Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DPT Semester 2 > Neuroscience Part 2 > Flashcards

Neuroscience Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

where are olfactory receptor cells located?

A

olfactory epithelium in the roof of the nasal cavity (ethomoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the olfactory epithelium composed of?

A
  1. olfactory sensory/receptor cells (hair cells)
  2. supporting cells
  3. basal stem cell
  4. olfactory glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the structure of an olfactory sensory cell

A

bipolar neurons w/cilia (olfactory hairs) on the end of dendrite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: the olfactory sensory/receptor cells are referred to as hair cells but are not neuron

A

FALSE
these ARE neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe the supporting cells in the olfactory epithelium. What are they and what is their function?

A

mucous membrane lining of nasal cavity, neuroglia cells

function is to support, nourish, insulate, and detoxify olfactory receptor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is unique about basal stem cells in the olfactory epithelium?

A

these are neuronal stem cells

olfactory receptor cells have a lifespan of 1 month and are then replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the function of the olfactory glands?

A

provide mucous to cover surface of olfactory epithelium to dissolve odor molecules so that they can interact with receptor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the olfactory pathway up to the point that an AP is generated on CN 1

A
  1. odor molecule dissovles in mucous of nasal surface
  2. odor molecule binds to olfactory receptor protein (ligand binding)
  3. chemical interaction w/olfactory receptor opens chemical gated channels (Ca and Cl)
  4. graded potential on dendrite/soma in olfactory epithelium
  5. graded potenials sum at axon hillock to generate and AP on axon of olfactory receptor cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe the olfactory pathway from when an AP on CN 1 is generated to integration

A
  1. CN 1 axon goes through the cribiform plate to olfactory bulb
  2. signlas from olfactory receptor cell activate multiple cells in olfactory bulb for processing signals and discriminating signals
  3. olfactory bulb changes the pattern of signaling in response to a new odor
  4. olfactory tract carries new pattern to:
    1. ipsi and contralateral limbic structures
    2. temporal cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F: the olfactory bulb is always sending signals

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the various ipsi and contralateral limbic structures

A
  1. Amygdale
  2. Entorhinal cortex
  3. hippocampus
  4. prefrontal cortex
  5. Insula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is odor discrimination occuring?

A

temporal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the accessory structures of the eye

A
  1. eye lid
  2. eye brow
  3. eye lashes
  4. muscles
  5. lacrimal apparatus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of the eye lid?

A

protect the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what muscles and nerves are responsible for closing the eye lid?

A

obicularis occuli orbital and palpebral regions

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what muscles and nerves are responsible for opening the upper eyelid?

A

levator palpebrae superioris

CN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the inner lining of the eyelid called?

A

palpebral conjuctiva

it is continuous with the sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the function of the lacrimal apparatus?

what controls it?

A

produce lacrimal fluid (tears)

secreted superior/lateral and will flow diagonally to inferior/medial lacrimal canals which empty into nasal cavity

CN 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the extrinsic eye muscles

A
  1. Superior rectus
  2. inferior rectus
  3. lateral rectus
  4. medial rectus
  5. superior oblique
  6. inferior oblique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the eyeball can be divided into what 3 layers?

A
  1. fibrous outer layer
  2. Vascular middle layer
  3. retina-inner layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what makes up the fibrous outer layer of the eyeball?

A

sclera (white CT covering the eye)

cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is attached to the sclera?

A
  1. palpebral conjuctiva of eyelid
  2. dural sheath (epineurium) of CN 2
  3. tendons of extraoccular muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the cornea?

A

avascular area covering the anterior surface of the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is another name for the vascular middle layer of the eyeball?

A

uveal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the uveal tract can be divided into what 2 layers?

A
  1. choroid
  2. ciliary body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the choroid layer of the uveal tract?

A

middle layer containing blood vessels for the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the ciliary body?

A

anterior modification of choroid containing 3 structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what 3 structures are in the ciliary body?

A
  1. ciliary processes
  2. ciliary muscles
  3. Iris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are ciliary processes?

A

a circular ridge attached to supspensory ligaments which connect to the lens

contain capillaries and produce aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are ciliary muscles?

A

circular smooth muscle at the base of ciliar process that changes the shape of the lens by pulling on suspensory ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what happens to the lens to allow us to have near vision?

A

decreased tension on the lens resulting in a convex surface

made possible by contraction of ciliary muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what happens to the lens to allow us to have far vision?

A

increased tension on the lens resulting in a flat surface

made possible by relaxation of ciliary muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which is less tiring on the eyes? Near or Far vision?

A

Far vision, it is a passive process (ciliary muscles relax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the Iris?

A

area of eye color

smooth muscle fibers that change size of pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the function of the pupil?

A

opening through which light enters eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what constricts the pupil?

A

circular muscles

parasympathetic (CN 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what dilates the pupil?

A

radial muscles

sympathetic (carotid plexus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is located at the retina inner layer of the eyeball?

A

neuron sensory receptor cells

*the beginning of the visual pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

list the structure/layers of the retina-inner layer

A
  1. pigment epithelium
  2. photoreceptor layer
    1. rods
    2. cones
  3. outer nuclear layer
  4. outer synaptic layer
  5. inner nuclear layer
  6. inner synpatic layer
  7. ganglion cell layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which portion of the retina has the sensory receptors in it?

A

photoreceptor layer:

rods = dim light, gray images

cones = bright light, color images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

where are the soma for the rods and cones located?

A

outer nuclear layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

where does initial image processing occur?

A

inner nuclear layer of the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

there are several specialized areas of the retina, list them

A
  1. optic disc
  2. macula lutea
  3. ora serrata
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the optic disc?

A

blind spot

where optic nerve and blood vessels enter/exit the eyeball

**no sensory receptors here!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the macula lutea?

A

visual axis/focal point

contains the central fovea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

why is the central fovea significant?

A

contains only cones

serves as area of highest visual resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

where is the lens and what is it’s function?

A

connected by suspensory ligaments to ciliary process/muscles

function = bend light to focus image on retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the virtreous body (humor) and what is it’s function?

A

located between lens and retina

holds retina in place

contains phagocytes that remove floating debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the anterior cavity of the eyeball?

A

area between cornea and lens

contains aqueous humor which nourishes the lens and cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how is light directed to the retina?

A

through a refraction of light rays that can be altered via the processes of accomodation and convergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

where is refraction of light rays occuring?

A

cornea and lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T/F: images are invereted upside down and reversed right to left during refraction?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is accomodation?

A

the process by which the curvature of the lens is changed to focus light rays on the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

List and briefly describe several vision deficits that impact the refraction process

A
  1. myopia (nearsightedness) = distant object is unclear because image is focused in front of retina
  2. hypermetropia (farsightedness) = near object is unclear because image is focused behind retina
  3. presbyopia = lens becomes less elastic w/age and thus less convex, moving focal point further away from eyes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the process of convergence?

A

process of moving eyes medially for near vision so that images of objects hit the equivalent spot in both retinas

necessary for maintaining proper overlap in visual fields of both eyes for binocular vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does binocular vision allow for?

A

depth perception

3D perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Briefly describe the light pathway

A
  1. Light
  2. Object
  3. reflected light
  4. corena
  5. aqueous humor
  6. lens
  7. vitrous body
  8. retina
    1. pigment cells = absorb light
    2. photoreceptor cells = transduce light to nerve impulse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe the inital route of the visual pathway leading up to the optic chiasm

A
  1. photoreceptor cells generate either excitatory or inhibitory impulse (graded potential)
  2. signal is processed and modified (via convergence and divergence) as it moves through neurons of other retinal cell layers
  3. AP is generated in ganglion cells
  4. AP exits eye by optic nerve
  5. optic nerve goes to optic chiasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

impulses from which half of the retina cross to the opposite side of the brain at the optic chiasm?

A

from the Nasal half of retina

(temporal half stay ipislateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

after the optic chiasm, where does the AP travel next in the visual pathway?

A

optic tracts that head to:

  1. pretecal area → pupillary reflex
  2. superior colliculus → horizontal tracing eye movements and head turning
  3. lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

the left optic tract is carrying visual info from which visual field?

A

Right visual field

(Left temporal and Right nasal retina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

the right optic tract is carrying visual info from what visual field?

A

Left visual field

(Right temporal and Left nasal retina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

where does the visual pathway head next after the lateral geniculate nucleus?

A

to visual cortex in the medial occipital lobes

via the optic radiations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

All external eyes muscles originate and insert where?

A

originate = orbital bone

insert = sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the action and innervation of the

Levator palperae superioris?

A

action = elevate eye lid (open)

innervation = CN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is the action and innervation of the

Orbicularis occuli?

A

action = depress eye lid (close)

innervation = CN 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the action and innervation of the

Superior oblique?

A

actions:

  • when eyes are adducted (in near focus) = futher adduct
  • when eyes are abducted (far focus) = further abduct
  • depress and medially rotate eye

innervation = CN 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the action and innervation of the

Inferior Oblique?

A

action:

  • eyes adducted (from near focus) = further adduct
  • eyes abducted (from far focus) = further abducted
  • elevate and laterally rorate

innervation = CN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is the action and innervation of the

Superior rectus?

A

action: elevate (slight adduct and med rotate)

innervation = CN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the action and innervation of the

Inferior rectus?

A

action = depress (slight adduct and lateral rotate)

innervation = CN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the action and innervation of the

Medial rectus?

A

action = adduct

innervation = CN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the action and innervation of the

Lateral rectus?

A

action = abduction

innervation = CN 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

CN 3 innervates what eye muscles?

A
  1. Levator palpebrae superioris
  2. Inferior oblique
  3. Superior rectus
  4. Inferior rectus
  5. Medial rectus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

CN 3 is made up of what types of neurons?

A
  1. somatomotor → to skeletal muscle
  2. visceromotor (sympathetic) → to smooth muscle and glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

where are the nuclei for CN 3 located?

A

Brain stem at the level of the midbrain

somatomotor = oculomotor nucleus

parasympathetic nucleus = Edinger-Westphal nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Briefly describe the pathway of the oculomotor nerve (CN 3)

A
  1. Nuclei in brainstem
  2. exits cranial cavity via superior oribital fissure
  3. divides into 2 branches
    1. superior division (uncrossed/ipsilateral)
    2. inferior division (uncrossed/ipsilateral)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what does the superior division of the occulomotor nerve supply?

A

superior rectus

levator palpebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what does the inverior division of the oculomotor nerve supply?

A

inferior rectus

medial rectus

inferior oblique

ciliary ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the ciliary ganglion?

A

parasympathetic gangia sending fibers to:

  1. ciliary body/ciliary muscles → accomodation
  2. circular muscles or iris → pupil constriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What types of neurons make up CN 4?

A

somatomotor → to eye muscles

somatosensory → proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Describe the pathway of CN 4

A
  1. Nucleus = brainstem at level of midbrain
  2. Crosses pre-tectum
  3. exits via cranial foramen (superior orbtal fissure)
  4. supplies contralateral superior oblique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what types of neurons make up CN 6?

A

somatomotor to lateral rectus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Describe the pathway of CN 6

A
  1. brain stem nuclei at level of open medulla/pons
  2. exits via superior orbital fissure
  3. remains ipsilateral and innervates the lateral rectus muscle (abducts eye)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Describe the pathway for the pupillary light reflex

A
  1. Light
  2. ganglion cells
  3. optic nerve/optic tract
  4. pre-tectal area
  5. Edinger-Westphal nucleus on both sides
  6. parasympathetic preganglionic
  7. ciliary ganglia
  8. parasympathetic postganglionic
  9. contracts circular muscle of iris
  10. Pupil constricts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

T/F: if you shine a light on the L pupil both pupils will constrict?

A

TRUE

via concensual pupillary light reflex (for R pupil)

(direct pupillary light reflex for the L pupil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What 3 pathways make up the accomodation reflex?

A
  1. Motor pathway resulting in convergence of visual field
  2. papillary constriction reflex
  3. Edinger-Westphal is activates resulting in an increased curved lens for near vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What types of neurons make up CN 5?

A
  1. somatosensory → from skin, muscle, and joint conscious sensory receptors of anterior 2/3 head
  2. somatomotor → muscles of mastication nad tensor tympani
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve (CN 5)?

A

opthalmic

maxillary

mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what region of the head/face is the opthalmic nerve the primary sensory neuron for?

A
  1. upper face-forehead
  2. cornea
  3. upper eyelid
  4. dorsum of nose

*cutaneous sensation (touch, pressure, pain and temp) and proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what region of the head/face is the maxillary nerve the primary sensory neuron for?

A
  1. middle face-lower lip
  2. lateral nose
  3. cheek
  4. upper jaw/teeth
  5. palate
  6. upper lip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what region of the head/face is the mandibular nerve the primamry sensory neuron for?

A
  1. lower face-lower lip
  2. lower jaw/teeth
  3. tongue
  4. chin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the soma for the 3 somatosensory peripheral axons (opthalamic, maxillary, mandibular) of the trigeminal nerve?

A

trigeminal (semilunar) ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

where is the trigeminal (semilunar) ganglion located?

A

base of sella turcica

close proximity to the internal carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Describe the motor pathway for the Trigeminal Nerve

A
  1. R/L precentral gyrus (lateral homonculus) = UMN
  2. corticobulbar tract
  3. crossed and uncrossed bilateral input to motor nucleus trigeminal nerve = LMN
  4. trigeminal nerve
  5. 3 peripheral branches of trigeminal nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what muscles are innervated by the trigeminal nerve?

A
  1. muscles of mastication
  2. mylohyoid
  3. anterior belly digastric
  4. tensor tympani
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

how does the sensation of taste occur?

A

it is a result of a chemical interaction between molecules in mouth and membrane chemoreceptors on receptor cells in taste buds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Where are taste buds located in the mouth?

A

in papillae of the:

  1. tongue
  2. soft palate (roof of mouth)
  3. pharynx (throat)
  4. larynx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

T/F: taste buds are the neuronal receptor cells for the sense of taste

A

FALSE

they are receptor cells but NOT neurons.

dendrites of cranial nerves synapse onto them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

receptors in the tip of the tongue are more sensitive to ______

A

sweet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

receptors in the posterior tongue are more sensitive to _______

A

bitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

receptors in lateral tongue are most sensitive to _________

A

sour and salty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

T/F: we can decrease our sensitivity to particular tast stimuli?

A

TRUE

if we are continuously exposed

complete adaptation in 1-5 min of continuous stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Describe the initial steps in the gustatory pathway (from molecule to generation of AP)

A
  1. bite of food is chewed and dissolved into food molecules
  2. foot molecules dissolve in saliva
  3. food molecule binds receptor on gustatory receptor hair cell
  4. gustatory hair cell releases chemical messenger
  5. chemical messenger binds chemical gated channel on dendrite of pseudo unipolar taste neuron
  6. AP generated on peripheral process of pseudounipolar neuron of CN 7, 9, or 10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Describe the general steps in the gustatory pathway from generation of AP to integration of sensation

A
  1. AP is generated on peripheral process of pseudounipolar neuron of CN 7, 9, or 10
  2. travels to sensory ganglia for taste (3 different ganglia)
  3. then travels into brain stem in the solitary tract
  4. synapses on secondary neurons in gustatory portion of solitary tract
  5. Tertiary neuron in VPM of thalamus
  6. tertiary neuron head to Cerebral cortex an dlimbic system for integration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

where in the cerebral cortex does taste differentiation occur?

A

insula

inferior postcentral gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is the limbic system’s role within the taste pathway?

A

emotional response to taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what are the different sensory ganglia for taste?

A
  1. CN 7 → geniculate ganglia
  2. CN 9 → inferior petrosal ganglia of CN 9
  3. CN 10 → inferior (no dose) ganglia of CN 10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

CN 7 is responsible for carrying sensory info from taste receptors in what areas?

A

anterior 2/3 of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

CN 9 is responsible for carrying sensory info from taste receptors in what areas?

A

posterior 1/3 of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

CN 10 is responsible for carrying sensory info from taste receptors located in what areas?

A

base of tongue/pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what types of neurons make up CN 7?

A
  1. special sensory for taste (pseudo unipolar neuron)
  2. somatosensory
  3. somatic motor
  4. autonomic motor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what is type of info is carried within the somatosensory neurons of CN 7?

A

proprioception of muscles of facial expression

skin sensation of posterior ear, external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what type of info is carried within somatic motor neurons of CN 7?

A

motor efferent to muscles of facial expression, stapedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what type of info is carried within autonomic motor neurons of CN 7?

A

preganglionic parasympathetic input headed to lacrimal and salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

where is the primary sensory neuron soma located for the CN 7 sensory pathway?

A

geniculate ganglia within the petrous portion of temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

where is the secondary sensory neuron within the CN 7 sensory pathway?

A

spinal (trigeminal) nucleus of CN 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

where is the tertiary sensory neuron within the CN 7 sensory pathway?

A

VPM of thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

after synapsing with the tertiary neuron, where does the sensory pathway of CN 7 head?

A

contralateral postcentral gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Describe the motor pathway for CN 7

A
  1. precentral gyrus (UMN)
  2. corticobulbar tracts
  3. facial nucleus (LMN at lvl of open medulla/pons)
  4. CN 7 exits brainstem at junctin of pons and medulla
  5. CN 7 exits skull at stylomastoid foramen and divides in cutaneous nerves of partoid plexus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what are the branches of the partoid plexus?

