Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NEUROSURGERY > NEUROSURGERY > Flashcards

NEUROSURGERY Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Surgical procedures utilized in the treatment of spasmodic torticollis include

I. upper cervical ventral rhizotomies and spinal accessory neurectomy
11. stereotactic thalamotomy
111. microvascular decompression of the spinal accessory nerve
IV. myotomy

A. I, 11,111
B. I, 111
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which surgical approach for thoracic disk herniations is associated with the
highest rate of neurologic injury?

A. costotransversectomy
B. lateral extracavitary
C. midline laminectomy
D. transpedicular
E. transthoracic

A

C. Midline Laminectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Most patients with intrinsic brainstem gliomas initially present with

A. cranial neuropathies
B. headache
C. hydrocephalus
D. nausea and vomiting
E. papilledema

A

A. cranial neuropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Each of the following is characteristic of complex regional pain syndrome I1
(causalgia) except

A. atrophic changes in the limb
B. hypesthesia
C. increased sweating
D. lack of major motor deficit
E. good relief with sympathetic block

A

B. hypesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Ventricular enlargement from choroid plexus papillomas can be secondary to

I. entrapment of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
11. decreased absorption of CSF from hemorrhage-induced arachnoiditis
111. tumor growth
IV. excessive production of CSF

A. I, 11, 111
B. I, 111
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which approach is favored for a patient with an 8 mm acoustic neuroma in
    which hearing preservation is a goal?

A. middle fossa
B. suboccipital
C. translabyrinthine

A

A. middle fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Uncinate seizures typically produce

A. auditory hallucinations
B. gustatory hallucinations
C. olfactory hallucinations
D. vertiginous sensations
E. visual seizures

A

C. olfactory hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The radial nerve or one of its branches innervates each of the following except the

A. abductor pollicis longus
B. adductor pollicis
C. brachioradialis
D. extensor pollicis brevis
E. supinator

A

B. adductor pollicis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) in the newborn except

A. Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction is one sequela.
B. Posthemorrhagic hydrocephalus can result in persistent bradycardia and apneic spells.
C The capillary bed of the germinal matrix is composed of large irregular vessels.
D. The germinal matrix is the most common site of IVH in the full-term neonate.
E. The risk of IVH is greater in the preterm than in the term infant.

A

D. The germinal matrix is the most common site of IVH in the full-term neonate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. The ossification centers of the odontoid consist of

A. one primary and two secondary centers
B. one secondary and three primary centers
C. three secondary and one primary center
D. two primary Centers
E. two primary and one secondary center

A

E. two primary and one secondary center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The most common single-suture synostosis is

A. coronal
B. lambdoid
C. metopic
D. sagittal
E. sphenozygomatic

A

D. sagittal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The most sensitive method for detecting carpal tunnel syndrome is

A. needle examination of the abductor pollicis brevis
B. needle examination of the first and second lumbricals
C motor amplitude of the median nerve
D. motor distal latency of the median nerve
E. palmar sensory conduction time of the median nerve

A

E. palmar sensory conduction time of the median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Coup contusions most commonly occur at the

A. cerebral convexities

B. frontal and temporal poles
C. orbital surface of the frontal lobes
D. posterior fossa
E. ventral surface of the temporal lobe

A

A. cerebral convexities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most
likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm

A
  1. pupil-involving third nerve palsy
  2. seizures
  3. diabetes insipidus
  4. inferior nasal quadrantanopia
  5. exophthalmos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. The essential difference between a syringomyelic and a hydromyelic cavity is that the cavity in

A. hydromyelia is lined with ependymal cells, and in syringomyelia is not
B. hydromyelia is lined with choroid plexus, and in syringomyelia is not
C. syringomyelia contains CSF, and in hydromyelia contains serum
D. syringomyelia is focal, and in hydromyelia is more extensive
E. syringomyelia is an enlargement of the central canal, and in hydromyelia is an enlargement of the anterior median septum
For questions 38 to 45, identify the following structures. The figure illustrates the

A

A. hydromyelia is lined with ependymal cells, and in syringomyelia is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of basilar impression except

A. Cerebellar and vestibular complaints typically overshadow motor and sensory complaints.
B. McGregor’s line is helpful in routine screening.
C. McRae’s line is helpful in clinical assessment.
D. Short necks and torticollis are common.
E. Vertebral artery anomalies are common.

A

A. Cerebellar and vestibular complaints typically overshadow motor and sensory complaints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following fractures has the poorest prognosis for healing without surgical intervention?

A. hangman’s
B. Jefferson’s fracture with 4 mm displacement of lateral masses
C. type l odontoid
D. type 11 odontoid
E. type I11 odontoid

A

D. type 11 odontoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Sprengel’s deformity refers to a(n)

A. congenital elevation of the scapula
B. congenital fusion of the upper cervical vertebrae
C. intravertebral disk herniation
D. postlaminectomy kyphosis
E. scoliosis resulting from tethering of the spinal cord

A

A. congenital elevation of the scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For questions 49 to 55, match the fracture type with the mechanism. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Force Neck Posture!

A. flexing . flexed
B. compressing flexed
C. compressing neutral
D. distracting extended
E. flexing axially rotated
F. compressing laterally bent

A
  1. hangman’s fracture
  2. burst fracture
  3. unilateral facet dislocation
  4. teardrop fracture
  5. bilateral facet dislocation
  6. horizontal facet fracture
  7. Jefferson’s fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Lateral recess stenosis in spondylosis is most commonly caused by

A. disk herniation
B. hypertrophied pedicles
C. inferior articular facet hypertrophy
D. ligamentum flavum hypertrophy
E. superior articular facet hypertrophy

A

E. superior articular facet hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. In the treatment of chronic pain, the undesirable effect(s) that islare more common in stimulation of the periaqueductal gray than the periventricular gray region is lare

I. diplopia
11. oscillopsia
111. reduction of upgaze *
IV. sense of impending doom

A. I, 11, Ill
B. I, I11
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. '’Trilateral retinoblastoma” describes bilateral ocular retinoblastomas and a(n)

A. astrocytoma
B. medulloblastoma
C. neurofibroma
D. optic nerve sheath tumor
E. pineoblastoma

A

E. pineoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Carotid artery ligation is absolutely contraindicated in patients with (a)

A. bilateral intracavernous carotid aneurysms
B. giant ophthalmic artery aneurym and evidence of vasospasm on arteriogram
C. giant ophthalmic artery aneurysm and extracranial atherosclerotic disease
D. intracavernous carotid artery aneurysm and sudden loss of extraocular
motility
E. traumatic dissecting aneurysm of the petrous carotid artery

A

B. giant ophthalmic artery aneurym and evidence of vasospasm on arteriogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. The syndrome of weakness in one upper extremity followed by lower extremity weakness on the same side, then contralateral lower extremity weakness, is most characteristic of a meningioma involving the

A. clivus
B. falx
C. foramen magnum
D. olfactory groove
E. tuberculum sella

A

C. foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

For questions 61 to 70, the figure illustrates a lateral view of the left cavernous sinus. Match the following triangles with the descriptions/structures. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. clinoidal
B. oculomotor
C. supratrochlear
D. infratrochlear or Parkinson’s
E. anteromedial
F. anterolateral
G. posterolateral or Glasscock’s
H. posteromedial or Kawase’s

A
  1. clinoidal segment of the internal carotid artery
  2. intracavernous carotid artery
  3. intrapetrous carotid artery
  4. meningohypophyseal trunk origin
  5. optic strut
  6. sphenoid sinus and lower margin of Vl
  7. Two margins of this triangle are formed by the anterior and posterior petroclinoidal dural folds.
  8. located between V2 and V3
  9. contains the foramen spinosum
  10. contains the cochlea
27
Q
  1. Adherence of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm to the temporal lobe is most likely in a patient presenting with

A. loss of consciousness
B. no third nerve palsy . .
C. projection of the aneurysm medial to the carotid on the anteroposterior (AP)
angiogram
D. third nerve involvement
E. seizures

A

B. no third nerve palsy . .

28
Q
  1. Weakness of the deltoid muscle is caused by injury to the

A. axillary nerve
B. dorsal scapular nerve
C. musculocutaneous nerve
D. suprascapular nerve
E. thoracodorsal nerve

A

A. axillary nerve

29
Q
  1. Subdural empyema resulting after meningitis in an infant most commonly develops with

A. Escherichia coli
B. Haemophilus influenme
C. Listeria
D. Neisseria
E. Staphylococcus

A

A. Escherichia coli

30
Q
  1. Sudeck’s atrophy, associated with causalgia, refers to atrophic changes occur. ring in each of the following structures except

A. bone
B. joints
C. muscle
D. nerve
E. skin

A

D. nerve

31
Q

For questions 75 to 79, match the embryological event with the postovulatory day. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Postovulatory Day Number

A. 13
B. 17
C. 22
D. 24
E. 26

A
  1. closure of the caudal neuropore
  2. closure of the cranial neuropore
  3. formation of the notochord
  4. formation of the primitive streak
  5. fusion of the neural folds to form the neural tube
32
Q
  1. Factors that predispose to the subclavian steal syndrome include
    I. occlusion of the left subclavian artery before the origin of the left vertebral artery
  2. occlusion of the left subclavian artery after the origin of the left vertebra artery
    Ill. active use of the left arm
    IV. occlusion of the left vertebral artery

A. I, 11, 111
B. I, 111
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

B. I, 111

33
Q
  1. The articular facet joint in the upper thoracic region is oriented

A. axially
B. coronally
C. obliquely
D. sagittally

A

B. coronally

34
Q
  1. The most common presenting symptom of a thoracic herniated disk is

A. back pain
B. leg numbness
C. leg weakness
D. thoracic numbness
E. urinary incontinence

A

A. back pain

35
Q
  1. Neurologic deficits thought to result from occlusion of the thalamostriate vein during the subchoroidal transvelum interpositum approach to the third ventricle include
  2. drowsiness
  3. hemiparesis
    Ill. mutism
    IV. seizures

A. I, 11, 111
B. I, Ill
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

A. I, 11, 111

36
Q
  1. In the suboccipital transmeatal approach to an acoustic neuroma, the location of the facial nerve in relation to the tumor, in decreasing frequency of occurrence, is

A anterior. posterior, inferior
B. anterior, superior, inferior
C. superior, anterior, posterior
D. posterior, superior, anterior
E. anterior, posterior, superior

A

B. anterior, superior, inferior

37
Q
  1. Each of the following features is usually minimal or absent in patients with type 2 neurofibromatosis except

A. axillary freckles
B. cafe au lait spots
C. Lisch nodules
D. multiple. typical skin neurofibromas
E. skin plaques

A

E. skin plaques

38
Q
  1. The single most important factor in the recurrence of meningiomas is

A age of the patient
B. bone invasion
C. histologic type of benign meningioma
D. postoperatiye tumor residual
E. sex of the patient

A

D. postoperatiye tumor residual

39
Q

For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern

A
  1. contains the anteroinferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
  2. contains the origin of the posteroinferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
  3. contains the superior cerebellar artery
  4. contains cranial nerve (CN) IV
  5. contains CN V
  6. contains the basal vein of Rosenthal
  7. contains the choroid plexus at the foramen of Luschka
40
Q
  1. The transverse crest separates the

A cochlear, facial, and superior vestibular nerves from the inferior vestibular nerve

B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior vestibular nerve
C. facial and cochlear nerves from the superior and inferior vestibular nerves
D. facial, cochlear, and inferior vestibular nerves from the superior vestibular nerve
E. facial and inferior vestibular nerves from the cochlear and superior vestibular nerves

A

B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior vestibular nerve

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of hemifacial spasm?
    A. Compression of the facial nerve by the superior cerebellar artery is the most common operative finding.
    B. Deafness is more common than permanent facial weakness as a complication of microvascular decompression.
    C. Men are more frequently affected than women.
    D. Symptoms typically begin in the buccal muscles and move cranially.
    E. The cure rate at 1 month after microvascular decompression is 95%.
A

B. Deafness is more common than permanent facial weakness as a complication of microvascular decompression.

42
Q
  1. Each of the following surgical approaches may be considered for an aneurysm of the vertebrobasilar junction except the

A. extended extreme lateral inferior transcondylar approach
B. lateral suboccipital approach
C. presigmoid transtentorial approach
D. retrolabyrinthine transigmoid approach
E. subtemporal approach

A

E. subtemporal approach

43
Q
  1. The most common presenting symptom in patients with colloid cysts is

A. headache
B. dementia
C. seizures
D. sudden attacks of leg weakness
E. sudden death

A

A. headache

44
Q

For questions 103 to 106, the figure illustrates the nerves occupying the right internal auditory canal through a middle fossa approach. Identify their relative positions.

A
  1. inferior and anterior
  2. inferior and posterior
  3. superior and anterior
  4. superior and posterior
45
Q
  1. The most common presenting symptom of neonates with vein of Galen aneurysms is

A. congestive heart failure
B. hydrocephalus
C. intracerebral hemorrhage
D. seizures
E. subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

A. congestive heart failure

46
Q

The most common upper thoracic spine injury is a

A. burst fracture
B. compression fracture
C. fracture-dislocation
D. seat-belt injury

A

B. compression fracture

47
Q

Which is true of thoracolumbar spine fractures?

A. Burst fractures are the most common.
B. Fracture-dislocations involve all three columns.
C. Seat-belt type injuries are generally stable.
D. Wedge compression fractures are generally unstable.
E. Wedge compression fractures involve the middle column.

A

B. Fracture-dislocations involve all three columns.

48
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of diffuse brain swelling except that it is

A. a result of cerebrovascular congestion
B. a result of cytotoxic edema
C. associated with a 50% mortality rate in severely head-injured children
D. manifested on computed tomography (CT) scan by a compression of
the perimesencephalic cistern
E. more common in children than in adults

A

B. a result of cytotoxic edema

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is least suggestive of child abuse?

A. acute and healing long bone fractures
B. interhemispheric subdural hematorna
C. parietal skull fracture
D. retinal hemorrhages
E. tentorial subdural hematoma

A

C. parietal skull fracture

50
Q
  1. Trigonocephaly results from premature closure of the

A. coronal suture bilaterally
B. coronal suture unilaterally
C. frontosphenoidal suture
D. lambdoid suture
E. metopic suture

A

E. metopic suture

51
Q
  1. The cleft in the spinal cord associated with diastematomyelia is most commonly
    located in the

A. cervical region
B. lumbar region
C. sacral region
D. thoracic region

A

B. lumbar region

52
Q
  1. Up to what percentage of patients with bacterial arterial (mycotic) aneurysms carry an underlying diagnosis of subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 60%
E. 80%

A

E. 80%

53
Q
  1. Each is true of bacterial intracranial aneurysms except

A. Infected emboli lodge in the vasa vasorum.
B. The middle cerebral artery is most commonly affected.
C. The peripherally located branches are most commonly affected
D. Typical subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs in 18% of patients.
E. Staphylococcus aureus and beta hemolytic streptococci are most
commonly involved.

A

A. Infected emboli lodge in the vasa vasorum.

54
Q

Each of the following is true of growing skull fractures except that they

A. can cross suture lines
B. may be associated with underlying brain injury
C. occur if the edges of the initial fracture are separated by more than 3 mm
D. occur most commonly in the parietal bone
E. occur most commonly between the ages of 2 and 5

A

E. occur most commonly between the ages of 2 and 5

55
Q

Approximately what percentage of infants with myelomeningocoele have magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) evidence of a Chiari I1 malformation?

A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%
E. 100%

A

E. 100%

56
Q

Cardiovascular disease involving the heart and great vessels gives rise to which of the following types of emboli in the retina?
I. cholesterol
11. calcific
111. platelet-fibrin
IV. fat

A. I, 11, Ill
B. I, 111 ,
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

A. I, 11, Ill

57
Q

In the infratentorial supracerebellar approach to the pineal region, which of the following veins are usually sacrificed?
I. superior vermian vein
11. posterior pericallosal vein
Ill. precentral cerebellar vein
IV. basal vein of Rosenthal

A. I, 11,111
B. I, 111
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

B. I, 111

58
Q

Each of the following is characteristic of an acoustic neuroma except

a. Bekesy type 111 or IV audiogram
b. loudness recruitment
c. low short-increment sensitivity index (SiSi)
d. poor speech discrimination
e. pronounced tone decay

A

b. loudness recruitment

59
Q

For questions 121 to 128, the figure illustrates the left retrosigmoid approach. Identify the following structures

  1. subarcuate artery
  2. anteroinferior cerebellar artery
  3. cochlear nerve
  4. facial nerve
  5. glossopharyngeal nerve
  6. spinal accessory nerve
  7. posteroinferior cerebellar artery
  8. vagus nerve
A
60
Q

Which of the following structures provides a marker for the most dorsal extent of the incision for anterolateral cordotomy for pain control?

a. dentata ligament
b. dorsal root entry zone
c. posterior intermediate sulcus
d. posterior median sulcus
e. zone of Lissauer

A

a. dentata ligament

61
Q
  1. Occlusion of the anterior choroidal artery results in
    I. contralateral hemiplegia
  2. hemihypesthesia
  3. homonymous hemianopia
    IV. impaired cognition

A. I, 11,111
B. I, 111
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

A. I, 11,111

62
Q
  1. Which of the following symptoms of Parkinson’s disease is most likely to respond to a stereotactic lesion in the posterior ventral oval (VOP)/ventral intermediate (VIM) (ventrolateral) thalamus?

A. bradykinesia
B. gait disturbance
C. rigidity
D. speech disturbance
E. tremor

A

E. tremor

63
Q

For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.

A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’sdisease
C. Both
D. Neither

A
  1. autosomal recessive inheritance
  2. exorbitism
  3. syndactyly
  4. The majority of patients have preoperative
  5. intelligence quotients (IQs) greater than 90.
  6. Anterior open bite is common.

NEUROSURGERY (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions