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GBE > Neuroscience, Behavioural and Social Science > Flashcards

Neuroscience, Behavioural and Social Science Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 parts of the cranium?

A

Neurocranium

Viscerocranium - facial bones in ant prt of cranium

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2
Q

What are bones in the neurocranium?

A

Skullcap/calvaria, Cranial/basicranium, Intracranial
Singular - Frontal, Ethmoidal, Sphenoidal, Occipital
Paired - Temporal, Parietal

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3
Q

What are the 7 bones in the viscerocranium?

A

Singular - Mandible, Vomer

Paired - Maxillae, Inf nasal cochlea, Zygomatic, Palatine, Nasal, Lacrimal

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4
Q

What is the only moveable joint of the cranium?

A

Mandible

Articulates with cranial base - temporomandibular joint

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5
Q

What are the regions of the brain?

A

Cerebral hemisphere - L + R, connect by corpus cavernosum
Diencephalon/Thalamus
Cerebellum
Brain stem: Midbrain, Pons, Medulla oblongata

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6
Q

What are the brain lobes?

A 
Frontal lobe
Occipital lobe
Cerebellum
Parietal lobe
Temporal lobe
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7
Q

What is the largest paired artery that supplies the meninges + origin?

A

Middle meningeal artery

Branch of maxillary artery, terminal branch of external carotid artery

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8
Q

What is the course of the middle meningeal artery?

A

Through foramen spinosum to supply dura mater + calvaria

Beneath pterion where skull v thin

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9
Q

Where is CSF formed?

A

Ventricles from choroid process

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10
Q

Where does CSF exit from?

A

Ventricular system via openings in roof of 4th ventricle ==> sub arachnoid space

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11
Q

How is CSF reabsorbed?

A

Via arachnoid granulations ==> systemic veins

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12
Q

What are N.T types?

A

Biogenic amides e.g. AcH, NO, adrenaline
AA e.g. glutamate
Peptide e.g. endorphins, somatostatin
Other e.g. ATP, NO

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13
Q

What is:
a) White matter?
b) Grey matter?
How differently arranged from brain and body?

A

a) Myelinated axons (stained black)
b) Cell bodies, dendrites, axons
White matter:
On outside in body
On inside in brains

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14
Q

What are the 4 types of neurons?

A

Projection neurons
Motor neurons
Peripheral sensory neurons
Local interneurons

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15
Q

What does:
a) Multipolar
b) Pseudounipolar
mean in terms of neurons and what types of neurons are these?

A

a) Each cell contains single axon + multiple dendrites - motor + local interneurons
b) Axon split ==> 2, 1 for dendrites to receive sensory info, other transmit info to spinal cord - sensory

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16
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

Face blindness

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17
Q

What are the different cortexes of brain?

A

Frontal lobe - motor (in front of central sulcus)
Parietal lobe - sensory/somatosensory (behind central sulcus)
Temporal lobe - hearing
Occipital - vision
Prefrontal lobe - cognition

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18
Q

What 2 ways does vision pathway split in the brain?

A

Dorsal attention - executive control of attention, where?

Ventral attention - recognition of salient features, what?

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19
Q

What cranial nerves are present in:

a) Midbrain?
b) Hindbrain?

A

a) III, IV

b) V-XII

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20
Q

Where is the:
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thalamus
located in relation to diencephalon?

A

a) Ventral diencephalon

b) Dorsal diencephalon

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21
Q

What is the function of the:

a) Basal ganglia?
b) Cerebellum?

A

a) Reward memories, modulate response of thalamus

b) Error calculation

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22
Q

What is locked in syndrome?

A

Damage to thalamus after stroke
Paralysis of body + most facial muscles
Consciousness remains + can move eyes

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23
Q

What is anencephaly?

A

Rostral head of neural tube fails close

Absence big portion of skull, scalp and brain

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24
Q

What is craniorachischisis?

A

Most severe neural tube defect

Both brain + spinal cord remain open

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25
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Spine + spinal cord x develop properly in womb

Gap in spine

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26
Q

What is:
a) Meningocele?
b) Meningomyelocele?
(In relation to spina bifida)

A

a) Bulge of CSF

b) Bulge of CSF and spinal cord

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27
Q

What happens when the spinothalamic pathway is lesioned in the internal capsule?

A

Contralateral anaesthesia

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28
Q

How many neurons is the spinothalamic route formed of?

A

3 neurons

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29
Q

Where is the first synapse in the:

a) Spinothalamic route?
b) Dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway?

A

a) Spinal cord

b) Medulla

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30
Q

Where is the second synapse in the:

a) Spinothalamic route?
b) Dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway?

A

a) Thalamus

b) Thalamus

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31
Q

Where is the third synapse in the:

a) Spinothalamic route?
b) Dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway?

A

a) Somatosensory cortex

b) Somatosensory cortex

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32
Q

Where does the:
a) Spinothalamic route
b) Dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway
decussate (cross sides)?

A

a) In spinal cord ventrally

b) Brainstem

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33
Q

What does the spinothalamic route carry and is it slow/fast conduction?

A

Pain, Temp, Crude (light) touch

Slow

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34
Q

What does the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway carry and is it slow/fast conduction?

A

Discriminative touch, Proprioception (conscious), Vibration sense
Fast

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35
Q

Where do 85% of axons on corticospinal pathway decussate?

A

Ventral medulla

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36
Q

What are the 4 physiological mechanisms of sensation?

A

Transduction
Transmission
Perception
Modulation

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37
Q

What 2 classes of sensory neurons are all submodalities of somatic sensation mediated by?

A

Dorsal root ganglion neurons (DRGs)

Trigeminal sensory neurons (TSNs)

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38
Q

What 4 properties of stimuli do receptors respond to?

A

Modality
Intensity
Duration
Location

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39
Q

What type of axons are most cold sensitive fibres?

A

Small myelinated A delta axons

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40
Q

What type of axons are most warm sensitive fibres?

A

Small unmyelinated C axons

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41
Q

What stimuli do nociceptors respond to?

A

Damaging/potentially damaging stimuli

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42
Q

What does the autonomic reflex activate?

A

Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Glands

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43
Q

What does the somatic reflex activate?

A

Skeletal muscle

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44
Q

What type of reflex:

a) Contains interneurons?
b) Controls stretch of leg muscles?

A

a) Polysynaptic reflex

b) Monosynaptic reflex

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45
Q

Where is the:
a) Muscle spindle
b) Golgi tendon organ
located in relation to muscle fibre?

A

a) Parallel to muscle fibre

b) Series to muscle fibre (musculotendon junction)

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46
Q

What is reciprocal innervation?

A

Excitation of 1 group of muscles + inhibition of their antagonist

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47
Q

What is cross cord reflex?

A

Contralateral limb compensates for loss of support when ipsilateral limb withdraws from painful stimulus in a withdrawal reflex

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48
Q

What is Renshaw cell/inhibition?

A

Inhibitory interneurons in gray matter of spinal cord
Associated alpha motor neuron
Receive excitatory collateral from neuron axon when emerge from motor root + “kept informed” how vigorously neuron firing

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49
Q

What are the 4 types of extrapyramidal tracts?

A

Vestibulospinal
Tectospinal
Reticulospinal
Rubrospinal

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50
Q

What is the Labyrinthine Righting reflex?

A

Lean off balance
Stimulate semicircular canals
Motor response of neck + limbs
Maintain upright posture

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51
Q

What is peripheral neuropathy?

A

Damage to nerve outside of spinal cord

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52
Q

What can you test for closed head injury e.g. bleed to brain?

A

Pressure to CR III

So change to eye movement (oculomotor reflex)

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53
Q

What are the 3 types of barriers in blood-brain barrier?

A

Physical barrier - continuous strands of tight junctions
Transportive/Selective barrier - high levels of transporters, reduced no of vesicles/fenestrations
Metabolic barriers - enzyme systems

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54
Q

What are the main sense organs?

A

Eyes, Ears, Tongue, Nose

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55
Q

How many taste receptor cells are in the taste buds?

A

50 -100

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56
Q

What is Retinitis Pigmentosia?

A

Loss of rod cells, x cure
Genetic
Loss of peripheral + gradual tunnel vision

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57
Q

Where are the mechanoreceptors found in the ear?

A

Cochlea ==> Organ of Corti, receptor cells of hearing with stereocilia

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58
Q

How many different odorant receptors are there?

A

100-200

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59
Q

Are EPSP all/nothing?

A

No - they’re graded

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60
Q

What are the pros of IPSPs and EPSP?

A

Diff transmitters can act on same post synaptic cell using diff receptors
Diff receptors/ion channels regulated independently
Independent post synaptic + presynaptic control of synaptic strength

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61
Q

What are the cons of IPSPs and EPSPs?

A

Metabolically expensive

Vulnerable to chem attack e.g. drugs + toxins

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62
Q

What are neuronal networks?

A

Functional hierarchies where signals from multiple inputs can converge on neurons within a nucleus + be integrated

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63
Q

What are the 3 diff configs of interneurons?

A

Feed-forward inhibition
Feedback inhibition
Recurrent inhibition

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64
Q

What is quantitative genetic design?

A

Identify what extent phenotype influenced by genes/environment.
X reveal which genes responsible for phenotype

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65
Q

What is molecular genetic designs?

A

Find which gene responsible for phenotype

X reveal what extent phenotype influenced by genes/environment

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66
Q

What is a functional explanation of behaviour?

A

Considering evolutionary advantage in terms of survival

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67
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Behaviours acquired through process of associative learning

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68
Q

What is:

a) UCS?
b) UCR?
c) CS?
d) CR?

A

a) Unconditioned stimulus - environ stimulus that prompts innate response/reflex
b) Unconditioned Response - innate
c) Conditioned Stimulus - present with UCS to provoke innate response when presented alone
d) Conditioned response - innate response/reflex activated by CS

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69
Q

What is habituation?

A

Diminishing of innate response to a frequently repeated stimulus

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70
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Behaviours acquired through learned process of reinforcement + punishment

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71
Q

What are the ABCs of operant conditioning?

A

A - Antecedents/Stimulus
B - Behaviour (operant)
C - Consequence - +ve/-ve reinforcement/punishment

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72
Q

What is the difference between reinforcement + punishment?

A

Reinforcement increase likelihood of behaviour
Punishment stop behaviour
E.g. -ve reinforcement, bob washes dishes to stop mum nagging

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73
Q

What is formative feedback?

A

Given before work complete to help revise + improve work

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74
Q

What is summative feedback?

A

FInal analysis of work which helps improve future work of similar type

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75
Q

What is social learning?

A

Behaviours acquired by observing significant others carrying them out

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76
Q

What is the COMB framework?

A

Capability
Motivation
Opportunity
of Behaviour

77
Q

What is sensation?

A

Functioning of sensory systems

Biological

78
Q

What is perception?

A

Interpretation of sensory input, organising input, +
assigning meaning
Cognitive

79
Q

What are the 3 stages of skill aquisition?

A

Cognitive stage - mental representation of skill
Associative stage - development of motor programme
Autonomous stage - skill becomes implicit

80
Q

What types of memory are associated with declarative memory?

A

Episodic

Semantic

81
Q

Which type of knowledge are:

a) Explicit memory?
b) Implicit memory?

A

a) Declarative knowledge

b) Procedural knowledge

82
Q

What are the 3 types of health behaviour?

A

Risky
Promoting/Protective
Illness related

83
Q

What are the determinants of health behaviour?

A 
Social factors
Reinforcement value
Symptoms
Emotional factors
Cognitive factors
84
Q

What are 2 interventions to change behaviour?

A

Info provision

Fear arousal

85
Q

What is self efficacy?

A

Belief/confidence that one can perform behaviour

86
Q

What are the social sciences?

A 
Sociology
Anthropology
Economics
Political Science
Psychology
87
Q

What is social integration?

A

Feeling connected to society, sense of belonging, life makes sense

88
Q

What is social regulation?

A

Implicit + explicit rules governing social behaviours

89
Q

What are the 4 categories of suicide?

A

Egoistic - insufficient social integration e.g single male
Altruistic - excessive social integration e.g kamikaze
Anomic - insufficient social regulation e.g Wall Street Crash
Fatalistic - excessive social regulation e.g. prison

90
Q

What are the 3 conceptual levels of understanding in contemporary sociology?

A

Macro level - how societies work
Meso Level - how organisations operate
Micro level - why peeps act + interact in certain ways

91
Q

What is the definition of tolerance?

In terms of recreational drug use

A

Individual needs progressively consume increasing amounts of drug to get same feeling as before.

92
Q

What is the definition of dependance?

A

Negative physiological + psychological state when drug access is prevented
Substance oft taken in larger amounts/over a longer period than was intended
Tolerance withdrawal can be present

93
Q

What is the definition of withdrawal?

A

(a) relate to withdrawal syndrome for substance
(b) substance taken to avoid withdrawal symptoms, can include: restlessness, insomnia, emotional instability, flu-like symptoms, sickness, appetite problems

94
Q

What are the biological factors of binge drinking?

A 
Reward pathway
Heritability
Orexin/Hypocretin
Epigenetics
Neuroimmune
95
Q

What pathway is involved in reward?

A

Mesocorticolimbic pathway - dopaminergic pathway

96
Q

What allele of what gene is common amongst alcohol/cocaine addicts?

A

D2 receptor gene - associated mit dopamine receptor density

A1 allele - reduced no of dopamine binding sites

97
Q

What is the A2 allele of the D2 receptor gene associated with?

A

Increased no of dopamine binding sites

98
Q

What dopamine agonist can reduce craving caused by A1 allele of D2 receptor gene?

A

Bromocriptine

99
Q

What is orexin?

A

Neuropeptide synthesized in hypothalamus + modulatory N.T systems

100
Q

Definition of non-adherence in medicine?

A

Patient’s medicine taking behaviour X match agreed recommendations made by their prescriber

101
Q

What systems of the body does stress activate?

A

Sympathetic NS and Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal (HPA) axis

102
Q

What are the 5 main areas of the brain involved in the HPA axis?

A 
Amygdala
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Prefrontal cortex
Hippocampus
103
Q

What are 4 functions of amygdala?

A

Concerned with emotion, motivation + fear
Receives info on events in world (e.g. threats), assesses danger + emotional info conveyed to other brain regions where defensive action organised (fight/flight)
2 amygdale, on each side brain
Release Corticotropin Releasing Factor (CRF)

104
Q

What gland does the regions of the brain in the HPA axis link to?

A

Adrenal glands

105
Q

What hormone from pituitary gland does the adrenal glands respond to and what does it release?

A

ACTH

Cortisol directly ==> bloodstream

106
Q

What does cortisol bind to?

A

Cortisol/Corticosterone bind to glucocorticoid receptors in hypothalamus, hippocampus, prefrontal cortex, pituitary gland

107
Q

How does the HPA axis system act in acute stress?

A

-ve feedback system
Cascade release of CRF-CRF-ACTH, increase in cortisol secretion from adrenal cortex
Attaches to GR on PFC, Hippo, Hypo + Pituitary
Inhibition (direct + indirect) leads to decrease in CRF + ACTH & less cortisol secreted
Cortisol back to baseline levels

108
Q

How does the HPA axis system act in chronic stress?

A

+ve feedback system
Constant release of cortisol
Blood levels elevated, X enough enzyme breaking it down
Cortisol toxic on GR so they decrease
Less inhibition + CRF + ACTH continue to be released – more cortisol release

109
Q

What are the 2 types of emotional disorders?

A

Affective disorders - low mood, unhappiness, sadness
e.g. major depression (unipolar), manic-depressive
Anxiety disorders - fearfulness, apprehension, anxiety
e.g. GAD, panic disorder

110
Q

What is anhedonia?

A

Loss of interest + enjoyment in things you used to enjoy

111
Q

What are the 3 diagnoses of depression?

A

Dysthymia - few mild but persistent symptoms leading to persistent low grade condition
Depressive disorder - more numerous + severe symptoms
Severe depression - psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations)/ depressive stupor

112
Q

What is the definition of pain?

A

An unpleasant sensory + emotional experience associated mit actual/potential tissue damage/described in terms of such damage

113
Q

What receptors detect pain?

A

Nociceptors (noxious stimuli)

114
Q

What ascending pathway is associated with:

a) Dull pain?
b) Fast pain?

A

a) Spinoreticular - responsible for arousal + affective
(unpleasantness) aspects
b) Spinothalamic - discriminative aspect of nociception

115
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Thresholds lowered so that stimuli that would normally X produce pain now begin to e.g. lightly touching skin

116
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

Responsiveness increased, so that noxious stimuli produce an exaggerated + prolonged pain

117
Q

What is peripheral sensitization in pain hypersensitivity?

A

Reduction in threshold + increase in responsiveness of peripheral ends of nociceptors
Sensitization arises due to action of inflammatory chemicals (ATP, PGE2, NGF)

118
Q

What is central sensitization in pain hypersensitivity?

A

Increase in excitability of neurons within CNS, triggered by burst of activity in nociceptors
Alters strength of synaptic connections between nociceptors + spinal cord neurons
(activity-dependent synaptic plasticity)

119
Q

What is acute pain?

A

AKA nociceptive pain

Occurs when strong noxious stimulus impacts skin/deep tissue, + activates nociceptive pathways

120
Q

What is chronic pain?

A

Pain lasts past normal healing time

typically > 3 to 6 months

121
Q

What is catastrophizing in pain?

A

Adding -ve emotion to a pain signal resulting in pain/panic reaction
Pain is much harder to control + may be triggered by memory of inciting incident that produced pain originally

122
Q

What are the 3 components of pain?

A

Sensory discriminative - sense of intensity location + duration
Affective-motivational - unpleasantness + desire to escape it
Cognitive component - judgements. beliefs, memories, perception of environ + patient’s own history

123
Q

What is the definition of illness behaviour?

A

Ways in which given symptoms may be differentially perceived, evaluated + acted upon (/not acted upon) by different kinds of person

124
Q

What skills does development include?

A 
Motor
Perceptual
Language
Cognitive
Social
125
Q

What are the 4 stages of development?

A

Infancy, 0-2
Early childhood, 2-6
Middle childhood, 6-12
Adolescence, 12-18

126
Q

What organ is not fully developed at birth?

A

Brain - only organ

90% developed

127
Q

What are the 5 stages of language development?

A 
Preverbal communication
Phonological development
Semantic development
Syntax + grammar development
Pragmatics development e.g. turn-taking, use of non-verbal comms skills
128
Q

What are the 4 key concepts of Piaget’s theory?

A

Schema - internal cognitive structure, procedure in specific circumstances
Assimilation - process of using schema to make sense of event/experience
Accommodation - changing schema as result of new info
Equilibration - process of balancing assimilation + accommodation to create schemes that fit environ

129
Q

What are the 4 main stages of Piaget’s theory?

A

Stage 1 - Sensorimotor, 0-2
Stage 2 - Preoperational, 2-6/7
Stage 3 - Concrete operations, 6/7-11/12
Stage 4 - Formal operations, 11/12 +

130
Q

Descriptions of 1st 2 main stages of Piaget’s theory?

A

Stage 1 - Initial reflexes via sensory motor schema,
Interacts mit environ + manipulates objects
Understanding of object permanence
Stage 2 - Internal representation of concrete objects + situations.
Uses symbolic schemes like language
Egocentric
Reasoning dominated by perception

131
Q

Descriptions of 2nd 2 main stages of Piaget’s theory?

A

Stage 3 - Reasoning involves >1 salient feature
(conservation)
Logical reasoning can only be applied to real objects/ seen (e.g. concrete).
X egocentric – can see other perspectives
Understand principles of conservation
Stage 4 - Think logically about potential events/abstract ideas
Test hypos about hypothetical events

132
Q

What is the name for the study of ageing?

A

Gerontology

133
Q

What is:

a) Primary ageing?
b) Secondary ageing?

A

a) Largely biologically determined, intrinsic to ageing process e.g. speed of info processing, wrinkles, grey hair, impairment in vision, decreased mobility
b) Changes influenced by behaviour e.g. injury + other health/lifestyle factors
Great individual variability rather than universal decline.
Impact of ageing on physical health is highly variable

134
Q

What is post fall syndrome?

A

Loss of self confidence + fear of falling following a fall
Slow walking speed, poor balance, low activity levels,
muscle weakness + lean body mass + frailty

135
Q

What are the 3 stages of dementia?

A

Mild: retains judgement, effects on memory, work + social activities
Signs = repetitive conversation + tests e.g. clock face
Moderate: independent living becomes difficult - some supervision with IADL & ADL’s required – Mini Mental State Examination & word lists
Severe: severe impairment in all ADL’s + needs constant supervision

136
Q

What is a test to carry out for dementia?

A

Give patient piece paper mit pre-drawn circle, 10 cm in diameter
Ask patient to put in numbers looks like clock
Ask patient add arms so clock indicates time i.e. “10 past 11”
Say “ball”, “flag”, “tree” clearly + slowly - then ask patient to repeat them
Ask patient current day, date + location

137
Q

How much of:
a) Cardiac output
b) O2 consumed by body
does the brain recieve?

A

a) 17%

b) 20%

138
Q

What are the 2 arteries routed into the brain?

A

Internal carotids + Vertebral arteries

139
Q

How does the:
a) Internal carotid
b) Left vertebral artery
enter the cranium?

A

a) Via carotid canal

b) Via foramen magnum

140
Q

What arteries do vertebral arteries come off and where do they run?

A

Subclavian arteries

Transverse foramen in transverse processes in C1-6

141
Q

In what layer of the brain are the cerebral arteries e.g. Circle of Willis found?

A

Subarachnoid space

e.g. Between arachnoid mater + pia mater

142
Q

What occurs at the circle of Willis?

A

Artery supplies from the internal carotid + vertebral arteries anastomose
Provides alternative route for arterial supply if normal route occluded

143
Q

What does occlusion of the middle cerebral artery lead to?

A

Contralateral paralysis + sensory deficits of lower face, arm
Aphasia if dominant hemisphere - impairment of language
Hemianopia of contralateral visual fields (thalamus-visual cortex tract)
Blindness of half of visual field

144
Q

What does occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery lead to?

A

Paralysis + sensory deficits to contralateral leg + perineum
Cognitive, behavioural + emotional problems
Sometimes contralateral face, tongue + upper limb due to internal capsule

145
Q

What does occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery lead to?

A 
Contralateral visual field defects (homonymous hemianopia) / neglect
Hemisensory deficits (due to thalamic involvement)
Memory may be affected
146
Q

What artery supplies the inner ear?

A

Labyrinthine artery

147
Q

What of occlusion of the vertebral/basilar artery lead to?

A

Instantly fatal due to coma + loss of respiratory control
Cerebellar + Cranial nerve defects
Deafness if labyrinthine artery affected
Infarction of ventral pons, leads loss all voluntary movements except eyes, senses spared

148
Q 
What areas of the brain does the:
a) Middle cerebral artery
b) Anterior cerebral artery
c) Posterior cerebral artery
supply?
A

a) Lateral surface of brain
b) Medial surface of brain
c) Posterior region of brain

149
Q

What type of aneursyms are commonly found in brain?

Where + why?

A

Berry aneurysm
Circle of Willis, lots of arteries joining so change in blood flow direction can cause ballooning, esp if congenital predisposition to wall weakening

150
Q

What happens when a berry aneurysm bursts?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

151
Q

What is the venous drainage in the brain?

A

Deep + superficial veins of brain drain into dural venous sinuses then into internal jugular via jugular foramen in posterior cranial fossa
Venous sinuses enclosed by dural folds + lined by endothelium

152
Q

What is a subdural haemorrhage?

A

Build up of low pressure venous blood underneath dura

153
Q

What is an extradural haemhorrhage?

A

Arterial high pressure bleed in non-space between bone and dura

154
Q

What is the weakest part of the skull?

A

Pterion

155
Q

Blood supply to spinal cord?

A

1 anterior

2 posterior

156
Q

Venous drainage of spinal cord?

A

1 anterior

3 posterior

157
Q

How does cross-sectional thickness of spinal cord vary along its length? Why?

A

Cervical + lumbar regions enlarged compared to thoracic + sacral
Regions contain neurons that control + receive info from arms + legs

158
Q

Length of spinal cord?

A

45cm

159
Q

Length of vertebral column?

A

70cm

160
Q

Where would you do a lumbar puncture? Why?

A

Between lumbar vertebrae L3/4, L4/5 or L5/S1, as needle X damage spinal cord itself (ends approx level of 1st/2nd lumbar vertebra)

161
Q

What is cauda equina?

A

Bundle of spinal nerves + spinal nerve rootlets, consisting of 2nd-5th lumbar nerve pairs, 1st-5th sacral nerve pairs + coccygeal nerve
All arise from lumbar enlargement + conus medullaris of spinal cord

162
Q

What cauda equina bathed in?

A

CSF

163
Q

Which part of the brain stem projects through the foramen magnum?

A

Medulla Oblongata

164
Q

What cranial nerves do not attach to the brainstem?

A

Optic (II) + Olfactory tract (I)

165
Q

What is the receptive field of a sensory neuron?

A

Spatial domain where stimulation excites/inhibits neuron

166
Q

What are the 3 layers of the BBB?

A

Endothelial cells with tight junctions
Basal lamina with embedded pericytes + macrophages
Astrocytes

167
Q

What can pericytes do in the BBB?

A

Contract + relax to alter diameter of blood vessels

168
Q

What type of enzymes can endothelial cells of BBB release?

A

Inactivating enzymes

169
Q

What 2 types of transporters do capillaries in BBB have?

A

Efflux transporters - lipophilic

Nutrient transporters - AA, Glc

170
Q

The hypothalamus is NOT responsible for which of the following?

a) Circadian rhythm ​
b) Energy metabolism ​
c) Balance ​
d) Body temperature

A

c) Balance

171
Q

Which of these doesn’t pass through the superior orbital fissure?

a) Optic nerve​
b) Oculomotor nerve​
c) Trochlear nerve​
d) Abducens nerve

A

a) Optic nerve

172
Q

Which foramen does the medulla oblongata travel through?

a) Foramen rotundum ​
b) Foramen spinosum ​
c) Foramen magnum ​
d) Jugular foramen

A

c) Foramen magnum

173
Q

What part of the brain is in the middle cranial fossa?

a) Temporal ​
b) Frontal ​
c) Occipital ​
d) Parietal

A

a) Temporal

174
Q

Which of these receptors are superficial?

a) Meissner corpuscle ​
b) Pacinian corpuscle ​
c) Merkel cells ​
d) Ruffini endings

A

a) Meissner corpuscle

c) Merkel cells

175
Q

What type of motor neurons innervate extrafusal fibres?

A

Alpha

176
Q

The sympathetic nervous system has:

a) Short pre-ganglionic fibres + short post-ganglionic fibres ​
b) Short pre-ganglionic fibres + long post-ganglionic fibres ​
c) Long pre-ganglionic fibres + short post-ganglionic fibres ​
d) Long pre-ganglionic fibres + long post-ganglionic fibres

A

b) Short pre-ganglionic fibres + long post-ganglionic fibres

177
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves have sensory and motor fibres?

a) Olfactory​
b) Abducens​
c) Facial​
d) Vestibulocochlear

A

c) Facial

178
Q

A teacher tells a student off for misbehaving. This is an example of…

a) Positive reinforcement​
b) Negative reinforcement​
c) Positive punishment​
d) Negative punishment

A

c) Positive punishment

179
Q

What is the difference between +ve and -ve punishment?

A

+ve punishment - giving something bad

-ve punishment - taking away something good

180
Q

Sam would like to quit smoking but finds that his friends always convince him to join them for a cigarette when they are out. In which aspect of the COM-B model does the cause of his continued smoking lie?

A

Opportunity

181
Q

Christine has recently noticed that her legs have become swollen and her breathing has become labored. She worries it may be an infection, but doesn’t think that she should bother seeing a GP as it may pass on its own. Which type of delay in seeking help is this?

A

Illness delay

182
Q

Mrs C has been having chest pain for a couple of hours but ignores it thinking this is just due to extra physical activity. When the pain gets worse she tells her daughter but says that it will probably pass and that she doesn’t want to make a fuss by going to the hospital. Finally her daughter makes her call an ambulance that takes 15 minutes to arrive, where they make the diagnosis of a heart attack. Where can we see illness delay take place?

a) The day before she has chest pain​
b) When she first experiences chest pain​
c) When she tells her daughter but doesn’t want to go to hospital​
d) When her daughter makes her call an ambulance and she has to wait 15 mins

A

c) When she tells her daughter but doesn’t want to go to hospital

183
Q

Which of the following ways will help in reducing appraisal delay?

a) Clear action plan​
b) Involving a family member​
c) Improving a patient’s illness schema​
d) Having more ambulances

A

c) Improving a patient’s illness schema

184
Q

What passes through the:

a) Foramen rotundum?
b) Foramen spinosum?
c) Jugular foramen?

A

a) Maxillary nerve
b) Middle meningeal artery, middle meningeal vein + meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve
c) Cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus) + XI (accessory)
Inferior petrosal sinus + sigmoid sinus vein

185
Q

What part of the brain is in the anterior cranial fossa?

A

Frontal lobes

186
Q

What part of the brain is in the posterior cranial fossa?

A

Brainstem + Cerebellum

187
Q

What is:

a) Appraisal delay?
b) Illness delay?
c) Utilisation delay?

A

a) Time person takes to evaluate symptoms as sign of illness - am I ill?
b) Time person takes from 1st sign of illness until deciding to seek medical help - do i need medical help?
c) Time from decision to seek care until person consults HCP - I’m going to get treatment

188
Q

What is the meaning of these different illness perceptions?

a) Identity
b) Cause
c) Timeline
d) Consequence
e) Control

A

a) Symptoms patient sees as prt of illness e.g. this headache is cos of my asthma
b) What caused their illness e.g. germ, pollution, stress
c) My illness is temp/permanent, last long time
d) My illness is serious/has major consequences on my life
e) Little done to cure illness/treatment will be effective

GBE (4 decks)

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