Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gross Anatomy > Neuroscience 1 > Flashcards

Neuroscience 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Gray matter increases with:

A

learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the steps of a reflex?

A
  1. Hammer tap stretches tendon –> stretches sensory receptors in leg extensor muscle
    2A. Sensory neuron synapses with and excites motor neuron in spinal cord
    2B. Sensory neuron also excites spinal interneuron
    2C. Interneuron inhibits motor neuron to flexor muscles
    3A. Motor neuron conducts AP to synapses on extensor muscle fibers –> contraction
    3B. Flexor muscle relaxes because activity of its motor neurons has been inhibited.
  2. Leg extends
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neurogenesis increases with:

A

activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the four distinguishing features of advanced nervous systems?

A
  1. Cellular specialization
  2. High storage capacity and adaptability
  3. Areal specialization (ie lobe)
  4. Functional cooperation (groups of neurons act together to produce an effect)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 5 types of neuroglia?

A
  1. Astrocytes
  2. Oligodendrocytes
  3. Microglial cells
  4. Glial stem cells
  5. Oligodendrocyte precursor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the best predictors of intelligence when comparing brains?

A
  1. Foliation

2. Neuronal density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What process defines the midline, anterior-posteriorand dorsal-ventral axes of the embryo?

A

Gastrulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What process is central to gastrulation by defining the midline of the embryo and inducing formation of the neural ectoderm?

A

Notochord formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the neural precursor cells?

A

Neural ectodermal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the effect of bone morphogenic protein (BMPs) on ectoderm?

A

Formation of epidermis, *an example of neural induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is BMP and where is it produced?

A

BMP, bone morphogenic protein, is produced, by mesoderm. It is a subclass of TGFb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What factors inhibit BMP signaling?

A

Chordin, Noggin, Follistatin etc., produced by the notochord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens when BMP is inhibited?

A

Ectodermal cells take on a neural fate, *example of neural induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the default pathway for neural induction of ectodermal cells?

A

Neural fate. BMP responsible for transcription factor activation leading to epidermal differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

TAKE HOME:

A

Neural induction requires the coordination of multiple signaling pathways. complexity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cells that make up the neural tube are:

A

Neural stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does the neural tube close?

A

Both anteriorly and posteriorly, like a zipper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name two vitamins helpful in preventing neural tube defects.

A

Folic acid, B vitamins, (cholesterol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When does the neural crest pinch off? What do these cells become?

A

The neural crest stem cells pinch off from the neural tube at neural tube closure. These cells go on to become cranial neural crest cells, trunk neural crest cells, cardiac neural crest cells and vagal/sacral neural crest cells.
…in other words, cells in PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In dorsal/ventral patterning, the process by which groups of cells become different from one another, ventral signal is secreted:

A

SHH, (motor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In dorsal/ventral patterning, dorsal signal is secreted:

A

TGFb family, mainly BMPs (sensory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The notochord induces formation of the neural plate and neural groove, but these are also dependent on:

A

SHH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the process by which SHH leads to ventral (motor neuron) cell fates?

A
  1. SHH binds to Patched (PTC)
  2. PTC relieves inhibition of Smoothened (SMO)
  3. Smoothened activates Gli1 transcription factor family (zinc fingers)
  4. Gli1 induces transcription to make the cell ventrally fated.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cyclopia is the result of:

A

Shh patterning defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Shh is known to regulate 3 key things in development:

A
  1. Polarity
  2. Proliferation
  3. Cell differentiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Disruptions in the Shh pathway can lead to:

A
  1. Holoprosencephaly (telencephalon does not bifurcate)
  2. Cyclopia and misplaced nose (polarity of head issue)
  3. Medulloblastomas
  4. Basal cell carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In addition to BMPs and Shh pathways, what two things play key roles in the development of the dorsal ventral polarity?

A 
RA - retinoic acid (endplate and floorplate)
and FGF (near notochord)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the results of anterior posterior (A/P) patterning?

A 
Formation of spinal cord
Rhombencephalon
 --metencephalon - future pons
 --myelencephalon - future medulla
Mesencephalon - future midbrain
Prosencephalon - 
 --diencephalon - future thalamus and retina
 --telencephalon - future forebrain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What genes are important in A/P patterning?

A

Hox genes, involved in defining segmental differences in the spinal cord, medulla and pons, and is major in formation of brain stem and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where is there no Hox code?

A

Brain (prosencephalon and mesencephalon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What occurs in OTX2 knockout mice?

A

OTX2 knockout embryos completely lack forebrain and neural structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the ventricular zone?

A

Thin strip of cells surrounding the CSF-filled ventricles , where neural stem cells and neural progenitor cells divide and differentiate to give rise to cells in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the difference between a neural stem cell and a neural progenitor cell?

A

(1) Neural stem cell - Can give rise to any cell type in the nervous system, unlimited potential and self renewal
(2) Progenitor cell - derived from the neural stem cell but have more restricted fate (can be either a glial progenitor cell or a neural progenitor cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does the brain develop in the ventricular zone?

A

NSC’s divide symmetrically (2 daughter NSCs) until they don’t anymore, and then divide to one NSC and one progenitor. Then finally they will have a symmetrical division into 2 neural progenitors. This happens without growing the size of the ventricular zone, so the expansion is lateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Neurogenesis precedes?

A

Gliogenesis, which starts after the peak of neurogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In order to keep tight tabs on the numbers of NSCs, progenitors, neurons and glia forming, and the timing of their generation, what signaling pathways need to get involved?

A
  1. Notch
  2. bHLH - basic helix loop helix TF (proneural)
    These control neural progenitor differentiation and are antagonistic.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Notch signaling requires:

A

cell to ell contact, through Delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does Notch work?

A

At low to moderate levels of Notch stimulation through Delta, Notch is cleaved and goes to the nucles to activate bHLH TF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Glial differentiation goes in what order?

A
  1. Neurogenesis
  2. Astrogliogenesis
  3. Oligogliogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Neurons in most brain areas are all generated by the when in pregnancy:

A

second trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When does the majority of gliogenesis occur?

A

After birth in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the inside-out pattern of cortical development?

A

Radial migration in which first born neurons migrate radially along radial glia to the cortical plate, but each subsequent generation migrates past the previous one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hows does inside out cortex form?

A

Mutation in ECM protein reelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Developmental disorders implicated in gene migration problems include:

A

Autism
ADD
ADHD
Schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why can’t interneurons migrate radially as in cortical layer formation?

A

Because they are coming from the LGE and MGE - laterial and medial ganglionic eminences, therefore they migrate tangentially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Both CNS and PNS are built by:

A

immigrants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a CT scan?

A

Computed axial tomography
Rotating x-ray beam
Rate of attentuation varies by tissue composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the advantages of CT?

A

Faster and less expensive than MRI

Can be used as an initial screening tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the disadvantages of CT?

A

Use of X-ray
Lower spatial resolution than MRI
Less contrast between soft tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is CT used to detect?

A 
infarction
tumors
calcifications
hemmorhage
bone trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is an infarct?

A

Loss of blood supply and thus oxygen to portion of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Why are infarcts more clearly visualized on MRI?

A

Superior spatial resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is MRI?

A

Based on principles of nuclear magnetic resonance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the advantages of MRI?

A

No radiation (radio waves instead of x-rays)
High resolution and detailed visualization of soft tissue
Can identify wide range of pathological processes
Functional/chemical imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the disadvantages of MRI?

A

Waiting lists
Claustrophobia
Long study duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the physics of MRI?

A

A spinning proton (like in water) placed within a large, external magnetic field will align with or against the external field. The proton will precess, or wobble, at a frequency proportional to the magnetic field. As we turn the RF pulse off, the PROTONS REALIGN with the external magnetic field. Simultaneously, the ENERGY that each spinning proton absorbed from the RF pulse DECAYS. As the energy decays, an RF signal is emitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a T2 weighted image?

A

MRI scanning of tumor: T2 weighted scans utilize a pulse that permits better visualization of lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is MRS?

A 
Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy; the permits the study of the chemical structure of the brain; can study:
N-acetylaspartate (NAA)
Choline (Cho)
Creatine (Cr)
Lactate (Lac)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Creatine is a:

A

glial marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

NAA is a:

A

Neuronal marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Choline is a marker for:

A

demyelination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Lactate is found in the brain during:

A

ischemic events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is DTI?

A

DTI measures water diffusion orientations within axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the advantages of fMRI?

A

Good for studying cognitive tasks, to understand the sites of neural reorganization following stroke or injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is PET?

A

Use of cyclotron to prepare radioactive isotope tracers, injection of tracers, which bind to physiological sites, scanner images the positron-emitting tracer upon its decay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How has PET been used in management of AD?

A

Hypometabolism in various brain regions have been associated with severity of clinical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the APOE-4 allele?

A

Genetic risk factor for AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Give an example of intraoperative MRI.

A

Co-localization of MRI and DTI scans allows surgeons to identify way in which the white matter tracts are affected by a tumor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is MRI good for identifying?

A

Neoplasm
Demyelination (MR spec)
Degenerative diseases (Cortical atrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does MRI look at?

A

Brain structure
Vasculature
Chemical structure
Fiber tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the advantages of PET?

A

Functional imaging

Physiological variables can be determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the disadvantages of PET?

A

Ionizing radiation
Costly, limited access
Tracer production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is PET used for?

A

Psychiatric disorders
Addictive disorders
Epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What measurements does PET provide?

A

Perfusion
Metabolism
NT integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Neurons that conduct visceral pain are distributed in the

A

sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Neurons that conduct visceral sensory non-pain information are distributed in the

A

parasymptathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Cell bodies of visceral afferent fibers that conduct visceral pain are located in the ___ along with cell bodies of somatic afferent fibers.

A

dorsal root ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The visceral afferent fibers of the myocardium are located:

A

T1-T5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Explain the dermatomal effect of a heart attack.

A

The cell bodies of somatic afferent fibers that supply the skin of dermatomes of T1-T5 are located in the same dorsal root ganglia as the afferent fibers of the myocardium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the exceptions to dual innervation?

A

Cutaneous blood vessels
sweat glands
hair shafts
–receive sympathetic input only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where is myelin found, pre or postganglionic neurons?

A

Preganglionic neurons

82
Q

Name the two types of sympathetic ganglia:

A
  1. Prevertebral ganglia (5 major prevertebral ganglia)

2. Paravertebral ganglia

83
Q

Where are preganglionic sympathetic neurons located?

A

Intermediolateral horn, T1-L2, spinal cord

84
Q

How does the preganglionic sympathetic neuron exit the spinal cord?

A

White ramus communicans

85
Q

Why do gray rami outnumber white rami?

A

Because there are gray rami for each of the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and only white rami for the sympathetic neurons

86
Q

The sympathetic preganglionic neurons in the T1-T4 region of the spinal cord synapse with postganglionic neurons in the:

A

paravertebral ganglia

87
Q

In the spinal cord region _____, the sympathetic neurons will target abdomino-pelvic viscera. They will pass through the paravertebral ganglia without synapsing, and travel to synapse on the prevertebral ganglia.

A

T5-L2

88
Q

The cranial outflow has four pairs of parasympathetic ganglia:

A
  1. Ciliary ganglia
  2. Pterygopalatine ganglia (CN VII)
  3. Submandibular ganglia (CN VII)
  4. Otic ganglia (CN IX)
89
Q

What is the central control center of the ANS?

A

Hypothalamus - sensory input related with visceral function, smell, taste, temperature and changes of levels of various substances in the blood

90
Q

Pain (sensory) impulse processes travel with:

A

sympathetic fibers

91
Q

Where are non-pain (sensory) impulse cell bodies located?

A

Specific nuclei in the brain, processes travel with PS fibers

92
Q

Where do somatic motor neurons synapse?

A

In skeletal muscle – no ganglion

93
Q

The postganglionic fiber (axon) exits the ganglion via a gray ramus communicans to join:

A

either a dorsal or ventral ramus (branch of spinal nerve) for distribution to the periphery

94
Q

Where are the paravertebral ganglion?

A

Thoracic (11-12)

Lumbar (4-5)

95
Q

What structures are innervated by the superior cervical ganglion?

A

Skin of the face
Smooth muscles of the eye
Lacrimal and salivary gland
Heart

96
Q

The middle cervical ganglion and inferior cervical ganglion innervate the:

A

heart

97
Q

The T1-T4 paravertebral ganglia innervate:

A

heart
lungs
smooth muscles of the bronchi

98
Q

Axons from T5-T9 level form the ______ which synapse in celiac ganglion

A

greater thoracic splanchnic

99
Q

Axons from T10-T11 level form the _____ which synapse in the superior mesenteric ganglion and aorticorenal ganglion

A

lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve

100
Q

Axons from the _____ level form the LEAST THORACIC SPLANCHNIC NERVE which synapse in the renal ganglion.

A

T12

101
Q

Axons from the L1-L2 form the LUMBAR SPLANCHNIC NERVE which synapse in the ________.

A

Inferior mesenteric ganglion

102
Q

Postsynaptic axons of CN VII innervate:

A 
Pteropalatine ganglion
--lacrimal glands
--pharynx
--palate
Submandibular ganglion
--submandibular and sublingual gland
103
Q

Postsynaptic axons of CN III innervate:

A

the smooth muscles of the eye

104
Q

Postsynaptic axons of CN IX innervate:

A

parotid gland

105
Q

PS splanchnic nerves synapse with the postganglionic neuron in:

A

microscopic ganglia close to/on the organ they innervate:

ureters, urinary bladder, repro organs, large intestine

106
Q

Pelvic splanchnic nerves leave the spinal cord via which root?

A

anterior –> sacral spinal nerve

107
Q

The output from the hypothalamus controls the autonomic centers in the:

A

spinal cord and brainstem

108
Q

The PNS is anatomically constituted of:

A 
cranial nerves (12 pairs)
spinal nerves (31 pairs)
109
Q

The dorsal horn contains __1__ neurons that receive input from the periphery, which the ventral horn contains __2__ neurons that innervate specific muscles.

A
  1. ventral

2. dorsal

110
Q

Why are there only 30 dermatomes but 31 spinal nerves?

A

First cervical spinal nerve C1 has no cutaneous terminus

111
Q

The ventral/anterior root contains axons of:

A

motor neurons

112
Q

The dorsal/posterior root contains the processes of:

A

sensory neurons

113
Q

What is a plexus?

A

Network of axons and vantral rami that come together and redistribute differently.

114
Q

What is a radiculopathy?

A

Compressed spinal nerve roots

115
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of radiculopathy?

A

Sensory loss/deficit in the dermatomal distribution of the affected root
Motor function loss/deficit in the myotomal region of the affected root

116
Q

What is a myotome?

A

A group of muscles innervated by the same spinal segment

117
Q

The dorsal ramus supplies:

A

motor and sensory

skin, muscles of the back

118
Q

The ventral ramus supplies:

A

Ventral and lateral skin and muscles of the trunk

gives rise to the nerves of the limbs

119
Q

What is a plexopathy?

A

Nerve injury to entire plexus

120
Q

What are the small molecule NTs?

A
  1. ACh
  2. Amino acids -glutamate, aspartate, GABA, glycine
  3. Biogenic amines
  4. Purines
121
Q

What are the biogenic amine NTs?

A

Catecholamines ie norepi, dopamine, epi
Serotonin
Histamine

122
Q

What kind of GABA receptor is ionotropic?

A

GABA-A

123
Q

What kind of GABA receptor is metabotropic?

A

GABA-B

124
Q

ACh receptors that are ionotropic are….what is their effect?

A

nicotinic…excitatory, as in NMJ

125
Q

What is an antagonist of ACh?

A

Scopolamine, atropine

126
Q

What is the effect of sarin gas?

A

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase

127
Q

What is an autoimmune disorder of ACh receptors?

A

Myasthenia gravis

128
Q

How do you treat MG?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, steroids, thymectomy works in 50% of cases

129
Q

What are the symptoms of MG?

A

Ptosis, severe fatigue, diplopia

130
Q

What is the precursor of glutamate?

A

Glutamine, which can cross the BBB

131
Q

What is requird to open an NMDA receptor?

A

glutamate AND glycine

132
Q

What are the three ionotropic glutamate receptors found in the CNS?

A
  1. NMDA
  2. AMPA
  3. kainate
133
Q

What is excitotoxicity w/r/t glutamate?

A

High intracellular glutamate is toxic to neurons. Repeated activation of glutamate receptors can excite neurons to death.

134
Q

What are the ionotropic GABA receptors?

A

GABA-A and GABA-C

135
Q

What kind of drugs are benzodiazapines and barbituates?

A

GABA agonists

136
Q

What is GABA made from?

A

Glutamate and pyroxidin phosphate

137
Q

Where is glycine NT most typically found?

A

Spinal cord

138
Q

What is the effect of excess synaptic glycine in the infant?

A

Lethargy and mental retardation

139
Q

Are there metabotropic receptors for glycine?

A

No, ionotropic only

140
Q

What is the effect of glycine as a NT?

A

Opens Cl- channels (inhibitory)

141
Q

What is an antagonist of glycine receptors?

A

Strychnine

142
Q

The substantia nigra to the striatum, and the ventraltegmental area (VTA) to the striatum are tracts for what NT?

A

Dopamine

143
Q

What is the striatum made up of?

A

Putamen and caudate nucleus

144
Q

Antagonists of dopamine receptors in the medulla are used to treat:

A

Nausea and vomiting

145
Q

How is dopamine made?

A

From tyrosine in the nerve terminals

146
Q

What are the disorders associated with dopamine disregulation?

A
  1. Parkinson’s - not enough dopamine
  2. Schizophrenia - too much dopamine
  3. Cocaine use - also causes net increase in dopamine in synaptic cleft
147
Q

How do you treat Parkinson’s?

A

L-DOPA

148
Q

Where is norepinephrine found in the brain?

A

Locus coreleus

149
Q

How is norepi made?

A

From dopamine in nerve terminals

150
Q

What are the metabotropic receptors of noreip?

A

alpha and beta adrenergic receptors

151
Q

What is an inhibitor of both dopamine and norepi transporters, causing a et increase of them in the synapse?

A

Amphetamine

152
Q

The Raphe nuclei in te upper brainstem, projecting widely into the forebrain, is the location of what NT?

A

Serotonin

153
Q

How is serotonin made?

A

From tryptophan in nerve terminals

154
Q

What is the majority of serotonin receptors?

A

Metabotropic majority…these are implicated in psychiatric disorders

155
Q

Tyrosine –> __1__ –> Dopamine –> __2__ –> Epinephrine

A
  1. Dihydroxytryptophan (DOPA)

2. Norepinephrine

156
Q

What is the rate limiting step in biogenic amine synthesis?

A

Tyrosine hydroxlase

157
Q

Tryptophan –> __1__ –> __2__

A
  1. 5HT

2. Serotonin

158
Q

What is the function of MAO inhibitors?

A

Block breakdown of biogenic amines, used for anti-anxiety and anti-depression

159
Q

What is the function of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Block reuptake of NE and 5HT

160
Q

What is the location of cell bodies of neurons that transduce smell?

A

Olfactory epithelium

161
Q

Olfactory epithelium neurons relay information via axonal projections through the ____ to the olfactory bulb.

A

Cribiform plate

162
Q

Bulbar neurons project via the lateral olfactory tract to the piriform (olfactory) cortex located at the tip of the:

A

temporal lobe

163
Q

What is contained in the olfactory epithelium?

A

Basal cells, neurons and supporting cells

164
Q

What are steps 2 and 3 in signal transduction in olfactory neurons, after the odorant is delivered to the epithelium?

A

Odorant diffuses to reach cilia

Odorant reacts with receptor protein (binds)

165
Q

What is the effect of the odorant binding to its receptor?

A

Causes depolarizing cell potential via G protein cascade

166
Q

Neurons expressing a particular olfactory receptor have what kind of distribution?

A

Zonal distribution pattern

167
Q

How are cells in the olfactory bulb organized?

A

Like an onion, in concentric layers

168
Q

What are the layers of the olfactory bulb?

A

Glomerular layer
External Plexiform layer
Mitral cell layer
Granule cell layer

169
Q

What are the interneurons of the olfactory bulb?

A

Periglomerular cells

granule cells

170
Q

What cells are the relay neurons that project to the olfactory cortex?

A

Mitral and tufted cells of olfactory bulb

171
Q

What cells modulate the activity of the mitral and tufted cells?

A

The inhibitory interneurons: periglomerular and granule cells

172
Q

What is the outermost layer of neurons of the olfactory bulb?

A

Periglomerular cells

173
Q

What is the fundamental unit of organization in the olfactory bulb?

A

Glomerulus

174
Q

What is the projection of epithelium in the olfactory bulb goes in what shape?

A

From quadrant to quadrant

175
Q

Within a quadrant, the axonal projections bring together the axon terminals of all “like-neurons.” All of the neurons expressing a particular olfactory receptor converge onto the same set of _____

A

glomeruli

176
Q

Explain the rule of one OR-one glomerulus.

A

Olfactory neurons are broadly tunes and all the neurons expressing a single OP synapse together in a single glomerulus.

177
Q

Olfactory glomeruli are activated by:

A

odorants

178
Q

The taste buds of the tongue are innervated by what cranial nerves?

A

7, 9, 10 (10 to larynx)

179
Q

The ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus the hypothalamus and the amygdala project to:

A

the insula, frontal cortex

180
Q

Gustatory axons innervate:

A

the nucleus of the solitary tract, which has projections to the ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus

181
Q

What is the cellular organization of taste buds?

A

Taste pore - microvilli - taste cells - basal cells - synapse - gustatory afferent axons - receptor cells

182
Q

How are salt and sour stimuli transduced?

A

Through ionic transduction mechanism results in an intracellular increase in Ca and transmitter release (Salt - amiloride Na channel and acid - H+ sensitive cation channel)

183
Q

How are sweet, bitter and umami tastes transduced?

A

Through GPCR mechanism – increases cAMP – stimulate TRPM5 Ca2+ channel via IP3

184
Q

Can single axons respond to many different primary stimuli?

A

Yes, but they have a specific preference for one stimulus over another.

185
Q

What cranial nerve conveys oral irritation?

A

Trigeminal nerve

186
Q

The growth cone is a key decision-making structure of:

A

axon pathfinding

187
Q

Lamellapodium looks like ___1___ and is made up of __2__.

A
  1. Fan

2. Actin and MTs

188
Q

F-actin in lamellapodia and filopodia is responsible for:

A

direction-choosing

189
Q

Filopodia is made of:

A

actin (G-actin)

190
Q

Name 3 examples of non-diffusible attractive axon guidance molecules.

A
  1. Collagen
  2. Fibronectin
  3. Laminin
191
Q

Non-diffusible attractive growth cone signals bind to growth cone receptors (integrins) which trigger a signaling cascade favoring:

A

growth and elongation

192
Q

CAMs are calcium-

A

INdependent, cell adhesion molecules

193
Q

What is the purpose of CAMs?

A

Modulate the cytoskeleton

194
Q

L1 CAM is associated with:

A

Fasiculation, bundling groups of axons as they grow

195
Q

Cadherins are calcium-

A

dependent

196
Q

What are DCC family netrins?

A

Diffusible attractive signaling molecules, secreted by target cells in midline of embryo

197
Q

What is the effect of repulsive axon guidance molecules?

A

Promote actin depolymerization and growth cone collapse

198
Q

Aggregan, Hyaluronan and Tenascin are examples of:

A

non-diffusible repulsive molecules

199
Q

Why is cell movement in the CNS inhibited?

A

Abundance of hyaluronan, environment favors cell-cell interaction over cell-matrix interaction

200
Q

The CNS ECM is a major barrier to what:

A

Brain regeneration in adults

201
Q

Retina –> V1 –> V2 –> V4 –> Temporal lobe (inferotemporal cortex) is what?

A

Visual hierarchy where each level is a level of visual information processing, ie orientation tuning, then curvature, contours, then 3D shapes etc.

202
Q

What is ambylopia?

A

Lazy eye

Gross Anatomy (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions