Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgery Shelf exam > Neurosurgery > Flashcards

Neurosurgery Flashcards

1
Q

How do you reduce ICP?

A 
Raise head
Mannitol 
Sedation 
Hyperventilation (cerebral vasoconstriction)
Removal of CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does Hyperventilation reduce ICP?

A

blow off CO2–> cerebral vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What regulates ICP?

A

CBF
Pressure in brain parenchyma
Pressure of CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

abrupt onset of bilateral flaccid paralysis and loss of pain/temp below a certain point

A

Anterior spinal cord syndrome

cause: loss of blood flow to anterior spinal artery because of occlusion of the great radicular artery of Adamkiewicz

Upper motor neuron signs develop over days to weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when do you treat a thoracic aortic aneurysm?

A

> 6cm in diameter
symptoms (chest pain, stridor, hemoptysis)
rapid increase in diameter
rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how to treat thoracic aortic aneurysm?

A

replace with graft, open or endovascular stent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the complications of thoracic aortic aneurysm treatment?

A

Paraplegia (up to 20%)

Anterior spinal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Jaundice 2-3 days post surgery that required multiple blood transfusions. Elevated Alk phos and bill; nl AST and ALT

A

Postop cholestasis

after surgery characterized by hypotension (causing decreased liver function), blood loss in the tissues, and massive blood replacement (increased pigment load)

decreased renal bili excretion due to tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common fracture in children?

A

supracondylar fracture of humerus (FOOSH result)

Complication: entrapment of brachial artery or median nerve
OR
compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the treatment of duodenal hematoma?

A

observation with NGT and TPN

most resolve spontaneously in 1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bony nontender mass on midline of hard palate of young pt

A

Torus palatinus

congenital
more common in young, women, asians

only surgery if mass is symptomatic, interferes with speech or eating or denture fitting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blood at urethral meatus, inability to void and high-riding prostate

A

Posterior urethral injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Posterior urethral injury _ perineal or scrotal hematoma

A

pelvic fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How to assess urethral injury?

A

Retrograde urethrogram (before putting in a Foley)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

treatment of urethral injury

A

urinary diversion via suprapubic catheter to allow healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bowen’s disease

A

squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the skin

thin erythematous plaque with well-defined irregular borders and overlaying crust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Elevated PCWP in pt with shock. What kind of shock?

A

Cariogenic shock

left ventricular dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Myocardial contusion suggested if…

A

Cariogenic shock
Sternal fracture

treat for arrhythmias

get EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Signs of hypovolemic shock

A

Decreased preload (right atrial pressure, PCWP), pump function, and venous O2 sat

increased after load (SVR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How assess a broken clavicle

A

Neuromuscular exam because close to subclavian and brachial plexus

angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment for a broken clavicle

A

middle third of clavicle–> brace, ice, rest

distal third–> open reduction and internal fixation to avoid nonunion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Post embolectomy pain (increased with passive stretch) and paresthesias. Rapid swelling, present pulses

A

Compartment syndrome

Due to tissue swelling after reperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Four situations when compartment syndrome is common?

A
  1. supracondylar elbow fracture in kids
  2. Proximal/midshaft tibial fracture
  3. Electrical burns
  4. Arterial/venous disruption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Treatment of compartment syndrome

A

Fasciotomy w/in 4 hrs if possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fever, chills and deep abdominal pain after blunt abdominal trauma suggests…

A

Retroperitoneal abscess

must drain!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Treatment for scaphoid fracture

A

X-ray (initially might not show but may show up 7-10 days later)

place in thumb spica cast and then re-xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Prophylaxis of Atelectasis?

A

quit smoking 8 weeks prior to surgery
incentive spirometry
good pain control

post op–deep breathing exercises
epidural analgesia
positive airway pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cause of atelectasis

A

shallow breathing and weak cough due to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How to diagnose splenic injury?

A

Stable vs. unstable

stable–> CT
Unstable–> DLP or FAST exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

treatment of splenic injury

A

Hemodynamically stable–> depends on grade of injury–> high grade then surgery but try to fix not remove

Unstable–> emergent exploratory laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How to treat hemoptysis

A

Protect non bleeding lung by positioning pt bleeding side down
Establish airway
Reverse any coagulopathies
stop bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How to control bleeding in pts with hemoptysis

A 
Bronchoscopy 
-balloon occlusion
-iced saline lavage 
-diluted epi/vasopressin/thrombin
-laser therapy 
Arteriography and selective bronchial artery embolization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common bug causing hospital acquired pneumonia

A

MSSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Orthotropic

A

Donor organ placed in normal anatomic position (liver, heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Heterotropic

A

donor organ placed in different site than normal (kidney, pancreas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what HLA are most important to match in a renal allograft?

A

HLA-B and HLA-DR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Unilateral hip pain in a middle aged adult

A 
Infection 
trauma
arthritis
bursitis (superficial pain with pressure)
radiculopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tetanus prophylaxis

A

If had >3 toxoid doses then just get vaccine if last booster >10 yrs (clean wound) or >5 yrs (dirty wound)

If no vaccine or

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

first step in managing burn injury

A

secure airway

can get airway edema if injury to upper airway present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

abdominal pain out of proportion to exam

A

Rule out mesenteric ischemia

test: mesenteric A gram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the primary cause of acute arterial occlusion?

A

Embolization

acute thrombosis of an atheromatous lesion and vascular trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 6 Ps of acute arterial occlusion?

A 
Pain
Paralysis
Pallor
Paresthesia 
Polar (Poikilothermic)
Pulselessness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common cause of acute arterial occlusion?

A

A fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How to treat an acute arterial occlusion?

A

Surgical embolectomy via cutdown and Fogarty balloon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What skin lesion tends to be found in chronic wounds?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

associated with chronically wounded, scarred or inflamed skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the six etiologies of acute mediastinitis

A 
Esophageal perforation 
posted wound infection 
head and neck infection 
Lung or pleural infection 
Rib or vertebral osteomyelitis 
distant infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Treatment for acute mediastinitis

A

Wide drainage
treat primary cause
antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do you increase FRC?

A

Incentive spirometry, coughing, and frequent repositioning/ early ambulation

also sitting upright–>reduces intraabdominal pressure acting on the undersurface of the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

abdominal pain, cramping, nausea, abdominal distention, emesis, hight-pitched bowel sounds

A

small bowel obstruction

pain can come in waves due to peristaltic rush

can also get fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis and metabolic acidosis if more severe

see dilated bowel with air-fluid levels on AXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the initial management of SBO?

A

NPO
NGT
IVF
foley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

causes of SBO

A

ABCs:
Adhesions–#1 in adults in US
Bulge (hernia)–#1 in world and kids
Cancer and tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are signs of strangulated bowel with SBO?

A

Fever, severe/continuous pain, hematemesis, Shock, peritoneal signs, acidosis (increased lactic acid), abdominal free air, gas in bowel wall or portal vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for paralytic ileus?

A 
postoperative (resolves 3-5 days)
Electrolyte abnormalities (hypokalemia)
Medications (anticholinergic, narcotics)
Inflammatory intra-abdominal process 
Sepsis/shock
Spine injury
Retroperitoneal hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

palpable locking or catching when the knee joint is extended while under load

A

medial meniscus tear

confirm diagnosis with MRI or arthroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

NG tube in the chest after blunt trauma to the abdomen

A

Ruptured diaphragm

On left side

nausea, vomiting, respiratory distress, shifted mediastinum

tx: surgical exploration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

pulsatile groin mass below the inguinal ligament with anterior thigh pain

A

Femoral artery aneurysm

can result in thrombosis and ischemia

second most common after popliteal aneurysm

associated with AAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

signs of a retroperitoneal hematoma

A

sudden hemodynamic instability and ipsilateral flank or back pain.

flat neck veins, tachycardia, back pain, recent cardiac cath

confirm with non-contrast CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Complications after AAA repair?

A

MI!
atheroembolism, decamping hypotension, acute renal failure, ureteral injury, hemorrhage

colonic ischemia (IMA sacrificed during surgery–usually seen in first week )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Abdominal pain, tenderness and peritoneal signs, abdominal wall ecchymosis, abdominal distention, hypoactive bowel sounds

A

blunt abdominal trauma

first give fluids, FAST exam, then exploratory laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

SIRS criteria

A

two of the four criteria

  1. Temp >38.5 or 90
  2. RR >20
  3. WBC >12,000, 10% bands

sepsis= SIRS with known infection and associated end organ dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Another name for Wilson’s disease

A

Hepatolenticular degeneration

62
Q

Treatment for osteoarthritis

A

Acetaminophen

63
Q

bone findings in osteoarthritis

A

narrowing of the joint space and osteophyte formation

bony enlargement
effects hands and weight-bearing joints

64
Q

gradual onset of shoulder stiffness, Decreased ROM of shoulder, +/- pain, reduced passive and active ROM

A

Adhesive capsulitis

glenohumeral joint loses its normal distensibility due to chronic inflammation, fibrosis and contracture of joint capsule

65
Q

Rotator cuff tendinopathy vs. adhesive capsulitis

A

can coexist

RC tendinopathy have more pain than stiffness

guarding with active ROM b/c of pain but normal ROM

66
Q

Use of transthroacic echocardiogram

A

initial evaluation of infective endocarditis

67
Q

Assessment of Raynaud phenomenon

A

test for autoantibodies and inflammatory marker in suspected secondary RP (older females with asymmetric raynauds)

Also CBC and metabolic panel
Urinalysis
RF
ESR and complement levels (C3 and C4)

68
Q

systemic disorders associated with secondary raynaud phenomenon

A

SLE
Scleroderma
thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease–test with ateriogram)

69
Q

Imaging used for acute pancreatitis

A

US

70
Q

Dry eyes, dry mouth, cough and dyspareunia

A

Sick syndrome– generalized dryness of mucous membranes

Autoimmune sialadenitis in Sjogren syndrome

71
Q

extra glandular features of Sjogren syndrome

A

arthritis, lymphadenopathy, Raynaud phenomenon or vasculitis

autoantibodies (ANA, RF, Anti-SSA and Anti-SSB)

72
Q

acute monoarticular arthritis with chondrocalcinosis

A

calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystal deposition disease (Pseudogout)

73
Q

secondary causes of pseudogout

A

hyperPTH, hypothyroid, hemochromatosis

74
Q

Recently diagnosed DM2 and hepatomegaly with arthritis

A

hereditary hemochromatosis

also get bronzed skin
restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy

75
Q

New iron deficiency anemia in elderly patients

A

think GI bleed (polyps, cancer, angiodysplasia)

76
Q

Use of radioisotope scans

A

identify source of active bleeding

77
Q

patient with liver disease and ascites with temp >37.8, diffuse abdominal pain and/or mental status change

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

due to intestinal bacteria translocation into the ascitic fluid or via blood to liver and fluid

test mental status with Reitan trail test (timed connect the numbers test)

PMN count in ascites >250 + positive culture of peritoneal fluid confirm diagnosis

78
Q

Treatment for non bleeding esophageal varices

A

Nonselective beta blocker (propranolol and nadolol)

Or endoscopic variceal ligation

79
Q

Treatment for actively bleeding esophageal varices

A

Octreotide

80
Q

Progressive proximal muscle weakness with difficulty ascending and descending stairs

A

Polymyositis

81
Q

Ddx for proximal muscle weakness

A 
muscular dystrophy 
Polymyositis and dermatomyositis
Hypothyroid
Corticosteroids
HIV myopathy
82
Q

Antimitochrondrial antibody

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

83
Q

First symptoms of PBC

A

Pruritus and fatigue

then jaundice, steatorrhea, hepatomegaly, portal HTN and Osteopenia

84
Q

Treatment for PBC

A

Ursodeoxychlic acid

85
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

A

Pts have high conjugated bilirubin

icterus with otherwise normal exam
mainly asymptomatic

usually icterus is triggered by illness, pregnancy or OCP

black liver; high levels of coproporphyrin I

86
Q

Young middle aged woman on long term oral contraceptives with a large painful hepatic mass. Diagnosis? labs?

A

Diagnosis: hepatic adenomas
U/S shows well-demarcated hyperechoic lesions

Labs: elevated alk phase and GGT but otherwise normal liver markers

87
Q

Long term risks of hepatic adenoma

A

growth, rupture, malignant transformation

88
Q

Risk factors for gout

A

medications (diuretics, low dose aspirin)
Surgery, trauma, recent hospitalization
volume depletion
alcohol

89
Q

Gout onset

A

12-24 hrs

90
Q

Septic arthritis onset

A

days

fever and chills plus acute monoarticular arthritis

91
Q

Etiology of small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A 
anatomical abnormalities (strictures, surgery)
Motility disorders (DM, scleroderma)
Other (ESRD, AIDS, Cirrhosis, advanced age)

Diagnose with jejunal aspirate

92
Q

Esophageal stricture vs. adenocarcinoma on barium swallow

A

Stricture–> symmetric narrowing

Adenocarcinoma–> asymmetric narrowing

93
Q

Where is zinc absorbed?

A

Jejunum

94
Q

alopecia, abnormal taste, bollus, pustulous lesions around body orifices and or extremities, impaired wound healing

A

zinc deficiency

can result from chronic TPN

95
Q

Selenium deficiency

A

cardiomyopathy

96
Q

Risk factors for pancreatic cancer

A 
first degree relative
hereditary pancreatitis 
gremlin mutations
cigarette smoking
obesity 
non hereditary chronic pancreatitis
97
Q

most common causes of cirrhosis

A

alcohol abuse

viral hepatitis

98
Q

morning stiffness in DIP joints, dactylics (sausage digits) and nail involvement plus red plaques with silvery scaling

A

Psoriatic arthritis

99
Q

pain in the plantar surface of heel

worse when start running or first steps of the day

A

Plantar fasciitis

100
Q

Numbness or pain between the 3rd and 4th toes and clicking sensation when squeezing joints

A

morton neuroma

101
Q

gnawing epigastric pain and intermittent melena

A

duodenal ulcer

worse on empty stomach

Causes: H. pylori and NSAIDs

102
Q

characteristics of ascites

A

color (bloody, milky, turbid, straw)
Neutrophils
Total protein
Serum to ascites albumin gradient (SAAG)

103
Q

SAAG indications

A

> 1.1= portal HTN (increased hydrostatic pressure)

104
Q

What is the most specific marker for androgen producing adrenal tumors?

A

DHEA-S (only produced in the adrenals

DEAH and T are also produced in ovaries and testes

105
Q

Treatment for Actinomyces

A

penicillin

associated with Dental trauma

106
Q

Anterior MI

A

LAD blocked

changes in V1-V6

107
Q

ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF

A

inferior MI

LCX or RCA

108
Q

Right ventricle MI

A

RCA

ST elevation in leads V4-V6R

109
Q

ST elevation in I and aVL

With ST depression in leads V1-V3

A

LCX Posterior MI

110
Q

ST depression in I and aVL

A

RCA Posterior MI

111
Q

Rash on the trunk that extends to the palms and soles with generalized lymphadenopathy

A

secondary syphilis

112
Q

Next step in acne treatment after topical retinoids

A

topical antibiotics

erythromycin, clindamycin

113
Q

Causes of exudate plural effusions

A

infection, autoimmune dz, neoplasm

114
Q

What are the dietary recommendations for people with renal calculi?

A

Increase fluid intake
Decreased sodium intake
Normal dietary calcium intake

115
Q

Signs of hypokalemia

A

muscle weakness, arrhythmias and EKG changes

116
Q

Multiple system atrophy

A

Degenerative dz charaterized by:
Parkinsonism
Autonomic dysfunction (orthostatic hypotension, loss of bladder control, impotence, stridor)
Widespread neurologic signs

117
Q

Who should get the 13 valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

A

All adults >65 yo

then get the 23 talent after 6-12 mo

118
Q

Who should just get the 23 valent pneumococcal vaccine?

A

adults under 65yo when have chronic medical conditions

119
Q

Risks of iron deficiency anemia in kids

A

prematurity
lead exposure
infants consuming: low iron formula, cows milk before 1yo, exclusively breast milk after 6mo
Toddlers who consume a lot of milk or very little iron

120
Q

How to calculate PAO2

A

PAO2= 150-PaCO2/0.8

121
Q

Causes of normal A-a gradient hypoxia

A

high altitude

CNS depression

122
Q

Recurrent painful oral aphthous ulcers
Genital ulcers
uveitis

A

Behcet disease

also can have erythema nodosum and high risk of vasculitis with thrombosis

123
Q

Criterial for long-term oxygen therapy in COPD pts

A
  1. all pts w/ PaO2 60mmHg with SaO2 >90%
124
Q

Signs of hypercalcemia

A 
Constipation
anorexia 
weakness
polyuria
neurologic abel

(stones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones)

125
Q

back pain, anemia, renal dysfunction, elevated ESR, hypercalcemia

A

Multiple myeloma

x-ray shows multiple punched out lytic lesions

126
Q

Treatment for mild persistent asthma

A

albuterol inhaler plus inhaled corticosteroids

127
Q

colon condition associated with Down syndrome

A

Hirschsprung disease

failure of neural crest cells to migrate

involves rectosigmoid colon

128
Q

Signs of hirschsprung disease

A

poor feeding, abdominal distention, failure to pass meconium and even biliary emesis

Squirt sign–explosive gas and stool on rectal exam

129
Q

How diagnose complete bowel obstruction w/o perf

A

contrast enema

130
Q

How to diagnose Hirschsprung

A

rectal suction biopsy

absence of ganglion cells

131
Q

Risk factors for celiac disease

A 
Type 1 DM
first degree relative 
autoimmune thyroiditis
Down syndrome
selective IgA deficiency
132
Q

Extra intestinal manifestation of celiac

A

short stature and weight loss
iron deficiency anemia
dermatitis herpetiformis

133
Q

Diagnosis of celiac

A

Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody IgA

duodenal biopsy (increased intraepithelial lymphocytes and flattened villi)

134
Q

How to approach a solitary pulmonary nodule

A

determine probability of malignancy

if high chance–>excise

135
Q

When excise a solitary pulmonary nodule

A

High chance of malignancy
lesion growth on imaging
positive FDG-PET scan
suspected malignancy on path

136
Q

Cough, large volume sputum, recurrent fever, hemoptysis

A

Bronchiectasis

137
Q

Chest X-ray for bronchiectasis shows

A

linear atelectasis
dilated and thickened airways
irregular peripheral opacities

138
Q

Diagnosis of bronchiectasis

A

CT first

then sputum analysis, branch if focal disease

139
Q

fetal macrosomia, rapid growth initially
omphalocele or umbilical hernia
macroglossia
hemihyperplasia

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

11q15 gene

140
Q

Beckwith-Wiedmann complications

A

Wilms tumor
Hepatoblastoma

hypoglycemia

141
Q

urinary homovanillic and vanilmandelic acid assay is for…

A

Neuroblastoma

142
Q

thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, renal failure + altered mental status, low-grade fever

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

143
Q

Diagnosis of TTP

A

Clinical

peripheral blood smear (increased number of schistocytes)

144
Q

Primary source for PE clots

A

Proximal deep veins in lower extremity (above knee–iliofemoral vein clot)

other less common: calf, renal, pelvic, upper extremity veins, right heart

145
Q

Exquisitely tender skin post chemo

A

Herpes zoster

146
Q

Complications of PEEP

A

alveolar damage, tension pneumothorax, hypotension

147
Q

Colon cancer screening recommendation for IBD

A

8 years after diagnosis

colonoscopy with biopsy every 1-2 years

148
Q

Colon cancer screening in family history of adenomatous polyps or CRC

A

colonoscopy age 40 or 10 years before age of diagnosis of family member
repeat every 3-5 years

149
Q

migratory superficial thrombophlebitis

A

Trousseau’s syndrome

hyper coagulation with unexplained superficial venous thrombosis at unusual sites (arm and chest)

150
Q

Cancer associated with Trousseau’s syndrome

A

Pancreas

lung, prostate, stomach, colon

151
Q

Fluid for resuscitation of children

A

Isotonic crystalloid

–> NS

152
Q

Most common cause of bile ductopenia

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

failed liver txp, hodgkin’s, GVH, sarcoid, CMV, HIV, meds

Surgery Shelf exam (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions