neuroscience exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the job of the basal ganglia?

A

initiation of mvmt

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2
Q

what is the job of the cerebellum?

A

coordination of ONGOING mvmt

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3
Q

where do UMNs deliver signal to?

A

brainstem and spinal cord

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4
Q

where do LMNs transmit signals to?

A

directly to skeletal muscles

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5
Q

where is the cell body of a LMN?

A

in the ventral horn

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6
Q

what is a motor unit?

A

an alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates

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7
Q

where does the alpha motor neuron project to?

A

project to extrafusal muscle
releases ACh to contract them

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8
Q

where does the gamma motor neuron project to?

A

intrafusal fibers in the muscle spindle
responsible for proprioception

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9
Q

what do extrafusal muscle fibers do?

A

generate force

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10
Q

describe intrafusal muscle fibers

A

too small to generate significant force
very very actin/myosin
innervated by sensory and motor
helps detect muscle stretch

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11
Q

how are cell bodies of LMNs organized?

A

extensors - anterior
flexors - posterior
distal muscles - lateral
proximal muscles - medial

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12
Q

what are some signs of lower motor syndrome?

A

paresis/paralysis
hypotonia/flaccidity
decreased/loss of reflexes
atrophy - more severe than UMN
involuntary muscle contraction

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13
Q

define fasciciulations

A

quick twitches
entire motor unit
visible on skin
not always pathologic
if last for days-weeks can be pathologic

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14
Q

define fibrillations

A

brief contractions
single muscle fiber
not visible to eye
always pathologic

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15
Q

what does the medial corticospinal tract do?

A

controls neck, shoulder, and trunk muscles

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16
Q

what does the reticulospinal tract do?

A

control bilateral postural muscles, antigravity and gross limb mvmts

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17
Q

what does the lateral vestibulospinal tract do?

A

control postural muscles
maintain COG over BOS in upright position

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18
Q

what does the medial vestibulospinal tract do?

A

control neck and upper neck muscles

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19
Q

what does the lateral corticospinal tract do?

A

controls selective motor control, fine distal mvmts
isolating one joint
is affected most in stroke/TBI

dr. rawal’s most important - will most likely have ?’s on test

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20
Q

what does the rubrospinal tract do?

A

control extension of wrist and fingers

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21
Q

what does the lat CS tract pass through between the cortex and the midbrain?

A

internal capsule

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22
Q

if there is a lesion at T12 in the right side, which impairments will the person have?

A

DCML: ipsi (crosses above lesion)
ST: contra (crosses after lesion)
lat CS: ipsi (crosses above lesion)
med CS: no effect (does not reach T12)

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23
Q

where do fibers project to in the corticobrainstem tracts?

A

CN nuclei in the brainstem

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24
Q

are CB injuries ipsi or contra?

A

isolated CN - ipsi
brainstem injury - contra

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25
Q

what are the 5 steps between a decision and the skeletal muscle?

A

neural activity begins with decision in anterior frontal lobe

motor planning areas active, followed by control circuits

control circuits, consisting of cerebellum and basal ganglia, regulate activity in UMN tracts

UMN tracts deliver signals to spinal interneurons and LMNS

LMNs transmit signals directly to skeletal muscles, eliciting a contraction

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26
Q

what are examples of UMN syndromes?

A

tumor
stroke
MS
TBI
CP
ALS
SCI

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27
Q

what are examples of LMN syndromes?

A

ALS
polio
CN injury
bells palsy - CN7
nerve lesion
peripheral neuropathy

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28
Q

10 common impairments in UMN lesions

A

abnormal synergy - mus cannot coordinate
abnormal co-contraction
hyperreflexia
muscle contracture - tightens mus
hypertonia
muscle overactivity
muscle tone - high or low cause weaker mus
myoplasticity
paresis
spasticity

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29
Q

what are peripheral nerve?

A

any nerve distal to spinal nerves

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30
Q

what deficits does a lesion in a spinal nerve show?

A

myotomal/dermatomal distribution

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31
Q

what deficits does a lesion in a peripheral nerve show?

A

peripheral nerve distribution

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32
Q

what does the cervical plexus innervate?

A

cutan info from post scalp to clavicle
anterior neck muscles
diaphragm

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33
Q

what does the brachial plexus innervate?

A

entire UE

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34
Q

what does the lumbar plexus innervate?

A

skin and muscles of ant and medial thigh

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35
Q

what does the sacral plexus innervate?

A

post thigh and most of leg and foot

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36
Q

what are 4 signs of peripheral nerve damage?

A

sensory changes
autonomic changes
motor changes
denervation: trophic changes (pain and temp)

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37
Q

what kind of injuries cause mononeuropathy?

A

trauma

traumatic myelinopathy
traumatic axonopathy
traumatic severance

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38
Q

lundborg classification

A

physiological conduction block, myelin damage
axonal damage
axon + endo damage
axon + endo + peri damage
axon + endo + peri + epi damage

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39
Q

sunderland classification

A

I
II
III
IV
V

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40
Q

seddon classification

A

neurapraxia (transient block)
axonotmesis (lesion in continuity)
neurotmesis (division of a nerve) (stage 3-5 of sunder)

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41
Q

what is traumatic myelinopathy?

A

loss of myelin limited to site of injury
interferes with function of large diameter axons
focal compression is a cause

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42
Q

prognosis of myelinopathy

A

good in cases of focal compression

schwann can remyelinate

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43
Q

traumatic axonopathy

A

disrupts axons
affects all size axons

leaves mye intact
results in muscle atrophy, reduced reflexes, loss of sensation

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44
Q

can axons repair?

A

yes, if support structures are intact
regrowth: 1-2mm/day, 1 inch/month

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45
Q

what is axonal sprouting?

A

intact axons take over
changes in motor unit morphology

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46
Q

what happens during traumatic severance?

A

nerves are physically divided
complete interruption

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47
Q

describe repair of severance

A

requires surgical intervention
prognosis poor
muscle remains viable 12-18 months after denerv

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48
Q

what is multiple neuropathy?

A

2+ parts of the body
individual nerves are affected
random, asymmetrical presentation

diabetes or vascularitis

49
Q

what is polyneuropathy?

A

involving multiple nerves
symmetrical, progressing distal to proximal
stocking and glove pattern
NOT result of trauma
LMN

50
Q

what are the causes of polyneuro?

A

toxic
metabolic
autoimmune
therapeutic drugs

51
Q

what is distal symmetrical polyneuro?

A

length-dependent
distally affected first
not isolated to a pattern

large fiber: sensory ataxia, proprio, vibration loss
small fiber: pain, temp, autonomic dysfuction

52
Q

what are 3 types of acquired polyneuros?

A

diabetic
alcoholic
drug induced (chemo)

53
Q

what is diabetic polyneuro?

A

nerve damage not reversible
90% of DM pts present with it
worse at night

54
Q

what is charcot foot?

A

interaction of multiple factors within DM polyneuro
midfoot collapse with rockerbottom foot
orthotics necessary

55
Q

medical management of DM polyneuro

A

improve glycemic control
pain treatment challenging
meds: anticonvulsants, antidepressants, opioids

56
Q

PT for DM polyneuro

A

foot care
education
address balance/gait impairments
exercise

57
Q

describe alcoholic polyneuro

A

is it due to alcohol or vitamin def
nutrition usually poor
may be reversible
need to abstain from alcohol

58
Q

what is chemotherapy induced polyneuro?

A

neurotoxic effects of many cancer agents

very similar to DM polyneuro

59
Q

what is genetic polyneuro?

A

most common is charcot-marie-tooth:
slow prog
many subtypes
dom or recessive
slowly progressive

60
Q

symptoms of charcot marie tooth

A

high arch
foot drop
slapping gait
loss of muscle in lower legs
numbness in feet
difficulty with balance
later, appear in arms and hands

61
Q

what is guillain-barre syndrome?

A

polyneuro
paresis may be worse proximally
onset is rapid
treatment required to prevent respiratory failure
recovery of function proceeds proximal to distal

62
Q

diagnosis of polyneuro

A

eval guides treatment
look for patterns
nerve biopsy
genetic testing

63
Q

electrodiagnostic studies

A

electrical activity from nerve conduction and EMG studies

64
Q

nerve conduction studies

A

application of external current and record response from large diameter; myelinated axons

key parameters: latency, velocity, amplitude

65
Q

electromyography

A

insertion of recording electrode into muscle

key parameters: insertional and rest activity, recruitment activity

66
Q

general guidelines to diagnosing myelin

A

nerve study latency
nerve conduction velocity
slow nerve conduction

67
Q

general guidelines to diagnosing axons

A

nerve study amplitude - decrease
electromyography

68
Q

clinical testing

A

2/3 signs high evidence of peri neuro

absence of ankle jerk
impaired vibration
impaired position sense of great toe

69
Q

treatment of polyneuro

A

results of sensory, MMT, electrodiagnostic guide
education to prevent complications from damage

70
Q

sensory considerations of treatment

A

visually inspect areas
proper foot care
balance effects
nightlights for bathroom trips at night

71
Q

motor considerations of treatment

A

strengthen to prognosis and goals
consider whether pt is reconditioned
orthoses used to stabilize WB joints

72
Q

what is paresis and paralysis?

A

paresis: partial loss of voluntary contraction
paralysis: complete loss of voluntary contraction

happens in both UMN and LMN

73
Q

when corticospinal tracts are interrupted, which tract helps retain some movement of the upper arm?

A

reticulospinal

74
Q

what types of muscle atrophy do we see at UMN and LMN?

A

UMN: disuse from lack of muscle use
LMN: denervation of skeletal muscle - most severe

75
Q

what is impaired selective control?

A

interruption of lateral corticospinal tract
specific muscles cannot be activated independently

76
Q

what is spasticity?

A

hypertonia from UMN
abnormally strong resistance to passive stretch
velocity dependent
limits joint ROM

77
Q

what is rigidity?

A

velocity independent
increase in resistance to stretch
seen in parkinson’s (neither UMN or LMN)

78
Q

what is hypotonia?

A

seen in LMN
abnormally low resistance to passive stretch

79
Q

what is flaccidity?

A

lack of resistance to passive stretch
complete loss of muscle tone
seen initially in UMN and in LMN

80
Q

what happens to muscle tone when someone has a stroke?

A

when in initial shock, they will have hypotonia or flaccidity
once they start recovering, it will switch to hypertonia

81
Q

what is the clasp-knife response?

A

when a muscle is slowly passively stretched and resistance drops at a specific point in ROM

82
Q

what is a medication for spasticity?

A

botulinum toxin - prevents lower motor neurons from releasing ACh

83
Q

what are the components of a normal reflex?

A

sensory receptor
afferent neurons
integration
efferent neuron
effector organ

84
Q

describe the stretch reflex

A

whenever a muscle is stretched, excitation of spindle causes reflex contraction of muscle

85
Q

what are the most common abnormal reflexes?

A

hyperreflexia
clonus
babinski sign
hyporeflexia

86
Q

what is hyperreflexia?

A

loss of inhibitory corticospinal input combined with enhanced excitability of LMN response
excessive firing of LMN

postive - prevents muscle atrophy

87
Q

describe clonus

A

involuntary, repeating, rhythmic
sustained clonus is always pathological
lack of UMN control
count to 10 and documents 10+ beats

88
Q

describe babinski sign

A

extension of great toe, accompanied by fanning of other toes

stroke lateral sole of foot from heel to ball of foot

89
Q

what is myoplasticity?

A

adaptive structural changes within a muscle in response to changes in NM activity

90
Q

describe ALS

A

affects both UMN and LMN
onset between 40 and 70
20% more common in men
90% without family history
excessive glutamate
sensory will be normal

91
Q

what is guillain barre syndrome?

A

acute inflam and demy of peripheral fibers
good prognosis, eventually recover but may have some degree of weakness
2-3 weeks after mild infection
may need hospital for respiratory help

92
Q

what are common infections that kickstart GBS?

A

campylobacteriosis
mycoplasma
pneumoniae
epstein barr
varicella-zoster
zika

93
Q

what is the onset pattern of GBS

A

rapid onset, plateau then gradual recovery
symmetrical motor loss distal to proximal
recover proximal to distal

94
Q

which CN does GBS affect?

95
Q

treatment for GBS

A

plasmapheresis
intravenous immunoglobulin therapy
PT and OT rec
avoid overworking muscles
facilitate resolution of respiratory problems
orthotics

96
Q

tips to take care of feet

A

check everyday
wash everyday
smooth corns and calluses gently
trim your toenails straight across
wear shoes and socks always
protect your feet from hot and cold
keep blood flowing to feet
get foot check every dr visit

97
Q

which cranial nerves have autonomic functions?

A

3, 7, 9, 10

98
Q

what is the path of transmission of the olfactory nerve?

A

nasal receptors
olfactory bulbs
olfactory cortex in the insula

99
Q

how often do olfactory cells undergo replacement?

A

30-90 days

100
Q

what parts of the limbic system receive olfactory input?

A

amygdala - emotional response
hypothalamus - odor affects hunger
hippocampus - judgement and decisions involving smell

101
Q

summary of olfactory nerve

A

special sensory
afferents for olfaction

102
Q

how does the optic nerve work?

A

light strikes the retina and is converted into neural signals by photosensitive cells
info is carried by optic nerve

103
Q

what part of the thalamus is involved in vision?

A

lateral geniculate

104
Q

summary of optic nerve

A

special sensory
vision
afferents for pupillary and accommodation reflexes

105
Q

what is accommodation?

A

how good your lens acommodates near/far vision

106
Q

how would you test the optic nerve?

A

vision charts

107
Q

what are the 3 motor nerves of the eye?

A

oculomotor
trochlear
abducens

108
Q

what are the 6 extraocular muscles and their innervation?

A

lateral rectus - abd - 6
medial rectus - add - 3
inferior rectus - down - 3
superior rectus - up - 3
inferior oblique - extorsion (ER) - 3
superior oblique - intorsion (IR) - 6

109
Q

what are the other muscles of CN 3?

A

levator palpebrae superioris - lifts eyelid
pupillary sphincter muscles/iris muscles
ciliary muscles - changes shape of lens

110
Q

what is synergistic action related to eye muscles?

A

coordination between the two eyes

111
Q

what controls head and eye coordination?

A

MLF
the eyes will follow the head

112
Q

what CN does the MLF include?

A

3, 4, 6, 8, 11

113
Q

what are the parasym functions of CN 3?

A

constriction of the pupil

pupillary reflex: constriction of the pupil in the eye directly stimulates by bright light

consensual reflex: constriction of pupil in the other eye

accommodation reflex: contraction of muscles controlling the lens of eye

114
Q

summary of oculomotor nerve

A

motor:
moves eye up, down, medial, elevates eye lid

parasym:
consensual and accommodation reflexes

115
Q

summary of trochlear nerve

A

motor
moves eye medially and down (superior oblique)

116
Q

summary of abducens nerve

A

motor
abducts eye (lateral rectus)

117
Q

what is the masseter reflex?

A

masseter is tapped with reflex hammer, muscle contracts

118
Q

what is corneal reflex?

A

when cornea is touched, eyes close

119
Q

what is the swallowing reflex?

A

food touching entrance of pharynx elicits mvmt of soft palate and contraction of pharyngeal muscles