Neurosurgery Flashcards

1
Q
  1. You are evaluating an 82-year-old man who takes 325 mg of aspirin daily for coronary artery disease. He presented to the emergency department with a headache and sleepiness. CT is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? Use the following figure to answer questions 1 through 5:
    A. Epidural hematoma
    B. Subdural hematoma
    C. Intraparenchymal hematoma
    D. Traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage
A

A. Epidural hematoma
B. Subdural hematoma
C. Intraparenchymal hematoma
D. Traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage

B. Subdural hematoma

This CT scan demonstrates an acute subdural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense blood collection crossing the suture lines. A significant midline shift is associated. Blood remains hyperdense on CT scan for 1 to 3 days.
Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 895.

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2
Q

You are evaluating an 82-year-old man who takes 325 mg of aspirin daily for coronary artery disease. He presented to the emergency department with a headache and sleepiness. Refer to CT shown in Question 1. How long has this bleed likely been present?
A. 1 to 3 days
B. 4 days to 2 weeks
C. 2 weeks to 3 months
D. > 3 months

A

A. 1 to 3 days
B. 4 days to 2 weeks
C. 2 weeks to 3 months
D. > 3 months

This CT scan demonstrates an acute subdural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense blood collection crossing the suture lines. A significant midline shift is associated. Blood remains hyperdense on CT scan for 1 to 3 days.
Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 895.

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3
Q

You are evaluating an 82-year-old man with a history of a mechanical aortic valve. He presented to the emergency department with a headache and sleepiness. His GCS is 13 (E3, V4, M6). Refer to CT shown in Question 1. What is the next best step?
A. Intubate
B. Bedside burr hole evacuation
C. Start levetiracetam
D. Check INR

A

A. Intubate
B. Bedside burr hole evacuation
C. Start levetiracetam
D. Check INR

This CT scan demonstrates an acute subdural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense blood collection crossing the suture lines. This patient has a history of a mechanical aortic valve and is likely on chronic anticoagulation. Before you choose to intervene you should know the coagulation status of the patient and reverse if necessary. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 895.

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4
Q

You are evaluating an 82-year-old man with a history of a mechanical aortic valve. He presented to the emergency department with a headache and sleepiness. His GCS is 13 (E3, V4, M6). Refer to CT shown in Question 1. You decide to intervene. What procedure would you recommend?
A. EVD insertion
B. Burr hole evacuation
C. Decompressive hemicraniotomy/ectomy
D. Posterior fossa decompression

A

A. EVD insertion
B. Burr hole evacuation
C. Decompressive hemicraniotomy/ectomy
D. Posterior fossa decompression

This CT scan demonstrates an acute subdural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense blood collection crossing the suture lines. This patient will require surgery and due to the acute nature of this clot, the patient will likely not be adequately drained with burr holes. A decompressive hemicraniotomy/ectomy is recommended. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 895.

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5
Q

You are evaluating an 82-year-old man with a history of a mechanical aortic valve. He presented to the emergency department with a headache but is otherwise neurologically intact with a GCS of 15. What would you recommend?
A. EVD insertion
B. Admission/observation
C. Decompressive hemicraniotomy/ectomy
D. Discharge home from ED with 1 month follow-up head CT

A

A. EVD insertion
B. Admission/observation
C. Decompressive hemicraniotomy/ectomy
D. Discharge home from ED with 1 month follow-up head CT

This CT scan demonstrates an acute subdural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense blood collection crossing the suture lines. According to practice guidelines in the management of acute subdural hematoma, any time the acute hematoma is > 10 mm in maximum diameter or there is > 5 mm of associated midline shift, evacuation should be performed regardless of presenting GCS. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 896.

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6
Q

You see a 40-year-old man who was out drinking with friends and was involved in a car accident as an unrestrained passenger. He is sleepy in the trauma bay and his head CT is demonstrated below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic subdural hematoma
B. Acute subdural hematoma
C. Epidural hematoma
D. Traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

A. Chronic subdural hematoma
B. Acute subdural hematoma
C. Epidural hematoma
D. Traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage

This CT scan demonstrates evidence of an acute epidural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense fluid collection that does not cross the suture lines. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 892.

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7
Q

You see a 40-year-old man who was out drinking with friends and was involved in a car accident as an unrestrained passenger. He is sleepy in the trauma bay and his head CT is demonstrated in Question 6. The injured vessel in this setting enters the skull through what foramen?
A. Foramen ovale
B. Foramen rotundum
C. Foramen spinosum
D. Foramen lacerum

A

A. Foramen ovale
B. Foramen rotundum
C. Foramen spinosum
D. Foramen lacerum

This CT scan demonstrates evidence of an acute epidural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense fluid collection that does not cross the suture lines. It is often caused by damage to the middle meningeal artery, which enters the skull through the foramen spinosum. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 892.

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8
Q

ou see a 40-year-old man who was out drinking with friends and was involved in a car accident as an unrestrained passenger. He is sleepy in the trauma bay and his head CT is demonstrated in Question 6. What is the next best step?
A. EVD placement
B. Observation
C. Operative Evacuation
D. Bedside burr hole drainage

A

A. EVD placement
B. Observation
C. Operative evacuation
D. Bedside burr hole drainage

This CT scan demonstrates evidence of an acute epidural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense fluid collection that does not cross the suture lines. This is a large EDH and should be evacuated emer- gently if possible via open surgery. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 892.

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9
Q

You see a 40-year-old man who was involved in a car accident as an unrestrained passenger. He is awake and responsive in the trauma bay (GCS 15) and his head CT is demonstrated below. What is the next best step?
A. EVD placement
B. Observation/rescan
C. Operative evacuation
D. Bedside burr hole drainage

A

A. EVD placement
B. Observation/rescan
C. Operative evacuation
D. Bedside burr hole drainage

This CT scan demonstrates evidence of an acute epidural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense fluid collection that does not cross the suture lines. This is a small epidural hematoma (< 15 mm) with less than 30 cm 3 of total volume in an awake patient with an exam to follow. This patient can be observed with an early rescan to demonstrate stability in the size of the epidural hematoma. If there is significant expansion or worsening of the exam, the patient should undergo operative evacuation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 893.

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10
Q

You see a 40-year-old man who was involved in a car accident as an unrestrained passenger. He initially lost consciousness but EMTs reported that he woke up and was talking to them through transport. When you see him in the trauma bay he is no longer responding verbally and opens his eyes only to deep central stimulation. His head CT is demonstrated in Question 6. What is the next best step?
A. EVD placement
B. Observation/rescan
C. Operative evacuation
D. Intubate

A

A. EVD placement
B. Observation/rescan
C. Operative evacuation
D. Intubate

This CT scan demonstrates evidence of an acute epidural hematoma, as evident by the hyperdense fluid collection that does not cross the suture lines. This patient had a lucid interval and has now deteriorated. Ultimately he will need operative evacuation emergently, but securing his airway should be the first priority. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 893.

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11
Q

You are evaluating a 55-year-old woman who was involved in a car accident where she hit her head and she thinks she lost consciousness. On CT scan you see small hyperdensities in both frontal lobes concerning for small intraparenchymal hemorrhages. She has a GCS of 15. What should you recommend in your consult note?
A. Discharge home
B. Rescan in 6 hours
C. Rescan now
D. Start levetiracetam

A

A. Discharge home
B. Rescan in 6 hours
C. Rescan now
D. Start levetiracetam

This patient has bifrontal contusions likely from deceleration injury to the brain parenchyma. At this point she has an exam that can be followed, but a rescan should happen after at least several hours to look for expansion of the intraparenchymal hemorrhages. They can expand in a delayed fashion and become symptomatic. A rescan should occur earlier if she deteriorates clinically. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 891.

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12
Q

You are evaluating an 82-year-old man who takes 325 mg of aspirin daily for coronary artery disease. He presented to the emergency department with a headache and sleepiness. MRI is shown below. How long has this bleed likely been present?
A. 1 day
B. 3 days
C. 1 week
D. > 3 weeks

A

A. 1 day
B. 3 days
C. 1 week
D. > 3 weeks

This MRI scan demonstrates a chronic subdural hematoma. It is uniform and has a fluid appearance. This likely has been present for > 3 weeks. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 895.

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13
Q

You are evaluating an 82-year-old man who takes 325 mg of aspirin daily for coronary artery disease. He presented to the emergency department with a headache and sleepiness. CT is shown below. What procedure would you recommend?
A. EVD placement
B. Burr hole evacuation
C. Decompressive hemicraniotomy/ectomy
D. Posterior fossa decompression

A

A. EVD placement
B. Burr hole evacuation
C. Decompressive hemicraniotomy/ectomy
D. Posterior fossa decompression

This CT scan demonstrates a chronic subdural hematoma. It is uniform and dark in appearance. This likely has been present for > 3 weeks, and very likely can be completely drained via burr hole evacuation. It will likely not require a full craniotomy. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 895.

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14
Q

You are seeing a 78-year-old man in your office who underwent drainage of a large, right-sided chronic subdural hematoma approximately 40 days ago. He has evidence of a residual subdural fluid collection. Approximately how many patients will still have a fluid collection after subdural drainage at 40 days?
A. 3%
B. 15%
C. 35%
D. 60%
E. 90%

A

A. 3%
B. 15%
C. 35%
D. 60%
E. 90%

Approximately 15% of patients who undergo subdural fluid evacuation have a residual fluid collection at 40 days. Often times these residual collections do not require repeat surgery and can be managed with observation and serial CT examinations.
Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 901.

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15
Q

When evaluating patients with gunshot wounds to the head, bullet trajectory is important for prognostication. What trajectory has been found to be uniformly fatal in the civilian population?
A. Bifrontal trajectory
B. Holohemispheric trajectory
C. Biventricular trajectory
D. Transverse cerebellar trajectory

A

A. Bifrontal trajectory
B. Holohemispheric trajectory
C. Biventricular trajectory
D. Transverse cerebellar trajectory

Dating back to initial research done by Harvey Cushing and further studied recently, it has been demonstrated that biventricular trajectory through the third ventricle is uniformly fatal in the civilian literature. Bifrontal, holohemispheric, and isolated cerebellar trajectories have not been found to be uniformly fatal. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 911.

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16
Q

You are asked to evaluate a 65-year-old patient who was discharged from the hospital 1 week ago after undergoing decompression of a right-sided subdural hematoma. She has noticed some clear drainage from her incision and has had a persistent, severe headache all day. Head CT is demonstrated below. What is the diagnosis?

A. Subdural hematoma
B. Epidural hematoma
C. Tension pneumocephalus
D. Subdural empyema

A

A. Subdural hematoma
B. Epidural hematoma
C. Tension pneumocephalus
D. Subdural empyema

This CT scan demonstrates tension pneumocephalus, the classic “Mount Fuji” sign. This is not a fluid collection given how dark the findings are on CT scan and can only be air. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 888.

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17
Q

You are asked to evaluate a 65-year-old patient who was discharged from the hospital 1 week ago after undergoing decompression of a right-sided subdural hematoma. She has noticed some clear drainage from her incision and has had a persistent, severe headache all day. She prefers to keep her eyes closed and responds with one-word answers only. Head CT is demonstrated in Question 16. What is the next best step?

A. Decompression
B. Lumbar drain
C. Discharge home
D. 100% FiO2 via nonrebreather

A

A. Decompression
B. Lumbar drain
C. Discharge home
D. 100% FiO2 via nonrebreather

This CT scan demonstrates tension pneumocephalus, the classic “Mount Fuji” sign. This patient is symptomatic from this air collection and while the CSF leak certainly needs to be repaired, the patient should have some form of decompression of the pressurized gas within the skull, followed shortly thereafter by repair of the CSF leak. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 889.

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18
Q

You have been asked to act as the sideline physician for a local high school football game. One of the players takes a big hit and appears to initially walk to the wrong sideline. When you evaluate him he says that he doesn’t remember the previous play. Should he be allowed to go back into the game?

A. Yes
B. No

A

B. No

This player has evidence of a concussion, including disorientation and amnesia to the event. Based on current concussion guidelines, this player should be removed from the game and not allowed to return until evaluated further by a licensed healthcare provider trained in evaluating concussions. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 844.

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19
Q

What is the normal range of intracranial pressure in adults (mm Hg)?
A. 1 to 4
B. 5 to 9
C. 10 to 15
D. 16 to 20

A

A. 1 to 4
B. 5 to 9
C. 10 to 15
D. 16 to 20

Normal ICP range for adults and older children is 10 to 15 mm Hg. Young children generally range from 3 to 7 mm Hg, and infants range from 1.5 to 6 mm Hg. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 857.

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20
Q

How is cerebral perfusion pressure calculated?
A. CPP = CMRO2 + ICP
B. CPP = SBP − ICP
C. CPP = MAP − ICP
D. CPP = CBF − ICP

A

A. CPP = CMRO2 + ICP
B. CPP = SBP − ICP
C. CPP = MAP − ICP
D. CPP = CBF − ICP

Cerebral perfusion pressure is calculated by subtracting the intracranial pressure from the mean arterial pressure. Based on autoregulation, the brain can maintain normal cerebral blood flow at a wide range of CPP, generally between 50 and 150 mm Hg. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 857.

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21
Q

A 33-year-old man is attempting to perform BMX tricks on a bicycle and is not wearing a helmet. He goes over the handlebars and hits his head on a concrete surface. He loses consciousness at the scene but regains consciousness in the trauma bay and is GCS 15. CT is shown below. What is the next best step?
A. Observation
B. IV antibiotics
C. Operative elevation/debridement
D. Discharge home

A

A. Observation
B. IV antibiotics
C. Operative elevation/debridement
D. Discharge home

This patient has evidence of a depressed skull fracture with an underlying hematoma. Given the concerning underlying hematoma and depth of the depressed skull fracture segment, this fracture should be elevated and the hematoma should be addressed surgically. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 882.

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22
Q

What is the most common type of temporal bone fracture?
A. Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. Anterior
D. Lateral

A

A. Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. Anterior
D. Lateral

There are two types of temporal bone fractures, longitudinal and transverse. Longitudinal fractures are parallel to the EAC and are the most common type of temporal bone fractures. The longitudinal fracture does not tend to put stretch forces on the geniculate ganglion and therefore is less likely to lead to VII nerve injury. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 884.

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23
Q

What type of temporal bone fracture is associated with VII nerve injury?
A. Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. Anterior
D. Lateral

A

A. Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. Anterior
D. Lateral

There are two types of temporal bone fractures, longitudinal and transverse. Longitudinal fractures are parallel to the EAC and are the most common type of temporal bone fractures. The longitudinal fracture does not tend to put stretch forces on the geniculate ganglion and therefore is less likely to lead to VII nerve injury. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 884.

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24
Q

You are seeing a patient in the trauma bay who was involved in a motor vehicle accident leading to a skull base fracture that appears to be a transverse temporal bone fracture. There is blood coming from the EAC and significant bruising around the ear/mastoid tip. On exam the patient is GCS 15, but has House-Brackmann grade VI left facial nerve function. What is the next best step?
A. Immediate surgical decompression
B. IV antibiotics
C. Start steroids
D. Repeat head CT

A

A. Immediate surgical decompression
B. IV antibiotics
C. Start steroids
D. Repeat head CT

With a transverse temporal bone fracture, VII nerve injury can occur. While efficacy is currently unproven, many surgeons will start glucocorticoids in the presence of facial nerve dysfunction in the setting of a transverse temporal bone fracture. ENT consultation should be considered as decompression may be required if facial nerve function does not improve. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 884.

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25
Q

You are seeing a patient in the trauma bay who was involved in a motor vehicle accident leading to a skull base fracture that appears to be a transverse fracture of the clivus. All of the following should be performed except?
A. CBC/Electrolyte panel
B. NG tube insertion
C. CT angiogram head and neck
D. Cervical spine CT

A

A. CBC/Electrolyte panel
B. NG tube insertion
C. CT angiogram head and neck
D. Cervical spine CT

Clival fractures are severe injuries that are often fatal. They can be associated with cranial nerve deficits, diabetes insipidus, and anterior/posterior circulation vascular injury. NG tube insertion should be avoided as there have been reports of intracranial NG tube insertion through a diastased fracture of the clivus. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 885.

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26
Q

What type of Lefort facial fracture has a high incidence of associated brain injury?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

There are three types of Lefort facial fractures, and of these, type III involves the zygomatic arches, the nasofrontal suture, and orbital floors. Given the type of fracture and the forces required, there is a high incidence of brain injury with type III Lefort fractures. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 887.

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27
Q

You are asked to see a 6-month-old infant who sustained a skull fracture after his older brother accidentally pulled down the flat screen TV that landed on the infant’s head. CT scan is demonstrated below. The child is neurologically intact with no focal deficits. How would you manage this fracture?
A. Operative elevation
B. Observation

A

A. Operative elevation
B. Observation

In a neurologically normal infant, this fracture should be managed nonoperatively. This is the classic “ping-pong” fracture, and over time the CSF pulsations will remodel the bone and heal this fracture. Operative intervention is generally not required. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 915.

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28
Q

You are asked to see a 6-month-old infant who sustained a skull fracture after his older brother accidentally pulled down the flat screen TV that landed on the infant’s head. Follow-up CT scan is demonstrated below. What is the diagnosis? Use the following figure to answer questions 28 and 29:
A. Growing skull fracture
B. Arachnoid cyst
C. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
D. Normal bone healing

A

A. Growing skull fracture
B. Arachnoid cyst
C. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
D. Normal bone healing

This CT scan demonstrates widening of the skull fracture with evidence of fluid below the fracture. This is consistent with a growing skull fracture, and is often seen with a dural laceration and CSF leak that goes unrepaired. It is different than an arachnoid cyst and should be managed operatively with dural closure. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 915.

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29
Q

You are asked to see a 6-month-old infant who sustained a skull fracture after his older brother accidentally pulled down the flat screen TV that landed on the infant’s head. Follow-up CT scan is demonstrated in Question 28. What is the next best step?
A. Observation
B. Percutaneous drainage
C. Cranioplasty
D. Circumferential craniotomy and dural repair

A

A. Observation
B. Percutaneous drainage
C. Cranioplasty
D. Circumferential craniotomy and dural repair

This CT scan demonstrates widening of the skull fracture with evidence of fluid below the fracture. This is consistent with a growing skull fracture, and is often seen with a dural laceration and CSF leak that goes unrepaired. It is different than an arachnoid cyst and should be managed operatively with dural closure. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 915.

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30
Q

You are asked to see a 6-month-old infant who is being worked up for suspected non-accidental trauma. What is the most common intracranial manifestation of non-accidental trauma?
A. Diffuse axonal injury
B. Bilateral subdural hematomas
C. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
D. Epidural hematoma

A

A. Diffuse axonal injury
B. Bilateral subdural hematomas
C. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
D. Epidural hematoma

Suspected non-accidental trauma workup should include some form of intracranial injury. When a child is shaken, bilateral subdural hematomas can develop due to shear forces exerted on the brain leading to tearing of bridging veins. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 916.

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31
Q

What is the most common reason for retinal hemorrhages on fundoscopy in an infant?
A. Nonaccidental trauma
B. Benign subdural effusion in infants
C. Acute high altitude sickness
D. Acute ICP increase

A

A. Nonaccidental trauma
B. Benign subdural effusion in infants
C. Acute high altitude sickness
D. Acute ICP increase

While all options listed can cause retinal hemorrhages, nonaccidental trauma is the most common cause seen in an infant. 16/26 battered children < 3 years of age had RH on fundoscopy, while 1/32 nonbattered children with head injury had RH. The single false positive was due to traumatic parturition. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 916.

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32
Q

You are seeing a 25-year-old man who was involved in a car accident where he hit his head on the windshield and lost consciousness. What marker has been shown to be associated with acute traumatic brain injury?
A. PTEN
B. GFAP
C. Amyloid precursor protein
D. Tau protein

A

A. PTEN
B. GFAP
C. Amyloid precursor protein
D. Tau protein

GFAP, a marker of neurons, has been shown to be associated with acute traumatic brain injury and may be used in the future to determine which patients need to undergo CT scan of the brain. Further Reading: Brain injury biomarkers may improve the predictive power of the IMPACT outcome calculator. J Neurotrauma. 2012, 1770–1778.

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33
Q

You have been following a 55-year-old man with severe traumatic brain injury and depressed GCS for the last 48 hours. A bolt was placed, and over the last 6 hours ICP has been elevated to 30 despite aggressive medical management. According to the DECRA trial, what is the best next step?
A. Continued medical management
B. Withdrawal of care
C. Decompressive hemicraniectomy
D. Posterior fossa decompression

A

A. Continued medical management
B. Withdrawal of care
C. Decompressive hemicraniectomy
D. Posterior fossa decompression

According to the initial results of the DECRA trial, decompressive hemicraniectomy in the setting of elevated ICP in patients < 60 years of age within 72 hours of injury refractory to first line medical management was associated with a higher rate of unfavorable outcome than the control group who did not undergo surgery. In a subgroup analysis, there was no difference when patients who had bilaterally unreactive pupils were controlled for (initial analysis had significantly higher rate of bilaterally unreactive pupils in the surgical arm). While some providers would perform a decompression, strictly according to the results of the DECRA trial, this will lead to unfavorable outcomes. Further surgical trials are underway, and results depend on the definition of favorable outcome. Further Reading: Kolias AG. Traumatic brain injury in adults. Pract Neurol. 2013, 228–235.

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34
Q

You are performing a decompressive hemicraniectomy for a patient with evidence of impending herniation. What is the most important aspect of the craniectomy to decrease the risk of uncal herniation?
A. AP diameter > 12 cm
B. Drilling to the edge of the sagittal sinus
C. Drilling to the floor of the middle fossa
D. Intraoperative EVD placement

A

A. AP diameter > 12 cm
B. Drilling to the edge of the sagittal sinus
C. Drilling to the floor of the middle fossa
D. Intraoperative EVD placement

It is important to ensure that a decompressive craniectomy is large enough to not only decompress the cerebral hemisphere, but to also avoid complications that have been shown to occur when the AP diameter of the craniectomy is < 12 cm. Subsequent herniation of the brain can, through the craniectomy defect, lead to vascular injury and further infarction of the brain. When uncal herniation is suspected, making sure the craniectomy reaches the floor of the middle fossa is important to fully decompress the temporal lobe. Further Reading: Wagner S. Suboptimum hemicraniectomy as a cause of additional cerebral lesions in patients with malignant infarction of the MCA. J Neurosurg. 2001, 693–696.

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35
Q

Which of these options is not a part of Cushing’s triad (signs of acute increased intracranial pressure)?
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Irregular respirations

A

A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Irregular respirations

Cushing’s triad is seen often during terminal elevation of ICP immediately before herniation. It consists of bradycardia, hypertension, and breathing irregularities. If these findings are seen together in a patient with elevated ICP, action should be taken immediately to decrease ICP as the patient is likely about to herniate. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 858.

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36
Q

You are seeing a patient in the trauma bay with evidence of acute increased ICP who has subsequently been intubated. You are taking the patient to the OR for decompression. In order to temporize the situation, you sit up the patient’s head of bed and tell the anesthesiologist to hyperventilate in order to decrease intracranial pressure. How long will this technique work?
A. ~ 1 minute
B. ~ 30 minutes
C. ~ 12 hours
D. ~ 24 hours
E. ~ 48 hours

A

A. ~ 1 minute
B. ~ 30 minutes
C. ~ 12 hours
D. ~ 24 hours
E. ~ 48 hours

CO2 is a potent vasodilator and hyperventilation can be used to decrease intracranial pressure by decreasing CO2 . The brain is able to buffer efficiently, and therefore this technique may only transiently decrease ICP as the brain will adjust to new levels of CO2 within 20 to 30 minutes. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 868.

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37
Q

You are seeing a patient in the trauma bay with evidence of acute increased ICP who has subsequently been intubated. You are taking the patient to the OR for decompression. In order to temporize the situation, you sit up the patient’s head of bed and tell the anesthesiologist to hyperventilate in order to decrease intracranial pressure. What is the target PaCO2 you are aiming for?
A. 16 to 20 mm Hg
B. 21 to 25 mm Hg
C. 26 to 30 mm Hg
D. 31 to 35 mm Hg
E. 36 to 40 mm Hg

A

A. 16 to 20 mm Hg
B. 21 to 25 mm Hg
C. 26 to 30 mm Hg
D. 31 to 35 mm Hg
E. 36 to 40 mm Hg

CO2 is a potent vasodilator and hyperventilation can be used to decrease intracranial pressure by decreasing CO2 . The brain is able to buffer efficiently, and therefore this technique may only transiently decrease ICP as the brain will adjust to new levels of CO2 within 20 to 30 minutes. You are aiming for a PaCO2 of 31 to 35 mm Hg. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 868.

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38
Q

You are medically managing a patient with persistent increased intracranial pressure using scheduled mannitol, 0.5 g/kg Q6H. You are appropriately checking serum osmolality during this treatment. What serum osmolality measurement would make you stop giving mannitol?
A. 306
B. 312
C. 318
D. 324

A

A. 306
B. 312
C. 318
D. 324

Mannitol is a very effective osmotic diuretic that is often used to decrease intracranial pressure. When utilized in a scheduled fashion, monitoring of serum osmolality should take place. When serum osmolality is greater than 320, other options should be considered for medical treatment of raised ICP. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 868.

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39
Q

You have been emergently consulted by neurology in a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who has evidence of acute hydrocephalus and you feel that an EVD is warranted. What is a good approximation of where you should perform your bedside burr hole?
A. 8 cm back from the nasion, mid-pupillary line
B. 11 cm back from the nasion, mid-pupillary line
C. 14 cm back from the nasion, mid-pupillary line
D. 3 cm up from the pinna, 3 cm posterior

A

A. 8 cm back from the nasion, mid-pupillary line
B. 11 cm back from the nasion, mid-pupillary line
C. 14 cm back from the nasion, mid-pupillary line
D. 3 cm up from the pinna, 3 cm posterior

Kocher’s point is thought to be located generally between 10.5 and 11.5 cm back from the nasion and roughly 3 to 3.5 cm lateral, or in the mid-pupillary line. Generally speaking this is a good location to place a burr hole for an EVD placement for acute hydrocephalus. In many situations, simply placing the EVD perpendicular to the skull will lead to ventricular puncture, depending on ventricular size. Further Reading: Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 473.

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40
Q

You are taking care of a patient with persistently elevated intracranial pressure despite mannitol administration. You decide to utilize hypertonic saline, but the patient currently only has a peripheral IV. What is the highest concentration of hypertonic saline you can safely give through a peripheral IV?
A. 1.5%
B. 3%
C. 7%
D. 23.4%

A

A. 1.5%
B. 3%
C. 7%
D. 23.4%

Hypertonic saline can be used for ICP management either as a first line agent or in patient’s refractory to mannitol administration. The patient can be given 3% saline as a continuous infusion through a peripheral IV, but 7% and 23.4% given as a bolus should be administered through a central line to avoid deleterious effects to the extremities. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 875.

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41
Q

What is the approximate volume of CSF within the ventricular system at any given time?
A. 100 mL
B. 150 mL
C. 200 mL
D. 250 mL

A

A. 100 mL
B. 150 mL
C. 200 mL
D. 250 mL

The approximate volume of CSF in the system is 150 mL at any given time. Roughly 450 to 500 mL of CSF is produced each day, and the CSF turns over 3 times daily. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 856.

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42
Q

You see a patient in the trauma bay that opens his eyes to painful stimulation, localizes to that painful stimulation, and mutters incomprehensible words. What is the GCS?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
E. 15

A

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
E. 15

This patient has a GCS of 10. E = 2, V = 3, M = 5. Further Reading: Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 496.

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43
Q

You see a patient in the trauma bay that was intubated during transport for airway concerns, does not open his eyes to painful stimulation, and externally rotates/extends both upper extremities during that painful stimulation. What is the GCS?
A. 4t
B. 6t
C. 8t
D. 3t
E. 14t

A

A. 4t
B. 6t
C. 8t
D. 3t
E. 14t

This patient has a GCS of 4t. E = 1, V = 1t, M = 2. This patient is decerebrate posturing (M = 2), is not opening his eyes (E = 1), and is intubated (V = 1t). Further Reading: Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edi- tion, 2010, page 496.

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44
Q

. You are managing the care of a patient who has elevated ICP, hydrocephalus, and has had an EVD placed. Your staff wants you to move the EVD to 10 mm Hg, but the EVD catheter only has markings for cm H2O. What should you set the EVD height to?
A. 8.7 cm H2O
B. 17.4 cm H2O
C. 13.6 cm H2O
D. 21.4 cm H2O

A

A. 8.7 cm H2O
B. 17.4 cm H2O
C. 13.6 cm H2O
D. 21.4 cm H2O

There is a lack of convention among neurosurgeons as to what system should be utilized, mm Hg or cm H2 O. 1 mm Hg = 1.36 cm H2 O, meaning that 10 mm Hg = 13.6 cm H2 O. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 861.

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45
Q

What type of ICP waves are associated with elevations of ICP > 50 mm Hg for 5 to 20 minutes accompanied by elevations in mean arterial pressure?
A. Lundberg A waves
B. Lundberg B waves
C. Lundberg C waves
D. Lundberg D waves
E. Lundberg E waves

A

A. Lundberg A waves
B. Lundberg B waves
C. Lundberg C waves
D. Lundberg D waves
E. Lundberg E waves

There are three types of Lundberg waves seen during ICP monitoring: A, B, and C. Lundberg A (plateau waves) are associated with extremely high elevation of ICP that plateaus for 5 to 20 minutes and then decreases to ~ 20 mm Hg for 30 to 45 minutes followed by another elevation. MAP increases can be seen as well. These waves are not often seen in the ICU setting as active ICP management is taking place. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 865.

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46
Q

Which peak of the ICP waveform gives you information about the compliance of the ventricular system?
A. P1
B. P2
C. P3
D. P4
E. P5

A

A. P1
B. P2
C. P3
D. P4
E. P5

The second ICP wave, P2, represents the pressure when the aortic pulse bounces off the ventricular wall (P1 is the aortic pulse itself). When the ventricular walls are stiffened due to hydrocephalus and lack compliance, the P2 wave will be greatly increased and will lead to the classic ICP waveform that is indicative of elevated ICP. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 864.

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47
Q

In patients with elevated ICP, what should be the goal cerebral perfusion pressure?
A. > 20
B. > 50
C. > 100
D. > 150
E. > 200

A

A. > 20
B. > 50
C. > 100
D. > 150
E. > 200

Cerebral perfusion pressure is calculated by subtracting ICP from the mean arterial pressure. The brain can autoregulate CPP to maintain stable cerebral blood flow at 55 to 60 mL/100 mg/min. This autoregulation curve in a normal brain keeps flow stable between CPPs of 50 and 150. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 869.

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48
Q

In a patient with elevated ICP (25 mm Hg) in the setting of severe traumatic brain injury, what should be the goal mean arterial pressure?
A. 45
B. 85
C. 115
D. 145
E. 165

A

A. 45
B. 85
C. 115
D. 145
E. 165

Cerebral perfusion pressure is calculated by subtracting ICP from the mean arterial pressure. The brain can autoregulate CPP to maintain stable cerebral blood flow at 55 to 60 mL/100 mg/min. This autoregulation curve in a normal brain keeps flow stable between CPPs of 50 and 150. It is thought during severe TBI that autoregulation fails and that CBF matches CPP much more closely. In this setting, an MAP of 85 with an ICP of 25 will give you a CPP of 60, exactly matching the standard CBF of the brain in normal conditions. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 869.

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49
Q

You are asked to evaluate a patient in the trauma bay that is unresponsive. He is intubated, does not open his eyes, and exhibits no movement of the upper or lower extremities even to deep painful stimulation of the nail bed. What is the GCS?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 12

A

A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 12

This patient has a GCS of 3t. E = 1, V = 1t, M = 1. GCS of 0 is not possible. You get 3 points just for showing up. Further Reading: Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 496.

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50
Q

What medical therapy is thought to provide the maximum drop in CMRO2 and CBF in patients with severely increased ICP in the setting of trauma?
A. Mannitol
B. Hypertonic saline
C. Propofol
D. Pentobarbital
E. Ketamine

A

A. Mannitol
B. Hypertonic saline
C. Propofol
D. Pentobarbital
E. Ketamine

Pentobarbital is a last resort medical management strategy for reducing raised ICP. It provides maximal reduction in CMRO2 and CBF when compared to other agents, but should be used as a last resort. It should be titrated to burst suppression on EEG. It can cause severe hypotension and paralytic ileus. It also stores within fat deposits so dosing should be adjusted. It can confound any attempts at brain death examination until it has been completely metabolized from the system, which can take days. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 875.

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51
Q

You are evaluating a 33-year-old man who experienced a first-time seizure; subsequent MRI was performed and is demonstrated below. If you decided to operate on this patient, what operative adjunct would be useful in this case? Use the following figure to answer questions 51 and 52:
A. Motor mapping
B. Diffusion tensor imaging
C. Awake language mapping
D. Somatosensory evoked potentials
E. EMG

A

A. Motor mapping
B. Diffusion tensor imaging
C. Awake language mapping
D. Somatosensory evoked potentials
E. EMG

This imaging demonstrates a left frontal likely low grade astrocytoma of the frontal region. This should concern you for potential involvement of Broca’s area, and may make you consider performing the procedure awake with language mapping. Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 160.

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52
Q

You are evaluating a 33-year-old man who experienced a first-time seizure; subsequent MRI was performed and is demonstrated in Question 51. What further imaging study might be helpful in this case?
A. PET scan
B. Diffusion tensor imaging
C. Functional MRI
D. Perfusion MRI
E. Perfusion C

A

A. PET scan
B. Diffusion tensor imaging
C. Functional MRI
D. Perfusion MRI
E. Perfusion C

This MRI demonstrates a left frontal likely low grade astrocytoma frontal region. This should concern you for potential involvement of Broca’s area, and you could consider performing an fMRI to localize language structures prior to surgical decision making. Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 160.

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53
Q

You are evaluating a 45-year-old man who experienced a first-time seizure; subsequent MRI was performed and is demonstrated below. What would be useful during surgical resection of this mass? Use the following figure to answer question 53:
A. Motor mapping
B. Awake language mapping
C. Somatosensory evoked potentials
D. EMG

A

A. Motor mapping
B. Awake language mapping
C. Somatosensory evoked potentials
D. EMG

This MRI demonstrates a likely anaplastic astrocytoma of the posterior frontal lobe on the right. There is concern that this tumor involves the motor strip and thus intraoperative motor mapping could be useful during this resection. Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 160.

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54
Q

You are operating on a 55-year-old man with a low-grade astrocytoma of the posterior frontal lobe and you are utilizing motor mapping to identify the motor structures. What monitoring finding alerts you to the location of the motor strip
A. Doubling of signal amplitude
B. Signal dampening
C. Phase reversal
D. Phase doubling

A

A. Doubling of signal amplitude
B. Signal dampening
C. Phase reversal
D. Phase doubling

When motor mapping for tumor resection near the motor strip, you are looking for phase reversal of the signal on monitoring. This shows the change from the sensory cortex to the motor cortex. Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 160.

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55
Q

You are operating on a 55-year-old man with a low-grade astrocytoma of the posterior frontal lobe and you are utilizing motor mapping to identify the motor structures. Intraoperative recordings are demonstrated below. What electrode is located on the motor strip in this image?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

A

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

These intraoperative recordings demonstrate phase reversal between electrodes 3 and 5. This means that in this scenario the motor strip is likely located under electrode 5. Electrode 4 is very likely located directly over the central sulcus, given the lack of response. Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 160.

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56
Q

What is the most common tumor of the central nervous system?
A. Meningioma
B. Metastases
C. Glioblastoma
D. Lymphoma
E. Low-grade glioma

A

A. Meningioma
B. Metastases
C. Glioblastoma
D. Lymphoma
E. Low-grade glioma

Metastases are the most common tumor of the central nervous system, and account for just over 50% of intracranial tumors. Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 451.

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57
Q

What is the most common metastatic tumor to the brain?
A. Lymphoma
B. Lung
C. Colorectal
D. Melanoma
E. Renal

A

A. Lymphoma
B. Lung
C. Colorectal
D. Melanoma
E. Renal

Overall, lung cancer has the highest incidence of brain metastases based on autopsy data currently available. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 801. Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 451.

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58
Q

What is the most common metastatic tumor to the brain in females?
A. Melanoma
B. Lung
C. Colorectal
D. Breast
E. Renal

A

A. Melanoma
B. Lung
C. Colorectal
D. Breast
E. Renal

Breast cancer metastases are the most common metastatic tumor to the brain in females. Further Reading: Schouten LJ. Incidence of brain metastases in a cohort of patients with carcinoma of the breast, colon, kidney, lung and melanoma. Cancer. 2002.

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59
Q

A 66-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a first-time seizure and an MRI was performed which is demonstrated below. What is the next best step?
A. Total spine MRI
B. CT chest, abdomen, and pelvis
C. Gamma knife
D. Whole brain radiation

A

A. Total spine MRI
B. CT chest, abdomen, and pelvis
C. Gamma knife
D. Whole brain radiation

This MRI demonstrates evidence of metastatic disease. In a patient with no prior history of primary cancer, workup should proceed with a CT CAP to look for primary disease. Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 451.

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60
Q

Which of these metastatic tumor types has a higher risk of presenting with hemorrhage?
A. Lymphoma
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell lung carcinoma
D. Ductal carcinoma in situ
E. Colon adenocarcinoma

A

A. Lymphoma
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell lung carcinoma
D. Ductal carcinoma in situ
E. Colon adenocarcinoma

Renal cell carcinoma has a higher propensity for hemorrhagic conversion of a cerebral metastatic lesion. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 805. Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials. 3rd edition, 2015, page 451.

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61
Q

Which of these metastatic lesions is considered radiosensitive?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Thyroid
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Renal cell carcinoma

A

A. Multiple myeloma
B. Thyroid
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Renal cell carcinoma

Of the tumor types listed here, multiple myeloma is radiosensitive. The other lesions are highly resistant. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 809.

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62
Q

Which of these metastatic lesions is considered highly resistant to radiation?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Breast cancer
C. Small cell lung cancer
D. Renal cell carcinoma

A

A. Multiple myeloma
B. Breast cancer
C. Small cell lung cancer
D. Renal cell carcinoma

Of the tumor types listed here, renal cell carcinoma is highly resistant to radiation. The other lesions are considered radiosensitive to varying degrees. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 809.

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63
Q

What Karnofsky performance status score is a patient considered able to care for himself or herself without assistance?
A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100
E. 110

A

A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100
E. 110

KPS is used to determine patient function in ollow-up for many tumor resections. A KPS of 70 or greater means the patient is able to at least care or himself or herself without assistance. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1358.

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64
Q

You are evaluating a patient with a single, right frontal brain metastasis with no known primary who has a KPS of 100. What should you offer the patient?
A. Surgical resection
B. Gamma knife
C. Observation
D. Biopsy

A

A. Surgical resection
B. Gamma knife
C. Observation
D. Biopsy

In patients with a single brain met (of any type) with a KPS > 70 and no evidence of extra cranial disease, surgery plus radiation increased median survival by 25 weeks. Surgical resection should be offered in this case in order to obtain tissue diagnosis if no primary can be found. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 804.

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65
Q

Primary CNS melanoma commonly arises from melanocytes located where?
A. Pachymeninges
B. Leptomeninges
C. Virchow-Robin spaces
D. Pia mater

A

A. Pachymeninges
B. Leptomeninges
C. Virchow-Robin spaces
D. Pia mater

Melanocytes are found in the leptomeninges and are thought to be the probable origination point for primary CNS melanoma. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 701.

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66
Q

What percentage of incidentally discovered meningiomas will exhibit no growth over 3-year follow-up?
A. 10%
B. 33%
C. 66%
D. 90%
E. 100%

A

A. 10%
B. 33%
C. 66%
D. 90%
E. 100%

Nearly 33% of patients with incidentally discovered meningiomas will exhibit no growth over a 3-year follow-up period. Many of these patients can simply be observed depending on symptomatology. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 690.

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67
Q

Where do meningiomas arise from?
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Arachnoid cap cells
C. Pachymeninges
D. Pia mater

A

A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Arachnoid cap cells
C. Pachymeninges
D. Pia mater

Meningiomas arise from arachnoid cap cells of the CNS. They can arise from wherever these arachnoid cap cells are found, including between the brain and skull, ventricles, and surrounding the spinal cord. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 690.

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68
Q

What is the overall incidence of meningiomas?
A. ~ 1 to 3%
B. ~ 8 to 10%
C. ~ 13 to 15%
D. ~ 18 to 20%
E. ~ 21 to 23%

A

A. ~ 1 to 3%
B. ~ 8 to 10%
C. ~ 13 to 15%
D. ~ 18 to 20%
E. ~ 21 to 23%

Meningiomas are thought to have roughly 1 to 3% incidence in the general population > 60 years of age based on autopsy studies. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 690.

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69
Q

What is the most common location for a meningioma?
A. Sphenoid wing
B. Parasagittal
C. Convexity
D. Planum sphenoidale
E. Petrous apex

A

A. Sphenoid wing
B. Parasagittal
C. Convexity
D. Planum sphenoidale
E. Petrous apex

Parasagittal meningiomas are thought to be the most common location, followed by convexity meningiomas, based on a series of 336 cases. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 691.

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70
Q

Foster-Kennedy syndrome classically was caused by what tumor?
A. Medulloblastoma
B. Frontal glioblastoma
C. Olfactory groove meningioma
D. Clival chordoma

A

A. Medulloblastoma
B. Frontal glioblastoma
C. Olfactory groove meningioma
D. Clival chordoma

Foster-Kennedy syndrome (anosmia, ipsilateral optic atrophy, and contralateral papilledema) was classically described in the setting of an olfactory groove meningioma. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 691.

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71
Q

What is the most common type of WHO grade II astrocytoma?
A. Anaplastic
B. Gemistocytic
C. Protoplasmic
D. Fibrillary

A

A. Anaplastic
B. Gemistocytic
C. Protoplasmic
D. Fibrillary

Fibrillary astrocytoma is the most common subtype of WHO grade II astrocytoma. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 615.

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72
Q

What is considered the principal treatment for low-grade gliomas?
A. Observation
B. XRT alone
C. Chemotherapy + XRT
D. Surgical resection

A

A. Observation
B. XRT alone
C. Chemotherapy + XRT
D. Surgical resection

Surgical resection is considered the principal treatment for low-grade gliomas to both establish the diagnosis and for cytoreduction. More aggressive surgical excision has been shown to be associated with better outcome and further time to malignant transformation. XRT and chemotherapy may follow later in the disease course. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 620.

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73
Q

In patients with subtotally resected low-grade gliomas, early radiotherapy (54 Gy) has been associated with what results?
A. No difference in progression-free survival
B. 2-year increase in progression-free survival
C. 5-year increase in progression-free survival
D. 8-year increase in progression-free survival

A

A. No difference in progression-free survival
B. 2-year increase in progression-free survival
C. 5-year increase in progression-free survival
D. 8-year increase in progression-free survival

In subtotally resected low-grade gliomas, 54 Gy XRT has been associated with an increased PFS from 3.4 to 5.3 years and is recommended as an early adjuvant treatment. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 620.

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74
Q

In patients with gross total resection of a lowgrade glioma, early radiotherapy (54 Gy) has been associated with what results?
A. No difference in progression-free survival
B. 2-year increase in progression-free survival
C. 5-year increase in progression-free survival
D. 8-year increase in progression-free survival

A

A. No difference in progression-free survival
B. 2-year increase in progression-free survival
C. 5-year increase in progression-free survival
D. 8-year increase in progression-free survival

In gross totally resected low-grade gliomas, 54 Gy XRT has been associated with no increase in PFS and should be deferred until progression occurs. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 620.

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75
Q

In patients with glioblastoma, what percentage of resection has been associated with increased overall survival?
A. > 50%
B. > 70%
C. > 85%
D. > 95%
E. > 97%

A

A. > 50%
B. > 70%
C. > 85%
D. > 95%
E. > 97%

Extent of resection matters when undergoing attempted gross total resection of a GBM. Extent of resection > 97% has been shown to be associated with prolonged overall survival. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 621.

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76
Q

The classic Stupp regimen of chemoradiation following glioblastoma resection consists of what?
A. 60 Gy XRT + PCV chemotherapy
B. 25 Gy XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
C. 25 Gy XRT + PCV chemotherapy
D. 60 Gy XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy

A

A. 60 Gy XRT + PCV chemotherapy
B. 25 Gy XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
C. 25 Gy XRT + PCV chemotherapy
D. 60 Gy XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy

The Stupp regimen of chemoradiation for GBM consists of 60 Gy XRT in fractions along with concurrent TMZ and adjuvant chemotherapy. PCV chemotherapy was attempted, but showed no benefit in an RCT prior to publication of the Stupp regimen. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 622.

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77
Q

Giving 60 Gy XRT and temozolomide chemotherapy (Stupp) after resection of a glioblastoma is associated with a median overall survival of how many months?
A. 11.5 months
B. 14.6 months
C. 12.1 months
D. 18.3 months
E. 20.7 months

A

A. 11.5 months
B. 14.6 months
C. 12.1 months
D. 18.3 months
E. 20.7 months

The Stupp regimen of chemoradiation for GBM consists of 60 Gy XRT in fractions along with concurrent TMZ and adjuvant chemotherapy. In the classic article, median survival increased from 12.1 months to 14.6 months. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 622.

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78
Q

MGMT promoter methylation in glioblastoma is associated with what median survival benefit compared to non-methylated tumors after utilization of the Stupp regimen of chemoradiation?
A. 6.3 months
B. 10.8 months
C. 23.4 months
D. 35.5 months
E. 40.2 months

A

A. 6.3 months
B. 10.8 months
C. 23.4 months
D. 35.5 months
E. 40.2 months

The Stupp regimen of chemoradiation for GBM consists of 60 Gy XRT in fractions along with concurrent TMZ and adjuvant chemotherapy. In the classic article, median survival increased from 12.1 months to 14.6 months. When a subgroup of patients with MGMT promoter methylation was studied, it was found that these patients had a median survival of 23.4 months compared to 12.6 in non–MGMT methylated patients, leading to a median overall survival benefit of 10.8 months. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 622.

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79
Q

What is the main side effect of temozolomide chemotherapy?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Myelosuppression
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Leukocytosis
E. Seizures

A

A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Myelosuppression
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Leukocytosis
E. Seizures

The main side effect of TMZ chemotherapy is myelosuppression, and it is an otherwise well tolerated chemotherapeutic. Patients undergo routine neutrophil testing and should have a neutrophil count of > 1.5 × 10^9/L and a platelet count > 100. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 622.

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80
Q

You are seeing a 55-year-old patient back in follow- up 3 months after a gross total resection of a glioblastoma of the right frontal lobe. She has undergone 60 Gy XRT and TMZ chemotherapy. Her tumor demonstrated MGMT promoter methylation. On her MRI there is evidence of a contrast enhancing nodule in the resection cavity. What is the likely cause of this finding?
A. Postoperative blood products
B. Tumor recurrence
C. Pseudoprogression
D. Ischemic stroke

A

A. Postoperative blood products
B. Tumor recurrence
C. Pseudoprogression
D. Ischemic stroke

In MGMT promoter methylated GBM patients, contrast enhancement can be seen at roughly 3 months post gross total resection and Stupp regimen. It is consistent with pseudoprogression and often decreases on subsequent imaging and symptoms can resolve with steroids. It is associated with radiation kill of the tumor. At this time there are no definitive imaging studies that can prove pseudoprogression vs tumor recurrence, but this is an active area of research. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 623.

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81
Q

You are seeing a patient with recurrent glioblastoma who is currently undergoing treatment with bevacizumab (Avastin). All of the following are side effects of bevacizumab except?
A. Hypertension
B. Arterial thromboembolism
C. Hemorrhage
D. Myelosuppression

A

A. Hypertension
B. Arterial thromboembolism
C. Hemorrhage
D. Myelosuppression

Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody against VEGF and is FDA approved for the treatment of recurrent GBM. Its side effect profile consists of hypertension, arterial thromboembolism, hemorrhage, GI perforations, wound healing complications, and fistula formation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 624.

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82
Q

Approximately 75% of pilocytic astrocytomas present in what age group?
A. 1 to 20 years
B. 21 to 40 years
C. 41 to 60 years
D. 61 to 80 years
E. 81 to 100 years

A

A. 1 to 20 years
B. 21 to 40 years
C. 41 to 60 years
D. 61 to 80 years
E. 81 to 100 years

Pilocytic astrocytoma is a WHO grade I tumor with a predilection for younger patients. Approximately 75% of these tumors present in patients less than 20 years of age. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 630.

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83
Q

What is the preferred postoperative treatment regimen for incompletely resected pilocytic astrocytomas in the pediatric population?
A. Observation
B. Early XRT
C. Temozolomide chemotherapy
D. Gamma knife

A

A. Observation
B. Early XRT
C. Temozolomide chemotherapy
D. Gamma knife

Pilocytic astroyctomas in the pediatric population that are incompletely resected should be initially observed as the rate of growth over 5, 10, or even 20 years can be minimal. Radiation and chemother- apy should be saved for obvious recurrence with growth demonstrated on serial imaging studies. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 631.

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84
Q

Collins’ law suggests that a pediatric patient with pilocytic astrocytomas can be considered cured if no recurrence happens in what time interval?
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. Patient’s age at diagnosis + 5 years
D. Patient’s age at diagnosis + 9 months

A

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. Patient’s age at diagnosis + 5 years
D. Patient’s age at diagnosis + 9 months

Collins’ law suggests that pediatric patients with pilocytic astrocytomas can be considered cured if there is no recurrence after enough time has passed adding the patient’s age at time of diagnosis + 9 months. It is controversial, but often quoted. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 631.

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85
Q

A 16-year-old boy with a known history of NF-1 presents with painless proptosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sphenoid wing meningioma
B. Optic glioma
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Orbital neurofibroma

A

A. Sphenoid wing meningioma
B. Optic glioma
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Orbital neurofibroma

Optic gliomas are found in patients with neurofibromatosis and often present with unilateral painless proptosis. Visual loss occurs when the glioma has reached the chiasm or is causing significant mass effect on the optic nerve. These lesions can be cured if complete excision of the optic nerve and eye occur before the tumor has invaded the optic chiasm. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 632.

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86
Q

A 12-year-old girl presents with headache, nausea/ vomiting, and diplopia. MRI is demonstrated below. What management should you recommend to the parents?
A. Surgical resection
B. Biopsy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Observation
E. Radiation

A

A. Surgical resection
B. Biopsy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Observation
E. Radiation

This MRI demonstrates diffuse enlargement of the brainstem consistent with a diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma. Diagnosis can often be made based on MRI scans and surgical resection/biopsy should be avoided unless an obvious exophytic component is present. Children with this diagnosis die within 6 to 12 months, and XRT may not prolong survival. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 634.

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87
Q

Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytomas often present where?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Temporal lobe
C. Brainstem
D. Cerebellum
E. Occipital lobe

A

A. Frontal lobe
B. Temporal lobe
C. Brainstem
D. Cerebellum
E. Occipital lobe

PXAs tend to occur in the temporal lobe, are cystic with an enhancing nodule, and present with seizures. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 636.

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88
Q

You perform a subtotal resection of a tumor confirmed to be an oligodendroglioma based on final pathology. What is the recommended postoperative treatment?
A. 60 Gy XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
B. 60 Gy XRT + PCV chemotherapy
C. PCV chemotherapy alone
D. Temozolomide chemotherapy alone

A

A. 60 Gy XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
B. 60 Gy XRT + PCV chemotherapy
C. PCV chemotherapy alone
D. Temozolomide chemotherapy alone

For pathology proven oligodendrogliomas, postoperative PCV chemotherapy has shown to be beneficial. XRT is controversial, and often saved for malignant transformation or recurrent growth. At this time immediate XRT post-resection is not often recommended.
Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 640.

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89
Q

You are evaluating a 33-year-old woman with what appears to be an ependymoma on MRI. If she were to present with a cranial nerve deficit, what deficit would you expect to see?
A. Visual loss
B. Medial rectus palsy
C. Facial weakness
D. Tongue weakness

A

A. Visual loss
B. Medial rectus palsy
C. Facial weakness
D. Tongue weakness

Ependymomas often present in the fourth ventricle, originating from the floor of the fourth ventricle. Given their invasiveness, they may involve the facial colliculus which is located in the floor of the fourth ventricle, making facial weakness a likely cranial nerve deficit. Lateral rectus palsy (CN VI involvement) can be seen as well. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 643.

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90
Q

You are evaluating a 33-year-old woman with what appears to be an ependymoma on MRI of the brain. What other imaging should be performed?
A. Whole body PET CT
B. CT chest/abdomen/pelvis
C. MRI spinal axis
D. Technetium bone scan

A

A. Whole body PET CT
B. CT chest/abdomen/pelvis
C. MRI spinal axis
D. Technetium bone scan

Ependymomas often present in the fourth ventricle, originating from the floor of the fourth ventricle. They can cause drop metastases within the spinal canal, and thus MRI imaging of the entire neuraxis should be performed prior to intervention. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 644.

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91
Q

You resect an ependymoma of the fourth ventricle in a 33-year-old woman. MRI of the spinal axis does not demonstrate any evidence of drop metastases. What postoperative treatment would you recommend?
A. XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
B. XRT + PCV chemotherapy
C. XRT alone
D. Temozolomide alone

A

A. XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
B. XRT + PCV chemotherapy
C. XRT alone
D. Temozolomide alone

Ependymomas often present in the fourth ventricle, originating from the floor of the fourth ventricle. They tend to be radiosensitive and have not been shown to benefit from added chemotherapy. Traditional XRT therapy included 45 to 48 Gy to the tumor bed with 15 to 20 Gy reserved for recurrence. With the development of 3D conformal XRT, doses of 59.4 Gy to the tumor bed have been given. Prophylactic spinal XRT is usually given only if there is evidence of drop metastases on imaging. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 644.

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92
Q

What tumor type is often found attached to the septum pellucidum?
A. Glioblastoma
B. Central neurocytoma
C. Intraventricular meningioma
D. Intraventricular lymphoma
E. Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma

A

A. Glioblastoma
B. Central neurocytoma
C. Intraventricular meningioma
D. Intraventricular lymphoma
E. Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma

Central neurocytomas are WHO grade II neuronal tumors often found attached to the septum pellucidum in the frontal horn of the lateral ventricles. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neuro- surgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 645.

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93
Q

Gelastic seizures are often seen with a mass located where?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Mesial temporal lobe
C. Third ventricle
D. Anterior temporal pole
E. Fourth ventricle

A

A. Frontal lobe
B. Mesial temporal lobe
C. Third ventricle
D. Anterior temporal pole
E. Fourth ventricle

Gelastic seizures are characterized by inappropriate laughter and are often seen with hypothalamic hamartomas or hypothalamic gliomas with a mass in the third ventricle. Further Reading: Baltuch, Villemure. Operative Techniques in Epilepsy Surgery, 2009, page 83.

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94
Q

You have just resected a dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor of the anterior temporal pole in a 22-year-old man with intractable epilepsy. Postoperative imaging suggests gross total resection. What do you recommend for postoperative management?
A. XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
B. XRT alone
C. Temozolomide chemotherapy alone
D. Observation

A

A. XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
B. XRT alone
C. Temozolomide chemotherapy alone
D. Observation

DNETs are often seen in the temporal lobe and appear to have nodular enhancement on MRI. They are WHO grade I tumors and are associated with medically intractable epilepsy. After gross total resection, observation is recommended as XRT and chemotherapy have not shown any benefit in these benign tumors. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 647.

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95
Q

During surgery for a paraganglioma, manipulation of the tumor can lead to what intraoperative complication?
A. Cardiac arrhythmia
B. Life-threatening hemorrhage
C. Seizure
D. Stroke

A

A. Cardiac arrhythmia
B. Life-threatening hemorrhage
C. Seizure
D. Stroke

Paraganglioma (glomus tumors) can secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine based on histologic subtype, and therefore aggressive manipulation can lead to release of these catecholamines and hypertension/cardiac arrhythmias may occur. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 653.

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96
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of paraganglioma?
A. Glomus tympanicum
B. Glomus jugulare
C. Glomus intravagale
D. Carotid body tumor

A

A. Glomus tympanicum
B. Glomus jugulare
C. Glomus intravagale
D. Carotid body tumor

Carotid body tumor is the most common paraganglioma of the ones listed here. Overall, pheochromocytoma is the most common paraganglioma. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 653.

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97
Q

Neuroblastomas arise from what element of the nervous system?
A. Sympathetic ganglion
B. Peripheral nerve
C. Dorsal root ganglion
D. Free nerve endings

A

A. Sympathetic ganglion
B. Peripheral nerve
C. Dorsal root ganglion
D. Free nerve endings

Neuroblastomas are aggressive tumors that arise from the sympathetic ganglion. They often present in the adrenal gland (40%), but can present anywhere along the sympathetic chain and in certain presentations can cause a Horner’s syndrome. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 657.

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98
Q

You are seeing a patient with a pineal region tumor. CSF markers are ordered and demonstrated below. What is the most likely diagnosis? B-HCG (+), AFP (−), PLAP (−)
A. Germinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
D. Mature teratoma

A

A. Germinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
D. Mature teratoma

CSF markers are important for pineal region tumors. In this case there is an isolated elevation of B-HCG which leads to the diagnosis of choriocarcinoma. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 660.

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99
Q

You are seeing a patient with a pineal region tumor. CSF markers are ordered and demonstrated below. What is the most likely diagnosis? B-HCG (+), AFP (−), PLAP (+)
A. Germinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
D. Mature teratoma

A

A. Germinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
D. Mature teratoma

CSF markers are important for pineal region tumors. In this case there is elevation of both B-HCG and placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP), which is suggestive of germinoma. While PLAP is often positive in germinomas, B-HCG has been shown to be positive in 10 to 50% of cases based on the microarchitecture of the tumor and whether or not syncytiotrophoblasts are present. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 660.

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100
Q

You are seeing a patient with a pineal region tumor. CSF markers are ordered and demonstrated below. What is the most likely diagnosis? B-HCG (−), AFP (−), PLAP (−)
A. Germinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
D. Mature teratoma

A

A. Germinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
D. Mature teratoma

CSF markers are important for pineal region tumors. In this case, the markers are all negative, and this can be the case with a mixed germ cell tumor or a mature teratoma. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 660.

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101
Q

You are seeing a patient with a pineal region tumor. CSF markers are ordered and demonstrated below. What is the most likely diagnosis? B-HCG (−), AFP (+), PLAP (−)
A. Germinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
D. Mature teratoma

A

A. Germinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
D. Mature teratoma

CSF markers are important for pineal region tumors. In this case, AFP is elevated while the other markers are negative. This is suggestive of embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac carcinoma, or immature teratoma. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neuro- surgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 660.

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102
Q

Patients with vestibular schwannomas are most likely to present with which of the symptoms listed below?
A. Facial weakness
B. Facial numbness
C. Taste changes
D. Otalgia

A

A. Facial weakness
B. Facial numbness
C. Taste changes
D. Otalgia

Patients with vestibular schwannomas are actually more likely to present with facial numbness than weakness. Often times the facial nerve is distorted by the tumor but no weakness is present. However, with fairly minor compression of the trigeminal nerve, facial numbness can occur. This is likely due to resiliency of motor nerves compared to sensory nerves. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 671.

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103
Q

What is the most common presentation of a vestibular schwannoma?
A. Facial weakness
B. Facial numbness
C. Taste changes
D. Hearing loss

A

A. Facial weakness
B. Facial numbness
C. Taste changes
D. Hearing loss

Unilateral hearing loss is overall the most common presentation of vestibular schwannomas. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 672.

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104
Q

You see a 34-year-old woman with an asymptomatically discovered 1.3-cm vestibular schwannoma. Her hearing tests demonstrate intact hearing. What is the next best step?
A. Surgical resection
B. Stereotactic radiosurgery
C. Observation
D. Chemotherapy

A

A. Surgical resection
B. Stereotactic radiosurgery
C. Observation
D. Chemotherapy

In patients with a vestibular schwannoma < 15 mm in size with intact hearing, observation with serial scans every 6 months should be the initial next step. If/when tumor growth is documented > 2 mm, treatment is recommended. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 676.

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105
Q

What direction is the facial nerve most often displaced by a vestibular schwannoma?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. Inferior
E. Lateral

A

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. Inferior
E. Lateral

The facial nerve is displaced anteriorly in up to 75% of cases, but can also be seen superiorly displaced. It can be completely thinned out over the surface of the tumor, so monitoring is recommended. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 679.

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106
Q

What percentage of hemangioblastomas occur as part of von Hippel-Lindau disease?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%
E. 100%

A

A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%
E. 100%

Hemangioblastomas can be associated with VHL, but can also occur sporadically. They seem to be associated with VHL approximately 20% of the time. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 701.

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107
Q

All of these tumor types are associated with von Hippel-Lindau disease except?
A. Hemangioblastoma
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Paraganglioma
D. Renal cell carcinoma

A

A. Hemangioblastoma
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Paraganglioma
D. Renal cell carcinoma

VHL is a disease associated with abnormalities on chromosome 3. It is associated with multiple tumor types including hemangioblastomas, retinal hemangioblastomas, pheochromocytomas, renal cell carcinoma, cystadenomas, pancreactic neuroendocrine tumors, and endolymphatic sac tumors. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 705.

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108
Q

You are seeing a patient with biopsy proven, nonAIDS–related primary CNS lymphoma. What is the best treatment?
A. Surgical resection followed by XRT and methotrexate
chemotherapy
B. XRT + methotrexate chemotherapy
C. XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
D. Surgical resection followed by XRT and temozolomide
chemotherapy

A

A. Surgical resection followed by XRT and methotrexate chemotherapy
B. XRT + methotrexate chemotherapy
C. XRT + temozolomide chemotherapy
D. Surgical resection followed by XRT and temozolomide chemotherapy

Primary CNS lymphoma that is non-AIDS related and biopsy proven is best treated with XRT and methotrexate chemotherapy. There is no role for surgical debulking as this has demonstrated no improvement in survival in this patient population. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 713.

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109
Q

What is the approximate 5-year survival of patients with biopsy proven primary CNS lymphoma?
A. 3 to 4%
B. 15 to 16%
C. 30 to 31%
D. 48 to 49%
E. 55 to 56%

A

A. 3 to 4%
B. 15 to 16%
C. 30 to 31%
D. 48 to 49%
E. 55 to 56%

Primary CNS lymphoma that is non-AIDS related and biopsy proven is best treated with XRT and methotrexate chemotherapy. There is no role for surgical debulking as this has demonstrated no improvement in survival in this patient population. Approximate 5-year survival is 3 to 4%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 713.

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110
Q

A pituitary tumor is considered a macroadenoma after it has crossed what size threshold?
A. > 5 mm
B. > 1 cm
C. > 2 cm
D. > 3 cm
E. > 3.5 cm

A

A. > 5 mm
B. > 1 cm
C. > 2 cm
D. > 3 cm
E. > 3.5 cm

Pituitary adenomas are considered macroadenomas after they have grown to >1 cm in size. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 718.

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111
Q

Approximately what percentage of pituitary adenomas are functioning?
A. 15%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 65%
E. 80%

A

A. 15%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 65%
E. 80%

Approximately 65% of pituitary tumors secrete an active hormone, with prolactin being the most commonly secreted hormone (48%), followed by growth hormone (10%), ACTH (6%), and TSH (1%). Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 719.

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112
Q

What type of visual field deficit would a large pituitary macroadenoma cause?
A. Right homonymous hemianopia
B. Left superior quadrant hemianopia
C. Central scotoma
D. Bitemporal hemianopia

A

A. Right homonymous hemianopia
B. Left superior quadrant hemianopia
C. Central scotoma
D. Bitemporal hemianopia

Pituitary macroadenomas cause compression of the optic chiasm and given their midline location lead to bitemporal hemianopia. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 720.

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113
Q

What serum marker might help lead you to a diagnosis of suprasellar germinoma?
A. B-HCG
B. AFP
C. Sodium
D. Hematocrit

A

A. B-HCG
B. AFP
C. Sodium
D. Hematocrit

Suprasellar germinomas can lead to compression of the pituitary stalk and lead to diabetes insipidus. With elevated serum sodium in a suprasellar mass, germinoma should be considered. Further Reading: Schwartz, Anand. Endoscopic Pituitary Surgery, 2012, page 53.

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114
Q

You are taking care of a patient that you suspect has pituitary apoplexy. What finding would lead you to perform emergent decompression of the sella?
A. Hypotension
B. Visual field cut
C. Hypernatremia
D. Elevated urine output

A

A. Hypotension
B. Visual field cut
C. Hypernatremia
D. Elevated urine output

Pituitary apoplexy occurs when a pituitary tumor hemorrhages into the sella. These patients often need emergent corticosteroid administration, but progressive visual field deficit is a reason to emergently decompress the sella. This should ideally be performed within 7 days of onset to promote full recovery. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 721.

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115
Q

You see a patient with evidence of hypercortisolism. There appears to be a functioning pituitary adenoma. What is the diagnosis?
A. Cushing’s disease
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Nelson’s syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy

A

A. Cushing’s disease
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Nelson’s syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy

Cushing’s syndrome describes the general features of hypercortisolism, whereas Cushing’s disease is Cushing’s syndrome caused by an ACTH secreting pituitary adenoma. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 723.

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116
Q

You are evaluating a patient who has had both adrenal glands removed as a treatment for her primary disease. She has noticed some worsening of her peripheral vision and states that her skin appears darker than usual. What is the diagnosis?
A. Cushing’s disease
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Nelson’s syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy

A

A. Cushing’s disease
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Nelson’s syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy

Nelson’s syndrome occurs when ACTH producing pituitary adenoma cells remain after bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s disease. Given the cross-reactivity between ACTH and melanocyte stimulating hormone, patients notice hyperpigmentation and signs/symptoms of an enlarging pituitary mass. She should undergo surgical resection of the mass. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 725.

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117
Q

Patients with growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenomas have an elevated risk of what other type of cancer?
A. Lung cancer
B. Colon cancer
C. Pancreatic cancer
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

A. Lung cancer
B. Colon cancer
C. Pancreatic cancer
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Patients with growth hormone–secreting tumors and acromegaly have a two times increased risk of colon cancer compared to the normal population. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 726.

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118
Q

You see a patient with a large pituitary tumor and bitemporal hemianopia. Prolactin level is 356. You decide to attempt medical management. The main medication used in this case works on what receptor?
A. D1 dopamine receptor
B. D2 dopamine receptor
C. GABA receptor
D. Glutamate receptor

A

A. D1 dopamine receptor
B. D2 dopamine receptor
C. GABA receptor
D. Glutamate receptor

The main medication used for prolactinomas currently is cabergoline, a D2 receptor agonist, compared to bromocriptine which is a nonselective (D1 and D2) dopamine agonist. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 740.

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119
Q

You see a patient with a large pituitary tumor and bitemporal hemianopia. Prolactin level is 356. You decide to attempt medical management. You decide to use cabergoline. What is a worrisome side effect from the use of cabergoline?
A. Seizures
B. Diarrhea
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Diabetes insipidus

A

A. Seizures
B. Diarrhea
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Diabetes insipidus

The main medication used for prolactinomas currently is cabergoline, a D2 receptor agonist, and it can lead to cardiac valve regurgitation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 740.

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120
Q

You are treating a patient with acromegaly and a growth hormone-secreting pituitary tumor. You elect to start the patient on medication using octreotide. How does this medication work?
A. GH receptor antagonist
B. Dopamine agonist
C. Somatostatin analogue
D. Adrenal steroid synthesis inhibitor

A

A. GH receptor antagonist
B. Dopamine agonist
C. Somatostatin analogue
D. Adrenal steroid synthesis inhibitor

While many growth hormone–secreting pituitary adenomas can be treated with surgery, occasionally medical management is attempted using octreotide, which is a somatostatin analogue. Tumor volume decreases in approximately 30% of patients. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 742.

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121
Q

You are treating a patient with acromegaly and a growth hormone-secreting pituitary tumor. You elect to start the patient on medication using pegvisomant. How does this medication work?
A. GH receptor antagonist
B. Dopamine agonist
C. Somatostatin analogue
D. Adrenal steroid synthesis inhibitor

A

A. GH receptor antagonist
B. Dopamine agonist
C. Somatostatin analogue
D. Adrenal steroid synthesis inhibitor

While many growth hormone–secreting pituitary adenomas can be treated with surgery, occasionally medical management is attempted using pegvisomant, which is a growth hormone receptor antagonist. In patients treated for 12 months, normal IGF levels are seen in 97% of patients, but tumor size remains the same. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 742.

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122
Q

A patient presents to you with known colonic polyposis and evidence of multiple cranial osteomas in X-ray of the skull. What is the diagnosis?
A. Turcot’s syndrome
B. Garnder’s syndrome
C. McCune-Albright syndrome
D. Paget’s disease

A

A. Turcot’s syndrome
B. Garnder’s syndrome
C. McCune-Albright syndrome
D. Paget’s disease

Gardner’s syndrome is comprised of colonic polyposis, multiple cranial osteomas, and soft tis- sue tumors. Osteomas of the skull consist of oste- oid tissue within osteoblastic tissue with reactive bone formation around that region. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 775.

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123
Q

You are seeing a patient with a single abnormal protrusion of the skull in the right parietal region. X-rays demonstrate trabeculated bone. They decide they would like it removed and during surgery you observe a blue colored mass underneath the pericranium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Metastasis
D. Multiple myeloma

A

A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Metastasis
D. Multiple myeloma

Hemangiomas of the skull can cause areas of skull protrusion with evidence of trabeculated bone on X-ray. During surgery they appear bluish in color underneath the pericranium. They should be excised completely to avoid recurrence. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 776.

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124
Q

The Hand-Schüller-Christian triad is comprised of exophthalmos (from intraorbital tumor), lytic bone lesions (of the cranium), and what?
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Seizures
C. Papilledema
D. Facial weakness

A

A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Seizures
C. Papilledema
D. Facial weakness

The Hand-Schüller-Christian triad is a series ofclinical symptoms caused by an underlying diagnosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosis. When thisoccurs in the suprasellar region, a mass emanatingfrom the pituitary stalk can cause diabetes insipidus. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 777.

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125
Q

Fibrous dysplasia is associated with what syndrome?
A. Turcot’s syndrome
B. Garnder’s syndrome
C. McCune-Albright syndrome
D. Paget’s disease

A

A. Turcot’s syndrome
B. Garnder’s syndrome
C. McCune-Albright syndrome
D. Paget’s disease

Fibrous dysplasia is a benign condition where bone is replaced by fibrous connective tissue, and it is seen commonly in McCune-Albright syndrome along with endocrine dysfunction, café au lait spots on one side of the midline, and precocious puberty. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 781.

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126
Q

You are operating on a cerebellar hemangioblastoma with a large associated cystic component. You open the dura and the cerebellum begins to herniate through the dural defect. What will be the most effective means to decrease posterior fossa pressure?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Mannitol
C. Dexamethasone
D. Needle aspiration of cystic contents

A

A. Hyperventilation
B. Mannitol
C. Dexamethasone
D. Needle aspiration of cystic contents

While all of the above options are reasonable to decrease intracranial pressure, when a mass has a large cystic component, simple drainage of the cyst can lead to rapid decompression of the posterior fossa.

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127
Q

You resect a pathology proven cerebellar hemangioblastoma with a large cystic component. You have removed the mural nodule. Should you attempt to excise the entire cyst wall?
A. Yes
B. No

A

B. No

Generally, the wall of the associated cyst cavity within a hemangioblastoma does not need to be resected, unless there is a portion that enhances. Removal of the enhancing mural nodule should lead to sufficient resection.

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128
Q

You resect a pathology proven cerebellar pilocytic astrocytoma with a large cystic component. You have removed the mural nodule. Should you attempt to excise the entire cyst wall?
A. Yes
B. No

A

A. Yes

Generally, the wall of the associated cyst cavity should be resected if it can be done safely. Certain pilocytic astrocytomas can have pseudocysts that are really more tumor tissue and attempts should be made to resect the wall if possible. Certainly any areas that are enhancing should be resected if it can be done safely.

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129
Q

During endoscopic third ventriculostomy, aggressive manipulation of the endoscope within the third ventricle should be avoided to prevent injury to what structure?
A. Mamillary bodies
B. Caudate head
C. Fornix
D. Thalamus

A

A. Mamillary bodies
B. Caudate head
C. Fornix
D. Thalamus

When the endoscope is advanced through the foramen of Monro, care should be taken to avoid significant manipulation if possible given that the fornix can be easily compressed on the superior aspect of the foramen by a rigid endoscope. Further Reading: Torres-Corzo, Rangel-Castilla, Nakaji. Neuroendoscopic Surgery, 2016, page 232.

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130
Q

Approximately what length of temporal lobe can be resected safely during a temporal lobectomy on the dominant side?
A. 1 to 2.5 cm
B. 3 to 4.5 cm
C. 5 to 5.5 cm
D. 6 to 6.5 cm

A

A. 1 to 2.5 cm
B. 3 to 4.5 cm
C. 5 to 5.5 cm
D. 6 to 6.5 cm

Approximately 3 to 4.5 cm of dominant temporal lobe can be resected safely. Further posterior and risk to language function increases. Further Reading: Baltuch, Villemure. Operative Techniques in Epilepsy Surgery, 2009, page 40.

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131
Q

You are seeing a patient in the emergency department who had the worst headache of her life. She opens her eyes to voice, does not know the date or where she is, but is able to follow commands reliably with good strength x4. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is confirmed on imaging. What is her WFNS grade?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

The WFNS grade is a way to evaluate clinical symptoms after SAH. A patient with a GCS of 13 to 14 without major motor deficit would be considered a WFNS grade 2. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1163.

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132
Q

You are seeing a patient in the emergency department who had the worst headache of her life. On imaging she has evidence of SAH in the basal cisterns that is >3 mm in diameter but no evidence of intra-ventricular hemorrhage. Based on the modified Fisher scale for SAH, what is her risk of vasospasm?
A. 0%
B. 24%
C. 33%
D. 40%
E. 50%

A

A. 0%
B. 24%
C. 33%
D. 40%
E. 50%

The modified Fisher scale rates the amount and location of SAH to predict risk of vasospasm. Grade 1 is thin (< 3 mm) clot only with no IVH–24% risk. Grade 2 is thin (< 3 mm) clot with IVH–33% RISK. Grade 3 is thick (> 3 mm) clot with no IVH–33% risk, and grade 4 is thick clot with IVH–40% risk. Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, page 471.

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133
Q

After a ruptured intracranial aneurysm, what is the approximate risk of rebleed per day while the aneurysm remains unsecured?
A. 1.5%
B. 5%
C. 25%
D. 33%

A

A. 1.5%
B. 5%
C. 25%
D. 33%

After aneurysmal rupture there is an approximately 1.5% per day risk of rebleeding up to 13 days postbleed. At 6 months there is a risk of 50%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1168.

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134
Q

You are taking care of a patient who suffered a
rupture of a carotid bifurcation aneurysm. It is
postbleed day 5 and she is experiencing new left
arm weakness. What is the most likely underlying
mechanism?
A. Subclinical seizures
B. Hyponatremia
C. Vasospasm
D. Intracerebral hemorrhage

A

A. Subclinical seizures
B. Hyponatremia
C. Vasospasm
D. Intracerebral hemorrhage

This patient is likely experiencing a vasospasm, which occurs usually between postbleed days 3 and 14. It is rare for vasospasm to occur < 3 days. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1178.

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135
Q

What is the single most common location for an intracranial aneurysm?
A. Anterior communicating artery
B. Posterior communicating artery
C. Carotid bifurcation
D. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

A

A. Anterior communicating artery

Anterior communicating artery aneurysms are the most common location for intracranial aneurysms (30%). Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1191.

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136
Q

You are evaluating a 55-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and smoking who has evidence of a third nerve palsy. Where is the aneurysm?
A. Anterior communicating artery
B. Posterior communicating artery
C. Carotid bifurcation
D. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

A

A. Anterior communicating artery
B. Posterior communicating artery
C. Carotid bifurcation
D. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Posterior communicating artery aneurysms classically present with a non-pupil sparing third nerve palsy (due to compression and not microvascular disease, which would be pupil sparing). While only 9% of posterior communicating artery aneurysms will present this way, given the location of the posterior communicating artery to the third nerve, it is a commonly tested subject. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1192.

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137
Q

What is the most important step in aneurysm surgery prior to clip placement?
A. Dissecting the dome free
B. Releasing CSF
C. Proximal control
D. ICG administration

A

A. Dissecting the dome free
B. Releasing CSF
C. Proximal control
D. ICG administration

Obtaining proximal control prior to dissecting the aneurysm or placing a clip. When proximal control is obtained, further dissection can take place. If the aneurysm ruptures, temporary clips can be applied to the areas of proximal control in order to decrease bleeding. Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, page 1106.

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138
Q

You are seeing a patient with a right sided ophthalmic segment aneurysm that is growing and causing compression of the optic nerve from the aneurysm itself. What symptoms would you expect him to report?
A. Right inferior nasal quadrantanopsia
B. Right superior nasal quadrantanopsia
C. Right superior temporal quadrantanopsia
D. Right inferior temporal quadrantanopsia

A

A. Right inferior nasal quadrantanopsia
B. Right superior nasal quadrantanopsia
C. Right superior temporal quadrantanopsia
D. Right inferior temporal quadrantanopsia

Ophthalmic segment aneurysms can grow and cause compression of the optic nerve. Given that they will compress the nerve from the inferior temporal side, you would expect him to have an ipsilateral superior nasal quadrantanopsia. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1214.

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139
Q

You are seeing a patient with a right sided ophthalmic segment aneurysm that is growing and causing compression of the optic nerve. This initially led to an ipsilateral superior nasal quadrantanopsia. Now he reports that he is developing an inferior nasal quadrantanopsia. What structure is causing further compression of the optic nerve?
A. Falciform ligament
B. Tuburculum sellae
C. Anterior clinoid process
D. Middle clinoid process

A

A. Falciform ligament
B. Tuburculum sellae
C. Anterior clinoid process
D. Middle clinoid process

The falciform ligament is a dural fold overlying the superior aspect of the optic nerve. When an aneurysm pushes the optic nerve superiorly, compression can occur from above as the nerve is pressed against the falciform ligament. After an anterior clinoidectomy, opening of the falciform ligament can decompress the optic nerve. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1214.

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140
Q

You are seeing a patient with a right sided ophthalmic segment aneurysm that is growing and causing compression of the optic nerve. In order to gain access to the aneurysm neck you decide to perform an anterior clinoidectomy. What imaging modality might help you ensure that this procedure is safe in this patient’s case?
A. Conventional cerebral angiogram
B. MRI brain
C. CT head
D. Carotid ultrasound

A

A. Conventional cerebral angiogram
B. MRI brain
C. CT head
D. Carotid ultrasound

Occasionally patients can have bridging bone between the anterior and posterior clinoid processes, so called the “middle clinoid process.” If the surgeon is unaware of the presence of this middle clinoid process bridging bone, aggressive removal of the anterior clinoid process can lead to transection of the carotid artery as the bridging bone often encases the carotid artery to some degree. A CT scan of the head can rule out the presence of the middle clinoid bridging bone. Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, page 17.

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141
Q

You are evaluating an angiogram in a patient with an AVM. The characteristics are: size = 3.6 cm; drainage = internal cerebral vein; location = right frontal. What is the Spetzler-Martin grade of this AVM?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

A

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

The Spetzler-Martin grading system applies to AVMs and takes into account size of the nidus (< 3 cm, 3–6 cm, > 6 cm), venous drainage (deep/ superficial), and location (eloquent/noneloquent cortex). The scale is 1 to 5. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1243.

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142
Q

You are evaluating an angiogram in a patient with an AVM. The characteristics are: size = 3.6 cm; drainage = internal cerebral vein; location = right frontal. Based on Spetzler-Martin grade, what is the rate of good surgical outcome (no deficit postop)?
A. 95%
B. 84%
C. 73%
D. 69%
E. 53%

A

A. 95%
B. 84%
C. 73%
D. 69%
E. 53%

Based on the Spetzler-Martin grading system, grade 3 AVMs have an 84% chance of good outcome after surgical resection (grade 1 = 100%, grade 2 = 95%, grade 3 = 84%, grade 4 = 73%, grade 5 = 69%). Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1243.

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143
Q

What is the approximate annual risk of hemorrhage in S-M grade 1 to 3 AVMs?
A. 0%
B. 3.5%
C. 10%
D. 17.5%
E. 25%

A

A. 0%
B. 3.5%
C. 10%
D. 17.5%
E. 25%

The approximate annual risk of hemorrhage for grade 1 to 3 AVMs is 3.5%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1240.

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144
Q

You are operating on a 35-year-old man with a brainstem cavernous malformation that has hemorrhaged twice. You successfully resect the cavernoma, but there appears to be a venous malformation deep in the resection cavity. True or false, you should coagulate and cut this venous malformation?
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Many cavernous malformations of the brain are associated with developmental venous anomalies. It is important to remember that these venous channels can drain normal brain tissue and should not be resected to avoid risk of postoperative venous stroke. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1245.

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145
Q

You are operating on a 35-year-old man with a left temporal cavernous malformation that is thought to be causing his medically intractable epilepsy. As you approach to the cavernous malformation, you notice yellow discoloration of the surrounding brain parenchyma. True or false, you should resect this surrounding tissue?
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

When cavernous malformations hemorrhage they can cause hemosiderin staining of the surrounding brain parenchyma which gives it a yellowish color. Many surgeons believe that this hemosiderin stained brain can be a seizure focus and should be resected if it can be done safely. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1250.

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146
Q

What is the most common presentation of a dural arteriovenous fistula?
A. Hemorrhagic stroke
B. Seizure
C. Ischemic stroke
D. Pulsatile tinnitus

A

A. Hemorrhagic stroke
B. Seizure
C. Ischemic stroke
D. Pulsatile tinnitus

The vast majority of dural arteriovenous fistulae present with pulsatile tinnitus. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1251.

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147
Q

A Cognard grade II a + b dural arteriovenous fistula has what characteristic venous drainage?
A. Direct cortical venous drainage without
ectasia
B. Direct cortical venous drainage with ectasia
C. Retrograde sinus and retrograde cortical venous drainage
D. Anterograde sinus and retrograde cortical venous drainage

A

A. Direct cortical venous drainage without
ectasia
B. Direct cortical venous drainage with ectasia
C. Retrograde sinus and retrograde cortical venous drainage
D. Anterograde sinus and retrograde cortical venous drainage

There are two major classification systems for dural arteriovenous fistulae, the Borden classification and the Cognard classification. The Cognard classification consists of type I (anterograde drainage through a sinus), type IIa (retrograde sinus drainage only), type IIb (anterograde sinus drainage with retrograde cortical venous reflux), type II a + b (retrograde sinus and retrograde cortical venous reflux), type III (direct cortical venous drainage without ectasia), type IV (direct cortical venous drainage with ectasia), and type V (direct drainage into spinal perimedullary veins). Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1254.

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148
Q

What Cognard grade carries the highest risk of hemorrhage when grading a dural fistula?
A. Type II a + b
B. Type III
C. Type II b
D. Type II a

A

A. Type II a + b
B. Type III
C. Type II b
D. Type II a

Type II a + b (retrograde sinus and cortical venous reflux) carries the highest risk of hemorrhage, approximately 66%. Next is type IV with direct cortical venous drainage with ectasia, at 65%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1254.

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149
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of a vein of Galen malformation?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Seizure
C. Heart failure
D. Ischemic stroke

A

A. Hemorrhage
B. Seizure
C. Heart failure
D. Ischemic stroke

Vein of Galen malformations present in neonates with evidence of high output heart failure. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1256.

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150
Q

You are evaluating a 44-year-old woman in the emergency department who was just involved in a motor vehicle accident where she was unrestrained and hit her face on the dashboard. Since the accident she has noticed blurry vision out of the right eye only. You notice that she appears to have a VI nerve palsy on the right, chemosis, and some proptosis. What is the diagnosis?
A. Intraparenchymal contusion
B. Orbital blowout fracture
C. Ophthalmic artery dissection
D. Carotid-cavernous fistula

A

A. Intraparenchymal contusion
B. Orbital blowout fracture
C. Ophthalmic artery dissection
D. Carotid-cavernous fistula

Traumatic carotid-cavernous fistulae can occur after motor vehicle accidents or other intracranial trauma. They present with orbital pain, chemosis, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, and visual loss. Patients should undergo vascular imaging and may require interventional or surgical treatment of the fistula. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1257.

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151
Q

A hypoxic cell is more sensitive to radiation than an oxygenated cell, true or false?
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Radiation therapy damages cells by firing particles into an atom and releasing free electrons causing damage downstream. In fully oxygenated cells, oxygen combines with unpaired free electrons to form peroxides, which are more stable and lethal than free radicals, and therefore an oxygenated cell is more sensitive to damage by radiation therapy. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1566.

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152
Q

Generally speaking, how old should a child be before they are able to receive cranial radiation therapy?
A. > 1 year
B. > 3 years
C. > 5 years
D. > 7 years
E. > 10 years

A

A. > 1 year
B. > 3 years
C. > 5 years
D. > 7 years
E. > 10 years

Children less than 3 years of age are particularly sensitive to cranial radiation and can have severe developmental side effects. Children should be greater than 3 years of age to be eligible for cranial radiation. There may be demonstrable changes in IQ (decrease by 25 points) in children who receive radiation up to 7 years of age. Further Reading: Keating, Goodrich, Packer. Tumors of the Pediatric Central Nervous System, 2nd edition, 2013, page 138.

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153
Q

Gamma knife radiosurgery is used for tumors of what diameter?
A. 1 cm or less
B. 3 cm or less
C. 5 cm or less
D. 7 cm or less
E. 10 cm or less

A

A. 1 cm or less
B. 3 cm or less
C. 5 cm or less
D. 7 cm or less
E. 10 cm or less

Gamma knife radiosurgery can be useful for cranial masses, but should be reserved for patients with brain tumors that are 3 cm or less in maximum diameter. This size cutoff decreases the risk of harmful radiation side effects to surrounding brain structures. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1564.

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154
Q

What is the maximum safe dose of radiation to the optic apparatus?
A. 6 Gy
B. 10 Gy
C. 14 Gy
D. 18 Gy
E. 20 Gy

A

A. 6 Gy
B. 10 Gy
C. 14 Gy
D. 18 Gy
E. 20 Gy

Safe doses of radiation to the optic apparatus are generally thought to be 8 to 10 Gy. Doses beyond this can lead to visual loss. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1567. Lunsford, Sheehan. Intracranial Stereotactic Radiosurgery, 2016, page 52.

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155
Q

What is a standard stereotactic radiosurgery dose that gives good tumor control for vestibular schwannomas but preserves facial nerve function?
A. 10 Gy or less
B. 13 Gy or less
C. 16 Gy or less
D. 19 Gy or less
E. 22 Gy or less

A

A. 10 Gy or less
B. 13 Gy or less
C. 16 Gy or less
D. 19 Gy or less
E. 22 Gy or less

SRS doses for vestibular schwannomas have changed based on recent literature, and currently 12 to 13 Gy to the facial nerve seems to be a dose of radiation that causes good tumor control but greatly decreases the side effects to the seventh and eighth nerve. Further Reading: Lunsford, Sheehan. Intracranial Stereotactic Radiosurgery, 2016, page 150.

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156
Q

What is the maximum safe dose of radiation to the lens of the eye?
A. 6 Gy or less
B. 8 Gy or less
C. 10 Gy or less
D. 12 Gy or less
E. 15 Gy or less

A

A. 6 Gy or less
B. 8 Gy or less
C. 10 Gy or less
D. 12 Gy or less
E. 15 Gy or less

The lens of the eye can tolerate 10 Gy or less radiation with minimal side effects. Cataract formation will occur with doses up to 50 Gy. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1567 Lunsford, Sheehan. Intracranial Stereotactic Radiosurgery, 2016, page 52.

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157
Q

At the 10-year post-treatment mark, what percentage of patients who received standard sellar radiation for a residual pituitary tumor will experience side effects including hypopituitarism?
A. 10 to 20%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 30 to 40%
D. 40 to 50%
E. 50 to 60%

A

A. 10 to 20%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 30 to 40%
D. 40 to 50%
E. 50 to 60%

At 10 years posttreatment, approximately 40 to 50% of patients who receive sellar radiation will experience hypopituitarism as a side effect from radiation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 744. Lunsford, Sheehan. Intracranial Stereotactic Radiosurgery, 2016, page 107.

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158
Q

What is considered the mean safe dose of radiation to the cochlea?
A. < 2 Gy
B. 4 to 6 Gy
C. 7 to 9 Gy
D. 10 to 12 Gy
E. 13 to 15 Gy

A

A. < 2 Gy
B. 4 to 6 Gy
C. 7 to 9 Gy
D. 10 to 12 Gy
E. 13 to 15 Gy

Based on current literature, the mean safe radiation dose to the cochlea is considered to be approximately 4.2 Gy, but has also been shown to range from 4 to 6 Gy. There is some controversy on this topic currently, but based on data available, doses from 4 to 6 Gy should be considered optimal.
Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1570.

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159
Q

You are seeing a 56-year-old man with a single brain metastasis which is proven to be a radiosensitive tumor based on histology. You elect to perform stereotactic radiosurgery for this mass that measures approximately 1.8 cm in maximum diameter. What dose of radiation should you plan to deliver to the tumor?
A. 10 Gy
B. 18 Gy
C. 24 Gy
D. 30 Gy
E. 40 Gy

A

A. 10 Gy
B. 18 Gy
C. 24 Gy
D. 30 Gy
E. 40 Gy

For tumors that are 10 to 20 mm, SRS doses up to 24 Gy can be used with acceptable risk of side effects. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1570.

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160
Q

You are seeing a 56-year-old man with a single brain metastasis which is proven to be a radiosensitive tumor based on histology. You elect to perform stereotactic radiosurgery for this mass that measures approximately 2.8 cm in maximum diameter. What dose of radiation should you plan to deliver to the tumor?
A. 10 Gy
B. 18 Gy
C. 24 Gy
D. 30 Gy
E. 40 Gy

A

A. 10 Gy
B. 18 Gy
C. 24 Gy
D. 30 Gy
E. 40 Gy

For tumors that are 21 to 30 mm, SRS doses up to 18 Gy can be used with acceptable risk of side effects. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1570.

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161
Q

You just resected a known, solitary lung cancer metastasis from the right frontal lobe in a 62-yearold man. Pathology confirms lung cancer metastasis. What is the next step for treatment?
A. Proton-beam radiation
B. Stereotactic radiosurgery
C. Whole brain radiation
D. Observation

A

A. Proton-beam radiation
B. Stereotactic radiosurgery
C. Whole brain radiation
D. Observation

Current literature supports the use of whole brain radiation in patients who have undergone resection of a cerebral metastasis. Doses up to 50 Gy have been shown to control > 90% of micrometasases, but at this dose there is a very high chance of early radiation side effects. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 808.

162
Q

Current literature supports use of stereotactic radiosurgery to treat how many concurrent cerebral metastases?
A. 5 or less
B. 10 or less
C. 15 or less
D. 20 or less

A

A. 5 or less
B. 10 or less
C. 15 or less
D. 20 or less

Based on current studies, up to 10 concurrent cerebral metastases can be treated with stereotactic radiosurgery with good outcome and low risk of side effects. There are surgeons who feel that even this number can be safely extended, research is pending. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1568.

163
Q

You are seeing a 34-year-old woman with a Spetzler-Martin grade II AVM (2.8 cm nidus, borders eloquent cortex), and she prefers stereotactic radiosurgery as an initial attempt at treating her currently asymptomatic AVM. She asks you how long it takes for the radiation to close the AVM. You tell her…
A. < 1 week
B. < 1 month
C. < 1 year
D. < 3 years
E. > 5 years

A

A. < 1 week
B. < 1 month
C. < 1 year
D. < 3 years
E. > 5 years

Stereotactic radiosurgery can be a good option for low grade AVMs with a well formed nidus that border eloquent cortex. Radiation works by causing damage to the endothelium and ultimately causing fibrosis. This process can take 2 to 3 years to develop, so risk of hemorrhage needs to be discussed with the patient over that treatment timeframe. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1568.

164
Q

You are seeing a 34-year-old woman with a Spetzler-Martin grade II AVM (2.8 cm nidus, borders eloquent cortex), and she prefers stereotactic radiosurgery as an initial attempt at treating her currently asymptomatic AVM. What radiation dose should you administer to the AVM?
A. 14 to 16 Gy
B. 18 to 20 Gy
C. 23 to 25 Gy
D. 29 to 31 Gy

A

A. 14 to 16 Gy
B. 18 to 20 Gy
C. 23 to 25 Gy
D. 29 to 31 Gy

Current literature suggests that 23 to 25 Gy radiation doses to AVMs lead to high rates of obliteration with low risk of complications. Higher radiation doses have been associated with an increased risk of complications and no significant improvement in obliteration rates. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1568.

165
Q

What is the overall AVM obliteration rate when treated by stereotactic radiosurgery?
A. 10 to 20%
B. 30 to 40%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
E. 90 to 100%

A

A. 10 to 20%
B. 30 to 40%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
E. 90 to 100%

Current literature suggests that 70 to 80% of all AVMs treated with stereotactic radiosurgery may achieve complete obliteration by 2 to 3 years after treatment. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neuro- surgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1568.

166
Q

What is the approximate “pain-free” control rate of trigeminal neuralgia when treated by stereotactic radiosurgery?
A. 25%
B. 45%
C. 65%
D. 85%

A

A. 25%
B. 45%
C. 65%
D. 85%

While up to 86% of patients will experience a decrease in their pain after SRS for TGN, the long term pain free rate is approximately 65%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 485.

167
Q

What is the primary deleterious side effect of whole brain radiation?
A. Intracerebral hemorrhage
B. Seizures
C. Headaches
D. Dementia

A

A. Intracerebral hemorrhage
B. Seizures
C. Headaches
D. Dementia

Dementia is the main complication from whole brain radiation after use for intracranial metastases. Symptoms can develop as quickly as 1 year after WBRT is performed. Incidence has been shown to be higher when patients receiving doses of 25 to 39 Gy receive those doses in fractionations that are > 300c Gy Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1561.

168
Q

You are evaluating a patient in the emergency department with known multiple myeloma who is presenting with signs and symptoms of spinal cord compression. Imaging confirms an epidural mass emanating from the vertebral body. You call a colleague in radiation oncology and she says she can administer emergency radiation to shrink the tumor. Approximately what dose will she deliver in this situation?
A. 8 Gy
B. 15 Gy
C. 22 Gy
D. 30 Gy

A

A. 8 Gy
B. 15 Gy
C. 22 Gy
D. 30 Gy

Emergency radiation can be delivered to radiosensitive spine tumors when there is evidence of compression. In many circumstances, an initial dose of 8 Gy will be given to shrink the tumor, followed by further fractionated radiation after the acute situation has resolved. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1562.

169
Q

What is the standard radiation dose administered to the spine for metastatic disease?
A. 10 Gy in 10 fractions
B. 20 Gy in 10 fractions
C. 30 Gy in 10 fractions
D. 40 Gy in 10 fractions

A

A. 10 Gy in 10 fractions
B. 20 Gy in 10 fractions
C. 30 Gy in 10 fractions
D. 40 Gy in 10 fractions

Radiation to the spine for metastatic disease in the setting of radiosensitive tumors is often administered at a dose of 30 Gy delivered over 10 fractions. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1562.

170
Q

You are seeing a 55-year-old woman with severe right sided trigeminal neuralgia currently on carbamazepine that is currently controlled. What percentage of patients managed with medication will ultimately require a procedure?
A. 5%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

A

A. 5%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

While TGN can be treated medically, approximately 75% of patients will require a procedure directed at treating the TGN. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neuro- surgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 479.

171
Q

During a microvascular decompression, you do not see a compressive vessel and you elect to squeeze the nerve. What is a significant risk of performing this procedure?
A. Anesthesia dolorosa
B. Worsened facial pain
C. Brainstem ischemic stroke
D. Seizure

A

A. Anesthesia dolorosa
B. Worsened facial pain
C. Brainstem ischemic stroke
D. Seizure

Anesthesia dolorosa is a feared complication of intentional damage to the trigeminal nerve. It occurs after damage to the V1 segment of the nerve, and can lead to anesthesia of the cornea, causing patients to get recurrent corneal abrasions. Significant care should be taken to avoid injuring the V1 segment. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neuro- surgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 479.

172
Q

You are seeing a 55-year-old woman who reports pain in her lower right jaw and teeth. It seems lancinating in nature and brought on by brushing her teeth. She has lost weight because she finds it difficult to eat. What should be your next step?
A. Start carbamazepine
B. MRI brain with FIESTA sequences
C. Right sided microvascular decompression
D. Observation

A

A. Start carbamazepine
B. MRI brain with FIESTA sequences
C. Right sided microvascular decompression
D. Observation

This patient appears to have symptoms consistent with trigeminal neuralgia. Initially, imaging of the brain should be performed to rule out mass lesions or evidence of multiple sclerosis. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 479.

173
Q

You are seeing a 55-year-old woman who reports pain in her lower right jaw and teeth. It seems lancinating in nature and brought on by brushing her teeth. She has lost weight because she finds it difficult to eat. What should be your next step?
A. Start carbamazepine
B. Start oxycodone
C. Right sided microvascular decompression
D. Right sided percutaneous trigeminal rhizotomy

A

A. Start carbamazepine
B. Start oxycodone
C. Right sided microvascular decompression
D. Right sided percutaneous trigeminal
rhizotomy

This patient appears to have symptoms consistent with trigeminal neuralgia. Initially, imaging of the brain should be performed to rule out mass lesions or evidence of multiple sclerosis. Following this, a trial of medical management utilizing carbamazepine 100 mg BID is a reasonable option. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 479.

174
Q

What is the success rate of microvascular decompression at 10 years?
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 90%

A

A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 90%

At 10 years, microvascular decompression has a pain free rate of 70%. It is an excellent option for patients who can tolerate a small craniotomy and have a life expectancy of longer than 5 years. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 479.

175
Q

How do you determine the difference between SIADH and cerebral salt wasting?
A. Urine osmolality
B. Serum sodium
C. Fluid status
D. Urine output

A

A. Urine osmolality
B. Serum sodium
C. Fluid status
D. Urine output

SIADH and CSW are both conditions that cause hyponatremia and can be seen after aneurysmal rupture. It is important to determine the difference between the two as treatment is different. CSW causes patients to be hypovolemic whereas in SIADH patients are euvolemic. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 110.

176
Q

What is an initial step for treating SIADH and hyponatremia in a patient who is conscious and able to follow commands?
A. Hypertonic saline
B. Fluid restriction
C. DDAVP
D. Demeclocycline

A

A. Hypertonic saline
B. Fluid restriction
C. DDAVP
D. Demeclocycline

In SIADH, patients are euvolemic or hypervolemic and hyponatremic. In a patient who can tolerate PO intake and is conscious, fluid restriction is a good initial step in management assuming the hyponatremia is not severe. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 118.

177
Q

You are treating a patient with SIADH refractory to fluid restriction. You decide to utilize medical management. What medication should you start?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrocortisone
C. DDAVP
D. Demeclocycline

A

A. Furosemide
B. Hydrocortisone
C. DDAVP
D. Demeclocycline

Demeclocycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that has side effects including antagonism of ADH. It can be used for medical management of SIADH if fluid restriction is not normalizing the sodium. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 118.

178
Q

You are treating a patient with cerebral salt wast- ing refractory to fluid resuscitation. You decide to utilize medical management. What medication should you start?
A. Furosemide
B. Fludrocortisone
C. DDAVP
D. Demeclocycline

A

A. Furosemide
B. Fludrocortisone
C. DDAVP
D. Demeclocycline

Fludrocortisone acts directly on renal tubules to increase sodium absorption and can be a useful medication adjunct when treating cerebral salt wasting. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 119.

179
Q

What is an initial step for treating cerebral salt wasting and hyponatremia in a patient with subarachnoid hemorrhage?
A. Normal saline infusion
B. Fluid restriction
C. DDAVP
D. Demeclocycline

A

A. Normal saline infusion
B. Fluid restriction
C. DDAVP
D. Demeclocycline

In cerebral salt wasting, patients are hypovolemic and hyponatremic. Fluid resuscitation with normal saline at 100 to 125 mL/hr should be instituted in an attempt to normalize fluid status. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 119.

180
Q

Untreated diabetes insipidus leads to what medical condition?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Severe dehydration
C. Coma
D. Status epilepticus

A

A. Hyponatremia
B. Severe dehydration
C. Coma
D. Status epilepticus

The main complication of untreated diabetes insipidus is severe dehydration Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 120.

181
Q

How much secretory capacity for ADH must be lost before central diabetes insipidus occurs?
A. 25%
B. 55%
C. 85%
D. 100%

A

A. 25%
B. 55%
C. 85%
D. 100%

Approximately 85% capacity to secrete ADH must be lost before symptoms of DI will be evident. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 120.

182
Q

You are taking care of a conscious, ambulatory patient with mild diabetes insipidus. How should you manage the patient’s sodium?
A. Drink to thirst
B. DDAVP administration
C. Salt tablets
D. Hypertonic saline infusion

A

A. Drink to thirst
B. DDAVP administration
C. Salt tablets
D. Hypertonic saline infusion

In an awake, conscious and ambulatory patient with mild diabetes insipidus, sodium levels should be monitored, but patients should be allowed to drink to thirst. They are often able to effectively manage their sodium via thirst mechanisms. Utilization of DDAVP occurs in unconscious patients or those who cannot adequately compensate using standard thirst mechanisms. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 123.

183
Q

At what dose does the use of a dopamine infusion become a vasoconstrictor rather than a positive inotrope?
A. > 2 µg/kg/min
B. > 5 µg/kg/min
C. > 10 µg/kg/min
D. > 15 µg/kg/min

A

A. > 2 µg/kg/min
B. > 5 µg/kg/min
C. > 10 µg/kg/min
D. > 15 µg/kg/min

At doses from 2-10 µg/kg/min, dopamine is a positive inotrope, but remember that at least 25% of IV dopamine is converted to norepinephrine, so at doses > 10 µg/kg/min you are essentially giving norepinephrine and the alpha/beta/dopaminergic receptors are all activated. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 128.

184
Q

You elect to use dobutamine to increase the cardiac output of one of your postop patients. How long will this medication be effective?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours

A

A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours

Dobutamine increases cardiac output by positive inotropy, but patients will exhibit tachyphylaxis after approximately 72 hours of administration. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 128.

185
Q

How long can an outpatient be on steroids before you should consider starting GI (ulcer) prophylaxis?
A. < 2 days
B. < 1 week
C. < 3 weeks
D. < 6 months
E. 1 year

A

A. < 2 days
B. < 1 week
C. < 3 weeks
D. < 6 months
E. 1 year

Generally speaking, patients who are on daily steroid medications should receive GI prophylaxis to prevent steroid induced ulcers after they have been on the medication for 3 weeks or longer. Acutely hospitalized patients or postoperative patients on steroids should be on GI prophylaxis as the stress of the hospitalization can lead to stress ulcer formation Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 129.

186
Q

One unit of platelets (out of a “six pack”) is expected to raise the platelet count by approximately how much?
A. 1 to 5K
B. 5 to 10K
C. 10 to 15K
D. 15 to 20K

A

A. 1 to 5K
B. 5 to 10K
C. 10 to 15K
D. 15 to 20K

One unit of platelets (out of the standard six pack) will raise the platelet count approximately 5 to 10K. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 155.

187
Q

What platelet count should cause you to transfuse platelets even in the setting of no evidence of bleeding?
A. 10K
B. 30K
C. 50K
D. 75K

A

A. 10K
B. 30K
C. 50K
D. 75K

In the absence of evidence of bleeding, platelets should be transfused prophylactically when the count drops to 10K. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neuro- surgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 154.

188
Q

What is the dose for reversing unfractionated heparin utilizing protamine sulfate?
A. 1 mg protamine/10 u heparin
B. 1 mg protamine/100 u heparin
C. 1 mg protamine/1,000 u heparin
D. 1 mg protamine/10,000 u heparin

A

A. 1 mg protamine/10 u heparin
B. 1 mg protamine/100 u heparin
C. 1 mg protamine/1,000 u heparin
D. 1 mg protamine/10,000 u heparin

Protamine sulfate can be used to reverse the effects of unfractionated heparin, and should be administered in doses of 1 mg protamine/100 u heparin. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 158.

189
Q

You see a stable patient with a subdural hematoma who is on Dabigatran (Pradaxa). In order to reverse the anticoagulation you elect to give Idarucizumab (Praxbind). How long should you wait before proceeding to the operating room?
A. Immediately
B. 4 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

A

A. Immediately
B. 4 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is an effective reversal agent for the direct thrombin inhibitor Dabigatran (Pradaxa). It reverses the effects within 4 hours and lasts for 24 hours. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 165.

190
Q

You are evaluating a post-operative craniotomy patient in the PACU. The anesthesia team utilized succinylcholine during intubation. The patient appears to be tachypneic, tachycardia, severe rigidity and high fever. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Seizure
C. Malignant hyperthermia
D. Respiratory failure

A

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Seizure
C. Malignant hyperthermia
D. Respiratory failure

Malignant hyperthermia can occur after anesthetic use of volatile anesthetics, specifically halothane, or muscle relaxants such as succinylcholine. It is characterized by rigidity, tachycardia, tachypnea and severe fever. Further Reading: Keating, Goodrich, Packer. Tumors of the Pediatric Central Nervous System, 2nd edition, 2013, page 131.

191
Q

You are evaluating a postoperative craniotomy patient in the PACU. The anesthesia team utilized succinylcholine during intubation. The patient appears to be tachypneic, tachycardic, with severe rigidity and high fever. What medication should be administered?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Propofol
C. Dantrolene
D. Desmopressin

A

A. Benzodiazepines
B. Propofol
C. Dantrolene
D. Desmopressin

Malignant hyperthermia can occur after anesthetic use of volatile anesthetics, specifically halothane, or muscle relaxants such as succinylcholine. It is characterized by rigidity, tachycardia, tachypnea and severe fever. It should be treated with administration of dantrolene. Further Reading: Keating, Goodrich, Packer. Tumors of the Pediatric Central Nervous System, 2nd edition, 2013, page 131.

192
Q

You are evaluating a postoperative craniotomy patient in the PACU. The anesthesia team utilized succinylcholine during intubation. The patient appears to be tachypneic, tachycardic, with severe rigidity and high fever. This condition is thought to arise from genetic defects in what receptor?
A. Nicotinic
B. Ryanodine
C. NMDA
D. GABA

A

A. Nicotinic
B. Ryanodine
C. NMDA
D. GABA

Malignant hyperthermia can occur after anesthetic use of volatile anesthetics, specifically halothane, or muscle relaxants such as succinylcholine. It is characterized by rigidity, tachycardia, tachypnea and severe fever. It should be treated with administration of dantrolene. It is thought to occur in some cases due to genetic defects in the ryanodine receptor on the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Further Reading: Keating, Goodrich, Packer. Tumors of the Pediatric Central Nervous System, 2nd edition, 2013, page 131.

193
Q

Based on the NASCET study, what is the reduction in stroke risk after carotid endarterectomy in symptomatic patients with high grade stenosis at 18 months post-procedure compared to best medical management?
A. 6%
B. 11%
C. 17%
D. 23%
E. 28%

A

A. 6%
B. 11%
C. 17%
D. 23%
E. 28%

Based on NASCET, in patients with symptomatic high grade stenosis who undergo CEA with an acceptable perioperative risk, the reduction in stroke rate is 17% at 18 months. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1290. Harbaugh, Shaffrey, Couldwell, Berger. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update, 2015, page 96.

194
Q

Based on the current literature, what should the overall risk of postoperative complications be to justify a carotid endarterectomy for a patient with symptomatic high-grade stenosis?
A. 1% or less
B. 3% or less
C. 5% or less
D. 7% or less
E. 10% or less

A

A. 1% or less
B. 3% or less
C. 5% or less
D. 7% or less
E. 10% or less

Current literature suggests that you should have a 3% or less overall complication rate to justify performing a carotid endarterectomy. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1292. Harbaugh, Shaffrey, Couldwell, Berger. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update, 2015, page 96.

195
Q

You are evaluating a patient in the PACU in whom you just performed a left sided carotid endarterectomy. She reports that she has had two episodes since surgery of her usual amaurosis fugax TIA. Her neck is not enlarged. What is the next best step?
A. EEG
B. CT angiogram
C. MRI
D. Bedside decompression

A

A. EEG
B. CT angiogram
C. MRI
D. Bedside decompression

This patient is experiencing return of her preoperative symptoms after CEA. It is possible that the CEA site is undergoing thrombosis and should be emergently evaluated with a CT angiogram to determine patency of the vessel. If occluded, she should return to the OR for re-opening and treatment of the occlusion. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1293. Harbaugh, Shaffrey, Couldwell, Berger. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update, 2015, page 96.

196
Q

You are evaluating a patient in the ICU in whom you just performed a left-sided carotid endarterectomy approximately 12 hours ago. She reports that she has a fairly severe left-sided headache and her left eye hurts. What next step will most likely improve her symptoms?
A. Pain medication administration
B. CT angiogram
C. Blood pressure control
D. Operative exploration

A

A. Pain medication administration
B. CT angiogram
C. Blood pressure control
D. Operative exploration

This patient is likely experiencing cerebral hyperperfusion syndrome given that blood flow to the ipsilateral hemisphere has now greatly increased. This is a controversial area, but close blood pressure control can help decrease the symptoms of cerebral hyperperfusion syndrome. Imaging should be obtained as well to ensure that no hemorrhage has occurred. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1293.

197
Q

What is the most common cranial neuropathy to occur after carotid endarterectomy?
A. Hypoglossal palsy
B. Spinal accessory palsy
C. Vagus palsy
D. Glossopharyngeal palsy

A

A. Hypoglossal palsy
B. Spinal accessory palsy
C. Vagus palsy
D. Glossopharyngeal palsy

The distal hypoglossal nerve is often seen during the dissection for a carotid endarterectomy and a postoperative palsy has been reported to be as high as 8% in some series. Care should be taken to avoid damaging the hypoglossal nerve during the dissection. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1293.

198
Q

You are called emergently to the PACU to evaluate a post-operative carotid endarterectomy patient who is having trouble breathing. She has obvious stridor and her saturations are dropping. She appears to have a bulging mass in the operative site. What should you do?
A. CT Angiogram
B. Bedside decompression
C. Intubation
D. Oxygen administration

A

A. CT Angiogram
B. Bedside decompression
C. Intubation
D. Oxygen administration

This patient has an obvious arteriotomy closure disruption and it is causing tracheal deviation and respiratory compromise. While you may think intubation would be the initial management option, it can be difficult or impossible in patients with severe tracheal deviation, so bedside decompression of the clot should occur immediately, followed by intubation and return to the OR. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1294.

199
Q

You are evaluating a patient who just experienced a stroke with a small fixed deficit and evidence of high grade stenosis of the left carotid artery. You elect to offer a carotid endarterectomy. This procedure should be performed within what timeframe from the stroke onset to improve outcome?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 1 month

A

A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 1 month

Pooled analysis of the symptomatic carotid stenosis trials have demonstrated that there is a benefit for patients who receive a CEA within 2 weeks of stroke compared to those patients who had a CEA at greater than 2 weeks. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1291.

200
Q

The carotid revascularization endarterectomy versus stenting trial demonstrated what when comparing the outcomes of carotid angioplasty and stenting to carotid endarterectomy?
A. Superiority
B. Nonsuperiority
C. Inferiority
D. Noninferiority
E. Worsened outcomes

A

A. Superiority
B. Nonsuperiority
C. Inferiority
D. Noninferiority
E. Worsened outcomes

The CREST trial demonstrated non-inferiority of carotid angioplasty and stenting to open carotid endarterectomy. In many practices, surgeons utilize carotid angioplasty and stenting in patients with high-riding carotid bifurcations or very difficult appearing stenosis that might have a higher rate of operative complications. Further Reading: Harbaugh, Shaffrey, Couldwell, Berger. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update, 2015, page 96.

201
Q

To be considered a burst fracture, what aspects of the spine must be fractured?
A. Anterior cortex only
B. Anterior and posterior cortex
C. Anterior/posterior cortices and pedicles
D. Anterior/posterior cortices, pedicles and posterior ligamentous complex

A

A. Anterior cortex only
B. Anterior and posterior cortex
C. Anterior/posterior cortices and pedicles
D. Anterior/posterior cortices, pedicles and posterior ligamentous complex

A spinal fracture is considered a burst fracture when both the anterior and posterior cortices of the vertebral body are violated. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

202
Q

What type of fracture is demonstrated in the CT scan below?
A. Compression fracture
B. Burst fracture
C. Chance fracture
D. Fracture dislocation

A

A. Compression fracture
B. Burst fracture
C. Chance fracture
D. Fracture dislocation

A spinal fracture is considered a burst fracture when both the anterior and posterior cortices of the vertebral body are violated. This CT scan demonstrates a burst fracture of the lumbar spine. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

203
Q

You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who fell and has evidence of a lumbar burst fracture. Overall alignment appears to be intact and she has no neurologic compromise. What is the best step in management?
A. Observation and pain control only
B. TLSO bracing
C. Decompressive laminectomy
D. Fusion

A

A. Observation and pain control only
B. TLSO bracing
C. Decompressive laminectomy
D. Fusion

In most patients with asymptomatic burst fractures and preserved alignment, bracing is a viable option. Patients should be fitted with a TLSO brace andbaseline X-rays should be obtained. Follow-up X-raysin 6 weeks can be obtained to ensure no change inalignment. This treatment technique is based onthe Kirkham Wood study evaluating asymptomaticburst fractures managed with bracing alone. Somesurgeons are avoiding bracing completely in thesepatients, and this is a somewhat controversial issuethat is still undergoing further research. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

204
Q

To be considered a compression fracture, what aspects of the spine must be fractured?
A. Anterior cortex only
B. Anterior and posterior cortex
C. Anterior/posterior cortices and pedicles
D. Anterior/posterior cortices, pedicles and posterior ligamentous complex

A

A. Anterior cortex only
B. Anterior and posterior cortex
C. Anterior/posterior cortices and pedicles
D. Anterior/posterior cortices, pedicles and posterior ligamentous complex

A compression fracture of the spine occurs when imaging demonstrates violation of the anterior cortex only. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

205
Q

What type of fracture is demonstrated in the imaging below?
A. Compression fracture
B. Burst fracture
C. Chance fracture
D. Fracture dislocation

A

A. Compression fracture
B. Burst fracture
C. Chance fracture
D. Fracture dislocation

A spinal fracture is considered a compression fracture when the anterior cortex is violated but other aspects of the spine remain intact. This X-ray demonstrates a compression fracture. urther Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

206
Q

What force mechanism leads to the fracture in the image shown in Question 205?
A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Flexion distraction
D. Shear

A

A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Flexion distraction
D. Shear

This image demonstrates a compression fracture, evidenced by violation of only the anterior cortex. This injury occurs via a flexion compression loading mechanism with the axis of rotation located within the anterior vertebral body. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

207
Q

What force mechanism leads to the fracture in the image shown in Question 202?
A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Flexion distraction
D. Shear

A

A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Flexion distraction
D. Shear

This image demonstrates a burst fracture (violation of both the anterior and posterior cortices). This injury is caused by a pure axial load mechanism. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

208
Q

What force mechanism leads to the fracture in the image below?
A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Flexion distraction
D. Shear
E. Extension distraction

A

A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Flexion distraction
D. Shear
E. Extension distraction

This image demonstrates a three column pure bony injury, often referred to as a Chance fracture after the physician G.Q. Chance in 1948. It is caused by a flexion distraction force mechanism where the axis of rotation is anterior to the vertebral body. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1004.

209
Q

What force mechanism leads to the fracture in the image below?
A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Flexion distraction
D. Shear

A

A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Flexion distraction
D. Shear

This image demonstrates a severe spinal cord fracture caused by shear injury to the spinal column. It appears to be both a bony and soft tissue injury causing a fracture dislocation of the spine and certain ASIA A spinal cord injury. The forces applied to the spine in order to achieve this level of dislocation are significant. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1004.

210
Q

What force mechanism leads to the fracture in the image below?
A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Extension distraction
D. Shear

A

A. Flexion compression
B. Pure axial load
C. Extension distraction
D. Shear

This image demonstrates a three column spine fracture in a patient with evidence of ankylosis of the spine. While these patients form bone easily, the bone within the vertebral body is brittle and fractures easily. This fracture was caused by an extension distraction mechanism with the axis of rotation within the posterior spinal elements. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1004.

211
Q

What is the most common location for burst fractures of the spine?
A. T6-7
B. T9-10
C. T12-L1
D. L3-4

A

A. T6-7
B. T9-10
C. T12-L1
D. L3-4

Burst fractures are caused by pure axial load mechanisms and most often occur in the T12-L1 region since the T12-L1 vertebral bodies are the most centered in the midline between the lordotic lumbar spine and kyphotic thoracic spine. It is in this region where the force vector in a pure axial load mechanism is applied directly through the center of the vertebral body causing a dispersion fracture mechanism leading to disruption of the anterior and posterior vertebral cortices causing a burst fracture to occur. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

212
Q

Based on the thoracolumbar injury classification and severity score, how would you classify a burst fracture with indeterminate ligamentous injury and nerve root injury?
A. Operative
B. Nonoperative
C. “Gray zone”

A

A. Operative
B. Nonoperative
C. “Gray zone”

The TLICS score is becoming more common for evaluation and initial management of thoracolumbar traumatic injuries. Points are assigned based on fracture morphology, PLC integrity and presenting symptoms. In this setting, the patient gets 2 points for burst fracture, 2 points for indeterminate ligamentous status and 2 points for nerve root injury, leading to a score in the operative treatment range. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1007.

213
Q

Based on the thoracolumbar injury classification and severity score, how would you classify a burst fracture with intact posterior ligamentous complex and evidence of new urinary retention and flaccid plegia of the lower extremities?
A. Operative
B. Nonoperative
C. “Gray zone”

A

A. Operative
B. Nonoperative
C. “Gray zone”

The TLICS score is becoming more common for evaluation and initial management of thoracolumbar traumatic injuries. Points are assigned based on fracture morphology, PLC integrity and presenting symptoms. In this setting, the patient gets 2 points for burst fracture, 0 points for PLC integrity and 3 points for cauda equina syndrome, leading to an operative management. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1007.

214
Q

Based on the thoracolumbar injury classification and severity score, how would you classify a burst fracture with intact posterior ligamentous complex and full strength on examination?
A. Operative
B. Nonoperative
C. “Grey zone”

A

A. Operative
B. Nonoperative
C. “Grey zone”

The TLICS score is becoming more common for evaluation and initial management of thoracolumbar traumatic injuries. Points are assigned based on fracture morphology, PLC integrity and presenting symptoms. In this setting, the patient gets 2 points for burst fracture, 0 points for PLC integrity and 0 points for full strength exam leading to nonoperative management. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1007.

215
Q

Based on the thoracolumbar injury classification and severity score, ligamentous injury gives how many points for complete spinal cord injury?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

The TLICS score is becoming more common for evaluation and initial management of thoracolumbar traumatic injuries. Points are assigned based on fracture morphology, PLC integrity and presenting symptoms. 2 points are assigned for complete spinal cord injury, in comparison to 3 points assigned for cauda equina syndrome and incomplete spinal cord injury. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1007.

216
Q

Based on the thoracolumbar injury classification and severity score, ligamentous injury gives how many points for translational/rotational injury morphology?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

The TLICS score is becoming more common for evaluation and initial management of thoracolumbar traumatic injuries. Points are assigned based on fracture morphology, PLC integrity and presenting symptoms. 3 points are assigned for translational/rotational injury morphology. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1007.

217
Q

Based on the thoracolumbar injury classification and severity score, ligamentous injury gives how many points for definite injury to the posterior ligamentous complex?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

The TLICS score is becoming more common for evaluation and initial management of thoracolumbar traumatic injuries. Points are assigned based on fracture morphology, PLC integrity and presenting symptoms. 3 points are assigned for definite injury to the posterior ligamentous complex. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1007.

218
Q

According to the 3-column model of Denis, the posterior vertebral body is located in what column of the spine?
A. Anterior column
B. Middle column
C. Posterior column
D. Ligamentous complex

A

A. Anterior column
B. Middle column
C. Posterior column
D. Ligamentous complex

In the 3-column model of Denis, the posterior vertebral body is located within the middle column. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1002.

219
Q

According to the 3-column model of Denis, the facet joints are located within what column?
A. Anterior column
B. Middle column
C. Posterior column
D. Ligamentous complex

A

A. Anterior column
B. Middle column
C. Posterior column
D. Ligamentous complex

In the 3-column model of Denis, the facet joints are located within the posterior column. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1002.

220
Q

You are evaluating a 35-year-old woman who was just involved in a motor vehicle accident. On imaging you notice that she has evidence of transverse process fractures on the left from L3-5. Is this fracture pattern stable or unstable?
A. Stable
B. Unstable

A

A. Stable

Isolated transverse process fractures of the thoracolumbar spine are generally considered stable when not associated with other major injuries and can be managed expectantly. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 1003.

221
Q

Which type of odontoid fracture is considered stable?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

There are three types of odontoid fractures, and type III odontoid fractures extend at the base of the odontoid process slightly into the body of C2. If there is not significant distraction across the fracture, these fractures are usually considered stable compared to type I and type II injuries. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 978.

222
Q

Which type of odontoid fracture is pictured below?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

This plain X-ray demonstrates a type II odontoid fracture. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 979.

223
Q

What is generally thought to be the non-union rate for type II odontoid fractures at long-term follow-up?
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 50%
E. 70%

A

A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 50%
E. 70%

Approximately 30% of type II odontoid fractures will exhibit non-union at long-term follow-up. Specific rates depend on fracture characteristics including displacement and angulation, but 30% is a good rule to consider when deciding management. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 980.

224
Q

A measurement of atlanto-dental interval greater than what is suggestive of transverse ligament injury?
A. 3 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 9 mm
D. 12 mm

A

A. 3 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 9 mm
D. 12 mm

The generally accepted normal value for ADI is 3 mm or less. More than 3 mm and the integrity of the transverse ligament should be evaluated to determine stability. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 970.

225
Q

You are evaluating a 33-year-old woman who was in a motor vehicle accident and was thrown from the car as it flipped. Imaging is demonstrated below. What is the diagnosis?
A. Type II dens fracture
B. Traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis
C. Jefferson fracture
D. Atlanto-occipital disassociation

A

A. Type II dens fracture
B. Traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis
C. Jefferson fracture
D. Atlanto-occipital disassociation

These images demonstrate AOD as evidenced by the increased interval between the occiput and atlas. It is clearly very unstable, and often times this is a fatal injury. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 964.

226
Q

A powers ratio of what is suggestive of atlanto-occipital disassociation?
A. 1
B. < 1
C. > 1
D. 0

A

A. 1
B. < 1
C. > 1
D. 0

The powers ratio is used to diagnose AOD. It is measured by the length of a line drawn from the basion to the posterior arch of C1 divided by a line drawn from the opisthion to the anterior arch of C1. A ratio of > 1 is suggestive of AOD. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 964.

227
Q

Which type of traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis should not be put in traction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IIa
D. Type III
E. Type IV

A

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IIa
D. Type III
E. Type IV

The type IIa Hangman’s fracture exhibits distraction and angulation and should not be put in traction as there is risk of causing spinal cord injury in traction. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery, 8th edition, 2016, page 975.

228
Q

Which type of axis fracture is depicted below?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IIa
D. Atypical

A

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IIa
D. Atypical

This axis fracture is one of the atypical variety given that the fracture occurs through the base of the C2 vertebral body and the posterior cortex of the body is left in place rather than fracturing through the pedicles of C2. This fracture type should be evaluated closely as the spike of remaining vertebral body can cause the spinal cord to be draped over the shard anteriorly and cause spinal cord injury. Further Reading: Jallo, Vaccaro. Neurotrauma and Critical Care of the Spine, 2009, page 133.

229
Q

How much angulation is required to consider a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis to be a Type IIa injury?
A. 5 degrees
B. 11 degrees
C. 16 degrees
D. 21 degrees

A

A. 5 degrees
B. 11 degrees
C. 16 degrees
D. 21 degrees

Type IIa fractures of the axis are dangerous due to distraction and angulation. They should be recognized as they are a subset of fractures that should not be put in traction as this can worsen the injury type. Generally, 11 degrees of angulation should alert the neurosurgeon to the possible presence of a type IIa injury. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 975.

230
Q

Is this fracture stable or unstable?
A. Stable
B. Unstable

A

B. Unstable

This imaging demonstrates an elevated ADI both in the baseline X-ray and an increase in the ADI with flexion. This indicates likely transverse ligament injury. The TL is a stabilizing ligament and in the presence of injury, fusion should be considered as the atlantoaxial joint is likely unstable. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 971.

231
Q

What is the approximate AP diameter of the normal cervical spinal canal?
A. 10 mm
B. 13 mm
C. 17 mm
D. 21 mm
E. 25 mm

A

A. 10 mm
B. 13 mm
C. 17 mm
D. 21 mm
E. 25 mm

The normal cervical spinal canal is roughly 17 mm. When the AP diameter is 13 or less, congenital stenosis is likely present. Further Reading: Harbaugh, Shaffrey, Couldwell, Berger. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update, 2015, page 457.

232
Q

What is the approximate AP diameter of the normal cervical spinal cord?
A. 10 mm
B. 13 mm
C. 17 mm
D. 21 mm

A

A. 10 mm
B. 13 mm
C. 17 mm
D. 21 mm

The normal cervical spinal cord is roughly 10 mm. Further Reading: Harbaugh, Shaffrey, Couldwell, Berger. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update, 2015, page 457.

233
Q

You are evaluating a 14-year-old boy who fell backwards and hit his head on a rock. He lost consciousness but is fully awake in the trauma bay. He has a burning sensation in both his hands and forearms, and has some bilateral proximal lower extremity weakness. CT scan of the cervical spine is negative for acute fracture or displacement. What is the next best step?
A. Collar immobilization and observation
B. Posterior C3-7 laminectomy
C. Halo placement
D. MRI

A

A. Collar immobilization and observation
B. Posterior C3-7 laminectomy
C. Halo placement
D. MRI

This patient may have suffered spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality, but that cannot be fully determined until an MRI has been performed. The MRI will look for signal change within the spinal cord as well as the presence of any ligamentous injury. The patient should remain in a cervical collar until the results from the MRI are obtained. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 999.

234
Q

You are evaluating a 17-year-old adolescent girl who was in an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. Imaging is demonstrated, and she has significant posterior midline neck pain. What is the diagnosis?

A. Jumped facets
B. Traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis
C. Jefferson fracture
D. Tear drop fracture
E. Atlanto-occipital dislocation

A

A. Jumped facets
B. Traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis
C. Jefferson fracture
D. Tear drop fracture
E. Atlanto-occipital dislocation

This axial CT scan demonstrates jumped facets. This patient has a fracture dislocation with jumped facets. There could be an underlying spinal cord injury and reduction with closed traction should be performed. If the patient is awake and responsive, an MRI may not be necessary before traction is implemented as the patient has a reliable exam to follow. However, if the patient is unconscious, an MRI may be beneficial to rule out a large disc herniation that could be worsened with closed reduction. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 993.

235
Q

You are evaluating a construction worker who fell off a ladder and hit the back of his head. He has a reassuring head CT, but is having midline neck pain and his imaging is demonstrated below. What is the next best step?
A. Traction
B. Collar immobilization/observation
C. MRI scan
D. Posterior decompression/fusion

A

A. Traction
B. Collar immobilization/observation
C. MRI scan
D. Posterior decompression/fusion

This axial CT scan demonstrates a unilateral jumped facet. The superior articulating process on the left is dorsal to the inferior articulating process and there is evidence of rotation. This patient should likely be placed in traction. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 993.

236
Q

You are evaluating a patient who was just involved in a motor vehicle accident and is currently in a cervical collar with evidence of a fracture dislocation of C5-6 with anterior displacement. She has 2/5 strength in bilateral deltoids and 3-5 strength in bilateral biceps. She is awake and interactive. What is the next best step?
A. Traction
B. Collar immobilization/observation
C. MRI scan
D. Posterior decompression/fusion

A

A. Traction
B. Collar immobilization/observation
C. MRI scan
D. Posterior decompression/fusion

This patient is awake and has a neurologic exam that can be followed. Traction is safe to perform in this patient without an MRI scan first as you are able to follow her exam after addition of weight. If any change in the neuro exam occurs, the weight can be removed and the exam re-confirmed. Further Reading: Fessler, Sekhar. Atlas of Neurosurgical Techniques: Spine and Peripheral Nerves, 2nd edition, 2016, page 237.

237
Q

You are evaluating a patient who was just involved in a motor vehicle accident and is currently in a cervical collar with evidence of a fracture dislocation of C5-6 with anterior displacement. She was intubated and paralyzed at the scene. She remains on propofol and is not following commands. What is the next best step?
A. Traction
B. Collar immobilization/observation
C. MRI scan
D. Posterior decompression/fusion

A

A. Traction
B. Collar immobilization/observation
C. MRI scan
D. Posterior decompression/fusion

This patient is intubated and sedated and therefore is not able to provide an exam during traction. An MRI should be performed first to rule out the presence of a large disc fragment anteriorly that could compress the cord. Traction is safe to perform in a patient without an MRI scan if you are able to reliably follow a neurologic exam in an awake patient. If any change in the neuro exam occurs, the weight can be removed and the exam re-confirmed. With obtunded/intubated patients, an MRI should be performed first. Further Reading: Fessler, Sekhar. Atlas of Neurosurgical Techniques: Spine and Peripheral Nerves, 2nd edition, 2016, page 237.

238
Q

When applying traction, approximately how much weight should be applied per level?
A. 1 lb
B. 5 lbs
C. 10 lbs
D. 20 lbs
E. 25 lbs

A

A. 1 lb
B. 5 lbs
C. 10 lbs
D. 20 lbs
E. 25 lbs

Generally, when applying cervical traction, 10LBS of weight can be applied per level, but fluoroscopy should be utilized after the addition of any weight to determine if any change has occurred. If the patient is awake, an exam should be performed as well after the addition of any weight. Further Reading: Fessler, Sekhar. Atlas of Neurosurgical Techniques: Spine and Peripheral Nerves, 2nd edition, 2016, page 237.

239
Q

You are evaluating the images of a patient who, the ED told you, has a cervical fracture. You are looking at an open mouth odontoid view and you remember to calculate the “rule of Spence” This measurement is utilized to determine the integrity of which ligament?
A. Apical ligament
B. Alar ligaments
C. Transverse ligament
D. Atlanto-occipital membrane

A

A. Apical ligament
B. Alar ligaments
C. Transverse ligament
D. Atlanto-occipital membrane

The rule of Spence is calculated be measuring the displacement of the C1 lateral masses on the C2 joints. If the total overhang of the C1 lateral masses on the C2 joints is > 7 mm, disruption of the transverse ligament should be suspected. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 970.

240
Q

You are using the rule of Spence to determine the integrity of a cervical ligament. To calculate this the total overhang of the C1 lateral masses on the C2 joints should be greater than what to suggest ligament injury?
A. 4 mm
B. 7 mm
C. 11 mm
D. 15 mm
E. 20 mm

A

A. 4 mm
B. 7 mm
C. 11 mm
D. 15 mm
E. 20 mm

The rule of Spence is calculated be measuring the displacement of the C1 lateral masses on the C2 joints. If the total overhang of the C1 lateral masses on the C2 joints is > 7 mm, disruption of the transverse ligament should be suspected. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 970.

241
Q

You are evaluating a 45-year-old woman in whom you performed an L5-S1 right diskectomy 3 months ago. This improved her pain, but now it is back in the same distribution. You decide to obtain further imaging, what should you order?
A. Non-contrast lumbar CT
B. Contrast enhanced lumbar CT
C. Lumbar spine MRI without gadolinium
D. Lumbar spine MRI with gadolinium

A

A. Non-contrast lumbar CT
B. Contrast enhanced lumbar CT
C. Lumbar spine MRI without gadolinium
D. Lumbar spine MRI with gadolinium

This patient likely has a recurrent herniated lumbar disk and should be evaluated with a gadolinium enhanced lumbar spine MRI. Scar tissue will enhance homogeneously while a recurrent disk may peripherally enhance but will not demonstrate homogeneous enhancement. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1042.

242
Q

What percentage of patients with a lumbar disc herniation and leg pain will improve with 6 weeks of nonoperative management?
A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 100%

A

A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 100%

Approximately 85% of patients with a herniated lumbar disc will improve with 6 weeks of nonoperative management, thus an initial period of non-surgical management should be attempted before surgical decompression is considered. This does not include patients with progressive weakness or cauda equina syndrome. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1050.

243
Q

Which of these findings on exam would make you consider surgery for a herniated lumbar disc in the acute setting?
A. Sensory loss
B. Progressive weakness
C. Acute severe pain
D. Positive straight leg raise

A

A. Sensory loss
B. Progressive weakness
C. Acute severe pain
D. Positive straight leg raise

While many patients with a HLD will improve with non-operative management, patients with progressive weakness of the lower extremity should be considered for more rapid intervention given the possibility of preserving or improving motor strength in the acute phase. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1050.

244
Q

What is the most consistent finding in acute cauda equina syndrome?
A. Saddle anesthesia
B. Motor weakness
C. Urinary retention
D. Bowel incontinence

A

A. Saddle anesthesia
B. Motor weakness
C. Urinary retention
D. Bowel incontinence

Urinary retention is the most consistent finding in CES, and has a sensitivity of approximately 90%. Patients can be evaluated with post void residual measurement. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1050.

245
Q

In patients with confirmed acute cauda equina syndrome and urinary retention, how many are able to return to normal bladder function?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

A

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Urinary retention is the most consistent finding in CES, and has a sensitivity of approximately 90%. Patients can be evaluated with post void residual measurement. In patients with urinary retention and confirmed CES, only 50% will return to full bladder function. When full saddle anesthesia develops, few patients will return to normal bladder function Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1051.

246
Q

You have booked a patient for surgery on a herniated lumbar disk with associated radicular leg pain. She asks what percentage of patients will be pain free 1 year postop, what do you quote her?
A. ~ 25%
B. ~ 50%
C. ~ 75%
D. ~ 100%

A

A. ~ 25%
B. ~ 50%
C. ~ 75%
D. ~ 100%

Approximately 73% of patients will be free of leg pain 1 year after surgery for a herniated lumbar disc. At 5 to 10 years the number drops to 62%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1057.

247
Q

You have booked a patient for surgery on a herniated lumbar disk with associated radicular leg pain. She asks what percentage of patients will experience a recurrent herniation, what do you quote her?
A. 1% at 10 years
B. 4% at 10 years
C. 7% at 10 years
D. 10% at 10 years

A

A. 1% at 10 years
B. 4% at 10 years
C. 7% at 10 years
D. 10% at 10 years

According to current literature, the rate of re- current disc herniation at the same level on either side is approximately 4% at 10 years, with 1/3rd of those patients experiencing the recurrence within the 1st year postoperation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1061.

248
Q

You are seeing a patient back in follow-up in whom you performed an uncomplicated ACDF at C5-6. You are looking at flexion/extension films to evaluate whether or not the patient has developed a pseudoarthrosis. How much movement of the spinous processes between flex/ex films is tolerated to be considered a stable fusion?
A. 0 mm
B. 2 mm or less
C. 5 mm or less
D. 10 mm or less

A

A. 0 mm
B. 2 mm or less
C. 5 mm or less
D. 10 mm or less

ACDFs should be evaluated in follow-up with flexion/extension films. To evaluate for a pseudoarthrosis, measurements should be taken between the spinous processes at that level. Movement greater than 2 mm between flex/ex films should make you consider that a pseudoarthrosis is present at that level. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1077.

249
Q

What makes up the roof of the lateral recess of the lumbar spine?
A. Spinous process
B. Pedicle
C. Superior articulating process
D. Inferior articulating process

A

A. Spinous process
B. Pedicle
C. Superior articulating process
D. Inferior articulating process

The superior articulating process of the lumbar spine makes up the roof of the gutter, or lateral recess and often causes nerve root impingement. When there is abnormal motion, the facets hypertrophy and this, in the setting of redundant ligamentum flavum and bulging discs, stenosis and nerve root impingement occurs. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1097.

250
Q

What is the normal height of the lateral recess as measured on lumbar spine CT?
A. 3 mm or greater
B. 5 mm or greater
C. 7 mm or greater
D. 9 mm or greater

A

A. 3 mm or greater
B. 5 mm or greater
C. 7 mm or greater
D. 9 mm or greater

When measured on CT scans of the lumbar spine, the normal lateral recess height is 3 mm or greater. A patient could be symptomatic at a height of 3 mm if other pathology is present, i.e., ligamentum flavum hypertrophy or disc bulging. In the absence of these findings, 3 to 4 mm should be adequate height that does not lead to symptoms when in extension. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1102.

251
Q

In a patient with L4-5 spondylolisthesis, which nerve root is likely to be compressed?
A. L3
B. L4
C. L5
D. S1
E. S2

A

A. L3
B. L4
C. L5
D. S1
E. S2

In spondylolisthesis, the nerve root of the upper involved vertebral body is usually compressed. This is due to the superior articulating process of the vertebral body below as well as retropulsion of disc material. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1098.

252
Q

A fusion should be strongly considered with what levels of spondylolisthesis listed below (Meyerding classification)?
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, IV
D. IV only

A

A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, IV
D. IV only

A fusion should be strongly considered in any cases of spondylolisthesis beyond grade I based on the Meyerding classification. Flexion extension plain films should also be obtained to determine whether or not there is worsening of the spondylolisthesis in flexion. This finding would lead you to more strongly consider a fusion operation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1104.

253
Q

What is the most common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in the spine?
A. L4-5 spondylolisthesis
B. Atlantoaxial subluxation
C. Thoracic disc herniation
D. Ankylosing spondylitis

A

A. L4-5 spondylolisthesis
B. Atlantoaxial subluxation
C. Thoracic disc herniation
D. Ankylosing spondylitis

25% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis will exhibit exaggerated movement of the atlantoaxial joint, occasionally manifesting as frank instability and subluxation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1134.

254
Q

70% of spinal cord syrinxes are associated with what condition?
A. Chiari I malformation
B. Chiari II malformation
C. Chiari III malformation
D. Chiari IV malformation

A

A. Chiari I malformation
B. Chiari II malformation
C. Chiari III malformation
D. Chiari IV malformation

70% of spinal cord syrinxes are associated with chiari I malformations. They can also be seen after trauma to the spinal cord. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1144.

255
Q

You are seeing a 40-year-old woman who has been found to have an incidentally discovered spinal cord syrinx within the cervical spinal cord. She is currently asymptomatic. What do you recommend?
A. Observation/serial imaging
B. Percutaneous drainage
C. Syringosubarachnoid shunt
D. Posterior fossa decompression

A

A. Observation/serial imaging
B. Percutaneous drainage
C. Syringosubarachnoid shunt
D. Posterior fossa decompression

Asymptomatic incidentally discovered spinal cord syrinxes should be initially observed with serial imaging over several years. If there is growth or symptoms arise, treatment can be considered. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1147.

256
Q

You are performing a syringosubarachnoid shunt for a patient with a spinal cord syrinx. Where should you enter the spinal cord to place the shunt catheter?
A. Dorsal root entry zone
B. Midline
C. Anterior to the dentate ligament
D. Dorsal column

A

A. Dorsal root entry zone
B. Midline
C. Anterior to the dentate ligament
D. Dorsal column

The shunt catheter should be placed in the dorsal root entry zone. This is different from spinal cord tumors which should be approached through a midline myelotomy. In the case of a syrinx, the DREZ may be the thinnest portion of the spinal cord and sensory deficits from the syrinx may already be present, not placing any further neurologic function at risk. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1147.

257
Q

You are performing a syringosubarachnoid shunt for a patient with a spinal cord syrinx. What is the rate of clinical stabilization at 10-year follow-up with this procedure?
A. 13%
B. 37%
C. 54%
D. 86%

A

A. 13%
B. 37%
C. 54%
D. 86%

According to current literature, clinical stabilization is seen in 54% of patients who receive a syringosubarachnoid shunt for spinal cord syrinx at 10-year follow-up. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1147.

258
Q

Spinal epidural lipomatosis is associated with chronic use of what medication?
A. Methotrexate
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Octreotide
D. Oxycodone

A

A. Methotrexate
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Octreotide
D. Oxycodone

Spinal epidural lipomatosis is associated with prolonged use of exogenous steroids. It leads to overgrowth of epidural fat which can be compres- sive to the spinal cord. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1150.

259
Q

You are seeing a patient with a BMI of 43 who has symptoms of pseudoclaudicatory pain and evidence of spinal epidural lipomatosis on MR imaging. What would be a good initial treatment option?
A. Weight loss
B. Epidural steroid injection
C. Lumbar laminectomy
D. Lumbar laminectomy and fusion

A

A. Weight loss
B. Epidural steroid injection
C. Lumbar laminectomy
D. Lumbar laminectomy and fusion

In obese patients not on steroid therapy, an initial trial of weight loss may reverse the symptoms and imaging findings of spinal epidural lipomatosis. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neuro- surgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1150.

260
Q

You are seeing a patient with a BMI of 43 who has symptoms of pseudoclaudicatory pain and evidence of spinal epidural lipomatosis on MR imaging. What diameter of epidural fat is a useful guideline to diagnose spinal epidural lipomatosis?
A. > 3 mm
B. > 5 mm
C. > 7 mm
D. > 9 mm

A

A. > 3 mm
B. > 5 mm
C. > 7 mm
D. > 9 mm

It has been suggested that a width of 7 mm or greater epidural fat should be present to make the diagnosis of spinal epidural lipomatosis. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 1150.

261
Q

Symptomatic adjacent segment disease occurs at what percentage per year after ACDF?
A. 2.9%
B. 6.7%
C. 12.3%
D. 16.5%

A

A. 2.9%
B. 6.7%
C. 12.3%
D. 16.5%

According to the literature, symptomatic adjacent segment disease occurs at roughly 2.9%/year after ACDF. The 10-year overall rate has been found to be 25.6%. Further Reading: Hilibrand et al. Radiculopathy and myelopathy at segments adjacent to ACDF. JBJS 1999.

262
Q

Which of these fusion mechanisms describes a solid matrix for new bone to form within?
A. Osteogenesis
B. Osteoconduction
C. Osteoinduction
D. Osteointegration

A

A. Osteogenesis
B. Osteoconduction
C. Osteoinduction
D. Osteointegration

There are three main principles of bone formation, osteogenesis, osteoinduction, and osteoconduction. Osteoconduction describes the placement of a solid matrix/scaffold for bone to form within. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 626.

263
Q

The load-bearing rule of Harms states what per- centage of axial loading of the spine is borne by the anterior and posterior columns, respectively?
A. 50-50
B. 20-80
C. 80-20
D. 60-40

A

A. 50-50
B. 20-80
C. 80-20
D. 60-40

The rule of Harms suggests that 80% of the axial load bearing capacity is borne by the anterior column, while 20% is borne by the posterior column. This becomes important when considering spinal fusion surgery and need for anterior or posterior fusion procedures. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery knowledge update. 2015, page 627.

264
Q

What is the 5-year fusion rate for patients undergoing a single level ACDF?
A. 80%
B. 85%
C. 90%
D. 95%

A

A. 80%
B. 85%
C. 90%
D. 95%

According to a series of 140 patients followed to 5 years, the rate of fusion for single level ACDF was 97%. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 526.

265
Q

Which of the following is not part of the NEXUS criteria for management of questioned C-spine injuries in the emergency department?
A. No midline tenderness
B. No distracting injury
C. Presence of a cervical collar
D. Awake/interactive patient

A

A. No midline tenderness
B. No distracting injury
C. Presence of a cervical collar
D. Awake/interactive patient

The nexus criteria were developed to decrease unnecessary C-spine imaging. It includes no midline tenderness, no focal neurologic deficit, normal alertness, no intoxication and no painful distracting injury. When all of these are present, imaging can be avoided with a negative predictive value of 99.8% Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 503.

266
Q

Which of these factors is not part of the McCormack and Gaines load-sharing classification of thoracolumbar fractures?
A. Degree of comminution
B. Posterior ligamentous complex injury
C. Fracture apposition
D. Degree of kyphosis

A

A. Degree of comminution
B. Posterior ligamentous complex injury
C. Fracture apposition
D. Degree of kyphosis

The McCormack load sharing classification was developed to help surgeons decide whether or not a short segment fusion would be sufficient to fix certain types of thoracolumbar fractures. The classification takes into account degree of fracture comminution, fracture fragment apposition and degree of kyphosis in determining the length of the construct. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 503.

267
Q

True or false; high-dose methylprednisolone should be administered to patients who have a traumatic cervical spinal cord injury with neurologic deficit.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

While this remains an area of some controversy, multiple studies have failed to demonstrate benefit from the administration of high dose methylprednisolone in the setting of cervical SCI. Current guidelines do not recommend the use of steroids in this setting. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 505.

268
Q

You are seeing a patient with a cervical spinal cord injury and you decide to provide blood pressure augmentation. What should your target mean arterial pressure be?
A. 70 mm Hg
B. 85 mm Hg
C. 100 mm Hg
D. 115 mm Hg

A

A. 70 mm Hg
B. 85 mm Hg
C. 100 mm Hg
D. 115 mm Hg

Most surgeons and intensivists support MAP
augmentation after spinal cord injury. Often the
MAP goals are 85-90 mm Hg.
Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery
Knowledge Update. 2015, page 505.

269
Q

A classic “chance” fracture is considered to be what type of fracture in the AO classification system?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

The AO classification system is designed to describe fracture morphology. Type A injuries are often compression injuries, Type B are distraction injuries and Type C are rotational. An easy way to remember this is Type A = Axial (loading), Type B = Bending (forward or backward with distraction) and Type C = Circular (translational injuries). There is no type D. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 508.

270
Q

According to the SPORT trial, what were the findings on intention-to-treat analysis for patients undergoing treatment for lumbar disc herniation?
A. No difference between groups
B. Significant benefit of surgery out to 4 years
C. Significant benefit of conservative management out to 4 years
D. No improvement with either management strategy

A

A. No difference between groups
B. Significant benefit of surgery out to 4 years
C. Significant benefit of conservative management out to 4 years
D. No improvement with either management
strategy

The SPORT trial was used to look at outcomes after various spine management strategies. For lumbar disc herniations, there was no difference between conservative and surgical management out to 4 years of follow-up on intention-to-treat analysis, however there was a 22% cross-over between groups, a common criticism of this study Further Reading: Weinstein et al. Surgical versus nonoperative treatment for lumbar disc herniation. Spine, 2008.

271
Q

According to the SPORT trial, what were the findings on as-treated analysis for patients undergoing treatment for lumbar disc herniation?
A. No difference between groups
B. Significant benefit of surgery out to 4 years
C. Significant benefit of conservative management out to 4 years
D. No improvement with either management strategy

A

A. No difference between groups
B. Significant benefit of surgery out to 4 years
C. Significant benefit of conservative management out to 4 years
D. No improvement with either management
strategy

The SPORT trial was used to look at outcomes after various spine management strategies. For lumbar disc herniations, there was no difference between conservative and surgical management out to 4 years of follow-up on intention-to-treat analysis, however there was a 22% cross-over between groups, a common criticism of this study. When the subset as-treated analysis was performed, there was a significant improvement in all outcomes measured in the surgical group compared to conservative management with the exception of return to work. Further Reading: Weinstein et al. Surgical versus non-operative treatment for lumbar disc hernia- tion. Spine, 2008.

272
Q

What percentage of the facet should be preserved in order to maintain stability during a lumbar laminectomy for stenosis?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

A

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Many surgeons feel that 50% of the facet joint should remain intact during a simple decompression to preserve stability at that level. Further resection may cause iatrogenic instability. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 521.

273
Q

What percentage of patients with achondroplasia will have evidence of spinal stenosis?
A. 10%
B. 35%
C. 67%
D. 90%

A

A. 10%
B. 35%
C. 67%
D. 90%

Patients with achondroplasia are at risk for several conditions affecting the spine including foramen magnum stenosis, spinal stenosis and thoracolumbar kyphosis. Spinal stenosis can be observed in up to 90% of patients with achondroplasia. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 542.

274
Q

You are seeing a patient with evidence of a radio-resistant metastatic lesion causing epidural spinal cord compression. Which of the following would lead you to avoid surgical decompression?
A. Multiple non-contiguous stenotic regions
B. < 6 months life expectancy
C. Total paraplegia for 24 hours
D. Age > 65

A

A. Multiple non-contiguous stenotic regions
B. < 6 months life expectancy
C. Total paraplegia for 24 hours
D. Age > 65

The Patchell study demonstrated that in patients with metastatic epidural spinal cord compression, wide decompression and reconstruction if appropriate can keep patients ambulating and extend life expectancy with several caveats. The patient’s paraplegia must be < 48 hours, there cannot be multiple non-contiguous stenotic regions and the life expectancy should be 3 months or greater. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 600.

275
Q

You are seeing a 65-year-old patient with evidence of a radio-resistant metastatic lesion causing epidural spinal cord compression at T12-L1. She has had complete paraplegia for the last 18 hours. Her life expectancy from primary disease is thought to be 6 months. Would you offer her wide surgical decompression and appropriate reconstruction?
A. Yes
B. No

A

A. Yes

The Patchell study demonstrated that in patients with metastatic epidural spinal cord compression, wide decompression and reconstruction if appropriate can keep patients ambulating and extend life expectancy with several caveats. The patient’s paraplegia must be < 48 hours, there cannot be multiple non-contiguous stenotic regions and the life expectancy should be 3 months or greater. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 600.

276
Q

What is the normal sagittal vertical axis measurement in the adult population?
A. -5-0 cm
B. 0-5 cm
C. 6-10 cm
D. 11-15 cm

A

A. -5-0 cm
B. 0-5 cm
C. 6-10 cm
D. 11-15 cm

The sagittal vertical axis is a measurement taken from a plum line dropped midway through the C7 vertebral body. A measurement is taken from the posterior superior corner of the sacrum to the plumb line to determine the distance. Normal is 0-5 cm. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 546.

277
Q

Which of these pelvic parameters cannot be changed?
A. Sagittal vertical axis
B. Pelvic tilt
C. Pelvic incidence
D. Sacral slope

A

A. Sagittal vertical axis
B. Pelvic tilt
C. Pelvic incidence
D. Sacral slope

The pelvic parameters are made up of the pelvic tilt, the pelvic incidence and the sacral slope. Of these, the pelvic incidence (measured as the angle from a line perpendicular to the sacral surface and a line drawn from the midpoint of the sacral surface to the midpoint of the femoral head) cannot be changed. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 546.

278
Q

According to recent literature, better outcomes are demonstrated when the difference between the pelvic incidence and lumbar lordosis is what?
A. 1 degree or less
B. 10 degrees or less
C. 20 degrees or less
D. 30 degrees or less
E. 40 degrees or less

A

A. 1 degree or less
B. 10 degrees or less
C. 20 degrees or less
D. 30 degrees or less
E. 40 degrees or less

It is becoming clear that pelvic incidence and lumbar lordosis are related measurements, and patient outcomes are improved when the difference between these two measurements are 10 degrees or less. If there is a large mismatch between the PI and LL, further evaluation should occur because a larger deformity may be present. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 548.

279
Q

Which of these is not a compensatory mechanism in patients with a severely positive sagittal vertical axis?
A. Pelvic retroversion
B. Knee flexion
C. Pelvic incidence reduction
D. Cervical extension

A

A. Pelvic retroversion
B. Knee flexion
C. Pelvic incidence reduction
D. Cervical extension

When patients have an abnormally positive sagittal vertical axis there are several mechanisms that they use to compensate in order to keep vision at the horizontal level. They utilize pelvic retroversion, knee flexion and cervical extension to maintain a view to the horizon. Pelvic incidence cannot be changed. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 548.

280
Q

What is the mean lumbar lordosis in normal adults?
A. ~ 20 degrees
B. ~ 40 degrees
C. ~ 60 degrees
D. ~ 80 degrees

A

A. ~ 20 degrees
B. ~ 40 degrees
C. ~ 60 degrees
D. ~ 80 degrees

Lumbar lordosis is measured by the Cobb angle between the superior endplate of L1 and the sacral surface. The mean value for adults is 62 degrees +/− 11 degrees. It is important to restore lumbar lordosis if possible, as well as match the PI–LL to within 10 degrees or less. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 548.

281
Q

In the cervical spine, approximately how much axial load is borne by the anterior and posterior columns, respectively?
A. 50%-50%
B. 35%-65%
C. 65%-35%
D. 80%-20%

A

A. 50%-50%
B. 35%-65%
C. 65%-35%
D. 80%-20%

In the cervical spine, the anterior vertebral body does not bear the axial weight in the same distribution as the lumbar spine. In the cervical spine, approximately 35% of the axial load is borne by the anterior column and 65% is borne by the posterior column.

282
Q

In coronal plane deformity, dextroscoliosis means diversion of the spine to which side?
A. Right
B. Left

A

A. Right

For coronal plane deformities, the term dextroscoliosis refers to right sided diversion, where levoscoliosis depicts a leftward deviation. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015. Page 558.

283
Q

Which pelvic parameter is determined by an angle measured from a line drawn from the mid-sacral surface to the midpoint of the femoral head and then straight up?
A. Sacral slope
B. Pelvic tilt
C. Pelvic incidence
D. Sagittal vertical axis

A

A. Sacral slope
B. Pelvic tilt
C. Pelvic incidence
D. Sagittal vertical axis

This measurement describes the pelvic tilt. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 558.

284
Q

Which of these pelvic parameter relationships is
true?
A. PI = PT + SS
B. PI = PT - SS
C. PT = SS + PI
D. SS = PI + PT
E. Sagittal vertical axis

A

A. PI = PT + SS
B. PI = PT - SS
C. PT = SS + PI
D. SS = PI + PT
E. Sagittal vertical axis

Pelvic incidence can be determined using the sacral slope and pelvic tilt. They are related in the fashion PI = PT + SS. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 558.

285
Q

You are seeing a patient with a lumbar lordosis measured at 21 degrees and a pelvic incidence of 60 degrees. These two measurements lead you to a potential diagnosis of what?
A. Lumbar kyphosis
B. Coronal scoliosis
C. Flat-back syndrome
D. Ankylosing spondylitis

A

A. Lumbar kyphosis
B. Coronal scoliosis
C. Flat-back syndrome
D. Ankylosing spondylitis

In this patient, there is a large mismatch in the PI/LL. Further, lumbar lordosis of only 21 degrees is concerning for flat-back syndrome. This patient very likely has a positive SVA and is at risk for poor outcome without some correction of the abnormal parameters. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 559.

286
Q

According to Schwab, when planning to correct a scoliotic patient, SVA should be < 5 cm, PI/LL should be within 10 degrees and pelvic tilt should be what?
A. < 50 degrees
B. < 40 degrees
C. < 30 degrees
D. < 20 degrees

A

A. < 50 degrees
B. < 40 degrees
C. < 30 degrees
D. < 20 degrees

Ideally patients should be corrected such that their PI/LL mismatch is within 10 degrees, their pelvic tilt is < 22 degrees and their SVA is < 5 cm. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 560.

287
Q

According to the Smith et al. scoliosis research
study, the rate of major medical complications in
patients undergoing scoliosis surgery in the 65 to
85 years of age range was what?
A. 6%
B. 15%
C. 29%
D. 44%
E. 56%

A

A. 6%
B. 15%
C. 29%
D. 44%
E. 56%

Patients aged 65 to 85 years who undergo scoli- osis correction procedures have a ~ 30% rate of major medical morbidity in the perioperative setting. Further Reading: Smith et al. Neurological symptoms and deficits in adults with scoliosis. JNS:Spine 2008.

288
Q

According to the Smith et al. scoliosis research study, the rate of improvement in disability and leg pain was most significant in what age group?
A. 18 to 24 years
B. 25 to 44 years
C. 45 to 64 years
D. 65 to 85 years

A

A. 18 to 24 years
B. 25 to 44 years
C. 45 to 64 years
D. 65 to 85 years

Patients aged 65 to 85 years who undergo scoliosis correction procedures have the highest rate of improvement in disability and leg pain postoperatively. Further Reading: Smith et al. Neurological symptoms and deficits in adults with scoliosis. JNS:Spine, 2008.

289
Q

According to current literature, the majority of patients who develop proximal junctional kyphosis after a spinal fusion procedure will exhibit symptoms within what time interval?
A. < 2 years
B. < 1 year
C. < 6 months
D. < 3 months

A

A. < 2 years
B. < 1 year
C. < 6 months
D. < 3 months

There are a wide range of studies that report incidence of proximal junctional kyphosis after spine fusion surgery. There seems to be a consensus that a large number of these cases (~ 60%) develop within the first 3 months after surgery. Further Reading: Harbaugh et al. Neurosurgery Knowledge Update. 2015, page 565.

290
Q

This patient under went a thoracolumbar fusion for scoliosis correction. The immediate postoperative x-ray is demonstrated, as well as an x-ray 1 week later. What is the diagnosis?
A. Instrumentation failure
B. Proximal junctional kyphosis
C. Inadequate correction
D. Infection

A

A. Instrumentation failure
B. Proximal junctional kyphosis
C. Inadequate correction
D. Infection

This image demonstrates a proximal junctional kyphosis, which can occur after large scoliosis fusion procedures. Care should be taken when exposing the top level of the construct to avoid excessive muscle damage or damage to the posterior ligamentous complex/facet joints above the upper instrumented vertebrae to decrease the chances for development of PJK. Further Reading: Vialle, Lenke, Cheung. AOSpine Masters Series, Volume 4: Adult Spinal Deformities. 2015, page 107.

291
Q

A major curve with a Cobb angle of what has been shown to lead to progression of deformity?
A. > 10 degrees
B. > 20 degrees
C. > 30 degrees
D. > 40 degrees

A

A. > 10 degrees
B. > 20 degrees
C. > 30 degrees
D. > 40 degrees

A Cobb angle of > 30 degrees has been demonstrated to be an independent predictor of deformity progression in patients with scoliosis. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1111.

292
Q

Is a structural scoliosis curve considered flexible or nonflexible?
A. Flexible
B. Nonflexible

A

B. Nonflexible

There are two types of curves, structural and nonstructural. Structural cures are not flexible, and this is demonstrated by the fact that they do not correct during side bending. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1112.

293
Q

To determine coronal balance, a plumb line is drawn from the C7 spinous process on AP radiograph and compared to the central sacral vertical line. For coronal balance to be normal, the offset should be within what distance?
A. 10 cm or less
B. 4 cm or less
C. 2 cm or less
D. 7 cm or less

A

A. 10 cm or less
B. 4 cm or less
C. 2 cm or less
D. 7 cm or less

Coronal balance is measured using a C7 plumb line compared to the central sacral vertical line on AP radiograph. Normal is an offset of 4 cm or less. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1115.

294
Q

How much correction of lordosis can be achieved at each level utilizing a Smith-Peterson osteotomy?
A. 5 to 10 degrees
B. 11 to 15 degrees
C. 16 to 20 degrees
D. 21 to 25 degrees

A

A. 5 to 10 degrees
B. 11 to 15 degrees
C. 16 to 20 degrees
D. 21 to 25 degrees

A Smith Peterson osteotomy involves removing the facets, some lamina and the ligamentum flavum at a particular level and compressing this space to achieve lordosis. On average, 5 to 10 degrees of lordosis can be achieved with this technique per level. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1117.

295
Q

How much correction of lordosis can be achieved at each level utilizing a pedicle subtraction osteotomy?
A. 5 to 10 degrees
B. 11 to 20 degrees
C. 21 to 30 degrees
D. 31 to 40 degrees

A

A. 5 to 10 degrees
B. 11 to 20 degrees
C. 21 to 30 degrees
D. 31 to 40 degrees

A pedicle subtraction osteotomy involves removing a triangle of bone including the facet joint, some lamina and a portion of the pedicle bilaterally with the hinge point at the ALL and then compressing this space posteriorly. Doing this procedure can lead to ~ 30 degrees of correction for each level. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1117.

296
Q

An ALIF (anterior lumbar interbody fusion) is best utilized at what level?
A. L2-3
B. L3-4
C. L4-5
D. L5-S1

A

A. L2-3
B. L3-4
C. L4-5
D. L5-S1

An ALIF is a direct anterior approach to the lumbar spine for interbody fusion. It is best uti- lized for fusion of the L5-S1 space given that the great vessels have split and do not need to be mobilized. Further, significant correction of lordosis can be achieved and this correction is magnified by performing this procedure at the lowest level in the spine. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1118.

297
Q

What leg function is at the highest risk during the DLIF (direct lateral interbody fusion) procedure?
A. Hip flexion
B. Knee extension
C. Knee flexion
D. Ankle dorsiflexion

A

A. Hip flexion
B. Knee extension
C. Knee flexion
D. Ankle dorsiflexion

The DLIF procedure involves either splitting the psoas muscle or going just anterior to the psoas for exposure. This puts the femoral nerve at risk for traction or direct injury during surgery, thus knee extension weakness can be seen postoperatively. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1116.

298
Q

What is a major reported risk of performing a pedicle subtraction osteotomy?
A. Durotomy
B. Massive blood loss
C. Infection
D. Iatrogenic spine fracture

A

A. Durotomy
B. Massive blood loss
C. Infection
D. Iatrogenic spine fracture

Performing a PSO can be difficult and may lead to very significant blood loss, up to 3 L reported in one series. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1118.

299
Q

A pedicle subtraction osteotomy places the ful- crum of the correction at what point in the spine?
A. Facets
B. Posterior longitudinal ligament
C. Mid-vertebral body
D. Anterior longitudinal ligament

A

A. Facets
B. Posterior longitudinal ligament
C. Mid-vertebral body
D. Anterior longitudinal ligament

The fulcrum at the operative level after per- forming a PSO is the anterior longitudinal ligament. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1118.

300
Q

Releasing the anterior column (cutting the ALL) can lead to approximately how much improvement in sagittal vertical axis per level?
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm

A

A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm

After cutting the ALL, approximately 3 cm of SVA correction can be achieved at each level. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1117.

301
Q

You just performed an uncomplicated L3-5 laminectomy on a 75-year-old man and you have been called from the neurosurgery floor with a report that he has had a sudden worsening of his back pain and he is now demonstrating significant weakness in both lower extremities that was not present preoperatively. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epidural hematoma
B. Deep venous thrombosis
C. Spinal cord injury
D. Proximal junctional kyphosis

A

A. Epidural hematoma
B. Deep venous thrombosis
C. Spinal cord injury
D. Proximal junctional kyphosis

This patient is likely experiencing a postoperative spinal epidural hematoma and should be evaluated immediately. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1131.

302
Q

You just performed an uncomplicated L3-5 laminectomy on a 75-year-old man and you have been called from the neurosurgery floor with a report that he has had a sudden worsening of his back pain and he is now demonstrating significant weakness in both lower extremities that was not present preoperatively. You suspect an epidural hematoma. What is the next best step?
A. Bedside reopening
B. Spinal imaging
C. Observation
D. Administration of PCCs
E. EMG

A

A. Bedside reopening
B. Spinal imaging
C. Observation
D. Administration of PCCs
E. EMG

This patient is likely experiencing a postoperative spinal epidural hematoma and should be evaluated immediately. It would be wise to proceed with spinal imaging to determine the extent of the hematoma prior to returning to the OR to avoid the need to perform exploratory laminectomies to find the clot. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1131.

303
Q

Patients with spinal cord injury have a high rate of subsequent development of deep venous thrombosis. What is the overall mortality after DVT in SCI patients?
A. 3%
B. 9%
C. 15%
D. 21%
E. 25%

A

A. 3%
B. 9%
C. 15%
D. 21%
E. 25%

In SCI patients who develop DVTs, mortality has been shown to be 9% in one series. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 952.

304
Q

A deep venous thrombosis that is limited to the calf has what approximate risk of embolization?
A. < 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%

A

A. < 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%

A DVT that is limited to the calf only has a minute risk of embolism that is less than 1%. DVTs that extend into the more proximal venous system are higher risk. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 167.

305
Q

You are taking care of a 33-year-old woman on whom you just performed a battery replacement procedure for a vagal nerve stimulator. She will stay overnight in the hospital. Based on her DVT risk, what is the recommended prophylaxis?
A. Pneumatic compression boots/none
B. SQ heparin 5,000 BID
C. 1,000 u heparin/hour infusion
D. Initiate warfarin

A

A. Pneumatic compression boots/none
B. SQ heparin 5,000 BID
C. 1,000 u heparin/hour infusion
D. Initiate warfarin

This patient falls under the low risk category (< 40, procedure < 30 minutes, mobile), and therefore no pharmacologic prophylaxis is required. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 169.

306
Q

You are taking care of a 68-year-old man on whom you just performed a L3-5 decompressive laminectomy and fusion. Based on his DVT risk, what is the recommended prophylaxis?
A. Pneumatic compression boots/none
B. SQ heparin 5,000 BID
C. 1,000 u heparin/hour infusion
D. Initiate warfarin

A

A. Pneumatic compression boots/none
B. SQ heparin 5,000 BID
C. 1,000 u heparin/hour infusion
D. Initiate warfarin

This patient falls under the medium risk category (> 40, procedure > 30 minutes, decreased mobility), and therefore pharmacologic prophylaxis either with SQ heparin BID/TID or LMWH is indicated when deemed safe from a postoperative perspective Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 169.

307
Q

You are taking care of a 68-year-old man on whom you just performed a L3-5 decompressive laminectomy and fusion. What is his approximate risk of developing a deep venous thrombosis?
A. < 10%
B. 10 to 40%
C. 41 to 80%
D. 81 to 100%

A

A. < 10%
B. 10 to 40%
C. 41 to 80%
D. 81 to 100%

This patient falls under the medium risk category (> 40, procedure > 30 minutes, decreased mobility), and therefore pharmacologic prophylaxis either with SQ heparin BID/TID or LMWH is indicated when deemed safe from a postoperative perspective. Overall risk in this group is approxi- mately 10 to 40%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 169.

308
Q

You are taking care of a 68-year-old man on whom you just performed a resection of a right temporal GBM. What is his approximate risk of developing a deep venous thrombosis?
A. < 10%
B. 10 to 40%
C. 41 to 80%
D. 81 to 100%

A

A. < 10%
B. 10 to 40%
C. 41 to 80%
D. 81 to 100%

This patient falls under the high risk category (> 40, procedure > 30 minutes, metastatic disease or high grade glial neoplasm), and therefore pharmacologic prophylaxis either with SQ heparin BID/ TID or LMWH is indicated when deemed safe from a postoperative perspective. Overall risk in this group is approximately 41 to 80%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 169.

309
Q

What is the study of choice to order when you suspect a pulmonary embolism?
A. D-dimer
B. DVT ultrasound of the lower extremity
C. Contrast enhanced CT scan
D. Coagulation parameters

A

A. D-dimer
B. DVT ultrasound of the lower extremity
C. Contrast enhanced CT scan
D. Coagulation parameters

The contrast enhanced CT scan of the lungs under the PE protocol is the study of choice if your clinical suspicion is high enough for PE. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 170.

310
Q

You are taking care of a 68-year-old man in whom you just resected a large right temporal GBM. On postoperative day 3, he is found to be tachypneic and tachycardic with desaturations. Contrast enhanced CT demonstrates a pulmonary embolism. Postop MRI does not demonstrate any evidence of bleeding. You decide to treat, what medication should you order?
A. SQ heparin 5,000 u TID
B. IV heparin 5,000 u followed by 1,000 u/hr infusion
C. Fresh frozen plasma
D. Warfarin 5 mg daily

A

A. SQ heparin 5,000 u TID
B. IV heparin 5,000 u followed by 1,000 u/hr infusion
C. Fresh frozen plasma
D. Warfarin 5 mg daily

If the patient can be anticoagulated, IV heparin 5,000 u should be administered followed by hourly infusions of 1,000 u of heparin with monitoring and further titration based on APTT. In postoperative neurosurgical patients administration of heparin should be monitored closely and with any neurologic change a STAT head CT should be obtained. Intracranial hemorrhage can occur during heparin administration. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 170.

311
Q

Acute oliguria is defined as urine output of what?
A. < 100 mL/day
B. < 400 mL/day
C. < 800 mL/day
D. < 1,200 mL/day

A

A. < 100 mL/day
B. < 400 mL/day
C. < 800 mL/day
D. < 1,200 mL/day

It is important to monitor postoperative I/Os especially for elderly patients or patients who have had a large procedure. Oliguria is characterized by < 400 mL of urine production/day Further Reading: Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 510.

312
Q

NSAIDs predominantly cause what type of acute oliguric renal failure?
A. Prerenal
B. Intrinsic renal
C. Postrenal
D. Ureteral

A

A. Prerenal
B. Intrinsic renal
C. Postrenal
D. Ureteral

NSAIDS, along with ACE inhibitors and se- vere hypovolemia cause prerenal oliguric renal failure. NSAIDS cause this by promoting renal vasoconstriction. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 620. Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 510.

313
Q

Acute tubular necrosis is considered what type of oliguric renal failure?
A. Prerenal
B. Intrinsic renal
C. Postrenal
D. Ureteral

A

A. Prerenal
B. Intrinsic renal
C. Postrenal
D. Uretera

ATN is an intrinsic renal failure as the epithelial cells slough off and form an obstruction within the renal tubules. This is often caused by ischemia. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 621. Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 510.

314
Q

You are evaluating an 80-year-old man with oliguria. Urinary sodium is 18 mEq/L. Is this renal failure likely prerenal or intrinsic renal?
A. Prerenal
B. Intrinsic renal

A

A. Prerenal

This patient likely has pre-renal oliguric renal failure given the low urinary sodium. When perfusion is limited, urinary sodium excretion decreases, leading to a low urinary sodium. Urinary sodium < 20 mEq/L helps to establish the diagnosis. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 623. Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 510.

315
Q

You are evaluating an 80-year-old man with oliguria. Urinary sodium is 49 mEq/L. Is this renal failure likely prerenal or intrinsic renal?
A. Prerenal
B. Intrinsic renal

A

B. Intrinsic renal

With intrinsic renal disease, urinary sodium excretion increases (compared to pre-renal where it decreases) and a urine sodium of > 40 mEq/L can help lead to the diagnosis. Urinary sodium cannot distinguish the patient that has intrinsic renal failure with a superimposed pre-renal syndrome however, so it is not absolute. Further Reading: Marino, The ICU Book, page 623. Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 510.

316
Q

You are evaluating an 80-year-old man with oliguria. Fractional excretion of sodium is < 1%. Is this renal failure likely prerenal or intrinsic renal?
A. Prerenal
B. Intrinsic renal

A

A. Prerenal

In patients with renal failure, FEna can be useful to determine etiology. A FEna of < 1% suggests pre-renal oliguria. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 623. Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, page 510.

317
Q

What is the most serious arrhythmia associated with magnesium deficiency?
A. . Polymorphous ventricular tachycardia
(torsades)
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Bradycardia
D. Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

A

A. Polymorphous ventricular tachycardia
(torsades)

B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Bradycardia
D. Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

Patients with severe magnesium deficiency can develop severe cardiac arrhythmias, including torsade de pointes (polymorphous ventricular tachycardia). Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 665. Citow, Macdonald, Refai. Comprehensive Neurosurgery Board Review, 2nd edition, 2010, critical care section.

318
Q

What calcium lab value is the physiologically important value?
A. Total calcium
B. Ionized calcium

A

A. Total calcium
B. Ionized calcium

Calcium exists in the plasma in several forms, including protein bound (~ 50%) and ionized forms. The protein bound calcium is mostly bound to levels of albumin, which can fluctuate. The total calcium lab value fluctuates with this change, but the ionized calcium level remains the same, and it is the most important physiologic calcium level. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 674.

319
Q

Tetany is seen in what calcium state?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia

A

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia

Hypocalcemia can manifest neurologically with muscular and cardiac excitability as well as hyperreflexia. Tetany is seen in severe cases of hypocalcemia. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 677.

320
Q

Refeeding syndrome is characterized by severe abnormalities in which electrolyte?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Phosphorous

A

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Phosphorous

Refeeding syndrome occurs in patients with chronic malnutrition and alcoholics. In these patients, the body already has severely low levels of phosphorous, and when a glucose load is given, phosphorous follows glucose into the cell and serum levels of phosphorous can drop to dangerous levels. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 682.

321
Q

What is the current risk of being infected with HIV after a blood transfusion?
A. 1 in 20,000
B. 1 in 200,000
C. 1 in 2,000,000
D. 1 in 20,000,000

A

A. 1 in 20,000
B. 1 in 200,000
C. 1 in 2,000,000
D. 1 in 20,000,000

The current reported risk of HIV seroconversion after receiving blood contaminated with HIV is roughly 1 in 2,000,000. Further Reading: http://www.redcrossblood.org/ learn-about-blood/blood-transfusions/risks- complications

322
Q

What is the current risk of being infected with Hepatitis B after a blood transfusion?
A. 1 in 30,000
B. 1 in 300,000
C. 1 in 3,000,000
D. 1 in 30,000,000

A

A. 1 in 30,000
B. 1 in 300,000
C. 1 in 3,000,000
D. 1 in 30,000,000

The current reported risk of Hepatitis B infection after receiving blood contaminated with the virus is roughly 1 in 300,000. Further Reading: http://www.redcrossblood.org/ learn-about-blood/blood-transfusions/risks- complications

323
Q

What is the major clinical risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Thrombosis
C. Hypotension
D. Hypertension

A

A. Hemorrhage
B. Thrombosis
C. Hypotension
D. Hypertension

The major risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is thrombosis, not hemorrhage. HIT occurs when heparin combines with platelet factor 4 and forms an antigenic complex leading to production of IgG. The IgG then binds to platelets and promotes clumping of platelets which can ultimately lead to thrombosis of vessels. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 711.

324
Q

What is the initial management step for treating heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
A. Platelet transfusion
B. Warfarin administration
C. Stop all heparin
D. Fluid resuscitation

A

A. Platelet transfusion
B. Warfarin administration
C. Stop all heparin
D. Fluid resuscitation

The initial management of HIT is to of course stop all forms of heparin administration, including heparinized catheters and heparin flushes. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 711.

325
Q

Which of these factors is likely to induce hypokalemia?
A. Beta agonists
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Hyperthermia

A

A. Beta agonists
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Hyperthermia

Beta agonists (albuterol for example) can lead to transcellular shift of potassium and cause a serum hypokalemia. Other factors that can cause this include insulin administration, alkalosis and hypothermia. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 649.

326
Q

Which of these factors is likely to induce hyperkalemia?
A. Beta agonists
B. Insulin administration
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Hypothermia

A

A. Beta agonists
B. Insulin administration
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Hypothermia

Potassium acts as a buffering agent for hydro- gen ions at the cellular level. When a patient is acidotic, hydrogen ions are shuttle into the cell in exchange for potassium which is shifted extracellularly. This can help decrease the acidosis, but a resultant hyperkalemia can occur. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 653.

327
Q

At what potassium level would you expect to see changes in the ECG?
A. 5.5 mEq/L
B. 6.0 mEq/L
C. 6.5 mEq/L
D. 7.0 mEq/L
E. 8.0 mEq/L

A

A. 5.5 mEq/L
B. 6.0 mEq/L
C. 6.5 mEq/L
D. 7.0 mEq/L
E. 8.0 mEq/L

Hyperkalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, and changes on a patient’s ECG can be seen with levels of 6.0 mEq/L.
Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 655.

328
Q

What is the first ECG change observed in patients with hyperkalemia?
A. Increased PR interval
B. Peaked T waves
C. Widening of the QRS complex
D. Asystole

A

A. Increased PR interval
B. Peaked T waves
C. Widening of the QRS complex
D. Asystole

Hyperkalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, and changes on a patient’s ECG can be seen with levels of 6.0 mEq/L. Often the first sign is a tall, peaked T wave. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 655.

329
Q

You are evaluating a postop patient who was feeling funny and the electrolyte panel returned with a potassium of 7.3 mEq/L. The ECG demonstrates loss of P waves. What should be your first step in management?
A. Call a code
B. Administer calcium gluconate
C. Obtain echocardiogram
D. Recheck the electrolyte panel

A

A. Call a code
B. Administer calcium gluconate
C. Obtain echocardiogram
D. Recheck the electrolyte panel

Hyperkalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, and changes on a patient’s ECG can be seen with levels of 6.0 mEq/L. Often the first sign is a tall, peaked T wave. Advanced ECG changes include loss of the P wave and widening of the QRS complex. In patients with advanced ECG changes and hyperkalemia, initial management should include administration of calcium gluconate, as calcium antagonizes the membrane effects of potassium. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 655.

330
Q

You are evaluating a postop patient who was feeling normal and the electrolyte panel returned with a potassium of 7.8 mEq/L. The ECG looks unchanged from preop. What should be your first step in management?
A. Call a code
B. Administer calcium gluconate
C. Obtain echocardiogram
D. Recheck the electrolyte panel

A

A. Call a code
B. Administer calcium gluconate
C. Obtain echocardiogram
D. Recheck the electrolyte panel

Hyperkalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, and changes on a patient’s ECG can be seen with levels of 6.0 mEq/L. Often the first sign is a tall, peaked T wave. Advanced ECG changes include loss of the P wave and widening of the QRS complex. In patients with advanced ECG changes and hyperkalemia, initial management should include administration of calcium gluconate, as calcium antagonizes the membrane effects of potassium. In clinically normal patients with no ECG changes, the potassium level should be repeated due to the high rate of pseudohyperkalemia (20%) caused by traumatic hemolysis. Further Reading: Marino. The ICU Book, page 652.

331
Q

According to the SRS-Schwab classification, a lumbar curve with a Cobb angle of > 30 degrees but a thoracic curve < 30 degrees would be classified as what?
A. T
B. L
C. D
D. N

A

A. T
B. L
C. D
D. N

A coronal curve > 30 degrees is considered a major curve and a patient with a lumbar curve of > 30 degrees and a thoracic curve < 30 degrees would be considered an L according to the SRSSchwab classification. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1112.

332
Q

According to the SRS-Schwab classification, a lumbar curve with a Cobb angle of > 30 degrees and an opposite thoracic curve > 30 degrees would be considered what?
A. T
B. L
C. D
D. N

A

A. T
B. L
C. D
D. N

A coronal curve > 30 degrees is considered a major curve and a patient with a lumbar curve of > 30 degrees and a thoracic curve > 30 degrees would be considered a D according to the SRSSchwab classification. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1112.

333
Q

According to the Oswestry disability index, what score would indicate that activities of daily living are affected by the patient’s pain?
A. 0 to 20%
B. 21 to 40%
C. 41 to 60%
D. 61 to 80%

A

A. 0 to 20%
B. 21 to 40%
C. 41 to 60%
D. 61 to 80%

The ODI has been used to characterize patient’s pain, and a score of 41 to 60% would indicate that the patient’s pain is interfering with multiple activities, including activities of daily living. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1026.

334
Q

According to the Oswestry disability index, what score would indicate that the patient has pain, but it can be improved and dealt with utilizing repositioning and activity modification?
A. 0 to 20%
B. 21 to 40%
C. 41 to 60%
D. 61 to 80%

A

A. 0 to 20%
B. 21 to 40%
C. 41 to 60%
D. 61 to 80%

The ODI has been used to characterize patient’s pain, and a score of 0-20% would indicate that the patient’s pain is managed with repositioning and mild activity modification. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neuro- surgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1026.

335
Q

What Meyerding grade would this spondylolisthesis be?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

The Meyerding classification is used to quantify the grade of spondylolisthesis. Grade 1 is 0 to 25%, grade 2 is 25 to 50%, etc. This case is a grade 2 spondylolisthesis. Further Reading: Abdulhak, Marzouk. Challenging Cases in Spine Surgery, 2006, page 100.

336
Q

You are seeing a patient in the emergency department who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has a C5-6 fracture dislocation with no preserved motor or sensory function below this level. What is the ASIA score?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Given that this patient does not have motor or sensory function below the level of injury, they would classify as an ASIA A injury. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1607.

337
Q

You are seeing a patient in the emergency department who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has a C5-6 fracture dislocation with sensation in the lower extremities, but no appreciable movement below C5. What is the ASIA score?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Given that this patient has no motor function below the injury but has preserved sensation they would be classified as an ASIA B injury. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1607.

338
Q

You are seeing a patient in the emergency department who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has a cervical fracture with perched facets and interspinous widening on CT scan. On exam he is ASIA B. What is the SLIC score for fracture morphology?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

According to the SLIC system, this patient’s fracture morphology would classify as distraction (perched facets) and receive a score of 3. This score is added to PLC integrity and neurology to determine the final score. A score of 5 suggests operative intervention is likely required. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1607.

339
Q

You are seeing a patient in the emergency department who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has a cervical fracture with perched facets and interspinous widening on CT scan. On exam he is ASIA B. What is the SLIC score for interspinous widening?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

According to the SLIC system, this patient’s fracture morphology would classify as distraction (perched facets) and receive a score of 3. The interspinous widening suggests possible PLC injury and 1 point would be scored given the indeterminate PLC status. A score of 5 suggests operative intervention is likely required. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1607.

340
Q

You are seeing a patient in the emergency department who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has a cervical fracture with perched facets and interspinous widening on CT scan. On exam he is ASIA B. What is the SLIC score for the neurologic exam?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

According to the SLIC system, this patient’s fracture morphology would classify as distraction (perched facets) and receive a score of 3. The interspinous widening suggests possible PLC injury and 1 point would be scored given the indeterminate PLC status. Given the incomplete status of the neurologic injury, a score of 3 points is given for neurology. A score of 5 suggests operative intervention is likely required. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 1607.

341
Q

When examining muscle strength based on the MRC (modified research council) system, full range of motion against gravity gives what score?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

The MRC grading system is widely used to grade muscle strength. A strength grade of 3 is full range of motion strength against gravity. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 505.

342
Q

Which of these findings can only be observed on EMG?
A. Myoclonus
B. Fibrillations
C. Fasciculations
D. Tetany

A

A. Myoclonus
B. Fibrillations
C. Fasciculations
D. Tetany

Fibrillation potentials occur with muscle denervation and can only be observed on EMG. Fasciculations occur with the death of anterior horn cells and are observable at rest. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 506.

343
Q

What time frame is generally used to denote a time frame of denervation after which there is little hope of recovery of motor function?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months

A

A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months

Generally, after a muscle has atrophied after a period of denervation lasting 24 months there is little to no hope of recovery of function even with nerve grafting. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 510.

344
Q

What is the timeframe for recovery of a neurapraxic peripheral nerve injury?
A. 6 to 8 days
B. 6 to 8 weeks
C. 6 to 8 months
D. 6 to 8 years

A

A. 6 to 8 days
B. 6 to 8 weeks
C. 6 to 8 months
D. 6 to 8 years

While some neurapraxic peripheral nerve injuries will recover in hours, in many cases it can take 6 to 8 weeks for full recovery. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 551.

345
Q

What finding separates a neurapraxia from axo- notmesis based on the Seddon classification?
A. Fasciculations
B. Preserved SNAP
C. Wallerian degeneration
D. Presence of voluntary potentials

A

A. Fasciculations
B. Preserved SNAP
C. Wallerian degeneration
D. Presence of voluntary potentials

Based on the Seddon classification, there are three types of peripheral nerve injuries, neurapraxia (conduction block but preservation of the axon, spontaneous recovery occurs), axonotmesis (disruption of the axon but preservation of surrounding structures) and neurotmesis (complete disruption of the nerve structure). In axonotmesis and neurotmesis, Wallerian degeneration occurs distal to the injury, but it does not in neurapraxia. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 551.

346
Q

According to the Sunderland classification, what nerve injury involves disruption of the endoneurium with preserved perineurium and epineurium?
A. Grade I
B. Grade II
C. Grade III
D. Grade IV

A

A. Grade I
B. Grade II
C. Grade III
D. Grade IV

The Sunderland classification further subdivides the neurotmesis group of the Seddon classification. Sunderland grade I is the same as neurapraxia, Sunderland grade II is the same as axonotmesis (disruption of axon), grade III involves disruption of the endoneurium with preservation of the perineurium and epinerium, grade IV involves disruption of the perineurium and grade V involves disruption of all supporting fibers. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 551.

347
Q

According to the Sunderland classification, what nerve injury involves disruption of the endoneurium and perineurium with preservation of the epineurium?
A. Grade I
B. Grade II
C. Grade III
D. Grade IV

A

A. Grade I
B. Grade II
C. Grade III
D. Grade IV

The Sunderland classification further subdivides the neurotmesis group of the Seddon classification. Sunderland grade I is the same as neurapraxia, Sunderland grade II is the same as axonotmesis (disruption of axon), grade III involves disruption of the endoneurium with preservation of the perineurium and epinerium, grade IV involves disruption of the perineurium and grade V involves disruption of all supporting fibers. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 551.

348
Q

According to the Sunderland classification, what nerve injury involves disruption of the axon and all supporting structures?
A. Grade II
B. Grade III
C. Grade IV
D. Grade V

A

A. Grade II
B. Grade III
C. Grade IV
D. Grade V

The Sunderland classification further subdivides the neurotmesis group of the Seddon classification. Sunderland grade I is the same as neurapraxia, Sunderland grade II is the same as axonotmesis (disruption of axon), grade III involves disruption of the endoneurium with preservation of the perineurium and epinerium, grade IV involves disruption of the perineurium and grade V involves disruption of all supporting fibers. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 551.

349
Q

What exam finding might help you differentiate between a Sunderland grade IV lesion and a Sunderland grade III lesion?
A. Fibrillation potentials
B. Muscle atrophy
C. Immobile Tinel’s sign
D. MRC grade IV strength

A

A. Fibrillation potentials
B. Muscle atrophy
C. Immobile Tinel’s sign
D. MRC grade IV strength

In patients with grade III injuries, there will likely be a Tinel’s sign over the area of injury that slowly progresses distally with nerve regeneration. This generally does not occur in grade IV injuries as a neuroma in continuity develops. At one month follow-up, a grade IV lesion will likely have a Tinel’s sign at the same location, whereas a grade III lesion likely will have demonstrated some distal transition Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 551.

350
Q

In a Sunderland grade II injury, movement of the Tinel’s sign on exam should progress distally at what rate?
A. 1 mm/day
B. 1 cm/day
C. 1 mm/week
D. 1 cm/month

A

A. 1 mm/day
B. 1 cm/day
C. 1 mm/week
D. 1 cm/month

Nerves regenerate at roughly 1 mm/day. In grade II lesions, the Tinel’s sign should progress distally at a rate of approximately 1 mm/day. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 551.

351
Q

You are evaluating a 34-year-old man who punched through a plate glass window at 1 AM and has a large laceration on the lateral aspect of his elbow. He had a complete wrist drop immediately after the injury. You suspect a radial nerve injury. The wound appears clean. Repair of the nerve should occur within what interval?
A. < 6 hours
B. < 24 hours
C. < 72 hours
D. < 1 week

A

A. < 6 hours
B. < 24 hours
C. < 72 hours
D. < 1 week

In clean transection injuries, direct nerve repair should be undertaken within 72 hours for the best outcome. Further Reading: http://digitalcommons.unl.edu/ cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1002&context=usuhs

352
Q

You are evaluating a 34-year-old man who was using a chainsaw to cut down a tree and lost control of the saw resulting in a severe injury to his elbow. Has a large laceration on the lateral aspect of his elbow. He had a complete wrist drop immediately after the injury. You suspect a radial nerve injury. The wound has evidence of wood fragments and dirt present as well as a compound fracture of the bone. Regarding the nerve injury, what is the next best step?
A. Immediate debridement and direct repair
B. Debridement and tagging of the nerve endings
C. Debridement and closure of the wound
D. Debridement and nerve graft

A

A. Immediate debridement and direct repair
B. Debridement and tagging of the nerve endings
C. Debridement and closure of the wound
D. Debridement and nerve graft

In cases of contaminated nerve injury, wound debridement should occur and transected edges of nerve should be tagged and sutured to local structures to prevent nerve ending retraction. Antibiotics should be administered and nerve repair can occur when any infection has been fully treated. A contaminated nerve injury should not be immediately repaired as any subsequent infection may inhibit nerve regeneration. Further Reading: http://digitalcommons.unl.edu/ cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1002&context=usuhs

353
Q

You are evaluating a 34-year-old man who punched through a plate glass window at 1 AM and has a large laceration on the lateral aspect of his elbow. He had a complete wrist drop immediately after the injury. You suspect a radial nerve injury. The wound appears clean. You elect to operate. What technique will most likely provide the best functional outcome?
A. Direct nerve repair
B. Nerve graft repair
C. Nerve transfer
D. Tendon transfer

A

A. Direct nerve repair
B. Nerve graft repair
C. Nerve transfer
D. Tendon transfer

In clean transection injuries, direct nerve repair should be undertaken within 72 hours for the best outcome. Direct neurorrhaphy will likely provide the best functional outcome rather than nerve grafting or other techniques. This is assuming a tension free repair is possible. Further Reading: http://digitalcommons.unl.edu/ cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1002&context=usuhs

354
Q

After a nerve injury that is suspected to be a Sunderland grade II or higher, initial EMG should be performed after what time interval?
A. 24 hours
B. 1 week
C. 3 weeks
D. 3 months

A

A. 24 hours
B. 1 week
C. 3 weeks
D. 3 months

In suspected cases of Sunderland grade II+ lesions, initial EMG should be performed approximately 3 weeks after the injury to allow Wallerian degeneration to occur. Even in an axonotmesis or neurotmesis level injury, the distal stump can continue to conduct for 1 week after the injury. This topic is somewhat controversial however, as some believe that immediate EMG can be beneficial for injury localization. Further Reading: http://digitalcommons.unl.edu/ cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1002&context=usuhs

355
Q

What is the most important factor when considering when to operate on a nerve injury that will likely require nerve grafting or direct repair?
A. Preoperative MRC grade
B. Distance from injury to end muscle
C. Age
D. Sunderland grade

A

A. Preoperative MRC grade
B. Distance from injury to end muscle
C. Age
D. Sunderland grade

In most cases, surgical repair utilizing end to end direct repair or grafting occurs sometime between 3 and 6 months after injury. Timing is based on several factors, but most importantly, the distance of nerve regeneration between the area of injury and the target muscle should be considered. Longer distances for regeneration should be operated earlier in an attempt to beat the “24-month rule” where irrecoverable atrophy of the muscle has occurred. Some surgeons consider 18 months the point at which irrecoverable atrophy has occurred. Further Reading: http://digitalcommons.unl.edu/ cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1002&context=usuhs

356
Q

A patient presents to your office with a brachial plexus injury asking if you will perform an operation to restore muscle function. Which muscle will you be very unlikely to provide any meaningful recovery to with a nerve repair operation?
A. Deltoid
B. Biceps
C. Triceps
D. Abductor pollicis brevis

A

A. Deltoid
B. Biceps
C. Triceps
D. Abductor pollicis brevis

At this time, recovery of hand function lost after brachial plexus injury is very unlikely to occur even with prompt surgical repair of the affected nerves. The distance required for nerve regeneration to the target muscle is too long and irreversible atrophy often occurs before regeneration can reach the hand. Further Reading: Campbell. Evaluation and Management of Peripheral Nerve Injuries, 2008.

357
Q

Which of these findings suggests a postganglionic injury to the brachial plexus?
A. Horner’s syndrome
B. Winged scapula
C. Pseudomeningocele on MRI
D. Disrupted SNAP

A

A. Horner’s syndrome
B. Winged scapula
C. Pseudomeningocele on MRI
D. Disrupted SNAP

It is important to determine whether a brachial plexus injury is pre-ganglionic or post-ganglionic. Preganglionic injuries are often caused by nerve root avulsion and no neurolysis or nerve repair of the brachial plexus will fix this type of injury. Patients with preganglionic injuries will often demonstrate a winged scapula (long thoracic loss), pseudomeningocele on MRI, a Horner’s syndrome (lower trunk injuries) and intact SNAP even in anesthetic regions. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 552.

358
Q

You are evaluating a 3-month-old child with an obstetrical brachial plexus palsy that appears to be upper trunk in nature (deltoid/bicep weakness with preserved hand function). What should be your recommendation?
A. Continue to observe
B. Perform plexus exploration

A

A. Continue to observe
B. Perform plexus exploration

Pure upper trunk obstetrical brachial plexus palsies should be observed in children as they have a 90% recovery rate. Surgery should be reserved for children who do not exhibit adequate recovery. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 553.

359
Q

Involvement of which nerve may help distinguish a preganglionic from a postganglionic brachial plexus injury?
A. Thoracodorsal nerve
B. Long thoracic nerve
C. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve

A

A. Thoracodorsal nerve
B. Long thoracic nerve
C. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve

The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior and can cause winging of the scapula. It branches at the root level of the brachial plexus and can be helpful in differentiating preganglionic from postganglionic injuries. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition. 2016, page 552.

360
Q

You are operating on an upper trunk brachial plexus injury and you have determined that it is a Sunderland grade IV injury that requires nerve grafting. Resecting the neuroma leads to a 3 cm gap. How much sural nerve should you harvest in order to bridge this gap?
A. 3 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 7 cm
D. 9 cm

A

A. 3 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 7 cm
D. 9 cm

The upper trunk has a larger diameter than the sural nerve, and therefore you should plan to harvest at least 3x the required distance of sural nerve in order to create a cable graft that will better approximate the diameter of the upper trunk. Further Reading: Campbell. Evaluation and Management of Peripheral Nerve Injuries, 2008.

361
Q

You have been called to the postanesthesia unit to evaluate your patient in whom you just performed a lumbar laminectomy that was uncomplicated. In the PACU she developed severe onset left shoulder pain and while her exam was initially normal per report, when you examine her she has 3/5 strength in the left deltoid while all other myotomes are full strength. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Positioning palsy
B. Idiopathic brachial plexitis
C. Nerve root stretch
D. Epidural hematoma

A

A. Positioning palsy
B. Idiopathic brachial plexitis
C. Nerve root stretch
D. Epidural hematoma

The onset of intense shoulder pain without weakness initially should concern you for the development of idiopathic brachial plexitis, or “Parsonage-Turner syndrome.” Often this presents with severe shoulder pain followed by development of weakness in one or more muscle groups. There are several potential etiologies including postoperative inflammatory reactions as well as viral disease, but nothing proven. Recovery is thought to be roughly 89% at 3 years. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 544.

362
Q

You have been called to the postanesthesia unit to evaluate your patient in whom you just performed a lumbar laminectomy that was uncomplicated. In the PACU she developed severe onset left shoulder pain and while her exam was initially normal per report, when you examine her she has 3/5 strength in the left deltoid while all other myotomes are full strength. You suspect Parsonage-Turner syndrome. Should you give steroids?
A. Yes
B. No

A

B. No

“Parsonage-Turner syThe onset of intense shoulder pain without weakness initially should concern you for the development of idiopathic brachial plexitis, or “Parsonage-Turner syndrome.” Often this presents with severe shoulder pain followed by development of weakness in one or more muscle groups. There are several potential etiologies including postoperative inflammatory reactions as well as viral disease, but nothing proven. Recovery is thought to be roughly 89% at 3 years. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, page 544.ndrome.” Often this presents with severe shoulder pain followed by development of weakness in one or more muscle groups. There are several potential etiologies including postoperative inflammatory reactions as well as viral disease, but nothing proven. Recovery is thought to be roughly 89% at 3 years. While many physicians give steroids, there are no studies demonstrating any benefit of steroids in this circumstance. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, non-entrapment peripheral neuropathies section.

363
Q

truther’s ligament leads to compression of what nerve?
A. Median
B. Ulnar
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous

A

A. Median
B. Ulnar
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous

The ligament of struthers is present in ~ 3% of patients and connects a supracondylar process (5 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle) to the medial epicondyle. The median nerve and brachial artery pass under the ligament which can cause median nerve compression. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

364
Q

What physical exam finding suggests an anterior interosseus nerve compression?
A. Benedictine hand
B. Froment’s sign
C. Abnormal pinch sign
D. Positive Phalen test

A

A. Benedictine hand
B. Froment’s sign
C. Abnormal pinch sign
D. Positive Phalen test

The anterior interosseus nerve is a pure motor branch of the median nerve that can be compressed by a vascular or soft tissue band as it branches. On exam there is an abnormal pinch sign (flat pinch) due to weakness of the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropa- thies section.

365
Q

You are seeing a 55-year-old drummer who has noticed the onset of weakness in grip strength of his right hand, dysesthesias of the radial 3 digits that wake him from sleep. You notice thenar atrophy. What should be your next step?
A. Give oral cortisone
B. Right carpal tunnel decompression
C. EMG
D. Steroid injection

A

A. Give oral cortisone
B. Right carpal tunnel decompression
C. EMG
D. Steroid injection

This patient has symptoms consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome. Physical exam findings can be somewhat unreliable, and EMG examination is the most sensitive test to localize the compression to the carpal tunnel. If possible, EMG should be performed to confirm prior to surgical decompression. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

366
Q

You are seeing a 55-year-old drummer who has noticed the onset of weakness in grip strength of his right hand, dysesthesias of the radial 3 digits that wake him from sleep. You notice thenar atrophy. EMG confirms carpal tunnel syndrome. You decide to offer surgery. What chance of satisfactory success should you quote the patient?
A. 35%
B. 55%
C. 75%
D. 95%

A

A. 35%
B. 55%
C. 75%
D. 95%

Carpal tunnel release has a reported satisfactory success rate of 75 to 90%. Clinical improvement generally peaks at 6 months, but sensory paresthesias may take even longer to respond. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

367
Q

What finding would you not expect to see in a patient with ulnar neuropathy caused by compression at Guyon’s canal?
A. Hypothenar atrophy
B. Sensory loss on the palmar aspect of the hand
C. Sensory loss on the dorsal aspect of the hand
D. Interossei weakness

A

A. Hypothenar atrophy
B. Sensory loss on the palmar aspect of the hand
C. Sensory loss on the dorsal aspect of the hand
D. Interossei weakness

The dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve branches from the ulnar nerve 5-8 cm proximal to Guyon’s canal, so if there is sensory numbness on the dorsum of the hand, the compression must be proximal to Guyon’s canal. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

368
Q

You are evaluating a police officer with a BMI of 35 who has noticed the onset of burning pain in his right thigh that has been fairly persistent for the last 2 months. It does not go below the knee and is mostly anteromedial on the thigh. It seems to go away when he rubs the leg during the day, and he doesn’t notice the pain when he is home from work. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Herniated lumbar disk
B. Discogenic back pain
C. Meralgia paresthetica
D. Muscle spasm

A

A. Herniated lumbar disk
B. Discogenic back pain
C. Meralgia paresthetica
D. Muscle spasm

This condition is most consistent with meralgia paresthetica, or compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. It often occurs in obese patients or people who wear tight fitting clothing, including belts. It has recently been described in runners. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

369
Q

You are evaluating a police officer with a BMI of 35 who has noticed the onset of burning pain in his right thigh that has been fairly persistent for the last 2 months. It does not go below the knee and is mostly anteromedial on the thigh. It seems to go away when he rubs the leg during the day, and he doesn’t notice the pain when he is home from work. What should you recommend?
A. Surgical decompression
B. Steroid injection
C. Weight loss
D. Observation

A

A. Surgical decompression
B. Steroid injection
C. Weight loss
D. Observation

This condition is most consistent with meralgia paresthetica, or compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. It often occurs in obese patients or people who wear tight fitting clothing, including belts. It has recently been described in runners. In overweight patients, weight loss should first be attempted as this can reverse the condition. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

370
Q

What percentage of patients with meralgia paresthetica will improve with nonsurgical management?
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 90%

A

A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 90%

Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. It often occurs in obese patients or people who wear tight fitting clothing, including belts. It has recently been described in runners. In overweight patients, weight loss should first be attempted as this can reverse the condition. Approximately 90% of these cases will resolve with conservative management and do not require surgery. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

371
Q

What exam finding differentiates radial nerve injury from posterior interosseus nerve palsy?
A. Finger extensor weakness
B. Wrist drop
C. Flexor pollicis longus weakness
D. Coracobrachialis weakness

A

A. Finger extensor weakness
B. Wrist drop
C. Flexor pollicis longus weakness
D. Coracobrachialis weakness

The radial nerve branches into the posterior inerosseous nerve and the superficial radial sensory nerve. The PIN can be compressed leading to finger extensor weakness, but since the branches to the wrist extensors have already branched prior to the PIN, wrist drop is not present in PIN palsy. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

372
Q

How do you differentiate common peroneal nerve palsy from an L5 radiculopathy?
A. Foot eversion
B. Foot inversion
C. Ankle dorsiflexion
D. Ankle plantarflexion

A

A. Foot eversion
B. Foot inversion
C. Ankle dorsiflexion
D. Ankle plantarflexion

Differentiating an L5 radiculopathy from a CPN palsy can be difficult, and hints are given based on the presentation. EMG can be helpful. Foot inversion will be weak in cases of L5 radiculopathy but preserved in CPN palsy. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

373
Q

What branch of the common peroneal nerve innervates the anterior tibialis?
A. Deep
B. Superficial
C. Articular
D. None of the above

A

A. Deep
B. Superficial
C. Articular
D. None of the above

The deep branch of the CPN innervates the anerior tibilais while the superficial branch innervates the peroneus longus and brevis. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

374
Q

True or false, in tarsal tunnel syndrome there is sparing of sensation of the heel?
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

In tarsal tunnel syndrome there is often pain on the bottom of the foot as well as weakness of toe flexion/intrinsic musculature. There is often sparing of sensation of the heel given that the sensory branches to the heel have already left the tibial nerve before it passes through the retinaculum. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

375
Q

You are evaluating a patient who has weakness of shoulder abduction (initiation) and externalrotation. Which nerve should you evaluate?
A. Suprascapular nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Long thoracic nerve

A

A. Suprascapular nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Long thoracic nerve

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatous (shoulder abduction) and infraspinatous (external rotation). Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

376
Q

True or false, Type II compression of the ulnar nerve in Guyon’s canal leads to sensory abnormalities in the ulnar nerve distribution?
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Type II compression of the ulnar nerve in Guyon’s canal is purely compression of the deep branch which is a pure motor branch with no sensory innervation. Types I and III both have involvement of varying degrees of ulnar sensation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

377
Q

What is the most common cause of compression of the ulnar nerve in Guyon’s canal?
A. Wrist ganglion
B. Aneurysm
C. Transverse carpal ligament
D. Bone spur

A

A. Wrist ganglion
B. Aneurysm
C. Transverse carpal ligament
D. Bone spur

A wrist ganglion is the most common cause of compression within Guyon’s canal. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of neurosurgery. 8th edition, entrapment neuropathies section.

378
Q

A cervical rib causing neurologic compression most likely leads to what physical exam finding?
A. Martin-Gruber hand
B. Riches-Cannieu hand
C. Gilliatt-Sumner hand
D. Froment’s sign

A

A. Martin-Gruber hand
B. Riches-Cannieu hand
C. Gilliatt-Sumner hand
D. Froment’s sign

A cervical rib causing neurologic compression can lead to thoracic outlet syndrome which has a characteristic physical exam finding, the Gilliatt-Sumner hand, with weakness and atrophy of both the thenar and hypothenar areas as well as interossei weakness. Atrophy of both of these re- gions should make you think of a plexus etiology or aberrant hand innervation. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, non-entrapment neuropathies section.

379
Q

You are performing a brachial plexus exploration. As you expose the anterior scalene muscle you should be watching for which nerve?
A. Dorsal scapular nerve
B. Long thoracic nerve
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve

A

A. Dorsal scapular nerve
B. Long thoracic nerve
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve

The phrenic nerve runs on the anterior scalene muscle and can be damaged during brachial plexus exploration. Care should be taken to protect the phrenic nerve during dissection. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, non-entrapment neuropathies section.

380
Q

Sensory latency of what is diagnostic of carpal tunnel syndrome on EMG?
A. > 1.4 msec
B. > 2.3 msec
C. > 3.0 msec
D. > 3.7 msec

A

A. > 1.4 msec
B. > 2.3 msec
C. > 3.0 msec
D. > 3.7 msec

EMG is a very sensitive test for CTS, and a gold standard EMG evaluation includes sensory latency across the median nerve at the wrist. Sensory latency > 3.7 msec is diagnostic of CTS. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, entrapment neuropathies section.

381
Q

Which of the following is not a phase of the EMG examination?
A. Stimulated activity
B. Insertional activity
C. Spontaneous activity
D. Volitional activity

A

A. Stimulated activity
B. Insertional activity
C. Spontaneous activity
D. Volitional activity

There are three phases to the EMG examination, insertional activity, spontaneous activity and volitional activity. There is no stimulated activity as a part of the routine EMG examination. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, Electrodiagnostics Section.

382
Q

True or false, in an EMG examination of a lumbar radiculopathy caused by a herniated lumbar disk the sensory nerve action potential will be normal?
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

A lumbar radiculopathy caused by a HLD involves the nerve roots, and given that the DRG will not be affected (at least initially) the SNAP will be normal on EMG. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

383
Q

True or false, in an EMG examination of a suspected brachial plexopathy the sensory nerve action potential will be normal?
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

In a suspected brachial plexopathy the injury is most likely distal to the DRG and therefore the SNAP will be abnormal on EMG. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neu- rosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

384
Q

True or false, in an EMG examination of a suspected nerve root avulsion the sensory nerve action potential will be normal?
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

In a suspected nerve root avulsion the DRG will remain intact and therefore the SNAP will be normal on EMG. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

385
Q

What is the approximate accuracy of diagnosing
the correct level of a lumbar radiculopathy from a
herniated disk based on EMG alone?
A. 35%
B. 55%
C. 85%
D. 100%

A

A. 35%
B. 55%
C. 85%
D. 100%

EMG examinations can be highly dependent on the EMG technician, but the approximate accuracy of diagnosing the level of a lumbar radiculopathy based on EMG alone is ~ 85%. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

386
Q

Motor unit action potentials are recorded during what phase of an EMG examination?
A. Insertional activity
B. Spontaneous activity
C. Volitional activity
D. Stimulated activity

A

A. Insertional activity
B. Spontaneous activity
C. Volitional activity
D. Stimulated activity

MUAPs are recorded during the volitional activity portion of the EMG examination to determine if the patient is able to recruit any function with volitional activity. Stimulated activity is not a phase of the routine EMG examination. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

387
Q

Fibrillation potentials are recorded during what phase of an EMG examination?
A. Insertional activity
B. Spontaneous activity
C. Volitional activity
D. Stimulated activity

A

A. Insertional activity
B. Spontaneous activity
C. Volitional activity
D. Stimulated activity

Muscle fibrillations occur spontaneously and therefore are best evaluated during the spontaneous activity phase of the EMG examination. Stimulated activity is not a phase of the routine EMG examination. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

388
Q

The F wave is most helpful in determining what underlying disorder?
A. Herniated lumbar disk
B. Multilevel radiculopathy
C. Nerve root avulsion
D. Neuroma formation

A

A. Herniated lumbar disk
B. Multilevel radiculopathy
C. Nerve root avulsion
D. Neuroma formation

The F wave on EMG is helpful in that it suggests multilevel involvement rather than an individual level. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

389
Q

What is the earliest onset of fibrillations after denervation injury on EMG examination?
A. 24 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 3 months
D. 12 months

Initial EMG after nerve injury should be delayed for at least 7 to 10 days to allow for Wallerian degeneration to occur if present and for fibrillations to occur. Many surgeons would recommend waiting 3 to 4 weeks for full degeneration to occur prior to initial EMG. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

A

A. 24 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 3 months
D. 12 months

390
Q

Sharp waves on spontaneous EMG are seen in what condition?
A. Denervation
B. Ischemic muscle
C. Guillain-Barre syndrome
D. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

A

A. Denervation
B. Ischemic muscle
C. Guillain-Barre syndrome
D. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

Positive sharp waves are observed on the spontaneous phase of EMG and are indicative of denervated muscle. They are seen along with fibrillation potentials Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

391
Q

The H-reflex is used on EMG to evaluate which nerve root?
A. L4
B. L5
C. S1
D. S2

A

A. L4
B. L5
C. S1
D. S2

The H-reflex is similar to the ankle-jerk reflex, but it is the EMG version. It is only useful to evaluate the S1 nerve root. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

392
Q

What finding is present on EMG approximately 6 weeks after reinnervation begins following nerve injury?
A. H-reflex
B. F-wave
C. Polyphasic MUAPs
D. Sharp waves

A

A. H-reflex
B. F-wave
C. Polyphasic MUAPs
D. Sharp waves

Polyphasic MUAPs are seen on EMG after reinnervation begins following nerve injury. They represent abnormal MUAPs and are seen for several months before they begin to fade away. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

393
Q

How long after onset of radiculopathy will it take for reliable acute EMG findings to be present?
A. 12 hours
B. 1 week
C. 3 weeks
D. 3 months

A

A. 12 hours
B. 1 week
C. 3 weeks
D. 3 months

Often times it takes approximately 3 weeks for acute changes on EMG examination to be present in the case of radiculopathy. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neu- rosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

394
Q

How long after onset of radiculopathy will it take for reliable chronic EMG findings to be present?
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months

A

A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 month

Often times it takes approximately 6 months for chronic changes on EMG examination to be present in the case of radiculopathy. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

395
Q

True or false, EMG can be helpful to determine the presence or absence of radiculopathy of the C4 nerve root?
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

There are no reliable muscle groups that can be utilized to determine the presence of a C4 radiculopathy on EMG. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

396
Q

Which of these patients would you expect to have no paraspinal muscle activity on EMG?
A. Patient with lumbosacral plexopathy
B. Post-laminectomy patient
C. Patient with meralgia paresthetica
D. Patient with common peroneal nerve injury

A

A. Patient with lumbosacral plexopathy
B. Post-laminectomy patient
C. Patient with meralgia paresthetica
D. Patient with common peroneal nerve injury

Postlaminectomy patients often do not have paraspinal muscle activity on EMG given that those muscles are often affected by the surgical exposure. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

397
Q

Interference pattern is evaluated during what phase of the EMG examination?
A. Insertional activity
B. Spontaneous activity
C. Volitional activity
D. Stimulated activity

A

A. Insertional activity
B. Spontaneous activity
C. Volitional activity
D. Stimulated activity

Interference pattern is evaluated during volitional activity. During volitional muscle contraction, the interference should block out all other activity on the EMG examination. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

398
Q

Reduced interference pattern is indicative of what on EMG examination?
A. Motor unit loss
B. Nerve root avulsion
C. Multiple affected nerve roots
D. Abnormal S1 nerve root

A

A. Motor unit loss
B. Nerve root avulsion
C. Multiple affected nerve roots
D. Abnormal S1 nerve root

Interference pattern is evaluated during volitional activity. During volitional muscle contraction, the interference should block out all other activity on the EMG examination. When reduced interference is seen, it is likely due to loss of motor units. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

399
Q

The classic “dive bomber” sound on EMG is indicative of what?
A. Myotonic discharges
B. Motor unit loss
C. Multiple affected nerve roots
D. Abnormal S1 nerve root

A

A. Myotonic discharges
B. Motor unit loss
C. Multiple affected nerve roots
D. Abnormal S1 nerve root

The dive bomber sound on EMG is consistent with myotonic discharges from muscle. This is seen in any condition causing myotonia. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

400
Q

True or false, an EMG examination will pick up a motor neuropathy even in cases where there is a normal neurologic examination?
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

EMG can be useful to help differentiate location or even etiology of a neuropathy, but in cases where there is a normal motor examination the EMG findings are highly likely to be normal as well. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.

401
Q

When it comes to lumbar radiculopathy, is EMG more sensitive or specific for localization?
A. Sensitive
B. Specific

A

B. Specific

For lumbar radiculopathy, EMG may have some difficulty with sensitivity in picking up the radiculopathy, however when an abnormality is present, EMG is highly specific. Further Reading: Greenberg. Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th edition, 2016, electrodiagnostics section.