A
  1. auricular nerve
  2. temporal branch
  3. zygomatic branch
  4. buccal branch
  5. marginal (mandibular) branch
  6. cervical branch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How does CN 7 innervate the stapedes muscle?

A

branch of CN 7 enters petrous portion of temporal bone through internal acoustic meatus and heads to the middle ear

somatomotor to stapedes muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what types of neurons is CN 9 comprised of?

A
  1. somatosensory from posterior ear
  2. special sensory for taste
  3. visceral sensory from carotid sinus and carotid body
  4. somatomotor to stylopharngeus muscle
  5. autonomic motor to salivary glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what types of neurons is CN 10 comprised of?

A
  1. somatosensory from posterior ear and external auditory canal
  2. viscerosensory from thoracic and abdomen organs
    1. aortic arch baro- and chemoreceptors
  3. special sensory for taste
  4. somatomotor to pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles, and palatoglossus of tongue
  5. autonomic motor to organs of thorax and abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what types of neurons in CN 11?

A

somatomotor to SCM and trapezius muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what types of neurons are in CN 12?

A

somatomotor to intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What does GSA stand for?

A

general somatic afferent

(neurons carrying touch and proprioceptive info)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What CN have GSA neurons?

A

5, 7, 9 and 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Cranial nerve GSA neurons are headed to what structure in the brainstem?

A

spinal trigeminal nuclei and tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What does SSA stand for?

A

Special Somatic Afferent

(special senses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what CN have SSA neurons?

A

2 and 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

what does GVA stand for?

A

general visceral afferent

(sensory info from visceral like carotid baroreceptors and chemoreceptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What CN havae GVA neurons?

A

9 and 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What does SVA stand for?

A

Special Visceral Afferent

(carrying sensory info for taste)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What CN have SVA neurons?

A

7, 9, and 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

where are all SVA neurons heading?

A

Solitary nucleus in the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what does GSE stand for?

A

General Somatic Efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What CN have GSE neurons?

A

3, 4, 6, and 12

(the cranial nerves that are soley have motor function)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what does SVE stand for?

A

Special Visceral Efferent

(these are special because they arise from the brachial/pharangeal arches during development)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What CN have SVE neurons?

A

5, 7, 9, 10 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Where are the SVE neurons of CN 9 and 10 coming from?

A

nucleus ambiguus

(swallowing reflex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

what does GVE stand for?

A

general visceral efferent

(parasympathetic fibers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

what CN have GVE neurons?

A

3, 7, 9 and 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Match the GVE neurons with their parasympathetic destination/function

A

CN 3 - papillary reflex

CN 7 - salivary and lacrimal glands

CN 9 - parotid gland

CN 10 - viscera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Where do somatomotor signals originate?

A

somatomotor cortex (precentral gyrus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

what CNS structures modify somatomotor signals?

A
  1. basal nucleus/thalamus
  2. cerebellum
  3. reticular formation
  4. limbic system
  5. red nucleus/substantia nigra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

where are somatomotor neurons located?

A
  1. spinal cord ventral horn gray matter
  2. brainstem CN nuclei
    • 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

where are LMN located?

A

somatomotor neurons in CN nuclei of brainstem

OR

spinal cord/ventral horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

where are the efferent axons of LMN?

A

they are carried in peripheral nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

efferent neurons from LMN release what NT?

A

acetylcholine

always depolarizing (excitatory) the muscle never hyperpolarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

what types of neuron innervates slow twitch (red) muscle fibers?

A

small diameter (slow conducting) alpha motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

what types of neurons innervate fast twitch (white) muscle fibers?

A

large diameter (fast conducting) alpha motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is the Henneman’s Size principle?

A

slow twich muscle fibers are recruited and activated before fast twitch fibers

this allows 2 fiber types to contract together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what are the 2 ways muscle contractions can be initiated?

A
  1. order comes from somatomotor cortex (voluntary)
  2. order comes from the spinal cord (reflex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

T/F: a reflex does not require an UMN for integration

A

TRUE

the LMN acts as the integrator

However, an UMN can be invovled in modulating the respones to the reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

T/F: all cardiac and smooth muscle activity are reflexive?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what is the role of collateral connections between tracts?

A

helps to coordinate movement and provide context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Collateral connections can include what type of coordinating activity?

A
  1. reciprocal inhibition
  2. muscle synergism
  3. proprioception
  4. stepping pattern generators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the 2 types of descending tracts?

A
  1. specific somatotopic tracts
  2. nonspecific upper motor neuron tracts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Specific somatotopic tracts can include what types of tracts?

A
  1. postural gross movement tracts
  2. tracts that carry info for fine movement
  3. tracts for limb flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

T/F: motor unit and motor neuron pools are the same thing

A

FALSE

motor unit = single somatomotor neuron and all muscle fibers it activates

motor neuron pool = group of motor neuron cell bodies in a ventral horn that innervate a single muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

how are motor neuron pools organized within the ventral horn?

A
  1. flexors are dorsal
  2. extensors are ventral
  3. axial muscles are medial
  4. appendicular muscles are lateral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Define reflex

A

a predictable response to a given stimulus

occur w/o brain input (similar to a neural loop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

reflexes are _______ dependent

A

content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

what does the phrase “reflexes are content dependent” mean?

A

the state of the nervous system will affect the properties of the reflex

(if you are relaxed the response may be less intense than if you were anxious)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what are the 2 broad categories for reflexes?

A
  1. Stretch reflexes
  2. Cutaneous reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

A stretch reflex that is a result of an UMN lesion will be ______

A

tonic

it will respond to the stimulus for the duration of the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is a phasic stretch reflex?

A

a reflex that responses briefly to the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

what is a monosynaptic reflex?

A

a reflex when the sensory neuron synapses directly with the motor neuron

*there is no interneuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Briefly describe the pathway of a stretch reflex

A

quick stretch stimulus → muscle spindle → Ia sensory neuron (annulospiral/bag and chain) → DRG → spinal cord dorsal horn → synapses w/alpha somatomotor neuron → skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

what is an uncrossed reflex?

A

a reflex that involves a single spinal cord level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

what normally prevents tonic stretch reflexes?

A

UMN inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

what is a tonic reflex contraction?

A

UMN lesion removal of the inhibition of a tonic reflex

it will allow the constant afferent signals to produce a constant efferent signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

what are 3 characteristics of a cutaneous reflex?

A
  1. involves interneurons (minimum 3 neuron pathway)
  2. involved multiple spinal cord segments
  3. crossover in the spinal cord = crossed flexor withdrawl reflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

a golgi tendon reflex is what type of reflex?

A

cutaneous reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Descending tracts can be divided into what 4 categories?

A
  1. Medial Motor Tracts
  2. Lateral Motor Tracts
  3. Corticobulbar Tracts
  4. Nonspecific Upper Motor Tracts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What tracts are included in the Medial Motor Tracts?

A
  1. Tectospinal tract
  2. Medial Reticulospinal Tract
  3. Medial Vestibulospinal Tract
  4. Lateral Vestibulospinal Tract
  5. Medial (Anterior) Corticospinal tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the sensory input to the tectospinal tract?

A

visual, auditory, or somatosensory (pain and touch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

where does the Tectospinal tract start?

A

Soma = corpa quadrigemina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

where does the Tectospinal tract crossover?

A

at the level of the mesencephalon

180
Q

after crossing over, where does the tectospinal tract descend/travel?

A

tectospinal tract in anterior column of spinal cord white matter

181
Q

Where does the tectospinal tract terminate/end/connect?

A

medial motor neurons of the ventral horn in the cervical region

these control axial muscles

182
Q

what supplies sensory input to the Medial Reticulospinal Tract?

A

reticular system

183
Q

where does the Medial Reticulospinal tract begin?

A

soma = pontine reticular formation of metencephalon

184
Q

where is the medial reticulospinal tract located?

A

anterior column of spinal cord descending from metencephalon

185
Q

where does the medial reticulospinal tract cross?

A

it doesn’t

it remains uncrossed

186
Q

what is the destination/end point of the medial reticulospinal tract?

A

medial somatomotor neurons along the entire spinal cord

187
Q

what is the role of the medial reticulospinal tract?

A

prepare postural (axial) and girdle muscles for limb activity (reaching)

188
Q

what supplies sensory input to the medial vestibulospinal tract?

A

vestibular apparatus/static and dynamic equilibrium

189
Q

where does the medial vestibulospinal tract begin?

A

soma = medial vestibular nuclei

(elongate nucleus in pons and medulla)

190
Q

where does the medial vestibulospinal tract travel?

A

anterior column of spinal cord

191
Q

where does the medial vestibulospinal tract cross?

A

at the medulla

192
Q

what is the destination/end point of the medial vestibulospinal tract?

A

medial somatomotor neurons along the cervical and thoracic spinal cord (brachial plexus)

193
Q

what is the role of the medial vestibulospinal tract?

A

effect = balance in response to head movement (coordinate with tectospinal tract to maintain balance with head turning)

194
Q

what provides sensory input to the lateral vestibulospinal tract?

A

vestibular apparatus/center of gravity

195
Q

where does the lateral vestibulospinal tract begin?

A

soma located in lateral vestibular nuclei located in pons

196
Q

where does the lateral vestibulospinal tract travel?

A

anterior column of spinal cord

197
Q

where does the lateral vestibulospinal tract cross?

A

it doesn’t

it remains uncrossed

198
Q

what is the destination/end point of the lateral vestibulospinal tract?

A

medial somatomotor neurons along entire spinal cord

199
Q

what is the role of the lateral vestibulospinal tract?

A

effect = upright posture/balance: stimulates axial extensors, and inhibits axial flexors when a person is standing upright

200
Q

what provides input to the medial (anterior) corticospinal tract?

A

diverse associative input from pre-motor and parietal cortex of frontal lobe

201
Q

where does the medial (anterior) corticospinal tract begin?

A

soma = somatomotor cortex (pre-central gyrus of frontal lobe)

202
Q

describe the pathway of the medial (anterior) corticospinal tract

A

leaves the precentral gyrus and descends to the medulla through the internal capsule then the crus cerebrii and then the pons until it reaches the pyramids

203
Q

where does the medial (anterior) corticospinal tract cross?

A

it doesn’t

it is the 10% that remains uncrossed at the pyramids

204
Q

what is the destination/end point of the medial (anterior) corticospinal tract?

A

medial somatomotor neurons in the cervical and thoracic spinal cord

205
Q

what is the role/effect of the medial (anterior) corticospinal tract?

A

balance to prepare postural muscles for voluntary movements

206
Q

where are all medial motor tracts located in the spine?

A

medial spinal cord white matter

207
Q

what is the general function of all medial motor tracts?

A

function in axial muscle/posture

girdle muscles/stabilizers

contextual info

208
Q

which medial motor tracts do not cross?

A

medial reticulospinal tract

lateral vestibulospinal tract

medial (anterior) corticospinal tract

209
Q

which medial motor tracts cross (2)?

A

tectospinal tract

medial vestibulospinal tract

210
Q

What tracts are included in the Lateral Motor Tracts?

A
  1. lateral corticospinal tract
  2. Rubrospinal tract
  3. Lateral (medullary) reticulospinal tract
211
Q

where are all the lateral motor tracts located in the spinal cord?

A

lateral spinal cord white matter

212
Q

what is the general function of all the lateral motor tracts?

A

function in fine movements of face, and extremities

213
Q

what supplies input to the lateral corticospinal tract?

A

pre-frontal cortex and motor associative cortex

214
Q

where does the lateral corticospinal tract begin?

A

soma located in somatomotor cortex (pre-central gyrus) of the frontal lobe = UMN

215
Q

how does the lateral corticospinal tract descend from the frontal lobe?

A

descends to medulla → corticospinal tracts through internal capsule → crus cerebri → pons → pyramids

216
Q

where does the lateral corticospinal tract cross?

A

decussation of the pyramids in caudal closed medulla

217
Q

what is the lateral corticospinal tract’s destination/end point and how does it get there?

A

lateral somatomotor neurons in ventral horn (LMN) in brachial plexus and lumbosacral plexus regions of spinal cord

gets there via the lateral spinal column (lateral corticospinal tract)

218
Q

what is the effect of the lateral corticospinal tract?

A

fine movements of extremities

fractionation of movement

219
Q

what does fractionation of movement mean?

A

the activation of individual muscles independent of other hand muscles innervated by lateral somatomotor neurons at the same level

220
Q

what supplies input to the rubrospinal tract?

A

motor cortex

221
Q

where does the rubrospinal tract begin?

A

soma = red nucleus of mesencephalon

222
Q

where does the rubrospinal tract cross and descend?

A

crosses at mesencephalon

descends in pons → medulla → spinal cord lateral column

223
Q

what is the destination of the rubrospinal tract?

A

lateral somatomotor neurons in brachial plexus region of spinal cord

224
Q

what is the effect of the rubrospinal tract?

A

activates wrist hand extensor muscles

225
Q

what supplies input to the lateral (medullary) reticulospinal tracts?

A

motor cortex

226
Q

where does the lateral (medullary) reticulospinal tract begin?

A

reticular nuclei of the medulla

227
Q

where does the lateral (medullary) reticulospinal tract cross and how does it descend?

A

it doesn’t cross

descends in the lateral spinal column

228
Q

what is the destination of the lateral (medullary) reticulospinal tract?

A

lateral somatomotor neurons in the brachial and lumbosacral plexus of spinal cord

229
Q

what is the effect of the lateral (medullary) reticulospinal tract?

A

prepare postural (axial) and girdle muscles for limb activity; reaching

230
Q

the corticobulbar tracts is also known as what?

A

Corticobrainstem Tract

231
Q

what supplies input to the corticobrainstem tract?

A

associative cortex = premotor cortex

232
Q

where does the corticobrainstem tract begin?

A

pre-central gyrus of frontal lobe (somatomotor cortex)

233
Q

Describe how the corticobrainstem descends and where it heads

A

descends to cranial nerve nuclei in pons, medulla, and cervical spinal cord via internal capsule and cerebral peduncles

234
Q

where are the LMN for the corticobrainstem tract?

A

somatomotor neurons in cranial nerve nuclei

235
Q

where does the corticobrainstem tract cross?

A

in brainstem pons and medulla

(muscles of upper face = controlled by bilateral cerebral hemispheres CN 7)

(muscles of lower face = controlled by contralateral hemisphere of CN 7)

236
Q

what are the effects of the corticobrainstem tract?

A
  1. CN 5 controls muscles of mastication
  2. CN 7 controls muscles of facial expression
  3. CN 9, 10 control pharynx and larynx muscles
  4. CN 11 controls traps and SCM
  5. CN 12 controls tongue muscles
237
Q

what tracts make up the nonspecific upper motor tracts?

A
  1. cerulospinal tract
  2. raphespinal tract
238
Q

what activates the nonspecific upper motor tracts and what is their role?

A

both are activated by the limbic system (emotions) and provide context to affect other descending tracts

239
Q

how does the cerulospinal tract work?

A

mediates it effects by release of NE from locus ceruleus

240
Q

how does the raphespinal tract work?

A

mediates its effects by release of serotonin form raphe nucleus

241
Q

The anatomy of the ear can be broken down into 3 sections, what are they?

A
  1. External ear
  2. Middle ear
  3. Internal ear
242
Q

what are the 3 structures of the external ear?

A
  1. auricle (pinna)
  2. external auditory canal
  3. ear drum (tympanic membrane)
243
Q

what is the auricle (pinna)?

A

outer ear structure

244
Q

what is the external auditory canal?

A

a tube connecting the auricle to the ear drum

245
Q

what is the ear drum?

A

also called tympanic membrane

sheet across external auditory canal composed of:

epidermis, epithelium, and CT fibers (elastic)

246
Q

what is the middle ear?

A

the small air-filled cavity within the ear

composed of 5 structures

247
Q

what structures are inside of the middle ear?

A
  1. auditory ossicles
  2. oval window
  3. round window
  4. tensor tympani and stapedius muscles
  5. opening to the auditory tube (eustuchian tube)
248
Q

what are the auditory ossicles?

A

the 3 smallest bones in the body:

malleus

incus

stapes

249
Q

what is the malleus?

A

“the hammer”

connects ear drum to anvil (incus)

250
Q

what is the incus?

A

“the anvil”

connects hammer to stirrup (stapes)

251
Q

what is the stapes

A

“the stirrup”

connects anvil to oval window

252
Q

what is the oval window?

A

a membrane covered opening into perilymph of cochlea

253
Q

what is the round window?

A

a membrane covering opening in to the perilymph at the other end of the cochlea

254
Q

what innervates the tensor tempani and stapedius muscles?

A

tensor tympani (V3)

stapedius (CN 7)

these contract to prevent damage to middle ear structures by loud noise

255
Q

why is there an opening to auditory tube(eustachian tube) in the middle ear?

A

the opening connects the middle ear chamber to nasopharynx (upper throat) to equilibrate pressure in the ears

(the pop you hear during swallowing)

256
Q

what is inside of the inner ear?

A
  1. bony labyrinth
  2. membranous labyrinth
  3. Vestibulocochlear nerve
257
Q

what is the bony labyrinth in the inner ear?

A

a series of 3 structures lined by periosteum and containing perilymph

258
Q

what are the 3 structures within the bony labyrinth?

A
  1. semicircular canals
  2. vestibule
  3. cochlea
259
Q

what are the semicircular canals?

A

contain the sensory receptors (crista ampullaris) for equilibrium (angular)

lie at right angles in 3 geomtric planes within the inner ear

260
Q

what is the vestibule within the bony labyrinth?

A

contains sensory receptors (macula) for equilibrium (linear)

261
Q

what is the cochlea?

A

a part of the bony labyrinth that contains sensory receptors (spiral organ of corti) for hearing

262
Q

what is the membranous labyrinth?

A

sacs and tubes inside the bony labyrinth that have the same shape as the inside of the bony labryinth.

it is filled with endolymph

made up of 4 structures

263
Q

what are the 4 structures found within the membranous labyrinth?

A
  1. utricle - membranous sac → connected to semicircular canals
  2. saccule- membranous sac → connected to utricle
  3. membranous semicircular canal
  4. cochlear duct for hearing
264
Q

List the ganglia for the 1st order neurons of the Vestibulocochlear nerve

A
  1. vestibular branch → S/I vestibular ganglia
  2. cochlear branch → spiral ganglia
265
Q

what makes up the hearing apparatus within the spiral organ of corti?

A

a hair cell layer on the basilar membrane arranged around the spiral core of the cochlear bony labyrinth (modiolus);

hair cell stereo cilia are embedded in a matrix = tectoral membrane which does not move

266
Q

Define pitch and amplitude pertaining to sound waves

A
  1. pitch = frequency of sound waves
  2. amplitude = size of sound wave

pitch + amplitude = tone

267
Q

Describe the hearing pathway

(from outside the ear all the way to the spiral organ of corti)

A
  1. sound wave directed to eardrum by auricle and external auditory canal
  2. sound waves cause ear drum to vibrate
  3. vibration is amplified and transmitted to oval window by auditory ossicles
  4. pressure waves in peri- and endolymph
  5. pressure waves bend stereo-cilia of hair cells (in spiral organ of corti) embedded in tectoral membrane
  6. this produces a change in the pattern of signaling from the spiral organ of Corti
  7. this stimulates the peripheral process of the auditory sensory neuron
268
Q

is the direction of bend in the stereo-cilia of hair cells in the tectoral membrane important? How?

A

Yes

bend lateral direction → depolarization

bend medial direction → hyperpolarization

269
Q

T/F: different areas of the spiral organ of Corti are sensitive to different pitches?

A

TRUE

base = high pitch

apex = low pitch

270
Q

Describe the start of the auditory nerve pathway

(from recieving the signal to entering the brainstem)

A
  1. signal on bipolar neuron in spiral ganglia
  2. signals cochlear nerve
  3. cochlear nerve travels through petrous portion of temporal bone exiting the internal auditory meatus
  4. enters brainstem at junction of pons and medulla and synapses with dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei in tonotopic manner
271
Q

what are the 3 destinations for the auditory nerve after it synapses with the 2nd order neurons in the cochlear nuclei?

A
  1. tectum → tectospinal head turning reflex
    1. inferior and superior colliculus
  2. medial geniculate body of thalamus → heads to auditory cortex next
  3. reticular formation → activates the CNS
272
Q

do fibers from the cochlear nucleus cross to the contralateral side?

A

most fibers do (at the trapezoid body)

some stay ipsilateral

but bilateral projections to the cortex allow discrimination of sound differences in each ear

273
Q

In order for us to have equilibrium we need what type of information?

A

linear acceleration → change in velocity when traveling in one direction

angular acceleration → change in velocity when rotating

274
Q

what is our organ of equilibrium?

A

Vestibular apparatus within the inner ear

275
Q

what are the 2 sensory receptors within the Vestibular Apparatus and what are they sensitive to?

A
  1. macula → linear acceleartion
  2. crista ampullaris → angular acceleration
276
Q

what/where are the macula?

A

2 thickened regions in the walls of the utricle and saccule

277
Q

what/where are the crista ampullaris?

A

elevations in the lumen of each semicircular canal

sensory receptors for angular acceleration

278
Q

describe the makeup of the macula

A
  1. support cells
  2. hair cells (containing stero cilia/microvilla)
  3. otolithic membrane
279
Q

how do the macula respond to stimuli?

A

body movement causes the otolithic membrane to move and bend the sterocilia of the hair cell resulting in either

depolarization/hyperpolarization of the membrane

this changes the pattern of excitation/inhibition from the utricle and saccula macula to the Vestibular nerve

280
Q

describe the makeup of the crista ampullaris

A
  1. support cells
  2. hair cells (contain sterocilia and kinocilia)
  3. cupula (gelatinous ECM in which the stereocilia are embedded)
281
Q

how does the crista ampularris respond to stimuli?

A

rotational movement of the head bends the sterocilia of the hair resulting in membrane depolarization/hyperpolarization

to change the pattern of excitation/inhibition from the crista ampullaris to the vestibular nerve

282
Q

When the crista ampullaris on the L side is depolarized, the one on the R side is _______

A

hyperpolarizaed

283
Q

Describe the Vestibular pathway

(from sensory receptors to brainstem nuclei)

A
  1. bending sterocilia of hair cell
  2. depolarize/hyperpolarize the hair cell
  3. change in pattern of excitation/inhibition of peripheral axon of bipolar neuron in vestibular ganglia
  4. central axon forms vestibular branch of vestibulocochlear nerve
  5. exit petrous portion of temporal bone at internal acoustic meatus
  6. enter brainstem at junction of pons and medulla
  7. Fibers head to S/I and M/L vestibular nuclei
284
Q

Fibers from the semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule all go to specific vestibular nuclei. List them

A
  1. semicircular canal (crista ampullaris) → superior and medial vestibular nuclei
  2. utricle maculae → lateral vestibular nuclei
  3. saccule maculae → lateral and inferior vestibular nuclei
285
Q

Where do the vestibular nuclei project to after receiving input from the crista ampullaris and maculae?

A
  1. cerebellum flocculonodular lobe
  2. cervical spinal cord head turning muscles
    • medial vestibulospinal tract
  3. both cervical and lumbar spinal cord extensor muscles
    • lateral vestibulospinal tract
  4. CN III, IV, VI nuclei (via MLF)
  5. MLF
286
Q

Where do vestibular nuclei that project to the MLF head next?

A

bilateral ventro-basal complex of the thalamus

then

premotor and other regions of cerebral cortex (post central and adjacent associative cortex dealing with head proprioception)

287
Q

what are the components of the basal ganglia?

A
  1. caudate
  2. putamen
  3. globus pallidus
    1. internus = medial GP
    2. externus = lateral GP
  4. subthalamic nucleus
  5. substantia nigra
    1. compacta (dopamine)
    2. reticularis
288
Q

there are 3 structures within the basal ganglia that are made by combining 2 other structures. List those 3 structures

A
  1. striatum (neostriatum)
  2. ventral striatrum
  3. lentiform
289
Q

what is the striatum (neostriatum)?

A

caudate + putamen

290
Q

what is the ventral striatrum?

A

an area of striatum where caudate joints putamen it contains nucleus accumbens (primarily a limbic structure)

291
Q

what is the lentiform?

A

putamen + globus pallidus

292
Q

what is the overall function of the basal ganglia?

A

psychomotor (both behavior and motor)

293
Q

what types of behavior does the basal ganglia help regulate?

A

goal directed behavior

social behavior

emotions

294
Q

what type of motor tasks does the basal ganglia help regulate?

A
  1. decision making (initiation)
  2. judgement (how much force is needed)
  3. prioritizing (multi-joint movements and sequencing)
  4. emotional response
  5. learning
  6. eye movements
  7. spatial attention
295
Q

The basal ganglia acts by ________ to the motor cortex (ie. it is __________)

A

reducing excitatory input

(ie. it is inhibitory)

296
Q

Most afferent input to the basal ganglia is _________

A

excitatory

297
Q

what supplies input to the basal ganglia?

A
  1. cerebral cortex
    • (glutamate = excitatory)
  2. pedunculopontine nucleus (PPN)
    • (glutamate and AcH = excitatory)
  3. raphe nucleus
    • (serotonin = inhibitory)
298
Q

efferent output from the basal ganglia utilizes what NT?

A

GABA

inhibitory

299
Q

efferent output from the basal ganglia is headed to what structures?

A
  1. thalamus
  2. Pedunculopontine nucleus (PPN)
  3. Tectum
300
Q

what areas of the thalamus does the basal ganglia interact with?

A
  1. VA and VL = motor
  2. MD = limbic to decrease activity precentral gyrus
301
Q

what is the role of efferent output from the basal ganglia to the peduncopontine nucleus (PPN)?

A

to increase activity of axial, postural muscles

(this nucleus controls the reticulospinal tracts)

302
Q

what is the role of effernet output from the basal ganglia to the tectum?

A

decrease activity of stepping pattern generators (walking)

affect reflex eye movements

303
Q

the basal ganglia can be broken down into how many pathways? List them.

A

5

  1. goal-directed behavior loop
  2. social behavior loop
  3. emotion loop
  4. oculomotor loop
  5. motor loop
304
Q

what are the 3 non-motor loops in the basal ganglia?

