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ABO 2022 > NEW 2022 > Flashcards

NEW 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Augmented corticotomy have the added benefit of the RAP effect - Ahn

A

T - regional acceleratory phenomenon

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2
Q

Decompensation prior to class III surgical correction has more favorable outcomes for the mandibular anterior teeth when a _______________ is preformed - Ahn

A

augmented corticotomy

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3
Q

augmented corticotomy procedure includes - Ahn

A

selective decortication’s around target teeth and ABG with particulate grafting material

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4
Q

when considering an augmented corticotomy procedure, which anterior teeth are high risk sited for dehiscence - Ahn

A

mandibular canines

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5
Q

Indications for augmented corticotomy (degrees and current thickness) in patients requiring labioversion - Ahn

A

>5 deg (IMPA) and labial alveolar bone thickness <1mm

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6
Q

are vertical corticotomies running parallel to the roots of target teeth connected via horizontal corticotomy? where? - Ahn

A

yes, 2-3mm below apices

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7
Q

in experiment with augmented corticotomy procedure, the experimental and control group showed similar results for … - Ahn

A

upper alveolar thickness (both decreased significantly) and root length (both decreased significantly)

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8
Q

Experimental group with augmented corticotomy showed an increase in labial alveolar bone thickness, where specifically? - Ahn

A

middle and lower third

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9
Q

a _____________ jaw pattern increases the risk of gingival recession and alveolar bone loss because it is accompanied by a ________ _________ and vertical elongation of the incisors - Ahn

A

hyperdivergent; thin symphysis

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10
Q

One difference between experimental and control group with augmented corticotomy procedure was maintenance of _________ dimension of alveolar bone in experimental group and a _______ mention vert-L1 value. This is important because the AP position of incurs affects about of many setback possible. - Ahn

A

vertical; doubled

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11
Q

in finite element studies, the PDL is assumed to be ______mm thick - Chae

A

0.2mm

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12
Q

in a finite element study, the venter of resistance of the whole mandibular dentition fixed with a rigid arch wire is roughly ___mm anterior and ___mm apical to the first molar bracket - Chae

A

2.5mm, 8mm

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13
Q

In a finite element study, the mandibular dentition fixed with a rigid arch wire, the whole dentition will move as 1 united body. The movement is dependent on the _______ __ ________ of the force in relation to the center of resistance, NOT on the amount of force - Chae

A

line of action

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14
Q

In a finite element study: when the line of action is identical, rigid and elastic wires produce he same occlusal plane rotation, but differ in that more ________ is observed with elastic wires due to elastic deflection of the arch wire - Chae

A

tipping

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15
Q

In borderline mild-moderate class III cases, TAD assisted camouflage can be used for group distalization of the mandibular dentition using different biomechanics strategies according to angulations of the occlusal plane. Name the clinical situations which can be replicated with TADs - Chae

A
  1. Mand. cervical headgear therapy (-30 degrees)
  2. Mand. TADs and intraoral elastics (-30 to 0 deg)
  3. Maxillary TADs and Class III elastics (15 to 30 deg)
  4. High pull HG or MEAW + class III elastics (15- to 30 deg)
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16
Q

In a finite element study on mand. dentition distalization, the amount of ___________, ___________, and _______ __________ increased and the occlusal plane became more _________ as force angle increased - Chae

A

distalization, extrusion and lingual tipping ; CCW

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17
Q

In a finite element study on mand. dentition distalization, distalization without significant vertical movement occurred with a force angulation of ___ degreed - Chae

A

-15 degrees

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18
Q

The minimum amount of vertical space required for a fixed screw retained (implant level) implant prostheses is ____mm - Carpentieri

A

4-5mm

(measured from implant platform of the opposing arch)

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19
Q

The minimum amount of vertical space required for a fixed screw retained (abutment level) implant prostheses is ____mm - Carpentieri

A

7.5mm

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20
Q

The minimum amount of vertical space required for a fixed cement retained implant prostheses is ____mm - Carpentieri

A

7-8mm

I]although ideally, an interocclusal space of 9 through 10 mm in the posterior dentition and 10 through 12 mm in the anterior dentition is desired to provide better crown esthetics and increased retention

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21
Q

The minimum amount of vertical space required for a unsplinted overdenture implant prostheses is ____mm - Carpentieri

A

7mm

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22
Q

The minimum amount of vertical space required for a bar overdenture implant prostheses is ____mm - Carpentieri

A

11mm

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23
Q

The minimum amount of vertical space required for a fixed screw-retained hybrid implant prostheses is ____mm - Carpentieri

A

15mm

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24
Q

Classifications for measuring restorative space with respect to horizontal ridge resorption: ____ - ____ mm is regarded as minimal resorption, ____ - ____ mm as moderate resorption, and > ___ mm as advanced resorption. - Carpentieri

A

0-4mm

5-10mm

> 10mm

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25
Q

This restorative space consists of 3 different zones, name them - Carpentieri

A
  1. Peri-implant soft-tissue zone, Ideally, 3 mm height and 2 mm of width
  2. Abutment zone - 4 mm is the minimum height
  3. Restorative zone - from the most coronal aspect of abutment to the opposing arch - requirements vary according to restorative material
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26
Q

When extra oral force is intended to limit maxillary growth, how many g/lbs of cervical force are used? - Armstrong

A

400gm or 1-2lbs (Graber and cited in Profitt);

other sources say 3-5lbs

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27
Q

What is the effect on the molar if the position of the outer bow places the line of pull at line A? - Armstrong

A

distal tipping and intrusion; LOP is apical the CR

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28
Q

What is the effect on the molar if the position of the outer bow places the line of pull at line B? - Armstrong

A

distal bodily movement and intrusion; LOP goes through the CR

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29
Q

What is the effect on the molar if the position of the outer bow places the line of pull at line C? - Armstrong

A

distal tipping and intrusion; the LOP is occlusal to the CR

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30
Q

Bilateral horizontal force has been used routinely in the ___ - ___ pound range (a total to the maxilla of ___ - ___ pounds) - Armtrong

A

2.5 - 3 lbs

total 5 - 7lbs

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31
Q

Clinical experience indicates that extremely heavy extraoral force is not uncomfortable to the patient as long as there is no _______ component - Armstrong

A

downward/extrusive

extrusion of teeth causes traumatic occlusion, mobility, and soreness - happens with only cervial pull HG

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32
Q

orthodontic extrusion aka: - Hochman

A

forced eruption

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33
Q

periodontal consists of: - Hochman

A

gingiva

bone

PDL

cementum

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34
Q

to determine ST response to orthodontic extrusion, what procedures must be done prior to its initiation

A
  1. measure sulcus (pocket depth)
  2. determine position of MGJ relative to crest of bone
  3. bone sounding
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35
Q

when trying to determine the position of an impacted canine, which conventional radiograph (non-CBCT) had higher sensitivity in detecting resorption and tooth position - Tsolakis

A

panoramic

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36
Q

when trying to determine the position of an impacted canine, which conventional radiographs (2) (non-CBCT) had higher specificity and positive predictive value - Tsolakis

A

occlusal films

PAs

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37
Q

when using a panoramic image to locate an impacted caning, the magnification method may be applied which is based on the principle that when the teeth move farther away from the film, they appear _______ compared with the contralateral teeth aligned in the dental arch - tsolakis

A

larger

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38
Q

A full scan of the face and cranium (FOV > .15 cm) *can* be as low as ___ mSv, and the effective dose for a panoramic radiograph ranges from ___ - ___ mSv, while a complete intramural series ___mSv - Tsolakis

A

52

6-50

35

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39
Q

When comparing localization of impacted teeth, there was no disagreement of the examiners when they used ________ images. - Tsolakis

A

CBCT

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40
Q

This imaging technique seems to be the only reliable and accurate diagnostic method for the exact 3D localization of impacted maxillary canines and root resorption of the adjacent teeth - Tsolakis

A

CBCT

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41
Q

T/F: The periodontal conditions and the occlusal function on sides with previously impacted canines and on sides with normally erupted canines were significantly different - D’Amico

A

False - they were similar

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42
Q

T/F: In lateral movements of the mandible, no differences in contact pattern were found between sides with normally erupted canines and sides with impacted canines - D’Amico

A

False, significant differences were found

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43
Q

Canine rise occurred more often on working sides with (1)(normally/impacted) erupted canines than with (2)(normally/impacted) canines.- D’Amico

A
  1. normally
  2. impacted
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44
Q

The prevalence of impacted maxillary canines is ____– ___% - D’Amico

A

0.9 - 2.2%

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45
Q

In cases of impacted maxillary canines, resorption of the central or lateral incisor roots can be expected to be present in almost ___% of the cases and to be ___ times as common in girls as in boys - D’Amico

A

50%

3

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46
Q

About ___% more resorptions are detected with computerized tomography (CT) compared with conventional radiographic methods - D’Amico

A

50%

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47
Q

The evaluation of the periodontal conditions revealed (no/small/significant) differences between the sides with normally erupted canines and the sides with impacted and treated canines in plaque index, gingival index, or in the width of the attached gingiva. - D’Amico

A

no

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48
Q

for patients who has lateral incisors extracted due to canine impaction induced resorption, patients who are dissatisfied with Tx results most often disapprove of __________ - D’Amico

A

the color

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49
Q

In treatment of impacted canines, they can be exposed, bonded and incorporated into the arch or they can be transplanted. In a study comparing outcomes, ALL the teeth with reduced vital response had been _____________, whereas ALL of the teeth with ankylotic sounds had been _______________. - D’Amico

A

transplanted

exposed and bonded

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50
Q

It seems to be more difficult to attain a normal inclination in (buccally/palatally) impacted canines - D’Amico

A

bucally

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51
Q

Shape, color, or position of the previously impacted canines (1)(did/did not) differ from that of normally erupted canines.

The inclination of the previously impacted canines,(2)(did/did not) differ from that of the normally erupted canines - D’Amico

A
  1. did not
  2. did
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52
Q

In a patient with congenitally missing lateral incisors and the goal of implant placement, it may be necessary to selectively extract the primary lateral incisor if the crown of the permanent canine is apical to the primary canine root, to encourage eruption adjacent to the central incisor. The goal would be to: - Kinzer

A

to develop the alveolar ridge

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53
Q

name the 4 methods for determining the appropriate spacing for patients with missing U2s

A
  1. golden proportion - tooth should be 61.8% wider than the tooth distal to it
  2. width of contralateral incisor (if it is present and normal)
  3. Bolton analysis
  4. Diagnostic wax up - most predictable
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54
Q

To have adequate room for the development of the papillae, ___ to
___ mm of space is recommended between the head of the implant and the adjacent teeth -Kinzer

A

1.5 - 2.0mm

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55
Q

To place an implant, the minimum interradicular distance is generally ___ mm - Kinzer

A

5mm

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56
Q

Name one example where achieving appropriate interradicular spacing for an implant is not possible - Kinzer

A

Class III compensated cases (because of proclaimed upper anteriors)

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57
Q

in adults: as teeth are moved away from each other during space opening, the papilla (remains stationary/ recedes) as the adjacent sulci are everted - Kinzer

A

remains stationary

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58
Q

As the face grows and the mandibular _____ lengthen, teeth must erupt to remain in occlusion - Kinzer

A

rami

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59
Q

The most predictable way to monitor facial growth is by evaluating serial cephalometric radiographs taken _____- _____ apart

A

6 mo - 1 yr

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60
Q

While a patient who will receive implants for missing lateral waits to complete growth, with long-term use, a removable retainer can cause problems of tissue ____________ and papillary _________ - Kinzer

A

inflammation

hyperplasia

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61
Q

While a patient who will receive implants for missing lateral waits to complete growth, a more appropriate long-term provisional is a ______________________. This type of restoration keeps excessive pressure off the ridge and can help support the papilla - Kinzer

A

resin bonded fixed partial denture

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62
Q

For implant placement to replace missing U2s, a surgical guide should be fabricated from a diagnostic wax- up. The two most important elements that need to be incorporated into the surgical guide are the __________ ________ position and the anticipated _______ ____________ ___________ location of the tooth to be replaced

A

incisal edge

free gingival margin

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63
Q

Maxillary canines are the most commonly impacted teeth, second only to ___________. - Bedoya

A

third molars

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64
Q

Maxillary canine impaction occurs in approximately
___% of the population and is _____x as common in females as it is in males, and incidence of canine impaction in the maxilla is more than ___x that in the mandible - Bedoya

A

2

2

2

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65
Q

Approximately ___ / ___ of impacted maxillary canines are located labially, and ___ / ___ are located palatally -Bedoya

A

⅓

⅔

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66
Q

_____________________ is thought to be a primary etiologic factor for labially impacted canines - Bedoya

A

arch length discrepancy

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67
Q

Two major theories associated with palatally displaced maxillary canines are the _____________ theory and _____________ theory - Bedoya

A

guidance

genetic

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68
Q

Becker reported an increase of ___ times in the incidence of palatally impacted canines adjacent to the sites of missing lateral incisors - Bedoya

A

2 x

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69
Q

Surgical technique used for bucally impacted canine when the canine cusp is coronal to mucogingival junction (MGJ) when an adequate amount of keratinized gingiva is present and the canine is not covered by bone - Bedoya

A

gingevectomy

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70
Q

Surgical technique used for bucally impacted canine when the canine crown is apical to MGJ and the amount of attached gingiva is minimal ( when< 3 mm of attached gingiva is present) - Bedoya

A

apically positioned flap

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71
Q

Surgical canine exposure technique used for bucally impacted canine when tooth is in the center of alveolus; crown is significantly apical to MGJ - Bedoya

A

closed eruption

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72
Q

Surgical canine exposure technique used for palatally impacted canine when canine is located near the lateral and central incisors, horizontally positioned, and higher in the roof of the mouth - Bedoya

A

closed flap

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73
Q

Surgical canine exposure technique used for palatally impacted canine when the patient is in late mixed or permanent dentition and the cusp tip is at the level of the occlusal plane - Bedoya

A

open eruption

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74
Q

Surgical canine exposure technique used for palatally impacted canine when the canine is located near the lateral and central incisors, horizontally positioned, and higher in the roof of the mouth and higher visualization is needed - Bedoya

A

open window eruption

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75
Q

the method of obtaining an occlusal radiograph for canine localization is by positioning the x-ray tube directly over the bridge of the nose, at a ____-degree angle to the occlusal plane. - Bedoya

A

60

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76
Q

when the measurement from the contact point to the crest of bone was ___ mm or less, the papilla was present almost 100% of the time - Tarnow

A

5mm

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77
Q

when the measurement from the contact point to the crest of bone was 6 mm (to7mm), the papilla was present ___% of the time- Tarnow

A

56

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78
Q

when the measurement from the contact point to the crest of bone was ___mm or more, the papilla was present 27% of the time - Tarnow

A
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79
Q

Tarnow - the col takes the shape of:

  1. the contact area of the adjacent teeth
  2. the underlying bone
  3. 1 & 2
A
  1. the contact area of the adjacent teeth ONLY (NOT underlying bone)
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80
Q

By age 1, the width of the mandible has achieved ___% of its eventual adult size, and the height has achieved ___% - Farkas

A

80%

66.6%

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81
Q

By age 5, the height of the mandible has achieved ___% of its eventual adult size - Farkas

A

83%

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82
Q

chin deviations are expressed easily in mandibular ____gnathism, whereas they occur only with significant right-left differences in relevant maxillofacial structures in individuals with mandibular _____gnathism - kim

A

prognathism

retrognathism (recursion)

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83
Q

facial asymmetries in skeletal Class III patients occur as the result of greater growth and __________ inclination of the ramus and greater maxillary vertical excess at the (same / opposite ) site. - Kim

A

mesial

opposite

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84
Q

Frontal cephalometric analysis revealed (right / left ) side chin deviations to be prominent regardless of the group

A

left

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85
Q

Profitt found that 85% of patients showing dentofacial deformity including jaw deviation had chin deviation to the _________ - Kim

A

left

86
Q

Comparison of right and left differences between mandibular retrusion and prognathism groups revealed all values to be higher in the retrusion group (especially _____________) except for body height, which showed no difference between chin-deviated and contralateral sides. - Kim

A

rams length

87
Q

Larger differences between chin-deviated and contralateral sides in the mandibular RETRUSION group indicate that chin deviation is affected by while chin deviation is likely to be developed ( evenly / irregularly ) in mandibular PROGNATHIC individuals - Kim

A

evenly

irregularly

88
Q

Zambon - Actinobacillus actinomycctcmcontitans is a :

  1. motile / non-motile
  2. gram - positive / gram-negative
  3. capnophilic
  4. fermentative
  5. cocci / bacillus / coccobacillus
A
  1. non-motile
  2. gram-negative
  3. capnophili
  4. fermentative
  5. coccobacillus
89
Q

A. actinotnycetetncomitans’ primary human ecologic niche is: - Zambon

A

the oral cavity.

90
Q

A. actinotnycetetncomitans is found in dental plaque, in periodontal pockets, and buccal mucosa in up to ___% of the normal population - Zambon

A

36%

91
Q

Zambon - There is a large body of evidence which implicates A. actinomycctctucomitans as an important microorganism in the etiology of _______________________- (LJP_ including:

  1. Increased prevalence of the organism in almost all (LJP) patients and their families compared to other patient groups
  2. LJP patients exhibit elevated antibody levels AA in serum, saliva and gingival crevicular fluid:
  3. LJP can be successfully treated by eliminating it rom periodontal pockets
  4. histopathologic investigations showing that it invades the gingival connective tissue in LJP lesions
  5. the demonstration of several pathogenic products from AA Including factors which may:
    1. facilitate its adherence to mucosal surfaces such as capsular polysaccharidcs;
    2. inhibit host defense mechanisms including leukotoxin, a polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemotaxis inhibiting factor, and a lymphocyte suppressing factor
    3. cause tissue destruction such as lipopolysaccharide endotoxin, a bone resorption- inducing toxin, acid and alkaline phosphatases, collagenase, a fibroblast inhibiting factor and an epitheliotoxin
A

localized juvenile periodontitis

92
Q

A. aetinomycetemcomitans grows poorly in air but grows well in 5% CO2 in air or under __________ conditions - Zambon

A

anaerobic

93
Q

Our own studies of oral actinomycetemcomitaits distinguished ___ serotypes - Zambon

A

3

94
Q

serotype (a / b / c ) is increased in localized juvenile periodontitis implicating its antigen as particularly important in the pathogenesis of this periodontal disease - Zambon

A

B

95
Q

A combination of systemic antibiotics and conventional periodontal therapy appears to be the optimal treatment for localized juvenile periodontitis due to the ability of AA to invade gingival ______________________ - Zambon

A

connective tissue

96
Q

T/F: The A. aetinomyeetemeomitans organism can be transferred from juvenile periodontitis lesions to healthy periodontal sites in the same person by routine periodontal probing but does not permanently colonize these areas - Zambon

A

True

97
Q

Zambon - A microorganism must fulfill 4 criteria in order to be pathogenic.

  1. it must ____________ to host tissues
  2. it must grow and multiply in the host’s environment by utilizing the available nutritional resources
  3. it must evade host _____________ mechanisms
  4. it must be capable of ___________ host tissues
A

attach

defense

damaging

98
Q

A key histopathologic feature of localized juvenile periodontitis which distinguishes it from other forms of periodontitis is extensive loss of ___________ from the gingival connective tissue - Zambon

A

collagen

99
Q

T/ F: leveling of the curve of Spee is a relatively stable treatment procedure compared with a return of incisor crowding and deepening of the bite - Praeter

A

True

100
Q

Praeter - Which is an indicator for the amount of relapse:

  1. the initial depth of the curve of Spee
  2. The initial irregularity index
  3. Both
  4. Neither
A
  1. Neither
101
Q

the amount of leveling ( is / is not ) correlated with the relapse of the 4 tested parameters (curve of Spee, irregularity index, overjet, and overbite) - Praeter

A

is not

102
Q

there is a ( mild / moderate / strong ) correlation between the relapse of the curve of Spee and the relapse of the irregularity index, overjet, and overbite - Praeter

A

mild

103
Q

What is this equation? (Acg × Aig) / (Apo × curve of Spee × cusp angle) - Praeter

A

Articulation equilibrium

(Acg, angulation of the condylar guidance;

  • Aig,* angulation of the incisal guidance;
  • Apo,* angulation of the plane of occlusion)
104
Q

arch length is not necessarily increased during leveling of the curve of Spee as long as the leveling is achieved through: -Praeter

A

anterior teeth intrusion.

105
Q

Over time, _____________ mandibular dental arch dimensions in both treated and untreated malocclusions seem to be a normal physiologic phenomenon. The degree of resultant crowding is variable and ( predictable / unpredictable ). - Praeter

A

decreasing

unpredictable

106
Q

The postretention increase of lower crowding beyond the acceptable range (> 3 mm) occurred in nearly ___% of the cases - prater

A

70%

107
Q

the extent to which, in the absence of measurement error, the value obtained represents the object of interest - Houston

A

validity

(also accuracy)

108
Q

the closeness of successive measurements of the same object, aka precision - Houston

A

Reproducibility

109
Q

the term reliable can encompass which to statistical terms? - Houston

A

reproducibility and validity

110
Q

Stephens found that the treatment modality does not affect long-term soft tissue profile changes if extraction and nonextraction patients are treated to the same : incisor position and lip line,

A

incisor position and lip line

111
Q

Extraction patients tend to be ___ - ___ mm flatter, on average, than nonextraction patients at the end of treatment. - stephens

A

2 - 4mm

112
Q

In Stephens’ study he found that ( female / male ) lips became significantly more retrusive in relation to the esthetic lines and showed greater increases in facial convexity

A

male

113
Q

T/F: In Stephens’ study, he states that the results clearly showed that the extraction and nonextraction patients were comparable at the end of treatment.

A

True

114
Q

There was no difference in raters’ perception and preference of buccal crown torque in ( canines/ posteriors ) only or in the ( canines/ posteriors ) teeth related to the size of the buccal corrditors - Ker

A

canines

posteriors

115
Q

In the Hodges study evaluating ST changes after extraction Treatment, ( adolescents / adults ) showed significant increases in anterior and posterior face height, while ( adolescents / adults ) demonstrated only a small increase in anterior face height.

A

adolescents

adults

116
Q

In the Hodges study evaluating ST changes after extraction Treatment, the upper incisors, which were significantly retroclined in ( adolescents / adults), maintained their angulation in ( adolescents / adults).

A

adults

adolescents

117
Q

In the Hodges study evaluating ST changes after extraction treatment, ( adolescents / adults) demonstrated more lip retraction compared with ( adolescents / adults)

A

adults

adolescents

118
Q

In the Hodges study evaluating ST changes after extraction treatment, upper lip thickness increased slightly in ( adolescents / adults) and decreased slightly in the ( adolescents / adults). Lower lip thickness decreased in both groups.

A

adolescents

adults

119
Q

In the Hodges study evaluating ST changes after extraction treatment, the vertical change of _________ was most important for predicting the vertical changes of both the upper and lower lips, probably because it represents a surrogate measure of mandibular displacement.

A

pogonion

120
Q

In the Hodges study evaluating ST changes after extraction treatment, ____________ and ___________ showed the strongest relationship to upper and lower lip retraction, respectively, suggesting that the region immediately apical to the crown is singularly most important when evaluating lip retraction.

A

Prosthion

infradentale

121
Q

In teeth with dental trauma, the most mst frequently reported complications are an increased risk for: (4) - Van Gorp

A

external root resorption,

pulp necrosis,

pulp obliteration,

and ankylosis

122
Q

an estimated ___% of young patients presenting for orthodontic treatment has a history of dental trauma, often involving upper incisors situated in the aesthetic zone - Van Gorp

A

10%

123
Q

are there differences is root resorption between men and women after orthodontic Tx? - Jiang

A

no

124
Q

What factors affect root resorption: - Jiang

age

sex

Tx duration

extraction Tx

A

age and Tx duration

125
Q

Patient age is correlated with root resorption of which teeth? - Jiang

A

maxillary anterior teeth

126
Q

in relation to the ( maxillary / mandibular ) incisors, cases involving extractions tended to have more root resorption even with the same treatment duration - Jiang

A

mandibular

127
Q

The presence of previous resorption had an influence on resorption after treatment but only for the __________ teeth, especially the: - Jiang

A

anterior

maxillary incisors

128
Q

two major reasons for early intervention of mandibular asymmetry include: - Hanson

A

if child is being psychosocially or functionally affected by asymmetry

decreasing magnitude of later surgical correction offering higher level of stability

129
Q

The 4 techniques/options for surgical correction of mandibular asymmetries include: - Hanson

A
  1. osteotomies
  2. autogenous or allogenic grafts
  3. distraction osteogenesis
  4. alloplastic reconstruction of TMJ
130
Q

Literature shows goo stability for surgical moves less than ___ - ___ mm - Hanson

A

8 - 10mm

131
Q

name two technique modifications that improve the stability of advancements of large magnitude - Hanson

A
  1. Interpositional bone grafting
  2. rigid internal fixation
132
Q

______ and _________ may be used to reconstruct the ramus of the mandible for large magnitude deficiencies that include absence of a normal articulating condylar surface - Hanson

A

rib & clavicle

133
Q

Rib and clavicle bone grafts are harvested in continuity with their articulating cartilage, which then serves as the articulating surface within the temporomandibular joint. These grafts are called ______________ grafts - Hanson

A

costochondral

134
Q

T/F: costochondral grafts have the potential for growth when used in a growing patient - Hanson

A

True

135
Q

With distraction osteogenesis: after a latency period of ___ - __ days, the screw is adjusted at a rate of ___ mm per day, which lengthens the healing bone callus and the adjacent soft-tissue envelope - Hanson

A

5 - 7 days

1mm/day

136
Q

Pre-surgical goals for severe cases in which distraction osteogenesis has been chosen as the appropriate Tx modality include: - Hanson

A

decompensation and arch coordination, just as in pre-surg ortho for traditional surgical cases

137
Q

Can you move teeth during distraction osteogenesis? - Hanson

A

Yes, they may even move more quickly just after the osteotomy

138
Q

In the unilateral mandibular deficiency being treated with DO, the maxilla on the affected site is ___________ deficient. As the ramus is lengthened on the affected side, the mandibular dentition moves downward, away from the maxillary dentition resulting in ______________. This can be addressed by using a ______________ that is adjusted to allow eruption. - Hanson

A

vertically

open bite

bite block

139
Q

Mandibular asymmetries that are secondary to ankylosis, severe degenerative joint disease, or condylar pathology or necrosis might be best served with: - Hanson

A

alloplastic reconstruction

140
Q

Three advantages of alloplastic total joint prosthesis in the non growing patient are: - Hanson

A
  1. requires no harvest
  2. might better resist reankylosis (heterotopic calcification)
  3. not as susceptible to the resorption or failure
141
Q

Three shortcomings of alloplastic reconstruction of the TMJ include: - Hanson

A
  1. infection and/or failed integration
  2. potential for long-term eventual device failure
  3. does not grow, remodel, or adapt
142
Q

In the more severe cases of mandibular asymmetry, interpositional grafting improves the long-term stability of the surgical movement. Bone can be harvested from: (5) - Hanson

A
  1. the symphysis
  2. contralateral ramus
  3. maxillary tuberosity
  4. tibia
  5. calvarium
143
Q

An estimated ___% of young patients presenting for orthodontic treatment has a history of dental trauma, often involving upper incisors situated in the aesthetic zone. - Van Gorp

A

10%

144
Q

Which specialists clearly showed least hesitation for orthodontically moving traumatized teeth? General dentist, pediatric dentists or orthodontists? - Van Gorp

A

Orthodontists :)

they reported at the same time a considerable number of potential adverse reactions

145
Q

In the case of trauma induced ankylosis, are external cervical resorption and apical root resorption common secondary adverse effects? - Van Gorp

A

No

146
Q

pulp and root canal obliteration occur as a sequela of dental trauma and has been reported to develop most often in immature teeth with __________ and __________ luxation injuries - Van Gorp

A

extrusive

lateral luxation

147
Q

T/F: literature mentions pulp necrosis and apical pathology as findings linked to the orthodontic movement of teeth affected by pulp and root canal obliteration. - Van Gorp

A

True

148
Q

Traumatized teeth with total pulp obliteration have a higher susceptibility to pulpal complications during orthodontic ___________ movements than traumatized teeth without or only partial pulp obliteration. - Van Gorp

A

intrusive movements

149
Q

In teeth with pulp and root canal obliteration, is apical root resorption a possible adverse event in response to orthodontic forces? - Van Gorp

A

No, literature does not confirm this finding

150
Q

A positive correlations exist between increased _____________ & _______________ and increased root resorption. - Rosocoe

A

force levels

Tx time

151
Q

A pause in tooth movement seems to be beneficial in reducing root resorption because it allows : - Roscoe

A

allows the resorbed cementum to heal

152
Q

RR in response to heavy force: If the __________ blood pressure is exceeded, this may cause their collapse and dysfunction of the blood supply. This phenomenon may result in a degradation of the tooth-protecting outer layers of the _______________ and its formative layer of cementoblasts; this activates the resorptive activity of the clastic cells. This process leaves the mineralized tooth tissue denuded, triggering _____________ events, similar to bone resorption, but on the root surface. - Roscoe

A

capillary

precementum

inflammatory

153
Q

The severity of orthodontically induced inflammatory root resorption is mostly clinically insignificant, the literature shows that ___ - ___% of orthodontically treated teeth have severe OIIRR, which is defined as resorption exceeding ___mm or a third of the original root length.- Roscoe

A

1 - 5%

>4mm

154
Q

Apical root loss of ___ mm is equivalent to 1 mm of crestal bone loss - Roscoe

A

3mm

155
Q

The ______________ valve is responsible for production of oral speech sounds - Kummer

A

velopharyngeal

156
Q

Velopharyngeal dysfunction can be caused by: (3) - Kummer

A
  1. abnormal anatomy (VP insufficiency)
  2. abnormal neurophysiology (VP incompetence)
  3. articulation errors (VP mislearning)
157
Q

The velopharyngeal valve consists of the velum (soft palate) and the walls of the pharynx (lateral pharyngeal walls and posterior pharyngeal wall). During normal nasal breathing, the velum is low in the pharynx and rests against: - Kummer

A

the base of the tongue

158
Q

During the production of oral speech, the velum moves in a __________ and ___________ direction until it closes firmly against the posterior pharyngeal wall - Kummer

A

superior

posterior

159
Q

During the production of oral speech, the posterior pharyngeal wall moves ___________ slightly and the lateral pharyngeal walls move ____________ to close against the velum to assist in achieving contact. - Kummer

A

forward

medially

160
Q

In young children, the adenoid pad is positioned on the __________ pharyngeal wall in the area of natural velar contact. As a result, most children actually have veloadenoidal closure until the adenoids atrophy naturally with age. - Kummer

A

posterior

161
Q

Complete velopharyngeal closure seals off the nasal cavity from the oral cavity for the production of all oral speech phonemes. Closure is important for:- Kummer

activities that require ( positive / negative ) oral pressure: singing, whistling, blowing, swallowing, gagging, and vomiting…

and also for activities that require ( positive / negative ) oral pressure: sucking and kissing).

A

positive

negative

162
Q

The velopharyngeal valve is an articulator, just like the ________ and _______. As such, there is also a learned component to velopharyngeal function. - Kummer

A

tongue & lips

163
Q

_____________________ is often used to describe an anatomic or structural defect that prevents adequate velopharyngeal closure. - Kummer

A

Velopharyngeal insufficiency (VPI)

164
Q

__________________ is the most common type of Velopharyngeal dysfunction (VPD) - Kummer

A

Velopharyngeal insufficiency (VPI)

165
Q

__________________ is used to refer to a neurophysiological disorder in which poor movement of the velopharyngeal structures results in incomplete velopharyngeal closure - Kummer

A

velopharyngeal incompetence (VPI)

166
Q

_______________ refers to misarticulation, which results in an inappropriately open velopharyngeal valve during attempts to produce oral speech phonemes. - Kummer

A

velopharyngeal mislearning

167
Q

This type of VPD requires speech therapy only: - Kummer

A

velopharyngeal mislearning

168
Q

These types of VPD are medically based disorders that usually require physical management (surgery or a prosthetic device) for correction: - Kummer

A

both types of VPI - VP insufficiency and VP incompetence

169
Q

Velopharyngeal insufficiency has many causes including: - Kummer

A
  1. Cleft palate * most common *
  2. sub mucous cleft
  3. deep pharynx
  4. adenoid atrophy or irregular adenoids
  5. hypertrophic tonsils
  6. adenoidectomy or tonsillectomy
  7. maxillary advancement
  8. oral cavity tumors
170
Q

___ - ___% of patients with cleft palate will have velopharyngeal insufficiency following the cleft palate repair - Kummer

A

20 - 30%

171
Q

A _________ or ___________ uvula is a common characteristic seen in children with a submucous cleft palate - Kummer

A

bifid or hypoplastic

172
Q

Hypernasality following _____________ is a well-known and well-documented risk of the procedure. However, this is typically short lived, lasting from a few hours to no more than ___ weeks. - Kummer

A

adenoidectomy

6

173
Q

Maxillary advancement can have a negative effect on velopharyngeal function because the anterior movement of the maxilla results in movement of the posterior border of the hard palate, with its soft palate attachments, increasing the ________________ - Kummer

A

pharyngeal depth

174
Q

the causes of velopharyngeal incompetence include: - Kummer

A
  1. hypotonia
  2. neurological conditions (cerebral palsy, myotonic dystrophy, myasthenia gravis, neurofibromatosis, cerebral or brainstem tumors, developmental delay, traumatic brain injury, or cerebral vascular accident and other causes of cortical damage) causing dysarthria
  3. neurological conditions causing apraxia
  4. cranial nerve defects
175
Q

__________ is a motor speech disorder that affects all the subsystems of speech, including velopharyngeal function.

It is characterized by hyper nasality, slurred speech, slow rate, decreased breath support, and low volume. - Kummer

A

Dysarthria

176
Q

___________ of speech is an oral-motor disorder characterized by difficulty executing and sequencing speech movements. It affects all of the articulators, including the lips, tongue, jaws, and velopharyngeal valve → often leads to difficulty in coordinating then and causing mixed hypernasality and hyponasality- Kummer

A

Apraxia

177
Q

Congenital or acquired lower motor neuron damage may demonstrate specific paralysis or paresis (weakness) of the velum or pharyngeal musculature. This can occur with involvement of these three nerves: - Kummer

A
  1. glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
  2. vagus nerve (CN X)
    1. hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
178
Q

Congenital or acquired lower motor neuron damage induced paralysis or paresis is usually unilateral. Paralysis or paresis of the velum, resulting in VPI (incompetence), is commonly observed in individuals with ______________ - Kummer

A

hemifacial microstomia

179
Q

causes of velopharyngeal misleading include: - Kummer

A
  1. faulty articulation
  2. compensatory speech productions
  3. lack of auditory feedback
180
Q

When an individual speech sound is produced inappropriately in the pharynx, the velopharyngeal valve will be ( open / closed ) - Kummer

A

open

181
Q

A common misarticulation is the substitution of a pharyngeal fricative or a posterior nasal fricative for ____________ sounds - Kummer

A

sibilant

182
Q

When there is a neurophysiological etiology causing velopharyngeal incompetence, some would argue that speech therapy may be effective in improving the nasality. The literature ( does / does not ) support this. - Kummer

A

does not

183
Q

Becker : The aims of the surgical phase of the orthodontic/surgical modality of canine exposure treatment are:

  1. To eliminate hard or soft tissue pathologic/ obstructive entities,
  2. To provide the orthodontist with access to the impacted tooth, including the bonding of an attachment
  3. To perform these tasks with minimum tissue damage, while avoiding exposure and instrumentation of the ____________________
A

cemento-enamel junction (CEJ) and cervical portion of the root surface

184
Q

For Tx of an impacted canine, open eruption techniques include: (3) - Becker

A
  1. window technique
  2. full flap open procedure,
  3. apically repositioned flap technique
185
Q

For canine exposure, the____________ technique entails the surgical removal of the mucosa and bone immediately overlying the impacted tooth. - Becker

A

window

186
Q

__________ impacted canines are covered by thick mucosa, bone, and follicle. As such, it is at least 5–7 mm beneath the surface - Becker

A

palatally

187
Q

One open technique for canine exposure involves a full palatal flap to reveal the crypt of the canine, expose the tooth to its_____________ and then re-suture the flap back to its former place, AFTER having first excised a circular portion of the mucosa immediately overlying the tooth - Becker

A

maximum circumference

188
Q

The main indication for this impacted canine exposure technique is when a labially impacted tooth is situated above the level of the mucogingival junction. Name the technique - Becker

A

apically positioned flap

189
Q

For exposing impacted canines, the three closed eruption techniques include: - Becker

A
  1. minimal exposure technique
  2. maximal exposure technique
  3. tunnel approach
190
Q

In the closed eruption canine exposure technique, A small area of the thin shell of bone covering the tooth is pared away to disclose the _________. The majority of the ____ same_as_above____ is left intact and no attempt is made to access the CEJ area. An attachment is bonded and traction starts immediately. - Becker

A

follicle

191
Q

Name the canine exposure technique that involves the impacted canine being drawn downwards through the evacuated socket of the simultaneously extracted deciduous canine.- Becker

A

tunnel approach (closed eruption tech.)

192
Q

( buccal / palatal) exposures, either closed or open, showed prolonged recovery in comparison to ( buccal / palatal ) exposures. - Becker

A

buccal

palatal

193
Q

For palatal exposures, recovery was longer (5 days) after ( open / closed) eruption than after ( open / closed) eruption exposures (3 days), especially with regard to pain, analgesic intake, difficulty in eating and swallowing. - Becker

A

open

closed

194
Q

With an apically positioned flap, the crown length of the impacted tooth is ( shorter / longer ) than normal, due to: _______________ - Kokich

A

longer

apical migration of the gingival margin

195
Q

T/F: The crown lengths of teeth uncovered with closed eruption were similar to contralateral non-impacted teeth in the same mouth. - Kokich

A

True

196
Q

high labial impactions uncovered with an apically positioned flap tend to ( over extrude / reintrude ) after orthodontic treatment. - Kokich

A

reintrude

due to the healing of the apically positioned flap to the mucosa adjacent to the impacted tooth at the time of uncovering

197
Q

It seems appropriate to uncover palatally impacted canines early, during the mixed dentition, so that they can erupt autonomously, without orthodontic intervention, until the crown has erupted to the level of _______________.- Kokich

A

the occlusal plane

198
Q

The combination of lip seal exercises, a bonded (with bite block) palatal expander appliance, and a banded lower Crozat/lip bumper with or without a high-pull chincup demonstrated proficiency in maintaining the _________ dimension with ( hyop / hyper ) divergent patients - Sankey

A

vertical

hyper

199
Q

orthodontic treatment typically redirects condylar growth ___________, rotates the mandible backward, and ( increases / decreases ) anterior facial height - Sankey

A

posteriorly

increases

200
Q

High-pull headgear (HPHG) modifies maxillary growth, but compensatory eruption of the mandibular molars prevents _________ of the mandible and control of anterior facial height. - Sankey

A

autorotation

201
Q

Lip seal exercises train the _______________ muscle to become more active in creating an anterior oral seal - Sankey

A

orbicularis oris

202
Q

T/F: there are significant differences between the chincup and non–chincup groups - Sankey

A

False - no significant differences

203
Q

Studies have indicated that banded maxillary expansion predictably displaces the maxilla __________ 1 - 2 mm, and more variably in a slightly anterior direction. - Sankey

A

inferiorly

204
Q

___________________ in conjunction with orthodontic treatment is highly effective in maintaining closure of anterior open bites compared with orthodontic treatment alone - Smithpeter

A

orofacial myofunctional therapy

205
Q

___________________ in conjunction with orthodontic treatment is highly effective in maintaining closure of anterior open bites compared with orthodontic treatment alone - Smithpeter

A

orofacial myofunctional therapy

206
Q

term for when vertical overlap, but the mandibular incisors fail to make contact with either their antagonists or the palate. - Smithpeter

A

incomplete overbite

207
Q

IN patients undergoing open bite correction with orofacial myofunctional therapy, the number of OMT sessions was associated with the severity of the OM disorder, motivation, and compliance, and ( was / was not ) related to the stability of the overbite - Smithpeter

A

was not

208
Q

In Smithpeter’s study, they found that the reduction of open bite was ( more / less ) , and overbite stability was ( greater / lesser ) than in younger subjects.

A

more

greater

209
Q

The severity of the initial class II malocclusion ( is / is not ) associated in a linear fashion with the amount of treatment correction or with the untreated patients - Tulloch

A

is not

210
Q

there is a 30% chance in untreated children of favorable change in a skeletal class II pattern; 50% change of no change and 15% that the condition will worsen. HG and functional applianced have a 70-80% chance of producing favorable growth

A

ABO 2022 (1 decks)

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