New Content Flashcards

1
Q

define health disparities

A

Social determinants of health (SDOH), i.e. poverty, racism,
and their consequences, impact health outcomes in
Black, Hispanic and Latinx, and other marginalized
populations.

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2
Q

what are barriers to access

A
  • gaps in health insurance coverage
  • challenges traveling to in person services
  • limited availability of Telehealth resources
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3
Q

what are barriers to quality

A
  • unequal availability of diagnostic and treatment resources
  • uneven distribution of specialty care
  • limited healthcare workforce diversity
  • limited language services
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4
Q

What type of study design is most appropriate to help
uncover factors that contribute to the higher risk for
stroke in a segment of the US population?

A. A double-blind randomized controlled trial
B. A single-blind randomized controlled trial
C. Cohort study
D. Case study

A

C. Cohort study

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5
Q

describe the REGARDS study

A
  • Reasons for Geographic and Racial Differences in Stroke (REGARDS) project, sponsored by the National Institutes of Health (NIH), is a national cohort study focusing on learning more about the factors that
    increase a person’s risk of having a stroke.
  • Between 2003-2007, the study enrolled 30,239 black and white participants from the continental United States.
  • For over a decade, the study has followed its participants to understand why Southerners and Black Americans have higher rates of stroke and related diseases that affect brain health.
  • found that this was especially true for black individuals
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6
Q

why do we need diverse healthcare providers

A
  • one study showed that black healthcare providers reduce mortality for black patients
  • infant mortality of black infants halved (reduced) when they had a black doctor
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7
Q

What is a common motor deficit experienced by TBI patients?

A

Bimanual coordination deficits (difficulties in coordinating movements of both hands), including slower reaction times and decreased motor speed.

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8
Q

How do structural brain abnormalities relate to TBI motor deficits?

A

White and grey matter changes in the brain are linked to impaired motor control.

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9
Q

What imaging method was used in the TBI study to assess brain activity?

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI).

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10
Q

How did TBI patients’ brain activation differ during movement preparation?

A

descreased activation in right superior frontal gyrus and visual cortex

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11
Q

What was the pattern of brain activation in TBI patients during movement execution?

A

They exhibited overactivation in frontal, parietal, occipital, and subcortical areas.

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12
Q

What does overactivation in TBI patients during movement execution suggest?

A

It indicates compensatory mechanisms due to impaired predictive motor control.

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13
Q

What brain areas showed increased activation in TBI patients during execution?

A

Execution Phase: Increased activation in multiple brain regions, requiring greater cognitive effort for motor execution.

Specifically, left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, left orbitofrontal cortex, inferior and superior parietal lobes, and cerebellum crus II

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14
Q

How did augmented visual feedback impact task performance for TBI patients?

A

Both TBI patients and healthy controls performed better with augmented visual feedback.

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15
Q

What was the key difference in feedback response between TBI patients and controls?

A

TBI patients showed less differentiation in brain activation between feedback conditions.

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16
Q

Which brain areas were more active in healthy controls than TBI patients in response to feedback?

A

Primary motor cortex, cerebellum, and superior parietal lobe.

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17
Q

What does reduced neural differentiation in TBI patients indicate?

A

neural differentiation –> specific brain waves related to a function

This indicates that their brain activity is less specialized or distinct when engaging in different cognitive or motor tasks.

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18
Q

How do TBI patients compensate for motor control difficulties?

A

By recruiting additional brain regions, requiring increased cognitive effort.

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19
Q

What is the primary goal of the study (MS)?

A

To identify early MRI predictors of long-term outcomes in relapse-onset multiple sclerosis (MS), including secondary progressive MS, physical disability, and cognitive performance.

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20
Q

Why are demographic and clinical factors insufficient for predicting MS progression?

A

They have limited predictive value for individual patients and do not fully capture disease variability.

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21
Q

What type of patients were included in the MS study?

A

Patients with clinically isolated syndrome (CIS) suggestive of MS, recruited within three months of onset.

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22
Q

Which early MRI measures were studied as predictors of MS progression?

A

The study counted lesions present in multipke areas (brain stem, spinal cord, and cerebellum) to see if there was a relationship.

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23
Q

What were the two strongest MRI predictors of secondary progressive MS after 15 years?

A

Baseline gadolinium-enhancing lesions and spinal cord lesions.

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24
Q

What does the presence of gadolinium-enhancing lesions indicate?

A

Active inflammation and a higher risk of long-term disability.

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25
Q

How did new spinal cord lesions over time affect prognosis?

A

They were associated with an increased risk of developing secondary progressive MS.

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26
Q

What percentage of patients had progressed to secondary progressive MS after 15 years?

A

15% of patients.

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27
Q

What percentage of patients remained with CIS and did not develop MS?

A

27% of patients.

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28
Q

How common was significant physical disability among MS patients after 15 years?

A

Physical disability was generally low (median EDSS score of 2), but a subset had severe disability.

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29
Q

Which MRI measure was associated with poorer cognitive performance at 15 years?

A

Baseline gadolinium-enhancing lesions.

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30
Q

What tests were used to assess cognitive function in the study?

A

Paced Auditory Serial Addition Test (PASAT) and Symbol Digit Modalities Test (SDMT).

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31
Q

What was a key predictor of reduced walking speed at 15 years for MS?

A

Baseline gadolinium-enhancing and spinal cord lesions.

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32
Q

How can these MS findings be used in clinical practice?

A

MRI findings can help counsel patients on long-term prognosis and personalize treatment plans.

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33
Q

Why is spinal cord MRI particularly important in MS prognosis?

A

Spinal cord lesions strongly predict secondary progression and physical disability.

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34
Q

What is the primary research question of the tourettes study?

A

Whether individuals with Gilles de la Tourette syndrome (GTS) exhibit enhanced habit formation due to an imbalance between goal-directed and habitual behavioral control.

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35
Q

What behavioral characteristic do tics and habits share?

A

Both are driven by stimulus-response associations and are often performed automatically, without sensitivity to the desirability of the outcome.

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36
Q

What neurological system is thought to contribute to tic generation in GTS?

A

The sensorimotor cortico-striatal network.

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37
Q

What type of learning paradigm was used in the tourettes study?

A

A three-stage learning task:
1. instrumental learning –> associating action with reward
2. outcome –> understanding changing rewards
3. slip of action task –> assessing habit formation

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38
Q

What did the ‘slip-of-action’ test measure?

A

The balance between goal-directed and habitual control by evaluating whether participants could suppress responses to devalued outcomes.

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39
Q

How were participants grouped in the tourettes study?

A

Into unmedicated GTS patients, medicated GTS patients, and healthy controls.

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40
Q

How did unmedicated GTS patients perform on the ‘slip-of-action’ test?

A

They relied more on habitual, outcome-insensitive behavior and were more likely to respond to devalued stimuli.

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41
Q

How did tic severity correlate with habitual responding?

A

In unmedicated GTS patients, greater engagement in habitual responses correlated with more severe tics.

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42
Q

How did medicated GTS patients compare to unmedicated patients and controls?

A

They performed at an intermediate level, suggesting that dopamine antagonist treatment may reduce habitual control.

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43
Q

What structural connectivity was associated with habitual behavior in GTS patients?

A

Increased connectivity within the right motor cortico-striatal network.

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44
Q

What brain region’s connectivity predicted tic severity in unmedicated patients?

A

Stronger structural connectivity between the supplementary motor cortex and the sensorimotor putamen.

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45
Q

How does dopamine contribute to habit formation and tics?

A

abnormal reinforcement signals to the sensorimotor striatum may lead to excessive habit formation and contribute to tic generation.

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46
Q

What effect do dopamine antagonists have on habit formation?

A

They may reduce reliance on habitual control, but the effects vary depending on the specific medication.

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47
Q

What treatment approach is supported by the findings tourettes?

A

Habit reversal therapy, which has been shown to reduce tics and alter cortico-striatal activity.

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48
Q

Why is understanding habit formation important for GTS treatment?

A

Because tics may be reinforced by excessive habit learning, interventions targeting habit formation could improve symptom management.

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49
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by an increased likelihood of seizures due to abnormal brain activity.

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50
Q

What is an epileptic seizure?

A

A seizure is a sudden burst of abnormal electrical activity in the brain that can cause convulsions, loss of awareness, or other symptoms.

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51
Q

What are interictal spikes?

A

Interictal spikes are brief, abnormal bursts of electrical activity in the brain that occur between seizures in epilepsy patients.

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52
Q

What is the primary goal of epilepsy research?

A

The primary goal is to predict and prevent seizures by identifying early warning signs in brain activity.

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53
Q

How are interictal spikes related to seizures?

A

The relationship is complex and subject-specific; some patients show increased spike rates before seizures, while others show a decrease.

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54
Q

What did the study find about pre-ictal spike rates?

A

In 9 out of 15 subjects, spike rates significantly changed before seizures—some increased, while others decreased.

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55
Q

What is the significance of interictal spikes in seizure prediction?

A

Changes in interictal spike patterns may serve as biomarkers for cortical excitability, helping predict seizure likelihood.

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56
Q

How do circadian rhythms affect seizures?

A

Seizures tend to follow daily cycles, with some patients experiencing seizures predominantly during specific times of the day.

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57
Q

What evidence supports longer-term seizure cycles?

A

Some patients showed weekly or monthly seizure patterns, suggesting the influence of hormonal or other regulatory mechanisms.

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58
Q

What was observed about the timing of seizures?

A

Many subjects had seizures clustered at specific times of day, indicating a possible link to sleep cycles.

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59
Q

What is one hypothesis about the role of interictal spikes?

A

Some researchers believe that spikes might help prevent seizures by regulating brain activity, while others think they contribute to seizure onset.

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60
Q

How does interictal spiking relate to cortical excitability?

A

Both spikes and seizures may be influenced by the same factors regulating brain excitability, leading to similar temporal patterns.

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61
Q

What is a potential clinical implication of interictal spike monitoring?

A

Spikes could serve as a marker for identifying seizure risk, improving prediction strategies and treatment timing.

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62
Q

How was the data for the epilepsy study collected?

A

Data was obtained from intracranial EEG recordings of 15 patients over periods ranging from 6 months to 2 years.

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63
Q

What algorithm was used for spike detection?

A

A template-matching algorithm identified spikes by comparing EEG patterns with predefined spike templates.

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64
Q

What statistical methods were used in the study?

A

Autocorrelation, cross-correlation, and rank-sum tests were used to analyze spike and seizure patterns.

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65
Q

What is idiopathic rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder (iRBD)?

A

iRBD is a sleep disorder characterized by abnormal movements and vocalizations during REM sleep, often associated with dream enactment.

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66
Q

Why is iRBD important in neurodegenerative research?

A

Most individuals with iRBD eventually develop a synucleinopathy, such as Parkinson’s disease (PD) or dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), making it an early indicator of neurodegeneration.

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67
Q

What was the primary aim of the iRBD study?

A

To quantitatively assess gait and balance impairments in polysomnography-confirmed iRBD patients across different walking and balance conditions.

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68
Q

How many participants were included in the iRBD study?

A

38 participants (24 iRBD patients and 14 healthy controls).

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69
Q

What walking tasks were used to assess gait?

A

Participants completed five walking trials: normal pace, fast pace, counting backward from 100 by 1s, naming animals, and subtracting 7s from 100.

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70
Q

What additional balance tests were performed in iRBD study?

A

Participants completed static balance tests with eyes open and closed, as well as single-leg stance trials.

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71
Q

Did iRBD patients show gait impairments during normal walking?

A

No, significant differences were found only under fast-paced and dual-task conditions.

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72
Q

How did iRBD patients respond differently to dual-task walking?

A

Unlike healthy controls, iRBD patients did not widen their step width but instead showed increased step width variability.

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73
Q

What gait abnormalities were observed in iRBD patients during fast-paced walking?

A

iRBD patients exhibited greater step length asymmetry compared to healthy controls.

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74
Q

Were there differences in balance between groups?

A

iRBD patients had increased anterior–posterior sway during the eyes-closed balance test, suggesting subtle proprioceptive impairments.

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75
Q

What do these gait and balance impairments suggest about iRBD?

A

They likely reflect early neurodegenerative changes in brainstem regions involved in both REM sleep regulation and gait coordination.

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76
Q

How might the iRBD findings be useful in clinical settings?

A

Gait assessments under dual-task and fast-paced conditions could serve as early screening tools for identifying individuals at risk of developing Parkinson’s disease.

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77
Q

Why is asymmetry in gait significant for early detection of PD?

A

Asymmetry in step length and arm swing is a known early marker of Parkinson’s disease, reflecting early dopamine-related motor deficits.

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78
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

A neurological disorder characterized by an enduring predisposition to generate epileptic seizures and associated cognitive, psychological, and social consequences.

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79
Q

What causes epileptic seizures?

A

Abnormal, excessive, or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain.

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80
Q

What are the three main types of seizure onset?

A
  1. Focal onset – Begins in localized brain regions.
  2. Generalized onset – Involves both hemispheres from the start.
  3. Unknown onset – Insufficient clinical data to determine origin.
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81
Q

What are some possible causes of epilepsy?

A

Acquired causes (e.g., stroke, traumatic brain injury), infections (e.g., neurocysticercosis), autoimmune diseases, and genetic mutations.

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82
Q

What is the 2017 International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) classification framework?

A

A diagnostic system that categorizes epilepsy based on seizure type, epilepsy type (focal, generalized, unknown), epilepsy syndrome, and underlying etiology.

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83
Q

What tools are used for epilepsy diagnosis?

A

Clinical history, electroencephalography (EEG), neuroimaging (MRI/CT), and genetic testing.

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84
Q

What are some common non-epileptic seizure mimics?

A

Syncope, panic attacks, migraines, sleep disorders (e.g., REM sleep behavior disorder), and psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES).

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85
Q

How common is epilepsy worldwide?

A

Epilepsy affects approximately 65 million people globally.

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86
Q

What is the incidence and prevalence of epilepsy?

A

The global prevalence is 6.4 cases per 1,000 persons, and the annual incidence is 67.8 cases per 100,000 person-years.

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87
Q

In which age groups is epilepsy most common?

A

Highest in infants/early childhood and older adults (>50–60 years).

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88
Q

What factors contribute to a higher epilepsy burden in low-income and middle-income countries (LMICs)?

A

Higher rates of birth injuries, neuroinfections, and limited access to medical care.

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89
Q

What is the first-line treatment for epilepsy?

A

Anti-seizure drugs (ASDs), with more than 20 approved by the FDA and EMA.

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90
Q

What percentage of epilepsy patients have drug-resistant epilepsy?

A

About one-third of patients fail to achieve seizure control with medication.

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91
Q

What are the treatment options for drug-resistant epilepsy?

A

Epilepsy surgery, neurostimulation devices, dietary therapies (e.g., ketogenic diet), and clinical trials for new ASDs.

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92
Q

What is the gold standard surgical treatment for drug-resistant epilepsy?

A

Resective epilepsy surgery, which removes the seizure focus.

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93
Q

What is epileptogenesis?

A

The process by which normal brain circuits transform into epileptic networks capable of generating seizures.

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94
Q

What is ictogenesis?

A

The mechanisms that generate and sustain seizures.

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95
Q

What are some known mechanisms of epileptogenesis?

A
  • Neuronal plasticity (e.g., mossy fiber sprouting)

Glial dysfunction (e.g., astrocyte and microglia activation)
Blood-brain barrier (BBB) breakdown
Neuroinflammation and oxidative stress

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96
Q

How do animal models contribute to epilepsy research?

A

Rodent and non-mammalian models (e.g., zebrafish) help study seizure mechanisms and test new therapies.

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97
Q

What is SUDEP?

A

Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy, occurring primarily during sleep and often following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTC).

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98
Q

What are the main risk factors for SUDEP?

A
  • Frequent GTC seizures (>3 per year)

Lack of seizure control
Nocturnal seizures
Young adult age

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99
Q

How can SUDEP be prevented?

A

Seizure control (medication, surgery, neurostimulation), nocturnal monitoring, and avoiding sleep deprivation.

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100
Q

What is Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS)?

A

RLS is a sleep-related sensorimotor disorder characterized by an urge to move the legs, occurring during rest, worsening in the evening or night, and improving with movement.

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101
Q

Who first described RLS?

A

Sir Thomas Willis in the 17th century, followed by Karl-Axel Ekbom, who provided a detailed clinical description.

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102
Q

What is another name for RLS?

A

Willis–Ekbom syndrome.

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103
Q

At what ages does RLS typically onset?

A

RLS has a bimodal onset, peaking at around 20 years and again at 40 years.

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104
Q

Is RLS more common in men or women?

A

RLS is 30–50% more prevalent in women than men.

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105
Q

What is the prevalence of RLS in different populations?

A

5–13% in Europe and North America; 1–3% in most Asian populations.

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106
Q

What are the two main classifications of RLS?

A

Primary (idiopathic) and secondary (symptomatic).

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107
Q

What conditions are commonly associated with secondary RLS?

A

Iron deficiency, kidney disease, cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, and neurological disorders.

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108
Q

What are periodic limb movements (PLM), and how are they related to RLS?

A

PLM are involuntary leg movements that occur in sleep (PLMS) or wakefulness (PLMW); at least 80% of RLS patients experience PLMS.

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109
Q

What are some hypothesized mechanisms underlying RLS?

A

Brain iron deficiency, dysfunction in the dopaminergic and nociceptive systems, and altered adenosine and glutamatergic pathways.

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110
Q

How does iron deficiency contribute to RLS?

A

Brain iron deficiency disrupts dopamine regulation, affecting neurotransmission and leading to symptoms.

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111
Q

How is the dopaminergic system involved in RLS?

A

A hyperdopaminergic state is observed, yet dopamine agonists initially relieve symptoms before leading to augmentation.

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112
Q

What are the essential diagnostic criteria for RLS?

A

1) Urge to move legs, 2) Symptoms worsen with rest, 3) Symptoms improve with movement, 4) Symptoms occur mainly at night, 5) Symptoms are not solely due to another condition.

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113
Q

What are common conditions mistaken for RLS?

A

Leg cramps, positional discomfort, akathisia, polyneuropathy, and venous disorders.

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114
Q

Why is RLS often misdiagnosed?

A

Low physician awareness, difficulty in describing symptoms, and confusion with insomnia.

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115
Q

What are the first-line pharmacological treatments for RLS?

A

Dopamine agonists (e.g., pramipexole, ropinirole) and α2δ ligands (e.g., gabapentin, pregabalin).

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116
Q

What is augmentation in the context of RLS treatment?

A

A worsening of symptoms due to long-term use of dopaminergic medications.

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117
Q

What are non-pharmacological approaches to managing RLS?

A

Exercise, lifestyle modifications, iron supplementation, cognitive-behavioral therapy, and sleep hygiene practices.

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118
Q

What are some common comorbidities associated with RLS?

A

Cardiovascular disease, diabetes, iron deficiency, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, and depression.

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119
Q

How does RLS affect quality of life?

A

It disrupts sleep, increases the risk of mood disorders, and can lead to significant daily impairment.

120
Q

What is the relationship between RLS and pregnancy?

A

RLS affects up to 20% of pregnant women, peaking in the third trimester and often resolving after childbirth.

121
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

MS is a chronic, inflammatory, demyelinating, and neurodegenerative disease of the central nervous system (CNS) caused by complex gene–environment interactions.

122
Q

What is the pathological hallmark of MS?

A

The accumulation of demyelinating lesions in the white and grey matter of the brain and spinal cord.

123
Q

What immune cells are involved in MS pathology?

A

T cells, B cells, and myeloid cells infiltrate the CNS, leading to inflammation and neurodegeneration.

124
Q

At what age does MS typically onset?

A

Between 20 and 40 years of age, though it can occur in childhood or adolescence.

125
Q

What is the gender prevalence of MS?

A

MS is more common in women, with a female-to-male ratio of approximately 3:1.

126
Q

What environmental factors contribute to MS risk?

A

Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infection, smoking, low vitamin D levels, obesity during adolescence, and high latitude.

127
Q

How does smoking affect MS?

A

Smoking increases the risk of MS, accelerates disability progression, and promotes conversion from relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS) to secondary progressive MS (SPMS).

128
Q

What are the main subtypes of MS?

A

1) Clinically Isolated Syndrome (CIS)
2) Relapsing–Remitting MS (RRMS)
3) Secondary Progressive MS (SPMS)
4) Primary Progressive MS (PPMS)

129
Q

What characterizes RRMS?

A

Recurrent episodes of neurological dysfunction (relapses) with varying degrees of recovery.

130
Q

What differentiates PPMS from RRMS?

A

PPMS is characterized by progressive neurological decline from onset without relapses.

131
Q

What are common early symptoms of MS?

A

Optic neuritis, sensory disturbances, motor impairment, and brainstem or cerebellar dysfunction.

132
Q

How is MS diagnosed?

A

Through clinical evidence of demyelinating lesions disseminated in space and time, supported by MRI, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, and evoked potentials.

133
Q

What role does MRI play in MS diagnosis?

A

MRI detects demyelinating lesions, assesses disease activity, and monitors treatment response.

134
Q

What is the significance of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis in MS?

A

The presence of oligoclonal bands (OCBs) in the CSF supports an MS diagnosis.

135
Q

What are first-line disease-modifying therapies (DMTs) for MS?

A

Interferon-beta, glatiramer acetate, and oral immunomodulators (e.g., fingolimod, dimethyl fumarate).

136
Q

What is the significance of B-cell-targeting therapies in MS?

A

Anti-CD20 therapies (e.g., ocrelizumab) reduce relapses and disability progression, highlighting the role of B cells in MS pathology.

137
Q

How can non-pharmacological approaches help manage MS?

A

Physical therapy, lifestyle modifications, vitamin D supplementation, and smoking cessation can improve outcomes.

138
Q

What conditions are commonly comorbid with MS?

A

Cardiovascular disease, depression, osteoporosis, and sleep disorders.

139
Q

How does MS affect life expectancy?

A

MS reduces life expectancy by 7–14 years, though this gap is narrowing with better treatments.

140
Q

What are major causes of mortality in MS patients?

A

MS-related complications, infections, and suicide.

141
Q

What is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A

ALS is a neurodegenerative disease characterized by the degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis.

142
Q

What are upper and lower motor neurons?

A

Upper motor neurons project from the cortex to the brainstem/spinal cord, while lower motor neurons project from the brainstem/spinal cord to muscles.

143
Q

How does ALS affect cognitive function?

A

Up to 50% of ALS patients develop cognitive or behavioral impairment, with 13% presenting with frontotemporal dementia (FTD).

144
Q

What is the incidence of ALS in Europe?

A

2–3 cases per 100,000 individuals.

145
Q

How does ALS incidence vary globally?

A

It is higher in European populations (>3 per 100,000) but lower in East Asia (~0.8 per 100,000).

146
Q

What are some environmental risk factors for ALS?

A

Smoking, exposure to toxins (e.g., cyanotoxins), and possibly intense physical activity.

147
Q

What percentage of ALS cases are familial?

A

About 10% of ALS cases are familial.

148
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of ALS?

A

C9orf72 repeat expansion, associated with both ALS and FTD.

149
Q

Name some other genes linked to ALS.

A

SOD1, TARDBP, FUS, and TUBA4A.

150
Q

What are the two main types of ALS onset?

A

Spinal-onset (limb weakness) and bulbar-onset (speech/swallowing difficulties).

151
Q

What are early symptoms of ALS?

A

Muscle weakness, cramps, spasticity, dysphagia, dysarthria, and fasciculations.

152
Q

How does ALS typically progress?

A

It leads to progressive muscle weakness, paralysis, respiratory failure, and eventual death.

153
Q

What criteria are used to diagnose ALS?

A

The El Escorial and Airlie House criteria, requiring upper and lower motor neuron degeneration with disease progression.

154
Q

What diagnostic tools are used for ALS?

A

Electromyography (EMG), MRI, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.

155
Q

Why is ALS difficult to diagnose?

A

It mimics other neuromuscular diseases, and no single definitive test exists.

156
Q

What are the FDA-approved disease-modifying treatments for ALS?

A

Riluzole and Edaravone.

157
Q

What is the function of Riluzole?

A

It reduces glutamate toxicity and prolongs survival by ~3 months.

158
Q

What supportive treatments are used for ALS symptoms?

A

Muscle relaxants for spasticity, speech therapy for dysarthria, and non-invasive ventilation for respiratory support.

159
Q

What is the average survival time after ALS diagnosis?

A

2–5 years, but some patients live much longer.

160
Q

What staging systems are used for ALS?

A

The King’s clinical staging system and the Milano–Torino (MITOS) system.

161
Q

What are negative prognostic factors for ALS?

A

Bulbar-onset disease, rapid progression, cognitive impairment, and weight loss.

162
Q

What is deep brain stimulation (DBS)?

A

DBS is a neuromodulation therapy that delivers electrical stimulation to specific brain regions to treat movement disorders like Parkinson’s disease (PD).

163
Q

What is the limitation of conventional DBS (cDBS)?

A

cDBS provides continuous stimulation, which can lead to unnecessary energy use, side effects, and only partial efficacy.

164
Q

How does adaptive DBS (aDBS) differ from cDBS?

A

aDBS adjusts stimulation in real time based on brain activity, optimizing therapeutic effects while reducing power consumption.

165
Q

What was the main objective of the parkinson’s study?

A

To test whether aDBS can be more effective and energy-efficient than cDBS in Parkinson’s disease patients.

166
Q

How many patients participated in the study?

A

Eight patients with advanced PD.

167
Q

What feedback signal was used to control aDBS?

A

Local field potential (LFP) beta-band activity recorded from the subthalamic nucleus (STN).

168
Q

What conditions were compared in the study?

A

aDBS, cDBS, no stimulation, and random intermittent stimulation.

169
Q

How did aDBS compare to cDBS in terms of motor improvement?

A

Motor scores improved by 66% (unblinded) and 50% (blinded) with aDBS, which was 27–29% better than cDBS.

170
Q

What was the impact of aDBS on energy consumption?

A

aDBS reduced stimulation time by 56%, significantly lowering energy use.

171
Q

Did random intermittent stimulation show similar benefits as aDBS?

A

No, aDBS was significantly more effective, showing that beta-band-triggered stimulation was key.

172
Q

What are the potential benefits of aDBS for patients?

A

Fewer side effects, longer battery life, and improved symptom control.

173
Q

What neurological biomarker was crucial for aDBS function?

A

Beta oscillations (13–30 Hz) in the STN LFP, which correlate with motor impairment.

174
Q

What future improvements could be made to aDBS?

A

More advanced machine learning classifiers and phase-specific stimulation could further enhance efficacy.

175
Q

What is the global prevalence of Parkinson’s disease?

A

It affects 2-3% of the population over 65 years old.

176
Q

How does Parkinson’s disease incidence change with age?

A

The incidence increases 5-10 times from the sixth to the ninth decade of life.

177
Q

Which gender is more affected by PD?

A

Men are affected about twice as often as women.

178
Q

What environmental factors increase PD risk?

A

Exposure to pesticides and traumatic brain injury increase risk, while smoking and caffeine consumption appear protective.

179
Q

What are the hallmark neuropathological features of PD?

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra and intracellular Lewy bodies composed of α-synuclein.

180
Q

How does α-synuclein aggregation contribute to PD?

A

It disrupts neuronal function, spreads in a prion-like manner, and contributes to neurodegeneration.

181
Q

What are some molecular mechanisms involved in PD pathogenesis?

A

Mitochondrial dysfunction, oxidative stress, calcium homeostasis imbalance, axonal transport defects, and neuroinflammation.

182
Q

How does mitochondrial dysfunction play a role in PD?

A

PD is associated with complex I deficits in the electron transport chain, leading to energy failure and oxidative damage.

183
Q

What is the role of neuroinflammation in PD?

A

Microglial activation and immune response contribute to disease progression by promoting α-synuclein misfolding.

184
Q

What clinical criteria are used for PD diagnosis?

A

The MDS criteria require bradykinesia plus at least one additional symptom (rigidity or tremor), with exclusion of alternative causes.

185
Q

What imaging techniques aid in PD diagnosis?

A
  • DaTscan SPECT for dopamine transporter imaging
  • PET scans for dopamine metabolism
  • Neuromelanin MRI to detect substantia nigra degeneration
186
Q

What cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) biomarker is associated with PD?

A

Reduced α-synuclein levels in CSF suggest PD, but no clinically definitive biomarker exists yet.

187
Q

What is the importance of prodromal symptoms in PD?

A

Non-motor symptoms like REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD), hyposmia, and constipation may precede motor symptoms by decades.

188
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for PD motor symptoms?

A

Levodopa (L-DOPA), a dopamine precursor that replenishes striatal dopamine.

189
Q

Why do PD patients develop motor complications with L-DOPA?

A

Due to pulsatile dopamine stimulation, leading to motor fluctuations and dyskinesias.

190
Q

What adjunct therapies help improve L-DOPA efficacy?

A
  • COMT inhibitors (entacapone, tolcapone)
  • MAO-B inhibitors (rasagiline, selegiline)
  • Dopamine agonists (pramipexole, ropinirole)
191
Q

What surgical treatment is available for advanced PD?

A

Deep brain stimulation (DBS) targeting the subthalamic nucleus (STN) or globus pallidus interna (GPi).

192
Q

What are the current experimental therapies for PD?

A
  • Gene therapy to restore dopamine production
  • Stem cell therapy for dopaminergic neuron replacement
  • Anti-α-synuclein immunotherapy to prevent toxic aggregation
193
Q

What is a major challenge in PD research?

A

Identifying early biomarkers to enable disease-modifying treatments before significant neurodegeneration occurs.

194
Q

What is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

A

ALS is a fatal neurodegenerative disease characterized by progressive degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons.

195
Q

What is the blood–brain barrier (BBB), and why is it important in ALS treatment?

A

The BBB is a protective barrier that limits the entry of drugs into the brain, making targeted delivery of therapeutics for ALS difficult.

196
Q

What are some existing methods to bypass the BBB for ALS treatment?

A

Surgical injections, drug modifications for transcellular transport, and chemical disruption (e.g., mannitol), but these methods can have off-target effects or require invasive procedures.

197
Q

What is MR-guided focused ultrasound (MRgFUS)?

A

A non-invasive technique that uses ultrasound waves and microbubbles to temporarily open the BBB, allowing targeted drug delivery.

198
Q

How does MRgFUS achieve BBB permeabilization?

A

Ultrasound interacts with intravenously injected microbubbles, causing mechanical disruption of the BBB without thermal injury.

199
Q

Why is MRgFUS advantageous over traditional BBB bypass methods?

A

It is non-invasive, precisely targeted, temporary, and reversible, reducing the risks of surgical procedures.

200
Q

What was the primary objective of this first-in-human trial for ALS?

A

To evaluate the safety, feasibility, and reversibility of MRgFUS-induced BBB opening in ALS patients.

201
Q

How many participants were included in the study?

A

Four ALS patients (two men, two women, median age 61 years).

202
Q

What brain regions were targeted using MRgFUS?

A

The primary motor cortex, specifically the arm or leg control regions, as mapped using functional MRI (fMRI).

203
Q

How was BBB opening confirmed?

A

Through gadolinium-enhanced MRI, which showed contrast agent leakage at the targeted site immediately after sonication.

204
Q

Was MRgFUS successful in opening the BBB?

A

Yes, all four patients exhibited transient and reversible BBB opening without serious adverse effects.

205
Q

What happened to the BBB permeability after the procedure?

A

The BBB returned to normal within 24 hours, as shown by MRI scans.

206
Q

What adverse events were observed in ALS study?

A

Mild-to-moderate side effects such as headache, scalp pain, and muscle discomfort, but no serious adverse events like hemorrhage or seizures.

207
Q

Did MRgFUS affect ALS progression?

A

No accelerated disease progression was observed over the 60-day follow-up period.

208
Q

How could MRgFUS enhance ALS treatment in the future?

A

It could facilitate the delivery of gene therapy, antibodies, neurotrophic factors, and stem cells to the motor cortex.

209
Q

Why is targeted drug delivery important in ALS?

A

ALS affects specific brain regions, and non-targeted drug delivery can lead to systemic side effects or inefficacy.

210
Q

What future research directions were suggested for ALS?

A
  • Larger clinical trials to confirm safety and efficacy.
  • Testing MRgFUS with drug administration for ALS.
  • Investigating blood-spinal cord barrier opening for spinal cord-targeted therapies.
211
Q

explain the origins of research and development funding

A

in the 1870s, alexander graham bell developed the telephone with funding from the wealthy father of one of his students.

there was a huge explosion of government funding for research after WWII

212
Q

where is the majority of funding from for research labs

A

Majority: federal sources
2. private sources
3. startup funds
Least: other (ex., funding from universities)

213
Q

how does the government fund research

A
  • taxpayer dollars
  • NIH
214
Q

what is the NIH

A

national institute of health
- the primary funding agency for biomedical research in the U.S. (and the largest funder of biomedical research in the world)
- Began as a one-room “Laboratory of Hygiene” in 1887

215
Q

how many institutes and centers does NIH have

216
Q

what is one example of how NIH research has helped

A

NIH-funded research was behind every single new
drug approved by the FDA from 2010-2016 (Galkina et
al., 2018)

217
Q

what is the Primary NIH grant: R01

A
  • is the original and historically oldest grant mechanism used by NIH. The R01 provides support for health-related research and development based on the mission of the NIH.
  • No specific dollar limit unless specified (typically ~$500,000)
  • Generally awarded for 3 to 5 years of work
218
Q

what are some examples of indirect costs used for research grants

A

Costs which are not specific to one research project - shared across groups, reduce redundancy

● Building upkeep and resources
● Utilities
● Hiring of staff/support
● Safety (biocontainment, disposal, etc.)
● Facilities
● Equipment
● Regulatory Compliance

219
Q

IACUC

A

is responsible for oversight
of the animal care

220
Q

IRB

A

assess the ethics and safety of research studies involving human subjects, such as behavioral studies or clinical trials for new drugs or medical devices

221
Q

What are the key characteristics of REM sleep?

A

REM sleep is characterized by muscle atonia, rapid eye movements, an activated EEG pattern, and vivid dreaming.

222
Q

What is REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD)?

A

RBD is a parasomnia where patients lose REM sleep atonia, leading to dream enactment behaviors such as talking, shouting, punching, or kicking.

223
Q

What is REM sleep without atonia (RSWA), and how is it related to RBD?

A

RSWA is excessive muscle tone during REM sleep, which is the core physiological abnormality in RBD.

224
Q

What are common dream enactment behaviors in RBD?

A

Patients may act out dreams involving fighting, running, grabbing, or defensive movements, often leading to injury.

225
Q

What are the two main types of RBD?

A
  1. Idiopathic RBD (iRBD) – Occurs without an underlying neurological disease but is a strong predictor of future neurodegeneration.
  2. Symptomatic (or secondary) RBD – Associated with α-synucleinopathies (e.g., Parkinson’s disease, dementia with Lewy bodies, multiple system atrophy) or antidepressant use.
226
Q

What percentage of iRBD patients develop a neurodegenerative disease?

A

Around 80–90% of iRBD patients eventually develop an α-synucleinopathy, often within 10–15 years.

227
Q

What neurological disorders are most commonly linked to RBD?

A

Parkinson’s disease (PD), dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), and multiple system atrophy (MSA).

228
Q

What is the estimated prevalence of iRBD in the general population?

A

Approximately 1% of people over 60 years old have iRBD.

229
Q

What are the strongest risk factors for iRBD?

A
  • Age (more common in individuals over 50)
  • Male sex (higher prevalence in men, though this may be due to diagnostic bias)
  • Pesticide exposure
  • Head trauma
  • Smoking history
230
Q

What role do genetics play in RBD?

A

Variants in GBA, SNCA, and LRRK2 genes—also linked to Parkinson’s disease—are associated with increased RBD risk.

231
Q

What brain regions are implicated in RBD pathophysiology?

A

The sublaterodorsal nucleus (SLD) and ventral medulla, which regulate REM sleep atonia, are affected by neurodegeneration.

232
Q

How does α-synuclein pathology contribute to RBD?

A

Misfolded α-synuclein aggregates in the brainstem disrupt normal REM sleep regulation, leading to RSWA and dream enactment.

233
Q

What experimental evidence supports RBD as a brainstem disorder?

A

Lesions in the pons and medulla of animal models induce RBD-like behaviors during REM sleep.

234
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for RBD?

A

Video polysomnography (vPSG), which confirms RSWA and abnormal REM sleep behaviors.

235
Q

What screening tools are available for RBD?

A
  • RBD Screening Questionnaire (RBDSQ)
  • RBD Single Question (RBD1Q)
  • Mayo Sleep Questionnaire (MSQ)
236
Q

What other conditions can mimic RBD?

A
  • Sleepwalking (NREM parasomnias)
  • Nocturnal seizures
  • Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
  • PTSD-related nightmares
237
Q

What are the first-line pharmacological treatments for RBD?

A
  • Clonazepam (reduces dream enactment behaviors but may cause sedation)
  • Melatonin (safer alternative, especially for older adults or those with cognitive impairment)
238
Q

What are common non-pharmacological strategies for RBD?

A
  • Removing sharp objects from the bedroom
  • Padding furniture and using bed rails
  • Placing a mattress on the floor to prevent injuries
239
Q

How can sleep disorders like obstructive sleep apnea affect RBD treatment?

A

Untreated OSA can worsen RBD, so CPAP therapy should be considered before prescribing clonazepam.

240
Q

Why is RBD considered a prodromal marker of neurodegeneration?

A

It often precedes Parkinson’s disease, DLB, or MSA by 10–15 years, making it a key early indicator of α-synucleinopathies.

241
Q

What are the strongest clinical predictors of conversion to Parkinson’s disease or DLB?

A
  • Severe olfactory loss
  • Mild motor impairment
  • Dysautonomia (e.g., constipation, low blood pressure)
  • Color vision deficits
242
Q

How might RBD be useful in future clinical trials?

A

Since RBD patients have a high risk of neurodegeneration, they could be ideal candidates for early neuroprotective therapies aimed at slowing disease progression.

243
Q

What is a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A

A structural injury and/or physiological disruption of brain function caused by an external force.

244
Q

What are the three main severity classifications of TBI?

A

Mild, moderate, and severe, based on factors like loss of consciousness, post-traumatic amnesia, and Glasgow Coma Scale score.

245
Q

What are the two main types of TBIs?

A

Penetrating TBI, where an object breaches the skull, and closed-head TBI, where the skull remains intact.

246
Q

What are the most common causes of TBI?

A

Falls and road traffic accidents, which together account for more than 50% of cases.

247
Q

What is mild TBI also known as?

A

Concussion.

248
Q

What are common symptoms of mild TBI?

A

Headache, dizziness, nausea, memory problems, irritability, and emotional lability.

249
Q

What percentage of mild TBI patients recover within 7–10 days?

A

80–90% of patients.

250
Q

What is post-concussive syndrome (PCS)?

A

Persistent symptoms lasting >3 months after mild TBI, affecting about 10–15% of patients.

251
Q

What is the most well-studied mechanism of TBI?

A

Diffuse axonal injury (DAI), caused by stretching and tearing of axons.

252
Q

What types of forces contribute to TBI?

A

Linear acceleration, rotational acceleration, and impact deceleration.

253
Q

What are common neuropathological features of TBI?

A

Axonal injury, microglial activation, neuroinflammation, and tau pathology.

254
Q

What is chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)?

A

A neurodegenerative disease linked to repetitive concussions and subconcussive hits, particularly in contact sports and military personnel.

255
Q

What is the hallmark neuropathological feature of CTE?

A

Perivascular accumulation of hyperphosphorylated tau in neurons and astrocytes, especially at the depths of cortical sulci.

256
Q

How is CTE diagnosed?

A

Post-mortem neuropathological examination (no validated biomarkers for diagnosis in living patients).

257
Q

What is traumatic encephalopathy syndrome (TES)?

A

The clinical counterpart of CTE, proposed for diagnosing patients with progressive neurological symptoms and a history of head trauma.

258
Q

What imaging techniques are used to assess TBI?

A

CT scan (for detecting hemorrhage) and MRI (for detecting axonal injury and microhemorrhages).

259
Q

What is diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), and how does it help in TBI diagnosis?

A

DTI detects white matter integrity and can identify diffuse axonal injury even when conventional MRI appears normal.

260
Q

What are potential fluid biomarkers for TBI?

A

Tau, neurofilament light (NF-L), S100B, GFAP, and UCH-L1, which reflect neuronal and astrocytic damage.

261
Q

What role does amyloid-beta (Aβ) play in TBI?

A

Some TBI cases exhibit Aβ plaques similar to Alzheimer’s disease, possibly accelerating neurodegeneration.

262
Q

What neurodegenerative diseases have been linked to TBI?

A

Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and CTE.

263
Q

How does TBI increase the risk of dementia?

A

TBI may accelerate tau and amyloid pathology, increasing the likelihood of cognitive decline.

264
Q

What factors increase the risk of poor long-term outcomes after TBI?

A

Older age, repeated injuries, genetic susceptibility (e.g., APOE ε4 allele), and psychiatric conditions.

265
Q

What measures can help prevent TBI?

A

Helmet use, seatbelt enforcement, improved sports regulations, and military blast protection.

266
Q

What is the standard treatment for severe TBI?

A

Neurosurgical intervention, intracranial pressure monitoring, and intensive care management.

267
Q

How is mild TBI managed?

A

Rest, symptom management, cognitive rehabilitation, and gradual return to activity.

268
Q

What is Gilles de la Tourette syndrome (GTS)?

A

A childhood-onset neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by multiple motor tics and at least one phonic tic lasting more than a year.

269
Q

What is the estimated prevalence of GTS in children and adolescents?

A

Approximately 1%.

270
Q

At what age do tics typically develop in GTS?

A

Before 10 years of age, usually between 4–6 years.

271
Q

What are the core diagnostic features of GTS?

A

Multiple motor tics and at least one phonic tic persisting for more than a year.

272
Q

Name two pathognomonic but less common features of GTS.

A

Coprolalia (involuntary swearing) and echophenomena (involuntary repetition of sounds or movements).

273
Q

What diagnostic criteria are commonly used for GTS?

A

DSM-5 and ICD-10 criteria.

274
Q

Name three common comorbid conditions associated with GTS.

A

ADHD, OCD, and anxiety disorders.

275
Q

How does the presence of comorbid conditions affect the severity of GTS?

A

It can increase the severity of symptoms and impact quality of life.

276
Q

Is GTS primarily genetic, environmental, or both?

A

Both; it is a polygenic disorder with environmental contributions such as perinatal factors and immune responses.

277
Q

What neurotransmitter is most strongly implicated in GTS?

278
Q

Name two other neurotransmitters involved in GTS pathophysiology.

A

Glutamate and GABA.

279
Q

What are the first-line treatments for GTS?

A

Psychoeducation, behavioral therapy, and pharmacotherapy when necessary.

280
Q

Name one pharmacological treatment used for severe tics in GTS.

A

Haloperidol (a neuroleptic/antipsychotic).

281
Q

What alternative treatment is used for severe, refractory cases of GTS?

A

Deep brain stimulation (DBS).

282
Q

What is Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS)?

A

A common sensorimotor disorder characterized by unpleasant sensations and an urge to move the legs, usually in the evening or night.

283
Q

What is the estimated prevalence of RLS?

A

6%–12% of the general population.

284
Q

What temporary relief can patients with RLS experience?

A

Movement or walking can provide temporary relief from symptoms.

285
Q

Which brain imaging technique was used in this study to evaluate RLS patients?

A

Diffusion Tensor Imaging (DTI).

286
Q

What major structural brain change was identified in patients with RLS?

A

Decreased segregation in the brain network compared to healthy controls.

287
Q

Which brain regions showed significant local structural connectivity changes in RLS patients?

A

Middle frontal gyrus, superior frontal gyrus, orbital frontal gyrus, postcentral gyrus, pulvinar anterior thalamic nucleus, and supplementary motor area.

288
Q

How did global structural connectivity differ in RLS patients?

A

Patients showed lower transitivity (0.031 vs. 0.033 in healthy controls, p = 0.035), indicating decreased network segregation.

289
Q

What measures were positively correlated with RLS severity?

A

Characteristic path length, radius of graph, and diameter of graph.

290
Q

What measures were negatively correlated with RLS severity?

A

Mean clustering coefficient, global efficiency, small-worldness index, and transitivity.

291
Q

What criteria were used to diagnose primary RLS in this study?

A

The International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group (IRLSSG) criteria.

292
Q

Name two sleep-related scales used to assess patients in this study.

A

Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index (PSQI) and Insomnia Severity Index (ISI).

293
Q

What was the gender distribution in the RLS patient group?

A

More than two-thirds of the patients were women.

294
Q

What does this study suggest about the role of the sensorimotor network in RLS?

A

Alterations in sensorimotor connectivity may play a pivotal role in the pathophysiology of RLS.

295
Q

How does this study contribute to the understanding of RLS?

A

It provides evidence of altered structural connectivity, supporting the idea that RLS is a network disorder.