A
  1. goal-directed behavior loop
  2. social behavior loop
  3. emotion loop
305
Q

describe the goal-directed behavior loop and what it’s function is

A

loop: prefrontal cortex → cuadate →GPi → decrease VA thalamus
function: decision making, goal-directed behavior, planning, choosing action, learning

306
Q

describe the social behavior loop and it’s function

A

loop: prefrontal cortex → head/caudate nucleus + SN reticularis → MD Thalamus

Function: recognize social cues, regulate self-control, evaluates what info is relevant and irrelevant

307
Q

describe the emotion loop and it’s function

A

loop: prefrontal cortex → striatum → MD thalamus

Function: link emotions to cognitive and motor systems, reward seeking, outcome prediction

308
Q

describe the oculomotor loop and it’s function

A

Loop: frontal and supplemental eye fields → caudate nucleus → SN reticularis → decrease activity VA thalamus allow for reflexive prosaccades

Function: spatial attention, initiate fast eye movements toward an object (prosaccades)

309
Q

the motor loops of the basal ganglia can be further subdivided into 3 more pathways. What are they?

A
  1. hyper direct no go
  2. go pathway
  3. no go pathway
310
Q

describe the hyper direct no go pathway

A

cortex → subthalamic nuclei → GPi:

results in:

  • inhibit motor thalamus
  • inhibit PPN → increase activity of reticulospinal tract/postural and girdle muscles by inhibiting an inhibitor (disinhibition)
  • inhibit midbrain locomotor/step pattern generator
311
Q

what is the go pathway?

A

direct pathway that decreases activity of GPi

results in disinhibition of:

  1. motor thalamus and cortex = increase precentral gyrus activity
  2. PPN = inhibition of reticulospinal/postural and girdle muscle activity
  3. midbrain locomotor/step pattern generator
312
Q

what is the no go pathway?

A

indirect pathway, works by inhibiting GPe which normally inhibits GPi = disinhibition to increase activity of GPi

313
Q

what is the result of the no go pathway?

A

inhibition of:

motor thalamus/cortex

PPN reticulospinal/postural and girdle muscle activity

midbrain locomotor/step pattern generator

314
Q

what is the role of the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia

A

modulates the neostriatum to modulate GPi

315
Q

what is the input and output of the substantia nigra reticularis?

A
  1. Input = GABA inhibitory from neostriatum
  2. Output = GABA inhibitory to:
    • substantia nigra compacta
    • midbrain tectum
    • motor thalamus
316
Q

what is the input and output of the substantia nigra compacta?

A
  1. Input = GABA inhibitory from substantia nigra reticularis
  2. Output = dopamine stimulation and inhibition of neostriatum
  3. effect = modulate neostriatum to modulate GP
317
Q

what occurs if the substantia nigra is inhibited?

A

disinhibition of:

  1. Thalamus → increased motor cortex activity
  2. Tectum → increased eye movement, step generator
  3. substantia nigra compacta
318
Q

how is the substantia nigra reticularis inhibited? Describe the pathway

A

Cortex → stimulates putamen → inhibits SN reticularis

319
Q

what causes Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  1. loss of DA from substantia nigra pars compacta
  2. go pathway is no longer stimulated → decreased thalamic motor activity
  3. no go pathway is no longer inhibited → decreased thalamic motor activity
320
Q

what causes Huntington’s Disease?

A
  1. due to loss of GABA from neostriatum
  2. no go pathway no longer inhibits thalamus → increased thalamic motor activity
321
Q

What is the difference between a hypokinetic and hyperkinetic disease?

A

hypokinetic = decreased bodily movements (PD)

hyperkinetic = increased bodily movements (Huntington’s)

322
Q

what is the function of the cerebellum?

A

modulation of:

  1. somatomotor signaling
  2. balance
  3. tone
323
Q

What structures make up the general gross anatomy of the cerebellum?

A
  1. 2 hemispheres joined by vermis
  2. anterior lobe (paleocerebellum)
  3. posterior lobe (neocerebellum)
  4. flocculonodular lobe
  5. lateral anterior and posterior lobe
  6. vermal/paravermal (medial anterior and posterior lobe)
  7. nuclei
  8. peduncles
324
Q

describe the general makeup of the 2 hemispheres of the cerebellum

A
  1. cortex = gray matter
  2. white matter below cortex = afferent and efferent axons
  3. nuclei = gray matter located in white matter below cortex
325
Q

what is the anterior lobe (paleocerebellum) also called? why? What is it’s function?

A
  1. also called spinocerebellum
  2. becuase it receives spinal cord afferents
  3. functions = controlling axial muscle tone; and a degree of flexion and extension
326
Q

what is the posterior (neocerebellar) lobe also called and why? what is it’s function?

A
  1. cerebrocerebellum = it is linked to cerebrum and has input and output to the cerebral cortex
  2. function = planning, organization, and coordination of motor activity
327
Q

What is the flocculonodular lobe also called? What is it’s function?

A
  1. vestibulocerebellum (called this because it receives input from vestibular system)
  2. function = control of eyes and head position
328
Q

what is the role of the lateral anterior and posterior lobes?

A

efferent fine motor to limbs

329
Q

what is the role of the vermal/paravermal (also called medial anterior and posterior) lobes?

A

efferent axial muscles for head turning, posture, and tone

330
Q

list the nuclei found in the cerebellum

A
  1. fastigial nucleus
  2. dentate nucleus
  3. globose nucleus
  4. emboliform nucleus
331
Q

what is the role of the fastigial nucleus?

A

relay efferent signals to vestibular nuclei and reticular formation

332
Q

what is the role of the dentate nucleus?

A

relay efferent signals to cortex via superior cerebellar peduncle

333
Q

what is the role of the globose nucleus?

A

efferent to red nucleus

334
Q

what is the role of the emboliform nucleus?

A

efferent to red nucleus

335
Q

what does the inferior peduncle carry?

A

afferent from spinal cord/medulla

(cuneocerebellar, rostrocerebellar, postrerior spinocerebellar)

336
Q

what does the middle peduncle carry?

A

afferent from cerebal cortex to cerebellum via pontine nuclei

337
Q

what does the superior peduncle carry?

A
  1. efferent from cerebellar nuclei to brainstem and cortex
    • (dentate nucleus → cortex
    • interposed nuclei → brain stem)
  2. afferent from anterior spinocerebellar
338
Q

What structures supply afferent input to the cerebellum?

A
  1. spinal cord = body
  2. inferior olivary nucleus
  3. vestibular apparatus
  4. reticular formation
  5. cerebral cortex
  6. tectum
  7. mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus
339
Q

how does the spinal cord supply afferent input to the cerebellum?

A

body to vermis and perivermal cortex of anterior and adjacent lobes

via:

  1. dorsal spinocerebellar → proprioceptors of legs
  2. ventral spinocerebellar → monitor ventral horn activity of leg spinal cord segments
  3. cuneocerebellar → proprioceptors of arms
  4. rostrocerebellar → monitor ventral horn acitivity of arm spinal cord segments
340
Q

the inferior olivary nucleus is a relay and receives input from where?

A
  1. spinal cord → proprioceptors
  2. sensory motor cerebral cortex → red nucleus → inferior olivary nucleus

sends output to anterior and posterior lobes of cerebellar hemispheres

341
Q

the reticular formation provides afferent input to what part of the cerebellum?

A

vermis and paravermis of anterior and posterior lobes

342
Q

how does the cerebral cortex provide afferent input to the cerebellum?

A

3 ways:

  1. via red nucleus → inferior olivary nucleus which sends input to A/P lobes of cerebellar hemispheres
  2. via deep pontine nucleus → sends input to A/P lobes of cerebellar hemispheres
  3. via reticular formation → to vermis and paravermis of A/P lobes
343
Q

how does the tectum supply afferent input to the cerebellum?

A

S/I colliculi to A/P lobes of cerebellar hemispheres

344
Q

what does the mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus supply afferent input to?

A

vermal and paravermal regions of cerebellum

345
Q

afferent inputs to the cerebellum have 2 types of fibers, what are they?

A
  1. mossy fibers
  2. climbing fibers
346
Q

what are mossy fibers?

A

glutamate excitatory fibers from all areas of afferent input except inferior olivary nucleus

347
Q

what do mossy fibers synapse with?

A
  1. deep cerebellar nuclei
  2. excitatory granule cells of cortex
  3. inhibitory golgi cells of cortex
348
Q

what are climbing fibers?

A

glutamate excitatory fibers from inferior olivary nucleus

349
Q

what do climbing fibers synpase on?

A
  1. deep cerebellar nuclei
  2. Purkinje cells of cortex making the refractile to granule cell stimulation
350
Q

What cells make up the 3 layers of the cerebellar cortex?

A
  1. granule and golgi cells = innermost layer
  2. Purkinje cell = middle layer
  3. basket cell = molecular layer = surface layer
351
Q

List the basic functions of the thalamus

A
  1. filter and process afferent input from:
    • basal ganglia (VA, VL)
    • cerebellum (VL)
    • all conscious sensory except olfaction
  2. send efferent output to cerebral cortex
352
Q

List the type of sensory info that is processed by the thalamus and where it is processed/filtered.

A
  1. body somatosensation (VPL)
  2. head somatosensation (VPM)
  3. vision (lateral geniculate)
  4. auditory (medial geniculate)
  5. taste (VPM)
  6. balance (VPL)
353
Q

the thalamus is functionally divided into 3 nuclei types. List them

A
  1. relay
  2. association
  3. nonspecific
354
Q

what is the role of relay thalamic nuclei?

A

connect BG, cerebellum, and conscious sensory (except olfaction) to the cerebral cortex

355
Q

relay thalamic nuclei can be subdivided by whether it is motor or sensory relays. List the portion of the thalamus that is responsible for each

A
  1. motor = VA, VL
  2. sensory = VPM, VPL, medial/lateral geniculate
356
Q

what is the role of associative thalamic nuclei?

A

sensory, memory, emotion (limbic function) integration

357
Q

what portions/parts of the thalamus are associative nuclei? Pair the location with it’s associative role

A
  1. declarative memory
    • anterior nuclei
    • lateral dorsal nuclei
    • midline nuclei
  2. sensory integration
    • lateral posterior
    • pulvinar
  3. emotion
    • medial group
358
Q

what is the role of nonspecific thalamic nuclei?

A

regulate consciousness, arousal, attention

359
Q

what portions of the thalamus are nonspecific nuclei?

A

interlaminar nuclei

reticular nuclei

**these modulate the signals of the other thalamic nuclei

360
Q

what is the hypothalamus?

A

about a dozen nuclei located in the diencephalon

connected to the pituitary by infundibulum

**king of homeostasis

361
Q

what are the functions of the hypothalamus

A

regulate homeostasis → subdivided into 2 categories:

  1. visceral regulation
  2. behavior regulation
362
Q

What does the hypothalamus visceral (unconscious autonomic reflex) control include?

A
  1. reflex control for viscerosensory afferent and autonomic motor efferent
  2. endocrine control
  3. thermoregulation
363
Q

what hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for reflex control of viscersensory afferent and autonomic motor efferent?

A

paraventricular nuclei

364
Q

what brainstem nuclei coordinate with the paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus to control BP?

A
  1. viscerosensory afferent for BP = solitary nuclei
  2. autonomic motor efferent for BP:
    1. PNS = dorsal motor nuclei (decrease BP)
    2. SNS = ventrolateral medulla (increase BP)
365
Q

the hypothalamus coordinates and controls what endocrine organ to influence endocrine function?

A

pituitary gland

366
Q

what hypothalamic nuclei communicate with the posterior pituitary? What hormones do these nuclei release?

A

supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

ADH = increase BP, fluid retention

Oxytocin = “feel good hormone”

367
Q

what hypothalamic nuclei influence and control the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary?

A

arcuate nuclei

ventromedial nuclei

dorsomedial nuclei

tuberal nuclei

368
Q

how do hypothalamic nuclei influence the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary?

A

the hypothalamic nuclei release tropins (+/- factors) that will either inhibit/stimulate the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary

369
Q

what hypothalamic nuclei control/influence rhythmic endocrine control?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus = circadian (time of year)

preoptic nucleus = diurnal (time of day)

370
Q

what hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for thermoregulation?

A

preoptic nuclei

371
Q

what does the process of thermoregulation involve?

A
  1. heat loss center
  2. heat conservation center
372
Q

how does the heat loss center perform thermoregulation?

A

↑blood temp →hypothalamus thermosensory cells →cardiovascular & respiratory centers →vasodilation/perspiration & panting

373
Q

how does the heat conservation center perform thermoregulation?

A

↓blood temp →hypothalamus thermosensory cells →brainstem control centers →vasoconstriction, ↑CO, ↑metabolism, piloerection, shivering

374
Q

what behaviors are influenced by hypothalamic nuclei?

A
  1. drinking
  2. feeding
  3. sexual
  4. emotional
  5. sleep
  6. memory
375
Q

what hypothalamic nucleus is the thirst center?

A

paraventricular nucleus

376
Q

what hypothalamic nuclei influence feeding behaviors?

A

dorsomedial nucleus

ventromedial nucleus

377
Q

T/F: feeding behaviors are tied to the limbic system and have an emotional aspect to them?

A

TRUE

feeding center = governed by olfaction, taste and amgydala

378
Q

what is the satiety center?

A

set point relative to metabolic rate, previous caloric intake, and current calorie intake

379
Q

what hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for sexual behaviors?

A

preoptic

(female hypothalamus has estrogen and progesteron receptors)

(male hypothalamus has testosterone receptors)

380
Q

what hypothalamic nuclei are responsible for emotional behaviors?

A

aggression/fight or flight behavior

dorsomedial nucleus

ventromedial nucleus

mamillary bodies

381
Q

what hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for sleep behavior?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

382
Q

what hypothalamic nuclei are responsible for memory?

A

dorsomedial nucleus

ventromedial nucleus

mamillary bodies

383
Q

other than the hypothalamus and thalamus, what other structures are in the diencephalon?

A

subthalamus

epithalamus

384
Q

what is the function of the subthalamus?

A

relay for basal ganglion mediated motor modulation

385
Q

what is the epithalamus made up of?

A
  1. habenular complex
  2. pineal gland
386
Q

what is the role of the habenular complex?

A

it is a relay linking the limbic system/hypothalamus to the midbrain

387
Q

what is the role of the pineal gland?

A

it is an endocrine gland whose function is not well characterized but may include:

  1. day length modulated hormone release
  2. secretion of:
    1. neurosecretory hormones (NE, serotonin, and melatonin)
    2. hypothalamic releasing/inhibitory factors
388
Q

what is the limbic system?

A

a collection of structures in the telencephalon and diencephalon whose overall function is to modulate the hypothalamus and PAG to affect emotional behavior, motivation, and short term memory

389
Q

what structures are included in the limbic system?

A
  1. hippocampal formation
    1. hippocampus
    2. dentate gyrus
    3. subicular gyrus (parahippocampal gyrus)
  2. septal area
    1. M/L septal nuclei
    2. diagonal band of Broca
  3. amygdale
  4. prefrontal cortex
  5. cingulated gyrus
  6. substantia innominate
  7. insula
390
Q

what is a defining property of a limbic structure?

A

it communicates with the hypothalamus and PAG to modulate the activity of these structures

391
Q

what are the specific functions of the hippocampal formation?

A
  1. modulation of aggression and rage
  2. autonomic and endocrine = visceral
  3. learning and memory
    • via long term potentiation
392
Q

what are the specific functions of the septal area?

A
  1. modulation of aggression and rage
  2. autonomic visceral
  3. drinking behavior
393
Q

what are the specific functions of the amgydale?

A
  1. aggression and rage
  2. feeding behavior
  3. cardiovascular, endocrine visceral
  4. learning and memory
394
Q

what are the specific limbic functions of the prefrontal cortex?

A
  1. emotional and intellectual processes
  2. suppresses aggression and rage
  3. affects feeding behaviors
  4. visceral functions:
    1. BP, respiration, gastric motility, thermoregulation
395
Q

what are the specific limbic functions of the cingulated gyrus?

A

function is similar to that of prefrontal cortex

396
Q

what are the specific limbic functions of the substantia innominata?

A
  1. relay between amygdale and hypothalamus
  2. contains basal nucleus of Meynert = a cholinergic efferent to cortex and other limbic structures
397
Q

what supplies afferent input to the limbic system?

A
  1. special senses
  2. reticular formation monoamine neuronal projections
  3. hypothalamus feedback connections
  4. thalamus
398
Q

T/F: the limbic system has an associative aspect to it?

A

TRUE

different parts of the limbic system are interconnected

399
Q

List the efferent outputs from the limbic system

A
  1. thalamus
  2. hypothalamus
  3. cerebral cortex
  4. periaqueductal gray
400
Q

briefly describe the reticular system

A

a diffuse set of nuclei located in the core of the brainstem running from the diencephalon to the spinal cord. It has synaptic connections with ascending and descending tracts as well as CN nuclei

401
Q

what is the function of the reticular system?

A
  1. modulate sensory, motor and autonomic activity
  2. behavioral
    1. sleep/wake (RAS)
    2. consciousness
    3. emotion
    4. refine motor signals
    5. pain modulation
402
Q

List the afferent inputs to the reticular system

A
  1. conscious sensation (somatosensation and special sensory)
  2. motor
  3. autonomic
403
Q

what provides conscious sensation afferent input to the reticular system?

A
  1. discriminative pain sensation from body/head
  2. nondiscriminative pain sensation from body
  3. special senses
404
Q

describe the discriminative pain from body/head pathway (with respect to the reticular system)

A

spinothalamic/trigeminothalamic tract → reticular formation → thalamus (VPM/VPL) → cortex/post central gyrus → localized pain response

405
Q

describe the nondiscriminative pain pathway (with respect to the reticular system(

A

spinoreticular tract → reticular formation → thalamus (non discriminative) → hypothalamus/cortex → emotional non localizable pain response

406
Q

what supplies motor afferent input to the reticular system?

A
  1. sensory/motor cortex → reticular formation (PPN) → reticulospinal tracts → affect extensor motor neurons → affect posture
  2. cerebellum
    • cortex → reticular formation → fastigial nucleus and vermal/paravermal
407
Q

what automonic structures provide afferent input to the reticular system?

A
  1. chemo and baroreceptors
    • CN 9 and 10 → inferior ganglia → solitary nucleus → reticular formation → dorsal motor nucleus/ventrolateral → PNS/SNS control of BP
  2. limbic structures
  3. hypothalamus
408
Q

List the efferent outputs of the reticular system

A
  1. nonspecific thalamic nuclei
  2. PAG
  3. from monoamine and cholinergic nuclei of reticular formation to the cortex, hypothalamus and limbic system
  4. cerebral cortex
  5. spinal cord
  6. horizontal gaze center
  7. autonomic function
409
Q

how does the reticular formation increase/decrease activity of the thalamus and cortex to regualte wakefulness?

A
  1. ACh (PPN) and serotonin (raphe nucleus) → sleep
  2. NE (locus cerulus) → wakefulness
410
Q

what are alpha and beta rhythms with respect to sleep?

A
  1. alpha rhythm = awake
  2. beta rhythm = REM sleep = dreaming sleep
411
Q

the autonomic nervous system is made up of many _________

A

neural loops

it is all reflexive

412
Q

list the neurons that make up a neural loop within the autonomic nervous system.

A
  1. interoreceptors
  2. viscerosensory neurons
  3. association neurons
  4. autonomic motor neurons
  5. effectors
413
Q

what are interoreceptors?

A

receptors in the ANS that monitor body internal conditions

414
Q

what are viscerosensory neurons?

A

ANS neurons that send/carry unconscious input to the CNS

415
Q

what is the role of association neurons in the ANS?

A

control center

function to formulate a response to viscerosensory input

located in a variey of integrating centers within the CNS

416
Q

list locations where association neurons in the ANS can be found

A
  1. upper level emotional center (limbic)
  2. hypothalamus
    • paraventricular nucleus
    • dorsomedial, posterior and mammillary nuclei
  3. brain stem/reticular
    • CN 3, 7, 9, 10
    • ventrolateral medulla
  4. spinal cord dorsal/lateral horns
    • T1-L2 and S1-S3
417
Q

autonomic motor neurons can be subdivded into what 2 categories?

A

sympathetic

parasympathetic

418
Q

list some categories for effector tissues in the ANS

A
  1. smooth muscle (gut wall, blood vessels, etc.)
  2. cardiac muscle
  3. glands (secretory cells)
419
Q

how are sensory neurons different between the somatic and autonomic nervous system?

A
  1. somatic → conscious, percieved sensation (special senses and somatic sense)
  2. autonomic → primarily monitor conditions in the interior of the body
    • sensory receptors are chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors
    • NOT consciously percieved
420
Q

how are motor neurons different between the somatic and autonomic nervous system?

A
  1. somatic → always excite skeletal muscle to cause contraction
    • the effector they are stimulating has no intrinisc activity
  2. autonomic → control effector function by either increasing or decreasing the intrinisc activity
    • the effector they are stimulating has intrinsic activity (like HR)
421
Q

how are motor (efferent) pathways different between the somatic and autonomic nervous system?

A
  1. somatic → motor neuron pathway consists of 1 neuron going from ventral horn of spinal cord gray matter directly to effector muscle
  2. autonomic → consists of 2 neurons
    • preganglionic
    • postganglionic
422
Q

what is a preganglionic neuron in a motor neuron pathway in the ANS?

A

neuron is located in the lateral horn of the spinal cord gray matter

or

in the cranical nerve nuclei of the brain stem.

they send myelinated axons to the 2nd (postganglionic) neuron

423
Q

what is a postganglionic neuron in the ANS?

A

located in a nerve cell ganglion which sends an unmyelinated axon to the effector (smooth/cardiac muscle or gland)

424
Q

T/F: most targets of ANS motor neurons have nerve endings from both the sympathetic and parasympatheic parts of the ANS?

A

TRUE

called dual innervation

one will increase activity while the other decreses it

the NT released by either determines if it will be increasing/decreasing activity

425
Q

differentiate between the location of sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons

A
  1. sympathetic → cell bodies located in lateral horn T1-L2
  2. parasympathetic → cell bodies located in CN nuclei of brain stem (3,7,9,10) and lateral horn of S2-S4
426
Q

differentiate between the location of sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

A
  1. sympathetic
    • sympathetic trunk (paravertebral) ganglia
    • prevertebral ganglia
    • adrenal gland cells of adrenal medulla
  2. parasympathetic
    • ciliary ganglia
    • pterygopalatine ganglia
    • otic ganglia
    • submandibular ganglia
427
Q

what/where are the sympathetic trunk (paravertebral) ganglia?

A

two chains of ganglia that run the length of the vertebral column

located along the sides of the vertebral column

428
Q

what/where are the prevertebral ganglia?

A

lie anterior to the vertebral column and close to large abdominal arteries

include:

  1. celiac
  2. aorticorenal
  3. superior mesenteric
  4. inferior mesenteric ganglion
429
Q

where are parasympathetic ganglia located?

A

close to/within the organ of innervation

result is a long preganglionc fiber and a short postganglionic fiber

430
Q

what connects pre to postganglionic neurons?

A
  1. white rami
  2. gray rami
  3. splanchnic nerves
  4. vagus nerves
  5. carotid periarterial plexus
431
Q

what do white rami connect?

A

these carry preganglionic sympathetic axons to paravertebral ganglia

432
Q

what do gray rami connect?

A

these carry postganglionic sympathetic axons back to spinal nerve for distribution with peripheral nerves

433
Q

what do splanchnic nerves connect?

A

carry preganglionic sympathetic axons from paravertebral chain to prevertebral ganglia

434
Q

describe how an autonomic motor pathway generally functions within the sympathetic system

A

mass activate targets due to divergence of neurons resulting in stimulation of many effector targerts, and release of the hormone epinephrine

435
Q

describe how an autonomic motor pathway in the parasympathetic system generally functions

A

do not mass activate target organs

instead at the target organ the fiber synapses with a few postganglionic neurons which act on only one target organ at that location

436
Q

what are the broad categories of neuron type according to NT/receptor?

A
  1. Cholinergic → release ACh
  2. Adrenergic → release NE
437
Q

T/F: all sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholingeric?

A

TRUE

438
Q

what type of postganglionic fibers are cholinergic?

A

all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

sympathetic postganglionic neurons to sweat glands

439
Q

cholinergic neurons will interact with what type of receptors?

A

cholingeric receptos:

  1. nicotinic → always lead to depolarization/stimulation of target
  2. muscarinic → found in all effectors innervated by PNS postganglionic neurons, can lead to either depolarization/hyperpolarization of the target
440
Q

adrenergic neurons will interact with what types of receptors?

A

adrenergic (alpha and beta)

  • 1’s → depolarize and excite
  • 2’s → hyperpolarize and inhibt
441
Q

what terminates the effects of NTs?

A
  1. enzymatic inactivation
    • acetylcholinesterase
    • COMT
    • MAO
  2. removed from synapse by endocytosis
  3. NT diffuses out of synapse
442
Q

what regulates the activity of both PNS and SNS nerves to achieve a balance of inhibition and stimulation?

A

hypothalamus

443
Q

list the structures that are not dual innervated and recieve only sympathetic innervation

A
  1. sweat glands (ACh sympathetic)
  2. erector pili muscles
  3. most blood vessels
  4. adrenal medulla
444
Q

why are sympathetic responses longer lasting than PNS responses?

A
  1. divergence of postganglionic fibers to activate effector targets in several tissues at once
  2. slower inactivation of NE in synapse
  3. presence of NE and Epi from adrenal medulla in blood
445
Q

list body functions that are increased by parasympathetic nerves

A

SLUDD

  1. salivation
  2. lacrimation
  3. urination
  4. digestion
  5. defecation
446
Q

list the body functions decreased by the parasympathetic nerves

A
  1. HR
  2. airway diameter
  3. pupil diameter
447
Q

T/F: the cortex controls autonomic reflexes just like it does motor reflexes?

A

FALSE
the hypothalamus controls autonomic reflexes

there is a lack of awareness or consciousness with autonomic functions

DPT Semester 2 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions