Neuroscience Flashcards

1
Q

Learning objectives

A

Answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Bell’s palsy

A

• Idiopathic lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Bell’s palsy

A
  • IDIOPATHIC
  • 60% are preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection
  • This suggests that it has a viral or post-viral aetiology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Bell’s palsy

A

• Most cases: 20-50 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Bell’s palsy

A

• Prodrome of pre-auricular pain (in some cases)
• This is followed by unilateral facial weakness and droop
• Maximum severity: 1-2 days
• 50% experience facial, neck or ear pain or numbness
• Hyperacuisis
o This is due to stapedius paralysis
• Loss of taste (uncommon)
• Tearing or drying of exposed eye
o Because it may be difficult to close the eye fully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Recognise the signs of Bell’s palsy on physical examination

A

• Lower motor neurone weakness of facial muscles
o Affects ipsilateral muscles of facial expression
o Does NOT spare the muscles of the upper part of the face (unlike upper motor neurone facial nerve palsy)
• Bell’s Phenomenon
o Eyeball rolls up but the eye remains open when trying to close their eyes
• Despite reporting unilateral facial numbness, clinical testing of sensation is normal
• Examine the ears to check for other causes of facial nerve palsy (e.g. otitis media, herpes zoster infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Bell’s palsy

A
  • Usually unnecessary (except for excluding other causes)

* EMG - may show local axonal conduction block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Generate a management plan for Bell’s palsy

A

• Protection of cornea with protective glasses/patches or artificial tears
• High-dose corticosteroids is useful within 72 hrs
o Only given if Ramsey-Hunt Syndrome is excluded
• Surgery - lateral tarsorrhaphy (suturing the lateral parts of the eyelids together)
o Performed if imminent or established corneal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify possible complications of Bell’s palsy

A

• Corneal ulcers
• Eye infection
• Aberrant reinnervation
o E.g. Blinking may cause contraction of the angle of the mouth due to aberrant sympathetic innervation of orbicularis oculi and oris
o Crocodile Tears Syndrome - parasympathetic fibres may aberrantly reinnervate the lacrimal glands causing tearing whilst salivating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Bell’s palsy

A

• 85-90% recover function within 2-12 weeks with or without treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define central nervous system (CNS) tumours

A
  • Tumours of the central nervous system.
  • NOTE: brain tumours cannot be truly differentiated into benign and malignant because supposedly ‘benign’ tumours can cause significant morbidity and mortality

Instead they are differentiated into:

High-Grade = a tumour that grows rapidly and aggressively
• Glioma and glioblastoma multiforme
• Primary cerebral lymphoma
• Medulloblastoma

Low-Grade = a tumour that grows slowly and may or may not be successfully treated 
•	Meningioma
•	Acoustic neuroma 
•	Neurofibroma
•	Pituitary tumour
•	Craniopharyngeoma
•	Pineal tumour 
Brain metastases commonly arise from:
•	Lung
•	Breast 
•	Stomach 
•	Prostate 
•	Thyroid 
•	Colorectal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of central nervous system (CNS) tumours

A

• Can arise from any of the cells in the CNS (e.g. glial cells, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes)
• Risk Factors
o Ionising radiation
o Immunosuppression (e.g. HIV)
o Inherited syndromes (e.g. neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of central nervous system (CNS) tumours

A
  • Primary brain tumours = 2% of tumours diagnosed in the UK
  • AIDS patients have an increased risk of developing CNS tumours
  • Can develop at any age but are more common between 50-70 yrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms & signs of central nervous system (CNS) tumours

A
  • Presentation depends on the size and location of the tumour
  • Headache (worse in the morning and when lying down)
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Seizures
  • Progressive focal neurological deficits
  • Cognitive and behavioural symptoms
  • Papilloedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for central nervous system (CNS) tumours and interpret the results

A
  • Bloods - check CRP/ESR to eliminate other causes (e.g. temporal arteritis)
  • CT/MRI
  • Biopsy and tumour removal
  • Magnetic resonance angiography - define changing size and blood supply of the tumour
  • PET
  • NOTE: distant metastases are RARE with primary CNS tumours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define cluster headache

A

• A neurological disorder characterised by recurrent, severe headaches on one side of the head typically around the eye, tending to recur over a period of several weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of cluster headaches

A
  • UNKNOWN aetiology

* Genetic factor implicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cluster headaches

A
  • More common in MEN

* Usually occurs between 20-40 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of cluster headaches

A

• TWO types of cluster headaches:
o Episodic - occurring in periods lasting 7 days - 1 year, separated by pain-free periods lasting a month or longer. Cluster periods usually last between 2 weeks - 3 months
o Chronic - occurring for 1 year without remissions or with short-lived remissions of less than a month. Chronic cluster headaches can arise de novo or arise from episodic cluster headaches.
• Pattern of Occurrence
o Headaches occur in bouts lasting 6-12 weeks
o These occur once every year or once every 2 years, and tends to occur at the same time each year
o Headaches typically occurs at night, 1-2 hours after falling asleep
o The interval between bouts tends to be the same
o 10% with episodic cluster headaches go on to develop chronic cluster headaches
• Nature of Symptoms
o Pain comes on rapidly over around 10 mins
o Pain is intense, sharp and penetrating
o Pain is centred around the eye, temple or forehead
o Pain is unilateral
o Pain typically lasts around 45-90 mins (range: 15 mins - 3 hours)
o Pain occurs once or twice daily
o Associated autonomic features:
• Ipsilateral lacrimation
• Rhinorrhoea
• Nasal congestion
• Eye lid swelling
• Facial swelling
• Flushing
• Conjunctival injection
• Partial Horner’s syndrome
o Patients find it difficult to stay still and will pace around, occasionally banging their heads on things
• Triggers
o ALCOHOL - major precipitant
o Exercise and solvents
o Sleep disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cluster headaches

A
  • CLINICAL diagnosis based on history

* Neurological examination may be useful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define encephalitis

A

• Inflammation of the brain parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of encephalitis

A
Most commonly due to VIRAL INFECTION
Viral Causes
o	Herpes Simplex Virus - MOST COMMON in the UK 
o	VZV
o	Mumps 
o	Adenovirus 
o	Coxsackie 
o	EBV
o	HIV
o	Japanese encephalitis 
Non-Viral (RARE)
o	Syphilis 
o	Staphylococcus aureus 
In immunocompromised patients
o	CMV
o	Toxoplasmosis
o	Listeria
Autoimmune or Paraneoplastic
o	Associated with certain antibodies (e.g. anti-NMDA, anti-VGKC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of encephalitis

A

• UK incidence: 7.4/100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of encephalitis

A
  • In most cases, encephalitis is self-limiting and mild
  • Subacute onset (hours to days)
  • Headache
  • Fever
  • Vomiting
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia
  • Behavioural changes
  • Drowsiness
  • Confusion
  • History of seizures
  • Focal neurological symptoms (e.g. dysphagia, hemiplegia)
  • Obtain a detailed TRAVEL HISTORY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Recognise the signs of encephalitis on physical examination 
* Reduce consciousness * Deteriorating GCS * Seizures * Pyrexia Signs of Meningism: o Neck stiffness o Photophobia o Kernig's test positive Signs of raised ICP: o Cushing's Response: hypertension + bradycardia + irregular breathing o Papilloedema Focal neurological signs MMSE may reveal cognitive/psychiatric disturbance
26
Identify appropriate investigations for encephalitis and interpret the results 
``` Bloods o FBC - high lymphocytes (indicates viral cause) o U&Es - SIADH may occur as a result of encephalitis o Glucose o Viral serology o ABG MRI/CT o Exclude mass lesion o HSV causes oedema of the temporal lobe on MRI Lumbar Puncture o High lymphocytes o High monocytes o High protein o Glucose is usually normal o Viral PCR EEG - may show epileptiform activity Brain biopsy (rarely needed) ```
27
Define epilepsy
• A tendency to recurrent unprovoked seizures • You need to have had > 2 seizures for epilepsy to be diagnosed • Definition of Seizure: paroxysmal synchronised cortical electrical discharges • Types of Seizure o Focal Seizure: seizure localised to specific cortical regions (e.g. temporal lobe seizure). These can be further divided into: • COMPLEX partial seizure: consciousness is affected • SIMPLE partial seizure: consciousness is NOT affected o Generalised Seizure: seizures that affect the whole of the brain. It also affects consciousness. There are different types of generalised seizure: • Tonic-clonic • Absence • Myoclonic • Atonic • Tonic
28
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of epilepsy
• Most cases are IDIOPATHIC • Primary epilepsy syndromes (e.g. idiopathic generalised epilepsy) • Secondary Seizures o Tumour o Infection (e.g. meningitis) o Inflammation (e.g. vasculitis) o Toxic/Metabolic (e.g. sodium imbalance) o Drugs (e.g. alcohol withdrawal) o Vascular (e.g. haemorrhage) o Congenital abnormalities (e.g. cortical dysplasia) o Neurodegenerative disease (e.g. Alzheimer's disease) o Malignant hypertension or eclampsia o Trauma • Common things that look like seizures o Syncope o Migraine o Non-epileptiform seizure disorder (e.g. dissociative disorder) • Pathophysiology of Seizures o Result from an imbalance in the inhibitory and excitatory currents or neurotransmission in the brain o Precipitants include anything that promotes excitation of the cerebral cortex o Often it is unclear why the precipitants cause seizures
29
Summarise the epidemiology of epilepsy
* COMMON * 1% of the general population * Typical age of onset: CHILDREN and ELDERLY
30
Recognise the presenting symptoms of epilepsy
• NOTE: try and obtain a collateral history from a witness as well as the patient • Key features to consider when taking a history from a potential epilepsy patient: o Rapidity of onset o Duration of episode o Any alteration in consciousness? o Any tongue-biting or incontinence? o Any rhythmic synchronous limb jerking? o Any post-ictal abnormalities (e.g. exhaustion, confusion)? o Drug history (alcohol, recreational drugs) • Focal Seizure Presentation o Frontal Lobe Focal Motor Seizure • Motor convulsions • May show a Jacksonian march (when the muscular spasm caused by the simple partial seizure spreads from affecting the distal part of the limb towards the ipsilateral face) • May show post-ictal flaccid weakness (Todd's paralysis) o Temporal Lobe Seizures • Aura (visceral or psychic symptoms) • Hallucinations (usually olfactory or affecting taste) o Frontal Lobe Complex Partial Seizure • Loss of consciousness • Involuntary actions/disinhibition • Rapid recovery • Generalised Seizures o Tonic-Clonic (Grand Mal) • Vague symptoms before attack (e.g. irritability) • Tonic phase (generalised muscle spasm) • Clonic phase (repetitive synchronous jerks) • Faecal/urinary incontinence • Tongue biting • Post-ictal phase: impaired consciousness, lethargy, confusion, headache, back pain, stiffness o Absence (Petit Mal) • Onset in CHILDHOOD • Loss of consciousness but MAINTAINTED POSTURE • The patient will appear to stop talking and stare into space for a few seconds • NO post-ictal phase o Non-Convulsive Status Epilepticus • Acute confusional state • Often fluctuating • Difficult to distinguish from dementia
31
Recognise the signs of epilepsy on physical examination
* Depends on aetiology | * Patients tend to be normal in between seizures
32
Identify appropriate investigations for epilepsy
``` • Bloods o FBC o U&E o LFTs o Glucose o Calcium o Magnesium o ABG o Toxicology screen o Prolactin - shows a transient increase shortly after seizures • EEG o Helps to confirm diagnosis o Helps classify the epilepsy o Ictal EEGs are particularly useful (i.e. during a seizure) • CT/MRI o Shows structural, space-occupying or vascular lesions • Other investigations o If it is suspected to be a secondary seizure (e.g. due to infection) ```
33
Generate a management plan for epilepsy
• Treatment of STATUS EPILEPTICUS o DEFINITION of Status Epilepticus: a seizure lasting > 30 mins or repeated seizure without recovery and regain of consciousness in between o Although the definition states that the seizure must last > 30 mins, treatment is usually initiated early (after around 5-10 mins) o ABC approach o Check GLUCOSE (give glucose if hypoglycaemic) o IV lorazepam OR IV/PR diazepam - REPEAT again after 10 mins if seizure does not terminate o If seizures recur following the next dose of lorazepam or diazepam, consider IV phenytoin - an ECG monitor is required • NOTE: other agents include phenobarbitone, levetiracetam and sodium valproate o If this also fails, consider general anaesthesia (e.g. thiopentone) - intubation and mechanical ventilation required o Treat the CAUSE (e.g. hypoglycaemia or hyponatraemia) o Check plasma levels of anticonvulsants (because status epilepticus is often caused by lack of compliance with anti-epileptic medications) • Treatment of newly diagnosed epilepsy o Only start anti-convulsant treatment after > 2 unprovoked seizures o FOCAL Seizure 1st Line: lamotrigine or carbamazepine o GENERALISED Seizure 1st Line: sodium valproate o Start treatment with only ONE anti-epileptic drug o Other anti-convulsants: phenytoin, levetiracetam, clobazam, topiramate, gabapentin, vigabatrin • Patient Education o Avoid triggers o Use seizure diaries o Particular consideration for women of child-bearing age because the anti-epileptic drugs can have teratogenic effects o Be careful of drug interactions (e.g. AEDs can reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill) • Surgery may be considered for refractory epilepsy
34
Identify possible complications of epilepsy
``` • Fractures from tonic-clonic seizures • Behavioural problems • Sudden death in epilepsy (SUDEP) • Complications of anti-epileptic drugs: o Gingival hypertrophy (phenytoin) o Neutropaenia and osteoporosis (carbamazepine) o Stevens-Johnson syndrome (lamotrigine) ```
35
Summarise the prognosis for patients with epilepsy
• 50% remission at 1 year
36
Define extradural haemorrhage 
• Bleeding and accumulation of blood in the extradural space
37
Explain the aetiology / risk factors of extradural haemorrhage 
TRAUMA o Usually due to fracture of the temporal or parietal bones leading to rupture of the middle meningeal artery Risk Factors o Bleeding tendency • E.g. haemophilia, anticoagulant therapy
38
Summarise the epidemiology of extradural haemorrhage 
* UK incidence: 20/10,000 * 10% of severe head injuries * Most commonly seen in YOUNG ADULTS
39
Recognise the signs of extradural haemorrhage on physical examination 
* Head injury with temporary loss of consciousness * Followed by lucid interval * Followed by progressive deterioration in conscious level
40
Recognise the presenting symptoms of extradural haemorrhage 
``` • Scalp trauma or fracture • Headache • Deteriorating GCS Signs of raised ICP o E.g. dilated, unresponsive pupil on the side of the injury Cushing's Reflex o Hypertension o Bradycardia o Irregular breathing ```
41
Identify appropriate investigations for extradural haemorrhage and interpret the results 
• Urgent CT Scan o Check for a haematoma o Look for features of raised ICP (e.g. midline shift)
42
Define Guillain-Barre syndrome
• Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
43
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Guillain-Barre syndrome
• An inflammatory process where antibodies after a recent infection react with self-antigen on myelin or neurons • There is often no aetiological trigger identified (40% of cases are idiopathic) • Other causes: o Post-infection (1-3 weeks) - bacterial, HIV, herpes viruses o Malignancy - e.g. lymphoma o Post-vaccination
44
Summarise the epidemiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome
* UK incidence: 1-2/100,000 | * Affects all age groups
45
Recognise the presenting symptoms of Guillain-Barre syndrome
• PROGRESSIVE symptoms • < 1 month duration of: o ASCENDING symmetrical limb weakness (lower > upper) o ASCENDING paraesthesia • Cranial nerve involvement (leading to, for example, dysphagia, dysarthria, facial weakness) • Respiratory muscles may be affected in SEVERE cases • Miller-Fisher Variant (RARE) = ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, arreflexia
46
Recognise the signs of Guillain-Barre syndrome on physical examination
• General MOTOR Examination o Hypotonia o Flaccid paralysis o Arreflexia (ascending upwards from feet to head) • General SENSORY Examination o Impairment of sensation in multiple modalities (ascending from feet to head) • Cranial Nerve Palsies o Facial nerve weakness o Abnormality of external ocular movements o If pupil constriction is affected, consider botulism • Type II Respiratory Failure o Due to paralysis of respiratory muscles • Autonomic Function o Assess postural blood pressure change and arrhythmias
47
Identify appropriate investigations for Guillain-Barre syndrome
``` • Lumbar Puncture o HIGH protein o NORMAL cell count and glucose • Nerve Conduction Study o Reduced conduction velocity o NOTE: it may be normal in the early stages of the disease • Bloods o Anti-ganglioside antibodies in Miller-Fisher variant + 25% of Guillain-Barre cases • Spirometry o Reduced fixed vital capacity - suggests ventilatory weakness • ECG o Arrhythmias may develop ```
48
Define Horner's Syndrome
``` • A condition that results from the disruption of the sympathetic nerves supplying the face resulting in a triad of: o Ptosis o Miosis o Anhydrosis o (and enophthalmos) ```
49
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Horner's syndrome
``` • It is caused by disruption of the sympathetic nerves • Causes o Strokes o Multiple sclerosis o Apical lung tumours o Lymphadenopathy o Basal skull tumours o Carotid artery dissection o Neck trauma ```
50
Summarise the epidemiology of Horner's syndrome
* RARE | * Important sign that is associated with various diseases (most notably, Pancoast tumours)
51
Recognise the presenting symptoms of Horner's syndrome
* Inability to open the eye fully on the affected side * Loss of sweating on affected side * Facial flushing * Orbital pain/headache * Other symptoms based on CAUSE
52
Recognise the signs of Horner's syndrome on physical examination
* Ptosis * Miosis * Anhydrosis * Enophthalmos
53
Identify appropriate investigations for Horner's syndrome
* Investigations are directed towards figuring out the underlying cause * CXR - apical lung tumour * CT/MRI - cerebrovascular accidents * CT angiography - dissection
54
Generate a management plan for Horner's syndrome
* Horner's syndrome is a sign not a disease in itself * So, the management depends on the cause (e.g. management for carotid dissection is very different to management of apical lung tumours)
55
Identify possible complications of Horner's syndrome
• Depends on cause
56
Summarise the prognosis of Horner's syndrome
• Depends on the cause
57
Define Huntington's disease
• Autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat disease characterised by progressive chorea and dementia, typically commencing in middle age
58
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Huntington's disease
* The huntingtin gene codes for a protein called huntingtin * In the huntingtin gene there is a trinucleotide repeat expansion (CAG) that results in toxic gain of function * Autosomal DOMINANT * Earlier age of onset with each successive generation
59
Summarise the epidemiology of Huntington's disease
• Average age of onset: 30-50 yrs
60
Recognise the presenting symptoms of Huntington's disease
``` • Family history • INSIDIOUS onset in middle-age • Progressive • Fidgeting • Clumsiness • Involuntary, jerky, dyskinetic movements often accompanied by grunting and dysarthria • EARLY COGNITIVE CHANGES: o Lability o Dysphoria (a state of unease or generalised dissatisfaction with life) o Mental inflexibility o Anxiety o Develops into dementia • LATER STAGES: o Rigid o Akinetic o Bed-bound • Enquire about drug history (especially cocaine and anti-psychotics) ```
61
Recognise the signs of Huntington's disease on physical examination
* Chorea * Dysarthria * Slow voluntary saccades * Supranuclear gaze restriction * Parkinsonism * Dystonia * MMSE shows cognitive and emotional deficits
62
Identify appropriate investigations for Huntington's disease
• Genetic Analysis o Diagnostic if there are > 39 CAG repeats in the HD gene o Reduced penetrance leads to an intermediate number of CAG repeats • Imaging o Brain MRI or CT may show symmetrical atrophy of the striatum and butterfly dilation of the lateral ventricles • Bloods o To exclude other pathology
63
Define hydrocephalus
• Enlargement of the cerebral ventricular system. • It can be subdivided into obstructive and non-obstructive o AKA communicating and non-communicating • Hydrocephalus ex vacuo = apparent enlargement of the ventricles as a compensatory change due to brain atrophy
64
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of hydrocephalus
• Abnormal accumulation of CSF in the ventricles can be caused by: o OBSTRUCTIVE: Impaired outflow of the CSF from the ventricular system • Lesions of the 3rd and 4th ventricle or cerebral aqueduct • Posterior fossa lesions (e.g. tumour) compressing the 4th ventricle • Cerebral aqueduct stenosis o NON-OBSTRUCTIVE: Impaired CSF reabsorption into the subarachnoid villi • Tumours • Meningitis • Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus - idiopathic chronic ventricular enlargement. The long white matter tracts are damaged leading to gait and cognitive decline
65
Summarise the epidemiology of hydrocephalus
• Bimodal age distribution o YOUNG - congenital malformations and brain tumours o ELDERLY - strokes and tumours
66
Recognise the presenting symptoms of hydrocephalus
``` • Obstructive Hydrocephalus o Acute drop in conscious level o Diplopia • Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus o Triad of symptoms: • Dementia • Gait disturbance • Urinary incontinence ```
67
Recognise the signs of hydrocephalus on physical examination
``` • Obstructive Hydrocephalus o Low GCS o Papilloedema o 6th nerve palsy • 6th nerve has the longest intracranial path of all the cranial nerves and so is most susceptible to palsy due to raised ICP o NEONATES: ``` ``` • Increased head circumference • Sunset sign (downward conjugate deviation of the eyes) • Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus o Cognitive impairment o Gait apraxia (shuffling) o Hyperreflexia ```
68
Identify appropriate investigations for hydrocephalus
• CT Head o FIRST-LINE for detecting hydrocephalus o May also pick up the cause (e.g. tumour) • CSF o From ventricular drain or lumbar puncture o May indicate pathology (e.g. tuberculosis) o Check MC&S, protein and glucose • Lumbar Puncture o IMPORTANT: contraindicated if raised ICP o Therapeutic in normal pressure hydrocephalus
69
Define meningitis 
• Inflammation of the leptomeningeal (pia and arachnoid mater) coverings of the brain, most commonly due to infection
70
Explain the aetiology / risk factors of meningitis 
``` BACTERIAL Neonates • Group B streptococci • Escherichia coli • Listeria monocytogenes Children • Haemophilus influenzae • Neisseria meningitidis • Streptococcus pneumoniae Adults • Neisseria meningitidis • Streptococcus pneumoniae • Tuberculosis Elderly • Streptococcus pneumoniae • Listeria monocytogenes ``` ``` VIRAL o Enteroviruses o Mumps o HSV o VZV o HIV ``` ``` Fungal o Cryptococcus (common cause of meningitis in HIV patients) ``` Others o Aseptic meningitis (not due to microbes) o Mollaret's meningitis (recurrent benign lymphocytic meningitis) ``` RISK FACTORS o Close communities (e.g. college halls) o Basal skull fractures o Mastoiditis o Sinusitis o Inner ear infections o Alcoholism o Immunodeficiency o Splenectomy o Sickle cell anaemia o CSF shunts o Intracranial surgery ```
71
Summarise the epidemiology of meningitis 
• UK: 2500 notifications/yr
72
Recognise the presenting symptoms of meningitis 
* Severe headache * Photophobia * Neck or backache * Irritability * Drowsiness * Vomiting * High-pitched crying or fits (common in children) * Reduced consciousness * Fever IMPORTANT: take a good travel history and exposure history and take not of exposure to any of the following o Rodents (lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus) o Ticks (Lyme borrelia, Rocky Mountain spotted fever) o Mosquitoes (West Nile virus) o Sexual activity (HSV-2, HIV, syphilis) o Travel
73
Recognise the signs of meningitis on physical examination 
• Signs of MENINGISM o Photophobia o Neck stiffness o Kernig's Sign - with the hips flexed, there is pain/resistance on passive knee extension o Brudzinski's Sign - flexion of the hips when the neck is flexed ``` • Signs of INFECTION o Fever o Tachycardia o Hypotension o Skin rash o Altered mental state ```
74
Identify appropriate investigations for meningitis and interpret the results 
Bloods o Two sets of blood cultures Imaging o CT scan - exclude mass lesion or raised ICP before LP ``` Lumbar Puncture o MC&S o Bacterial meningitis: • Cloudy CSF • High neutrophils • High protein • Low glucose o Viral meningitis: • High lymphocytes • High protein • Normal glucose o TB meningitis: • Fibrinous CSF • High lymphocytes • High protein • Low glucose ```
75
Generate a management plan for meningitis 
IMMEDIATE IV Antibiotics (before LP) o First choice: 3rd generation cephalosporin (e.g. cefotaxime or ceftriaxone) o Benzylpenicillin may be used as an initial blind therapy Dexamethasone IV o Given shortly before or with the first dose of antibiotics o Associated with a reduced risk of complications Resuscitation o Manage in ITU o Notify public health services
76
Identify the possible complications of meningitis and its management 
* Septicaemia * Shock * DIC * Renal failure * Seizures * Peripheral gangrene * Cerebral oedema * Cranial nerve lesions * Cerebral venous thrombosis * Hydrocephalus * Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome (bilateral adrenal haemorrhage caused by severe meningococcal infection)
77
Summarise the prognosis for patients with meningitis 
* Mortality rate from bacterial meningitis: 10-40% with meningococcal sepsis * Viral meningitis is self-limiting
78
Define migraine
• Severe episodic headache that may have a prodrome of focal neurological symptoms (aura) and is associated with systemic disturbance. • Can be classified as: o Migraine with aura (classical migraine) o Migraine without aura (common migraine) o Migraine variants (e.g. familial hemiplegic, ophthalmoplegic)
79
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of migraine
* Poorly understood * Early aura of cortical spreading depression is associated with intracranial vasoconstriction leading to localised ischaemia * This is then followed by meningeal and extracranial vasodilation mediated by serotonin, bradykinin and the trigeminovascular system
80
Summarise the epidemiology of migraine
• Prevalence: o Males - 6% o Females - 15-20% • Usually occurs in adolescence and early adulthood
81
Recognise the presenting symptoms of migraine
``` • Headache o Pulsatile o Duration 4-72 hrs o Episodic o NOTE: chronic daily headaches lasting weeks would suggest a different aetiology • Associated Symptoms o Nausea o Vomiting o Photophobia/Phonophobia o Aura: • Flashing lights • Spots • Blurring • Zigzag lines • Blind spots (scotomas) • Tingling/numbness in the limbs • Triggers and Risk Factors o Stress o Exercise o Lack of sleep o Oral contraceptive pill o Foods (e.g. caffeine, alcohol, cheese, chocolate) ```
82
Recognise the signs of migraine on physical examination
* NO specific physical findings | * Exclude secondary causes with MMSE, neurological examination, fundoscopy etc.
83
Identify appropriate investigations for migraine
* Diagnosis is usually based on HISTORY * Investigations may be useful for excluding other diagnoses * Bloods, CT/MRI, lumbar puncture
84
Generate a management plan for migraine
``` • NOTE: analgesia overuse can cause headaches • ACUTE o NSAIDs o Paracetamol o Codeine o Antiemetics o Triptans (5-HT agonists) - e.g. sumatriptan • Prophylaxis o -blockers o Amitriptyline o Topiramate o Sodium valproate o Menstrual migraines can be controlled with the oral contraceptive pill • Advice o Avoid triggers o Rest in a quiet dark room during episodes ```
85
Identify possible complications of migraine
* Disruption of daily activities | * Can lead to analgesia-overuse headaches in people who use analgesia regularly
86
Summarise the prognosis for patients with migraine
* Usually CHRONIC | * Most cases can be managed well with preventative/early treatment measures
87
Define motor neurone disease
``` • A progressive neurodegenerative disorder of cortical, brainstem and spinal motor neurons (lower and upper motor neurons) • Subtypes: o Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) • AKA Lou Gehrig's disease • Combined generation of upper AND lower motor neurones resulting a mix of LMN and UMN signs o Progressive Muscular Atrophy Variant • Only LMN signs • Better prognosis o Progressive Bulbar Palsy Variant • Dysarthria • Dysphagia • Wasted fasciculating tongue • Brisk jaw jerk reflex o Primary Lateral Sclerosis Variant • UMN pattern of weakness • Brisk reflexes • Extensor plantar responses • NO LMN signs ```
88
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of motor neurone disease
• UNKNOWN • Free radical damage and glutamate excitotoxicity have been implicated • Pathology o Progressive motor neurone degeneration and death o Gliosis replacing lost neurones • Associations o Frontotemporal lobar dementia
89
Summarise the epidemiology of motor neurone disease
* RARE * Incidence: 2/100,000 * Mean age of onset: 55 yrs * 5-10% have a family history with autosomal dominant inheritance
90
Recognise the presenting symptoms of motor neurone disease
* Weakness of limbs * Speech disturbance (slurring or reduction in volume) * Swallowing disturbance (e.g. choking on food) * Behavioural changes (e.g. disinhibition, emotional lability)
91
Recognise the signs of motor neurone disease on physical examination
``` • Combination of UMN and LMN signs • LMN Features o Muscle wasting o Fasciculations o Flaccid weakness o Hyporeflexia • UMN Features o Spastic weakness o Extensor plantar response o Hyperreflexia • Sensory examination - should be NORMAL ```
92
Identify appropriate investigations for motor neurone disease
• Bloods o Mild elevation in CK o ESR o Anti-GM1 ganglioside antibodies • Electromyography (EMG) • Nerve conduction studies - often normal • MRI - exclude cord compression and brainstem lesions • Spirometry - assess respiratory muscle weakness
93
Define multiple sclerosis
• Inflammatory demyelinating disease of the CNS • Types o Relapsing-Remitting MS • COMMONEST form • Clinical attacks of demyelination with complete recovery in between attacks o Clinically Isolated Syndrome • Single clinical attack of demyelination • The attack in itself does NOT count as MS • 10-50% progress to develop MS o Primary Progressive MS • Steady accumulation of disability with NO relapsing-remitting pattern o Marburg Variant • Severe fulminant variant of MS leading to advanced disability or death within weeks
94
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of multiple sclerosis
• UNKNOWN • Autoimmune basis with potential environmental trigger in genetically susceptible individuals • Immune-mediated damage to myelin sheaths results in impaired axonal conduction • Risk Factors o EBV exposure o Prenatal vitamin D levels
95
Summarise the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis
* UK prevalence: 1/1000 * 2 x as common in FEMALES * Age of presentation: 20-40 yrs
96
Recognise the presenting symptoms of multiple sclerosis
``` • Varies depending on the site of inflammation • Optic Neuritis (COMMONEST) o Unilateral deterioration of visual acuity and colour perception o Pain on eye movement o Common first symptoms of multiple sclerosis • Sensory o Pins and needles o Numbness o Burning • Motor o Limb weakness o Spasms o Stiffness o Heaviness • Autonomic o Urinary urgency o Hesitancy o Incontinence o Impotence • Psychological o Depression o Psychosis • Uhthoff's Sign - worsening of neurological symptoms as the body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, saunas, hot tubs etc. • Lhermitte's Sign - an electrical sensation that runs down the back and into the limbs when the neck is flexed ```
97
Recognise the signs of multiple sclerosis on physical examination
• Optic Neuritis o Impaired visual acuity (MOST COMMON) o Loss of coloured vision • Visual Field Testing o Central scotoma (if optic nerve is affected) • Scotoma = a blind spot in the normal visual field o Field defects (if optic radiations are affected) • Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (RAPD) • Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia o Lateral horizontal gaze causes failure of adduction of the contralateral eye o Indicates lesion of the contralateral medial longitudinal fasciculus • Sensory o Paraesthesia • Motor o UMN signs • Cerebellar o Limb ataxia (intention tremor, past-pointing, dysmetria) o Dysdiadochokinesia o Ataxic wide-based gait o Scanning speech
98
Identify appropriate investigations for multiple sclerosis
• Diagnosis is based on the finding of two or more CNS lesions with corresponding symptoms, separated in time and space - McDONALD CRITERIA • Lumbar Puncture o Microscopy - exclude infection/inflammatory causes o CSF electrophoresis shows unmatched oligoclonal bands • MRI Brain, Cervical and Thoracic Spine (with gadolinium) o Plaques can be identified o Gadolinium enhancement shows active lesions • Evoked Potentials o Visual, auditory and somatosensory evoked potentials may show delayed conduction velocity
99
Define myasthenia gravis
• An autoimmune disease affecting the neuromuscular junction producing weakness in skeletal muscles
100
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of myasthenia gravis
* Impairment of neuromuscular junction transmission * Most commonly due to autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor * Lambert-Eaton Syndrome - paraneoplastic subtype of myasthenia gravis caused by autoantibodies against pre-synaptic calcium channels, leading to impairment of acetylcholine release * Myasthenia gravis is associated with other autoimmune conditions (e.g. pernicious anaemia)
101
Summarise the epidemiology of myasthenia gravis
* Prevalence: 8-9/100,000 * More common in FEMALES at younger ages * Equal gender distribution in middle age
102
Recognise the presenting symptoms of myasthenia gravis
• Muscle weakness that worsens with repetitive use or towards the end of the day o NOTE: in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, muscle weakness improves after repeated use • Ocular symptoms o Drooping eyelids o Diplopia • Bulbar symptoms o Facial weakness (myasthenic snarl) o Disturbed hypernasal speech o Difficulty smiling, chewing or swallowing
103
Recognise the signs of myasthenia gravis on physical examination
• May be generalised (affecting many muscle groups) • May be bulbar (affecting the bulbar muscles i.e. those associated with cranial nerves 9, 10, 11 and 12) o NOTE: bulbar = relating to the medulla oblongata (cranial nerves 9, 10, 11 and 12 have their nuclei in the medulla) • May be ocular • Eye Signs o Ptosis o Complex ophthalmoplegia o Check for ocular fatigue by asking the patient to sustain and upward gaze for 1 min and watch the progressive ptosis that develops • Ice on Eyes Test o Placing ice packs on closed eyelids for 2 mins can improve neuromuscular transmission and reduce ptosis • Bulbar Signs o Reading aloud may cause dysarthria or nasal speech • Limbs o Test the power of a muscle before and after repeated use of the muscle
104
Identify appropriate investigations for myasthenia gravis
• Bloods o CK - exclude myopathies o Serum acetylcholine receptor antibody (positive in 80%) o TFTs (it is associated with hyperthyroidism) o Anti-voltage gated calcium channel antibody (in Lambert-Eaton syndrome) • Tensilon Test o Short-acting anti-cholinesterase (edrophonium bromide) increases acetylcholine levels and causes a rapid and transient improvement in clinical features o Risk of bradycardia - so is generally avoided • Nerve Conduction Study o Repetitive stimulation shows decrements of muscle action potential • EMG • CT Thorax/CXR - visualise thymoma in the mediastinum or lung malignancies
105
Define neurofibromatosis
``` • An autosomal dominant genetic disorder affecting cells of neural crest origin, resulting in the development of multiple neurocutaneous tumours • Type 1 Neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen's disease) o Characterised by: • Peripheral and spinal neurofibromas • Multiple café au lait spots • Freckling (axillary/inguinal) • Optic nerve glioma • Lisch nodules (on iris) • Skeletal deformities • Phaeochromocytomas • Renal artery stenosis • Type 2 Neurofibromatosis o Characterised by: • Schwannomas (often bilateral vestibular schwannomas) • Meningiomas • Gliomas • Cataracts ```
106
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of neurofibromatosis
• Associated with multiple mutations in tumour suppressor genes NF1 (type 1) and NF2 (type 2)
107
Summarise the epidemiology of neurofibromatosis
• No gender or racial predilection
108
Recognise the presenting symptoms of neurofibromatosis
``` • Positive family history (however, 50% are caused by new mutations) • Type 1 o Skin lesions o Learning difficulties (40%) o Headaches o Disturbed vision (due to optic gliomas) o Precocious puberty (due to lesions of the pituitary gland from an optic glioma involving the chiasm) • Type 2 o Hearing loss o Tinnitus o Balance problems o Headache o Facial pain o Facial numbness ```
109
Recognise the signs of neurofibromatosis on physical examination
• Type 1 o 5+ café au lait macules of > 5 mm (prepubertal) o 5+ café au lait macules of > 15 mm (post-pubertal) o Neurofibromas (may appear as cutaneous nodules or complex plexiform neuromas) o Freckling in armpit or groin o Lisch nodules (hamartomas on the iris) o Spinal scoliosis • Type 2 o Few or no skin lesions o Sensorineural deafness with facial nerve palsy or cerebellar signs (if the schwannoma is large)
110
Identify appropriate investigations for neurofibromatosis
* Ophthalmological assessment * Audiometry * MRI brain and spinal cord - for vestibular schwannomas, meningiomas and nerve root neurofibromas * Skull X-ray (sphenoid dysplasia in NF1) * Genetic testing
111
Define Parkinson's disease
• Neurodegenerative disease of the dopaminergic neurones of the substantia nigra, characterised by: o Bradykinesia o Rigidity o Resting tremor o Postural instability • Pathophysiology o Degeneration of dopaminergic neurones projecting from the substantia nigra to the striatum o Patients are only symptomatic after the loss of > 70% of dopaminergic neurones
112
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Parkinson's disease
• Sporadic/Idiopathic Parkinson's Disease o Most COMMON o Aetiology UNKNOWN o May be related to environmental toxins and oxidative stress • Secondary Parkinson's Disease o Neuroleptic therapy (e.g. for schizophrenia) o Vascular insults (e.g. in the basal ganglia) o MPTP toxin from illicit drug contamination o Post-encephalitis o Repeated head injury • There are some familial forms of Parkinson's disease
113
Summarise the epidemiology of Parkinson's disease
* Very COMMON * Prevalence: 1-2% of > 60 yrs * Mean age of onset: 57 yrs
114
Recognise the presenting symptoms of Parkinson's disease
* INSIDIOUS onset * Resting tremor (mainly in hands) * Stiffness and slowness of movements * Difficulty initiating movements * Frequent falls * Smaller hand writing (micrographia) * Insomnia * Mental slowness (bradyphenia)
115
Recognise the signs of Parkinson's disease on physical examination
``` • Tremor o Pill rolling rest tremor o 4-6 Hz o Decreased on action o Usually asymmetrical • Rigidity o Lead pipe rigidity of muscle tone o Superimposed tremor can cause cogwheel rigidity o Rigidity can be enhanced by distraction • Gait o Stooped o Shuffling o Small-stepped gait o Reduced arm swing o Difficulty initiating walking • Postural Instability o Falls easily with little pressure from the back or the front • Other features o Frontalis overactivation (leads to furrowing of the brow) o Hypomimic face o Soft monotonous voice o Impaired olfaction o Tendency to drool o Mild impairment of up-gaze • Psychiatric o Depression o Cognitive problems and dementia (in later stages) ```
116
Identify appropriate investigations for Parkinson's disease
• CLINICAL diagnosis • Levodopa Trial o Timed walking and clinical assessment after administration of levodopa • Bloods o Serum caeruloplasmin - rule out Wilson's disease as a cause of Parkinson's disease • CT or MRI Brain o To exclude other causes of gait decline (e.g. hydrocephalus) • Dopamine Transporter Scintigraphy o Reduction in striatum and putamen
117
Define spinal cord compression
• Injury to the spinal cord with neurological symptoms dependent on the site and extent of the injury
118
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of spinal cord compression
``` • MOST CASES: trauma and tumours • Trauma can lead to compression by: o Direct cord contusion o Compression by bone fragments o Haematoma o Acute disk prolapse • Tumours are more frequently METASTASES • Other causes: spinal abscess, TB (Pott's disease) • Risk Factors o Trauma o Osteoporosis o Metabolic bone disease o Vertebral disc disease ```
119
Summarise the epidemiology of cord compression
* COMMON * Trauma occurs across all age groups * Malignancy/disc disease is more common in the ELDERLY
120
Recognise the presenting symptoms of cord compression
• History of trauma or malignancy • Pain • Weakness • Sensory loss • Disturbance of bowel and bladder function • A large central lumbar disc prolapse may cause: o Bilateral sciatica o Saddle anaesthesia (loss of sensation in the area of the buttocks that is covered by a bike seat) o Urinary retention
121
Recognise the signs of cord compression on physical examination
• Diaphragmatic breathing • Reduced anal tone • HYPOreflexia • Priapism (persistent and painful erection) • Spinal shock (low blood pressure without tachycardia) • Sensory Loss - at level of the lesion • Motor o Weakness or paralysis o Downward plantars (in acute phase) o UMN signs below the level of the lesion o LMN signs at the level of the lesion • Brown-Sequard Syndrome - seen with hemisection of the spinal cord
122
Identify appropriate investigations for cord compression
• Radiology o Lateral radiographs of spine to look for loss of alignment, fractures etc. o MRI or CT • Bloods - FBC, U&Es, calcium, ESR, immunoglobulin electrophoresis (multiple myeloma) • Urine - look for Bence Jones proteins (multiple myeloma)
123
Define sciatica
• Pain, tingling and numbness that arise from nerve root compression or irritation in the lumbosacral spine.
124
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of sciatica
• Most commonly caused by a disc herniation • Other causes: o Spinal stenosis o Spondylolisthesis o Spinal injury or infection o Tumour o Cauda equina syndrome • Risk Factors o Age - older people are more like to get slipped discs o Job that requires regular heavy lifting
125
Summarise the epidemiology of sciatica
* Relatively COMMON | * More common in MALES
126
Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of sciatica
* Pain (usually affects the buttocks and the legs more than the back) * Numbness * Tingling sensation that radiates from the lower back down one of the legs * Weakness in the calf muscles or the muscles that move the foot or ankle
127
Identify appropriate investigations for sciatica
* CLINICAL diagnosis * Straight Leg Raise o If pain in the distribution of the sciatic nerve is reproduced on passive flexion of the straight leg at the hip between 30-70 degrees then it is considered a positive sign (Lasegue's sign) o This test is sensitive but not very specific • CT/MRI - helps visualise a lumbar disc herniation
128
Define stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)  
• Rapid permanent neurological deficit from cerebrovascular insult. Also defined clinically, as focal or global impairment of CNS function developing rapidly and lasting > 24 hrs • Can be subdivided based on: o Location - anterior circulation vs posterior circulation o Pathological Process - infarction vs haemorrhage
129
Explain the aetiology / risk factors of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) 
INFARCTION (80%) Thrombosis • Can occur in small vessels (lacunar infarcts) • Can occur in larger vessels (e.g. middle cerebral artery) • Can arise in prothrombotic states (e.g. dehydration, thrombophilia) Emboli • From carotid dissection, carotid atherosclerosis, atrial fibrillation • NOTE: they can arise from venous blood clots that pass through a septal defect (e.g. VSD) and get lodged in the cerebral circulation Hypotension • If the blood pressure is below the autoregulatory range required to maintain cerebral blood flow, you can get infarction in the watershed zones between different cerebral artery territories Others • Vasculitis • Cocaine (arterial spasm) HAEMORRHAGE (10%) o Hypertension o Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm rupture (DEFINITION: aneurysms within the brain vasculature that occur in small blood vessels) o Amyloid angiopathy o Arteriovenous malformations o Less common: trauma, tumours, vasculitis
130
Summarise the epidemiology of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) 
* COMMON * Incidence: 2/1000 * 3rd most common cause of death in industrialised countries * Usual age of stroke patients: 70+
131
Recognise the presenting symptoms of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) 
* SUDDEN-ONSET * Weakness * Sensory, visual or cognitive impairment * Impaired coordination * Impaired consciousness * Head or neck pain (if carotid or vertebral artery dissection) * Enquire about time of onset (critical for emergency management if < 4.5 hrs) * Enquire about history of AF, MI, valvular heart disease, carotid artery stenosis, recent neck trauma or pain
132
Recognise the signs of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) on physical examination 
* Examine for underlying cause (e.g. atrial fibrillation) * Infarction Lacunar Infarcts • Affecting the internal capsule or pons: pure sensory or motor deficit (or both) • Affecting the thalamus: loss of consciousness, hemisensory deficit • Affecting the basal ganglia: hemichorea, hemiballismus, parkinsonism Anterior Circulation • Anterior Cerebral  Lower limb weakness  Confusion ``` Middle Cerebral  Facial weakness  Hemiparesis (motor cortex)  Hemisensory loss (sensory cortex)  Apraxia  Hemineglect (parietal lobe)  Receptive or expressive dysphasia (due to involvement of Wernicke's and Broca's areas)  Quadrantopia (if superior or inferior optic radiations are affected) ``` Posterior Circulation • Posterior Cerebral - hemianopia • Anterior Inferior Cerebellar - vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral deafness, ipsilateral facial weakness • Posterior Inferior Cerebellar (affected in lateral medullary syndrome) - vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, ipsilateral hemisensory loss, dysarthria, contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss • Basilar Artery - cranial nerve pathology and impaired consciousness • Multiple Lacunar Infarcts - vascular dementia, urinary incontinence, gait apraxia, shuffling gait, normal or excessive arm-swing • Intracerebral - headache, meningism, focal neurological signs, nausea/vomiting, signs of raised ICP, seizures
133
Identify appropriate investigations for stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) and interpret the results 
Bloods o Clotting profile - check if thrombophilia (especially in young patients) ECG o Check for arrhythmias that may be the source of the clot Echocardiogram o Identify cardiac thrombus, endocarditis and other cardiac sources of embolism Carotid Doppler Ultrasound o Check for carotid artery disease (e.g. atherosclerosis) CT Head Scan o Rapid detection of haemorrhages MRI-Brain o Higher sensitivity for infarction but less available CT Cerebral Angiogram o Detect dissections or intracranial stenosis
134
Generate a management plan for stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) 
HYPERACUTE STROKE o If < 4.5 hrs from onset o Exclude haemorrhage using CT-head o If haemorrhage excluded, thrombolysis may be considered ACUTE ISCHAEMIC STROKE o Aspirin + Clopidogrel to prevent further thrombosis (once haemorrhage excluded on CT head) o Heparin anticoagulation considered if there is a high risk of emboli recurrence or stroke progression o Formal swallow assessment (NG tube may be needed) o GCS monitoring o Thromboprophylaxis Secondary Prevention o Aspirin and dipyridamole o Warfarin anticoagulation (atrial fibrillation) o Control risk factors: hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, treat carotid artery disease Surgical Treatment - carotid endarterectomy
135
Identify the possible complications of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) and its management 
* Cerebral oedema (increased ICP) * Immobility * Infections * DVT * Cardiovascular events * Death
136
Summarise the prognosis for patients with stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) 
* 10% mortality in the first month * Up to 50% that survive will be dependent on others * 10% recurrence within 1 year * Prognosis for haemorrhagic is WORSE than ischaemic
137
Define subarachnoid haemorrhage 
• Arterial haemorrhage into the subarachnoid space
138
Explain the aetiology / risk factors of subarachnoid haemorrhage 
* 85% - rupture of a saccular aneurysm at the base of the brain (Berry aneurysms) * 10% - perimesencephalic haemorrhage * 5% - arteriovenous malformations, bleeding diathesis, vertebral artery dissection ``` Risk Factors o Hypertension o Smoking o Excess alcohol intake o Saccular aneurysms are associated with: • Polycystic kidney disease • Marfan's syndrome • Ehlers-Danlos syndrome ```
139
Summarise the epidemiology of subarachnoid haemorrhage 
* Incidence: 10/100,000 | * Peak incidence: 40s
140
Recognise the presenting symptoms of subarachnoid haemorrhage 
* Sudden-onset worst headache ever * Nausea/vomiting * Neck stiffness * Photophobia * Reduced level of consciousness
141
Recognise the signs of subarachnoid haemorrhage on physical examination 
Meningism o Neck stiffness o Kernig's sign o Pyrexia * GCS - check for deterioration * Signs of raised ICP - papilloedema, IV or III nerve palsies, hypertension, bradycardia * Focal neurological signs (e.g. cranial nerve palsies)
142
Identify appropriate investigations for subarachnoid haemorrhage and interpret the results 
``` Bloods o FBC o U&Es o ESR/CRP o Clotting ``` CT Scan o Hyperdense areas in the basal regions of the skull (due to blood) Angiography - detect source of bleeding Lumbar Puncture o Increased opening pressure o Increased red cells o Xanthochromia - straw-coloured CSF due to breakdown of red blood cells
143
Define subdural haemorrhage 
``` • A collection of blood that develops between the surface of the brain and the dura mater • Classification o ACUTE: < 72 hrs o SUBACUTE: 3- 20 days o CHRONIC: > 3 weeks ```
144
Explain the aetiology / risk factors of subdural haemorrhage 
• Trauma (usually due to rapid acceleration and deceleration of the brain)
145
Summarise the epidemiology of subdural haemorrhage 
* Acute - younger patients/associated with major trauma * MORE COMMON than extradural haemorrhage * Chronic - more common in the ELDERLY
146
Recognise the presenting symptoms of subdural haemorrhage 
Acute o History of TRAUMA with head injury o Reduced conscious level Subacute o Worsening headache 7-14 days after injury o Altered mental state ``` Chronic o Headache o Confusion o Cognitive impairment o Psychiatric symptoms o Gait deterioration o Focal weakness o Seizures ```
147
Recognise the signs of subdural haemorrhage on physical examination 
Acute o Reduced GCS o Ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil (if a large haematoma cause a midline shift) o Pressure on brainstem --> reduced consciousness + bradycardia Chronic o Neurological examination may be NORMAL o Focal neurological signs (e.g. 3rd nerve palsy)
148
Identify appropriate investigations for subdural haemorrhage and interpret the results 
* CT Head | * MRI Brain - higher sensitivity than CT
149
Generate a management plan for subdural haemorrhage 
ACUTE o ALS protocol o Watch out for cervical spine injury o If raised ICP consider osmotic diuresis Conservative - if small Surgical o Prompt Burr hole or craniotomy Chronic o If symptomatic - Burr hole or craniotomy and drainage Children o Younger children may be treated with percutaneous aspiration via an open fontanelle
150
Identify the possible complications of subdural haemorrhage and its management 
* Raised ICP * Cerebral oedema * Herniation * Post-Op - seizures, recurrence, intracerebral haemorrhage, brain abscess, meningitis, tension pneumocephalus
151
Summarise the prognosis for patients with subdural haemorrhage 
Acute o Underlying brain injury will affect function Chronic o Better outcome than subdural haemorrhages o Lower incidence of underlying brain injury
152
Define tension headache
• The most common type of headache, which is considered a 'normal, everyday headache'. • Can be divided into: o Episodic - occurs on < 15 days per month o Chronic - occurs on > 15 days per month
153
Explain the cause of tension headaches
``` • The exact cause is unclear • There are well-known triggers: o Stress/anxiety o Squinting o Poor posture o Fatigue o Dehydration o Missing meals o Bright sunlight o Noise • They are primary headaches (i.e. they have no underlying cause) ```
154
Summarise the epidemiology of tension headache
* MOST COMMON type of headache * More common in WOMEN * Most common in YOUNG ADULTS * Most people will experience a tension headache at some point in their lives
155
Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of tension headaches
* Mild-moderate in severity * Pressure/tightness around the head like a tight band * Pain tends to be bilateral * Often a relationship with the neck * Can be disabling for a few hours but does not have specific associated symptoms (unlike migraines) * Gradual onset * Variable duration * Usually responsive to over-the-counter medication * IMPORTANT: check for possible triggers when taking history (e.g. stress) * Examination is usually NORMAL
156
Identify appropriate investigations for tension headaches
• NO investigations necessary
157
Generate a management plan for tension headaches
• Episodic Tension Headaches o Reassurance o Address triggers (e.g. stress, anxiety) o Advice on avoiding medications that can cause medication-induced headaches (e.g. opioids) o Simple analgesia (e.g. ibuprofen, paracetamol, aspirin) o Tricyclic antidepressants may be considered in frequently recurrent episodic tension headaches or chronic tension headaches
158
Identify possible complications of tension headaches
• NONE
159
Summarise the prognosis for patients with tension headaches
* GOOD * Not very severe or disabling * Recurs
160
Define TIA
• Rapidly developing focal disturbance of brain function of presumed vascular origin that resolves completely within 24 hours.
161
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of TIAs
``` • It is usually EMBOLIC but may be thrombotic • Most common source of emboli = CAROTID atherosclerosis • Emboli can also arise from the heart: o Atrial fibrillation o Mitral valve disease o Atrial myxoma • NOTE: clots from the right side of the circulation can cause a stroke if there is a septal defect (e.g. PFO) • Risk Factors o Hypertension o Smoking o Diabetes mellitus o Heart disease (valvular, ischaemic, atrial fibrillation) o Peripheral arterial disease o Polycythaemia rubra vera o COCP o Hyperlipidaemia o Alcohol o Clotting disorders ```
162
Summarise the epidemiology of TIAs
* More common with increasing age * More common in men * 15% of stroke patients would have experienced a previous TIA
163
Recognise the presenting symptoms of TIAs
• ANY PATIENT presenting with acute neurological symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hours (i.e. a suspected TIA) should be given 300 mg aspirin immediately and assessed urgently within 24 hours • History o TIAs usually last 10-15 mins (but can be anything from a few minutes to 24 hours) • Clinical features depend on the part of the brain affected: o Carotid Territory • Unilateral • Most often affect the MOTOR AREA: weakness an arm, leg or one side of the face • Dysarthria • Broca's dysphasia (if Broca's area is involved) • Amaurosis fugax (painless fleeting loss of vision caused by retinal ischaemia) o Vertebrobasilar Territory • Homonymous hemianopia (if ophthalmic cortex is involved) • May be bilateral visual impairment • May be hemiparesis, hemisensory symptoms, diplopia, vertigo, vomiting, dysarthria, dysphagia or ataxia • Ask about weakness, facial drooping, gait disturbance, confusion, memory loss, dysarthria or abnormal behaviour • Check for simultaneous cardiac symptoms (e.g. palpitations)
164
Recognise the signs of TIA on physical examination
* Neurological examination may be NORMAL because the TIA may have resolved by the time you do it * Check pulse for irregular rhythm (AF) * Auscultate the carotids to check for bruits (carotid atherosclerosis)
165
Identify appropriate investigations for TIAs
``` • Primary Care Investigations o Urinalysis (check for glycosuria) o FBC o U&Es o Lipids o LFTs o TSH o ECG (may show AF or previous MI) • Secondary Care o Unenhanced CT - if there is a possibility of a haemorrhage (e.g. if the patient is anticoagulated or has a bleeding disorder) • Investigate for Source of Emboli o ECG (24 hr tape or cardiac monitoring may be considered if paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is suspected) o Doppler ultrasound of carotid and vertebral arteries ```
166
Generate a management plan for TIAs
• Patients with acute neurological symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hrs should be given 300 mg aspirin immediately and assessed urgently within 24 hrs • Patients with confirmed TIA should receive: o Clopidogrel - 300 mg loading dose and 75 mg thereafter o High-Intensity Statin Therapy - e.g. atorvastatin 20-80 mg • Secondary Prevention o Antiplatelets o Antihypertensives o Lipid-modifying treatments o Management of AF • Assessment of future stroke risk in TIA patients: ABCD2 score
167
Identify possible complications of TIAs
* Recurrence | * Stroke
168
Summarise the prognosis for patients with TIAs
• VERY HIGH RISK of STROKE in the first month after the TIA and up to 1 year afterwards
169
Define trigeminal neuralgia
• Neuralgia involving one or more of the branches of the trigeminal nerves, often causing severe pain.
170
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of trigeminal neuralgia
* Thought to be due to compression of the trigeminal nerve by a loop of artery or vein * 5-10% of cases are thought to be due to tumours, MS or skull base abnormalities
171
Summarise the epidemiology of trigeminal neuralgia
* Peak incidence: 50-60 yrs * Prevalence increases with age * More common in FEMALES * Some familial component
172
Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of trigeminal neuralgia
• Sudden, unilateral, brief, stabbing pain in the distribution or one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve • Recurrent • Pain lasts from a few seconds to a couple of mins • Periods of remission can vary • Some experience preceding symptoms (e.g. numbness, tingling) • Pain is described as being 'shock-like' • Triggers o Vibration o Skin contact o Brushing teeth o Oral intake o Exposure to wind
173
Identify appropriate investigations for trigeminal neuralgia
* Diagnosis is CLINICAL | * If there is doubt over the underlying cause, specialists may request an MRI brain scan
174
Define Wernicke's encephalopathy
• The presence of neurological symptoms caused by biochemical lesions of the central nervous system following exhaustion of vitamin B (particularly thiamine) reserves.
175
Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Wernicke's encephalopathy
• Main cause is CHRONIC ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION which results in thiamine deficiency by causing: o Inadequate nutritional thiamine intake o Decreased thiamine absorption o Impaired thiamine utilisation by cells • Other conditions that cause thiamine deficiency: o Chronic subdural haematoma o AIDS o Hyperemesis gravidarum o Thyrotoxicosis • Thiamine deficiency results in abnormal cellular function in the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and cerebellum
176
Summarise the epidemiology of Wernicke's encephalopathy
* Alcohol-related brain damage accounts for 10-24% of all dementia * Prevalence rates are higher in areas of socio-economic deprivation * Higher prevalence in 50-60 year olds
177
Recognise the presenting symptoms of Wernicke's encephalopathy
* Vision changes: diplopia, eye movement abnormalities, ptosis * Loss of muscle coordination: unsteady gait * Loss of memory * Inability to form new memories * Hallucinations
178
Recognise the signs of Wernicke's encephalopathy on physical examination
• Wernicke's is classically defined by a triad of signs: o Confusion o Ophthalmoplegia o Ataxia • The patient is usually mentally alert with vocabulary, comprehension, motor skills, social habits and naming ability maintained • Some show signs suggestive of polyneuropathy • Reflexes may be decreased • Abnormal gait and coordination • Eye abnormalities on movement: nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsy, conjugate gaze palsy • Low temperature • Rapid pulse • Some may be cachectic • NOTE: Korsakoff's Psychosis occurs when the condition deteriorates further, leading to the additional symptoms of: o Amnesia o Confabulation
179
Identify appropriate investigations for Wernicke's encephalopathy
• Diagnosis is mainly based on history and examination • Possible useful tests: o FBC (high MCV is a common feature amongst alcoholics) o U&Es (exclude metabolic imbalances as a cause of confusion) o LFTs o Glucose o ABG (hypercapnia and hypoxia can cause confusion) o Serum thiamine • CT head scan may be useful