Make = Mineralocorticoids

Good = Glucocorticoids, sex hormones

Zona Glomerulosa secretes aldosterone

Zona Fasiculata secretes cortisol

Zona retiruclaris secretes sex hormones

241
Q

Ankle Sprain Grading?

Grade 1/2/3?

A

Grade 1 – Little or no loss of function, able to bear weight fully or partially

Grade 2 – Partial tearing. Swelling, instability & difficulty bearing weight

Grade 3 – Complete tear or rupture of the ligament. Severe swelling & inability to bear weight without severe pain

242
Q

Location of APTM murmurs?

A

HY AF

243
Q

De Quervain Tenosynovitis muscles involved?

A

aBductor Pollicis Longus (ABPL)

Extensor Pollicis Brevis (EPB)

ABPL & EPB

Abductor Pollicis Brevis – Seen in severe carpal tunnel

244
Q

V1 V2 V3 foramina?

A

V1 = Superior orbital fissure

V2 = Foramen Rotundum (R2)

V3 = Foramen Ovale (bOttm) of face

245
Q

The presence of multiple masses almost always points toward…

A

Metastatic Cancer vs. Single solitary lesion indicates primary

246
Q

BP medications indicated in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol (Acute)

Hydralazine (Acute) (Arterioles) (Decreases Afterload)

Nifedipine (CCB, Dihydropyridine = Vascular smooth muscle)

Methyldopa

246
Q

Urinary Findings in:

Carcinoid syndrome?

Paget Disease of bone?

Parathyroid adenoma? (primary hyperparathyroidism)

Pheochromocytoma?

A
247
Q

What does Central Venous Pressure represent?

A

BP in the VENA Cava

Increased CVP when blood becomes congested on the right side of the heart

248
Q

Trendelenburg (+) is a weakness with what?

A

Hip ABduction

Gluteus Medius

Innervated by the Superior Gluteal Nerve (L4-S1)

Pelvis drop to the side contralateral to the weak gluteus Medius muscle

249
Q

Median Nerve LOAF?

A

1st & 2nd Lumbricals

Opponens Pollicis

Abductor Pollicis brevis

Flexor Pollicis Brevis

250
Q

CAG

CGG

CTG

GAA

A

Huntington’s = CAG

Fragile X = CGG

Myotonic dystrophy = CTG

Friedreich Ataxia = GAA

251
Q

Autosomal recessive disorders often present earlier & with more severe symptoms

A

Autosomal Dominant disorders either have less severe symptoms or later age of onset – allowing disease to be passed to subsequent generations

X-linked usually found in males & generally closer to recessive disorders in terms of severity and age of onset

Y-linked found in all male offspring

252
Q

Differences b/t Marfan & Homo

A
253
Q

Typical antipsychotics end in?

Atypical?

A

Typical – AZINE (Fluphenazine)

Atypical = APINE & IDONE (Quetiapine, Risperidone)

254
Q

Absorption of:

Iron

Folate (B9)

B12

A

Iron – Duodenum

Folate – Jejunum

B12 – Ileum

255
Q

Adrenal cortex layers: GFR = ACA

Adrenal medulla produces what?

A

G for Glomerulosa = Aldosterone
F for Fasiculata = Cortisol
R for Reticularis = Androgens (DHEA)

Adrenal Medulla produces Catecholamines (Epi, NE)

255
Q

Sacral diagnosis associated w/ Childbirth?

A

Bilateral Sacral Flexion

256
Q

Most popular example of zero-order drugs?

A

Ethanol (Alcohol)

Phenytoin

Aspirin

Half life is directly prorportional to the dose – Half life decreases as the dose decreases

Constant Amount vs. Constant fraction in 1st order

257
Q

Lesions in the Cortex & Thalamus cause Contralateral abnormalities

A

Lesions of the Cranial Nerves & CN Nuclei cause ipsilateral abnormalities

The trochlear nerve is an exception – As it crosses midline when exiting the dorsal aspect of the midbrain

258
Q

Menopause Levels of Estrogen, FSH, & LH?

A

Decreased Estrogen

Increased FSH & LH

259
Q
A
260
Q

Anterior Horn = LMN

Lateral Corticospinal Tract = UMN

Dorsal columns = Fine Touch / vibration

A

Spinothalamic = Pain, Temp, Crude Touch