Neurosystem: Vertebral Column and Spinal Cord Flashcards

1
Q

Which part is the lamina of the vertebra?

A

Between the spinous process and the transverse process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which part is the pedicle of the vertebra?

A

Between the transverse process and the vertebral body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What name is giving to the joints between the articular facets of adjacent vertebrae? (i.e. between superior articular facet and inferior)

What type of joint is it?

A

Zygapophysial joints- synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe some distinctive features of cervical vertebrae.

A

Triangular vertebral foramen

Short,

Square/rectangular vertebral body

Transverse foramina in the transverse processes

Bifid spine (except C1 and C7)

Atlas and axis (C1 and C2) are specialized for movement

Facets are most horizontally orientated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe some distinctive features of thoracic vertebrae.

A

Bigger than cervical vertebrae

Circular vertebral foramen

Heart shaped vertebral body

Spinous process pointing sharply downwards

Transverse costal facets (for rib articulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe some distinctive features of lumbar vertebrae.

A

LARGE Articular facets are angled vertically to limit movement

Thin, long transverse processes (except L5)

Triangular vertebral foramen

Blunted, short spinous processes

Cylindrical vertebral body

Articular facets are orientated more vertically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many bones fuse to form the sacrum?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the structure of the sacrum.

A

Concave anterior surface

Triangular in shape

L shaped articular facets (for articulation with pelvic bones)

No spinous processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many bones fuse to form the coccyx?

A

3-4

Vertebral arches and canal are absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What two types of joint are found between vertebrae?

A

Symphyses (cartilaginous)– between adjacent vertebral bodies

Synovial Joints – between articular processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many joints are there between two typical vertebrae?

A

6

  • 2 symphyses (above and below)
  • 4 synovial joints (2 superior and 2 inferior)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Between which vertebrae do you find intervertebral discs?

A

C2-S1

There is no intervertebral disc between C1 and C2 (you instead get atlanto-axial joint capsules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two parts of the intervertebral disc?

What is the function of the disc?

A

Nucleus pulposus

Annulus fibrosis

Functions:

  1. Allow for shock absorption
  2. Allow types of movement of the spine especially when combined
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe how problems with the intervertebral disc can lead to potential clinical problems.

A

Degenerative changes in the annulus fibrosus can lead to herniation of the nucleus pulposus, which can then impinge on spinal nerves or the spinal cord.

The extent of symptoms is determined by how much the nerve is compressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the two ligaments that rung along the length of the vertebral bodies from the skull to the sacrum.

A

Anterior and Posterior Longitudinal Ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which ligament is typically damaged in whiplash?

A

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the name given to the upper part of the posterior longitudinal ligament going from C2 to the skull?

A

Tectorial Membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which ligament is pierced in lumbar puncture and where is it positioned relative to the vertebral bodies?

A

Ligamentum flavum – found between the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.

it is yellow in colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the triangular sheet-like structure found in the upper vertebral column. Where is it attached?

A

Ligamentum nuchae – attached from C7 (spinous process) to the occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is continuous with the ligamentum nuchae and which part of the vertebrae is this attached to?

A

Supraspinous ligament.

It is connected to the spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum/coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which ligament lies between adjacent spinous processes?

A

Interspinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the three categories of muscles in the back and which muscles fall into each of these categories?

A

Superficial:

  • Trapezius
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Levator scapulae
  • Rhomboid minor
  • Rhomboid major

Intermediate:

  • Serratus posterior superior
  • Serratus posterior inferior

Deep

  • Spinotransversales
  • Erector spinae
  • Transversospinales
  • Interspinales
  • Intertransversarii
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the flexibility of the cervical spine in terms of flexion/extension, lateral flexion and rotation.

A

Cervical spine can comfortably flex, extend, laterally flex and rotate.

The articular surfaces between vertebrae are almost horizontal, so all these movements are possible.

Also, the neck has less surrounding tissue than other parts of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the flexibility of the upper thoracic spine (T1-T6).

A

NO flexion/extension

Some lateral flexion

Some rotation

The articular surfaces are almost vertical, which doesn’t allow for flexion/extension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the flexibility of the lower thoracic spine (T7-T12).

A

Some flexion/extension

Good lateral flexion

Good rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the flexibility of the lumbar spine (L1-sacrum).

A
  • NO rotation
  • Good flexion/extension
  • Good lateral flexion

No rotation because their articular surfaces are curled around the articular surfaces of the adjacent superior vertebrae, ensuring no rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the shape of the atlas (C1).

A

It has NO vertebral body

It consists of two lateral masses with an anterior and posterior arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the articulations of the atlas.

A

The two lateral masses articulate superiorly with the occipital condyles and inferiorly with the superior articular surfaces of C2

29
Q

Describe the structure of the axis (C2).

A

It is a typical cervical vertebra with the body extended upwards to form the dens (odontoid process)

30
Q

Which ligaments are attached to the dens?

A

The transverse ligament of the atlas keeps the dens in place, against the articular surface on the posterior surface of the anterior arch of the atlas.

Alar ligaments are attached to the superolateral surfaces of the dens and the medial occipital condyles. The alar ligaments prevent excessive rotation of the head.

There are also longitudinal fascicles of the cruciform ligament (this crosses over the transverse ligament of the atlas to form the cruciate ligament)

31
Q

State 5 important vertebral landmarks and how you would identify them on an individual.

A

C7 – vertebra prominens

T3 – level of the medial end of the scapular spine

T7 – level of the inferior angle of the scapula

L2 – level of the lowest rib

L4 – level with the iliac crest

32
Q

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A

5 (fused)

33
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A

1-4 (fused)

34
Q

How many vertebrae are there in total?

A

30-33 depending on how many coccygeal vertebrae there are

35
Q

Which layer of cranial dura mater is the spinal dura mater continuous with?

A

Meningeal layer of the cranial dura.

There is no periosteal layer of dura in the spinal cord

36
Q

At what level does the dural sac narrow around the filum terminal internum?

A

S2.

The subarachnoid space terminates here

37
Q

What space is present in the vertebral column that you don’t find in the skull?

what does this space contain

A

Epidural space

it contains:

  • Connective tissue
  • Fat
  • Internal vertebral venous plexus
38
Q

What is the arachnoid membrane and where does it end?

A

It is a thin, delicate membrane that is against but not adherent to the deep surface of the dura mater.

It ends at S2

39
Q

What thin structures interconnect the arachnoid and pia mater?

A

Arachnoid trabeculae – these also suspend vessels in the subarachnoid space

40
Q

What is the spinal pia mater?

A

A vascular membrane that firmly adheres to the surface of the spinal cord

41
Q

What are the longitudinally oriented sheets of pia mater that you’d find on either side of the spinal cord?

where do they attach

A

Denticulate ligaments.

They arise from the pia matter and attaches to the arachnoid AND dura mater; hence anchoring the spinal cord

42
Q

Where do these ligaments attach medially and laterally?

A

Medially – to the spinal cord

Laterally – form a series of triangular extensions that anchor through the arachnoid membrane to the dura mater

43
Q

Why would you perform a lumbar puncture?

give details

A

To obtain some CSF (e.g. to test for meningitis, SAH, etc)

To inject spinal anaesthesia (into the epidural space) or subarachnoid

  • Epidural- pain relief in pregnancy
  • Subarachnoid- pain relief for c-section
  • Caudal epidural- for severe back pain/sciatic pain
44
Q

At which level would you perform a lumbar puncture?

A

L3/L4 in an adult

1 or 2 vertebral spaces lower in a child

45
Q

Which ligament is pierced in lumbar puncture?

A

Ligamentum flavum

46
Q

State some signs of cervical spine injury.

A
  • Low blood pressure + high pulse
  • Large erection (Custer’s last stand)
  • Flaccid paralysis
  • Large bladder and inability to micturate
47
Q

What steps would you take in the on scene management of a potential C-spine injury?

A

Assume unstable fracture

Assume neck pain if unable to communicate neck pain

Use cervical collar and blocks to immobilize the neck

48
Q

What steps would you take in the hospital management of a potential C-spine injury?

A

Take lateral and AP C-spine – if fracture,

Image with CT/MRI

Give steroids – could prevent the death of around 1 cm of spinal cord

Treat any other symptoms e.g. low BP

49
Q

Why is lower back pain the most common form of back pain?

A

Lower spine is subject to increased stresses of weight-bearing so the lumbar region is most commonly affected.

We tend to abuse our backs, particularly when lifting heavy objects.

Extending the spine from the fully flexed position under a heavy load can inflame intervertebral joints or place unequal pressure on the intervertebral disks, leading to local joint pain and referred neurological pain, if there is also pressure on the spinal nerve

Additional attempts to rotate the spine at the same time creates extra stress on the lumbar joints.

50
Q

State 3 common deviations in spinal curvature.

Give potential causes

A

Scoliosis = abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

Kyphosis = excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back

Lordosis = excessive inward curvature of the spine

Causes could be:

  • Weight gain- prob scoliosis
  • Pregnancy
  • Osteoporosis- kyphosis
  • arthritis
51
Q

Explain the types of spinal curvatures and how they are different throughout lifecourse

A

Foetus and embryo- has only primary curvature

Adult has both:

  • Cervical- secondary
  • Thoracic- Primary
  • Lumbar- secondary-
  • Sacral- primary
52
Q

Label this atlas

A
53
Q

label this axis

A
54
Q

Label this

A
55
Q

what roots are the enlargements of the spinal cord

A

Cervical (~C3-T1)

Lumbar (~L1-S2)

56
Q

Describe the discrepancy between spinal levels and vertebral levels

how is this useful clinically?

A

The vertebral level is NOT the same as the spinal level. E.g. vertebral level T12 is at the level of the lumbar spinal cord, i.e. the T12 spinal nerve moves downwards to come out below the T12 intervertebral foramen

When describing spinal cord injuries, use the last functioning SPINAL levels

57
Q

what are the different spinal pathologies?

A
  • Fractures of vertebral column
  • Prolapsed intervertebral disc - sciatica
  • Spondylosis (degeneration)
  • Spondylolysis (stress fracture of pars interarticularis)
  • Spondylolisthesis (forward displacement of vertebra)
  • Spondylitis (inflammation of vertebrae)
  • Spinal cord injury

N.B they can affect the cord itself or nerves coming out via the intervertebral foramen

58
Q

what is the par interarticularis

A

the part between the superior articular process and inferior articular process

59
Q

what are the factors affecting the severity of spinal nerve lesion

A

Loss of neural tissue

  • Usually small if due to trauma but can be more extensive (e.g. metastases, degenerative disease)

Vertical level- the higher the lesion, greater the disability

Transverse plane- number of tracts involved

60
Q

According to the ASIA impariment scale, what are the classifications of spinal cord injury? Explain them

A

Grade A- Complete

Grade B- Sensory incomplete

Grade C- Motor incomplete

Grade D- Motor incomplete

Grade E- Normal

61
Q

An incomplete spinal injury can further be classified into other syndromes, what are they?

A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

Anterior Cord Syndrome

Posterior Cord Syndrome

Conus Medullaris Syndrome

Cauda Equina Syndrome

62
Q

Label this diagram (1)

A
63
Q

label this diagram

A
64
Q

what occurs in Degenerative cervical myelopathy

A

Spinal cord decompression in the neck caused by degenerative chnages in the spine

Most common cause of spinal cord dysfunction

Gradual onset

Symptoms- have both UMN and LMN lesion symptoms

  • LMN symtpoms - at spinal level of arthropathy (occurs at synapse)
  • UMN symptoms- at and below the spinal level
  • progressive neck pain
  • clumsiness with hands
65
Q

If you suspect a p[t with atroke, what is the next Ixs you need and explain why?

what other Ixs can you do

A

CT head- more readily available

  • Can distinguish whether it’s ischaemic (black )or haemorrhagic stroke (white blood )

MRI is gold standard but not readily available

CT head angiogram

66
Q

What is the difference between UMN and LMN lesion of facial nerve palsy.

what are the other exam findings for this lesion?

A

UMN- forehead sparing and CONTRALATERAL weakness

LMN (Bell’s palsy)- no forehead sparing and ipsilateral weakness

67
Q

draw the pathway for the facial nerve that is relevant for the facial nerve palsy

A
68
Q

what Ixs can you do if pts has symptoms of Bell’s palsy?

A

There’s no need for imaging, diagnosis can be made clinically.

if there’s uncertainty- do:

  • CT head to exclude stroke
  • MRI for tumours
  • Bloods- rule out Lyme disease (bacterial infection that can affect brain)
69
Q

what is a cause of Bell’s palsy?

A

Ramsay’s Hunt syndrome- shingles of CN7

can check for it by looking for blisters in ears.

There are other infections