Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuroradiology > Neuroradiology > Flashcards

Neuroradiology Flashcards

1
Q

Enlarged perivascular (virchow robin) spaces?

A
  • Cryptococcus (gelatinous pseudocyts, do not enhance) - Mucopolysaccharidoses (hunters, Hurlers) - Atrophy VR don’t contain CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Myelination pattern?

A

Progression: inferior to superior, posterior to anterior, central to peripheral Subcortical white matter is last to myelinate Brainstem and posterior limb of internal capsule are myelinated at 36 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Corpus Callosum Development?

A

Front to back (but the rostrum is last)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Immature Myelin Appearance?

A

Higher water content- brighter on T2 and darker on T1 Mature myelin- bright on T1 and T2 dark T1 (1 yo) changes proceed T2 changes (2yo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Paranasal sinus formation?

A

Maxillary -> Ethmoid -> Sphenoid ->Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Foramen Ovale

A

CN V3, accessory meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Foramen Rotundum

A

CNV2 (R2V2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Superior Orbital Fissure

A

CN 3,4, V1, and CN 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inferior orbital fissure

A

CN V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Foramen Spinosum

A

Middle meningeal artery (spine contains meninges)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Jugular foramen

A

Jugular vein, CN 9, CN 10, CN 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hypoglossal canal

A

CN12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Optic canal

A

CN 2 and opthalmic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What runs in the cavernous sinus

A

CN 3, 4, V1, V2, CN 6 (CN 2 and CN V3- do not run in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What nerve is adjacent to the carotid artery in the cavernous sinus and is not within the wall?

A

CN6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Branches of external carotid?

A

Some administrators like fucking over poor medical students Superior thyroid Ascending pharyngeal Lingual Facial Occipital Posterior Auricular Maxillary Superficial temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Internal Carotid Artery Branches?

A

C2- petrous C3 - Lacerum C4- Cavernous (site of CC fistulas) C5- Clinoid ( aneurysm can compress the optic nerve at this level) C6-Ophthalmic (origin at the dural ring- intrdural) C7- Communicating terminal (aneurysm can cause CN III palsy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fetal PCA?

A

PCOM is as large or bigger then the P1 segment PCOM is superior and lateral to CN 3 (as opposed to superior and medial in normal anatomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Deep Cerebral Veins

A

Basal Vein of Rosenthal Vein of Galen Inferior Petrosal Sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Superficial Cerebral Veins

A

Vein of Trolard (drains into superior sagittal sinus) Vein of Labbe (drains into the transverse sinus) Superficial Middle Cerebral Veins Superior Cerebral Veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CN III Palsy

A

Terminal Aneurysm Aneurysm of the PComm Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CN 6 palsy

A

Increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Intacranial hypotension

A

Sagging of midbrain meningeal enhancement distension of dural venous sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Intracranial Hypertension

A

Empty Sella Optic Hydrops Papilledema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vasogenic Edema

A

Extracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cytotoxic edema

A

Intracellular Na/K pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Obstructive: Non-communicating- involves the ventricular system Communicating-Involves the villi/arachnodi granulations Non-obstructive: Increased production of CSF- choroid plexus papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Transtentorial Herniation

A

Effaces ipsilateral suprasellar cistern first Duret hemorrhage from basilar artery perforators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A
  • Relapsing and remitting is most common type - Acute plaques should restrict diffusion - Tumefactive- incomplete ring enhancement Marburg- childhood variant, fulminant, rapid demise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ADEM

A

Post-viral/vaccination T2 bright lesions, which enhance in a nodular/ring like fashion Typically don’t involve the collosal septal interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hurst Disease/ Acute Hemorrhagic Leukoencephalitis?

A

Fulminant from of ADEM, hemorrhage on seen on autopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Wenick’e Encephlopathy

A

Enhancing mammillary bodies Edema in the medial thalami and periaqueductal gray matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Carbon monoxide

A

T2 bright globus palladi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Marchiafava-Bigmani

A

Demylination and Necrosis of the CC- T2 hyperintense signal in the corpus callosum, which starts in the central CC Associated with alcoholism and chronic nutritional deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is preserved on FDG-PET in dementia?

A

Motor strip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Mimics of vascular dementia?

A

Lyme disease, HIV, Vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

First sign of alzheimer’s?

A

Hippocampal atrophy (temporal atrophy > 3 mm is suggestive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Crossed Cerebellar Diaschisis

A

contralateral cerebellum has decreased uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Binswangers

A

Small vessel vascular dementia spares subcortical U-fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

TORCH- CMV

A

Most Common TORCH infection - Periventricular calcifications - Highest association with polymicrogyria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

TORCH- Toxoplasmosis

A

Associated with hydrocephalus Basal ganglia calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TORCH- HSV

A

HSV-type 2 Thrombus and hemorrhagic infarctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HIV- Intrauterine

A

Atrophy of the frontal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

PML

A

JC virus Involves the subcortical U fibers CD4 count typically less than 50 T2 lesions out of proportion to mass effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Toxoplasmosis

A

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV T2 bright, ring enhancing lesion, lots of edema, NO RESTRICTION Cold on thallium (lymphoma is hot on thallium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hydrocephalus and nodular enhancement of the basilar meninges?

A

TB (sarcoid generally does not cause hydrocephalus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

HSV infection- Adults

A

HSV 1 First sign is restricted diffusion May have hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Limbic Encephalitis

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome (ex: small cell carcinoma of the lung) No enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CJD

A

Diffusion restriction-cortical ribboning, hockey stick sign (medial thalamus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Stages of Neurocysticercosis

A
  1. Vesicular- thin walled cyst, no edema 2. Colloid- Hyperdense cyst with edema 3. Granular- cyst shrinks, wall thickens (less edema) 4. Nodular- calcified lesion, no edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cortically Based Tumors?

A

Dysembryoplastic Neuroepithelial Tumor (DNET) Oligodendroglioma Ganglioglioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

NF1

A

Optic gliomas/Astrocytomas Plexiform neurofibromas Iris Hamartomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

NF2

A

Multiple schwannomas Meningiomas Ependymomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis Tumors

A

Subependymal tubors Giant Cell astrocytomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

VHL

A

hemangioblastomas (cerebellar) Others: Pheochromocytomas Retinal angiomas Choriod plexus papilloma Endolymphatic sac tumor Pancreatic cyst, islet cell tumor, adenocarcinoma RCC- clear cell Renal AML, cysts Liver cysts Cysts of the epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What low grade tumors can enhance?

A

JPA, gangliogliomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Restricting lesion in the CP angle?

A

Epidermoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Calcified cortically based mass?

A

Oligodendroglioma 1p/19q deletion have a better prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hemorrhagic Mets?

A

RCC Thyroid Melanoma Choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is associated with GBM?

A

Turcot Syndrome- medulloblastoma, intestinal polyposis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hemangioblastoma?

A

Associated with VHL Can cause polycythemia (increased epo levels) Cyst with enhancing mural nodule, can have prominent flow voids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Benign choroid plexus mass that restricts diffusion?

A

xanthogranuloma Do not touch lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most common type of functional pituitary adenoma?

A

prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pituitary apoplexy is assocaited with?

A

Bromocriptine use Sheehan Syndrome- post-partum necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Craniopharyngioma?

A

Calcifications Can have papillary- Solid and capsule (adult) or Adamantinomatous type, cysts which can have protein and hemorrhage (peds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Meningiomas can be hot on what nuclear medicine studies?

A

Tc-MDP octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which CPA mass invades to internal auditory canal?

A

Schwannoma- widen porus acousticus Meningiomas typically don’t widen IAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What differentiates ana arachnoid cyst from epidermoid?

A

Epidermoid restricts diffusion and are mildly bright on FLAIR, both lesions follow CSF signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Most common dural metastases?

A

Breast Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Hemangiopericytoma

A

-Aggressive sarcoma that invades skull, can mimic an aggressive meningioma -Don’t Calcify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Rapidly increasing head circumference in child

A

Desmoplastic infantile ganglioglioma/ Astrocytoma Typically supratentorial, cystic masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Most common location of Choroid Plexus Papilloma?

A

Adults- 4th ventricle Kids- Lateral ventricle (usually trigone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where does neuroblastoma like to involve?

A

Calvarium Dura Postero-lateral aspect of orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Dysembryoplastic Neuroepithelial Tumor Characteristic?

A

Temporal Lobe T2 Bubbly appearance Frequently presents as drug resistant seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Pleomorphic Xanthroastrocytoma

A

Temporal lobe involvement Cyst with nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What lesion is in the tuber cinereum and assocaited with gelastic seizures?

A

Hypothalamic Hamartoma (most common presenting sign is actually precocious puberty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Medulloblastoma?

A

Typically arise from vermis and project into 4th ventricle Restrict diffusion, enhance homogenously Drop mets are common Associated with basal nevus syndrome and turcots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is gorlin syndrome?

A

Medulloblastoma + dural calcifications + basal cell skin cancers + odontogenic cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pineal mass containing fat and calcifications?

A

Germinoma- engulf the pineal gland (pineocytoma and pineoblastoma expand the pineal gland) Most commonly seen in boys in the pineal region and girls in the suprasellar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What can germinomas secrete?

A

HCG- precocious puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is associated with pineoblastoma?

A

retinoblastoma (3rd place of retiunoblastoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Lhermitte-Duclos is associated with?

A

Cowden Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Most sensitive sequence for subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

FLAIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Le Forte 1

A

lateral nasal aperture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

LeFort 2

A

Inferior orbital rim and floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

LeFort 3

A

Zygomatic Arch and lateral orbital rim/wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

ZMC fracture

A

involves the zygoma, inferior and lateral orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Longitudinal Temporal Bone Fracture

A

Comes from lateral Ossicular dislocation, conductive hearing loss

89
Q

Transverse Temporal Bone Fracture

A

Sensorineuronal hearing loss Facial nerve damage

90
Q

Acute

A

1-3 days Deoxyhemoglobin

91
Q

Early Subacute

A

>3 days Intracellular methemoglobin

92
Q

Late subacute

A

>7 days Extracellular methemoglobin

93
Q

Chronic

A

>14 days Hemosiderin

94
Q

Symptoms of superficial siderosis

A

sensorineural hearing loss and ataxia

95
Q

Watershed infarcts in child, most common cause?

96
Q

How long is diffusion restriction positive for in CVA

A

30 minutes- 2 weeks If FLAIR is not hyperintense, think less than 6 hours

97
Q

When does stroke enhance?

A

3 days-3 months

98
Q

Sequela of Venous Sinus thrombosis

A

Dural AVF Increased CSF pressure

99
Q

Most common site of aneurysm?

A

Anterior Communicating Aneurysm

100
Q

Pedicle Aneurysm?

A

Aneurysm on the feeding artery of the AVM

101
Q

Most common site of mycotic aneurysms?

A

Distal MCA

102
Q

Increased risk of AVM hemorrhage

A

3% per year Small size of AVM (increased pressure) Single draining vein Aneurysm associated with nidus Basal Ganglia, thalamic, periventricular location

103
Q

Classic symptoms of dural venous fistula?

A

Pulsatile tinnitus if involving the superior sagittal sinus, assocaited with venous thrombosis May be occult and require angio

104
Q

DVA associated with?

A

cavernous malformation (cavernoma)

105
Q

Cavernoma?

A

No normal intervening brain matter Angio occult, low flow lesion

106
Q

Capillary Teleangectasia?

A

NO increased risk of hemorrhage, “brush like” Does have normal intervening brain parenchyma Can develop as complication of radiation therapy

107
Q

When does vasospasm associated with subarachnodi hemorrhage happen?

A

4-14 days after Other causes of vasospasm- Meningitis, PRES, MIgraine

108
Q

What systemic vasculitis involves the intracranial arteries?

A

PAN Temporal arteritis, wegners, takayasu Other causes: cocain, RA/SLE, lyme

109
Q

Moyamoya associations?

A

Sickle Cell, Neurofibromatosis, prior radiation, Down’s Syndrome

110
Q

CARDASIL spares the ______ lobes?

A

Occipital lobes are spared Autosomal dominant- presents as headache and progresses to dementia -White matter chages- predominately in the temporal lobes

111
Q

Formula for carotid artery stenosis?

A

1- A(maximal narrowing)/B (distal ICA) x 100

112
Q

Colpocephaly?

A

Colpocephaly = Disproportionate dilation of the occipital horns –> corpus callosal agenesis –> CC agenesis is most common anomaly associated with other CNS malformations CC agenesis- Can also present as steer horn ventricles or parallel ventricles CC agenesis/dysgenesis is associated with Lipomas

113
Q

Anencephaly Findings?

A

AFP is elevated, polyhydramnios

114
Q

Iniencephaly

A

Deficit of the occipital bones, enlarged foramen magnum May have incomplete formation of cervico-thoracic vertebrae “star gazing fetus”-face turned upward, hyper-extended cervical spine

115
Q

Molar Tooth Sign?

A

Joubert Syndrome -Superior cerebellar peduncles are thin and the vermis may be incomplete or absent

116
Q

Joubert is associated with?

A

Retinal dysplasia, multicystic dysplastic kidney

117
Q

Torcular-Lamboid Inversion?

A

Dandy-walker malformation - Absent vermis - Cyst communicates with the 4th ventricle

118
Q

Blake Pouch

A

Cyst below or posterior to vermis (which is normal) Posterior fossa is not enlarged but the tentorium is elevated

119
Q

Mega-Cisterna Magna

A

Retro-cerebellar CSF space > 10 mm Normal cerebellum

120
Q

Lobar holoprosencephaly

A

Absent septum pellucidum Can have fusion of frontal lobes

121
Q

Semi-lobar holoprosencephaly

A

Fusion of thalami Olefactory bulbs and tracts are absent

122
Q

Alobar Holoprosencephaly

A

Single large ventricle with fusion of thalami and basal ganglia No falx or CC

123
Q

Meckel- Gruber Syndrome

A

Trias: holoprosencephaly, renal cysts, polydactly

124
Q

Big ventricle and cerebral hemisphere?

A

Hemimegalencephaly DDX: Rasmussen’s encephalitis- the smaller hemisphere has the big ventricle due to atrophy

125
Q

What is associated with schizencephaly (open lip /close lip)?

A

Optic nerve hypoplasia absent septum pellucidum Epilepsy

126
Q

Hydranencephaly will have?

A

Falx, due to in utero insult Cortical mantle is absent (severe hydrocepahlus will have a cortical mantle)

127
Q

Klippel Fiel Syndrome is associated with?

A

Chiari I malformation

128
Q

Scaphocephaly (dolichocephaly) is fusion of?

A

Sagittal sutures

129
Q

Plagiocephaly is fusion of?

A

Unilateral coronal suture, Harlequin eye

130
Q

Trigonocephaly is fusion of?

A

metropic suture (suture between frontal bones)

131
Q

Brachcephaly is fusion of?

A

Coronal or Lambdoid sutures

132
Q

Aperts syndrome?

A

Brachycephlay + fused fingers

133
Q

Crouzons

A

Brachcephaly + First arch hypoplasia (maxilla, mandible)

134
Q

Cleidocranial Dysostosis

A

Brachycepahly + Wormian bones + absent clavicles

135
Q

Most common cranniosynostosis?

A

Sagittal- dolicocephaly

136
Q

Turricephaly?

A

fusion of coronal and lambdoid sutures

137
Q

What is associated with Piriform aperture stenosis (narrowing at opening of nose)?

A

hypothalamic-pituitary- adrenal axis dysfucntion

138
Q

MELAS has what abnormalities on Spectroscopy?

A

increased lactate, decreased NAA

139
Q

Canavans has elevated _____ on spectroscopy?

A

NAA Also have diffuse involvement of the bilateral subcortical U fibers

140
Q

Alexanders Leukodystrophy is associated with?

A

Frontal white matter involvement

141
Q

Metachromatic Leukodystrophy Findigns?

A

Most common leukodystrophy Dark spots in demylianted perventricular white matter, TRIGOID appearence

142
Q

Adreno-Leukodystrophy presents with?

A

Symmetric involvement of the splenium and corpus callosum as well as occipital lobes Only occurs in boys

143
Q

In spectroscopy, myoinositol is elevated with?

A

Alzhemiers and low grade glioma

144
Q

Alanine is elevated in?

A

Meningiomas

145
Q

Radiation necrosis pattern?

A

Choline decreased, NAA down, Lactate up

146
Q

What is elevated in hepatic encephalopathy?

147
Q

Cholesterol Granuloma on MR?

A

At petrous apex typically T1 and T2 bright DDX: congenital cholesteotoma

148
Q

Congenital cholesteotoma on MR?

A

Petrous apex T1 dark, T2 bright, RESTRICTS diffusion

149
Q

Grandenigo Syndrome symptoms and involves?

A

Complication of apical petrositis when Dorello’s canal is involved (CN6) Lateral rectus palsy, otomastoiditis, and facial pain (trigeminal nerve involvement)

150
Q

Endolymphatic sac tumors are assocaited with?

A

Von- Hippel-Lindau Tumors have amorphous calcifications, T2 bright, enhance

151
Q

Paragangliomas of the jugular fossa most commonly present with?

A

Hoarseness- vagal nerve involvement Tumor- salt and pepper appearence, highly vascular

152
Q

Large vestibular aqueduct syndrome?

A

Vestibular aqueduct connects vestibule to the endolymphatic sac Enlarges > 1.5 mm- associated with progressive sensorineural hearing loss Associated with absence of bony modiolus

153
Q

Types of otosclerosis?

A

Fenestral- involves the fissula ante fenestram Retro-fenestral- demineralization around the cochlea, typically bilateral and symmetric Conductive hearing loss in female- typical presentation

154
Q

Acquired Cholesteotoma will first errode? What is the most common ossicle to be erroded?

A

The scutum eroded first Long process of the incus is most common segment of ossicular chain to be eroded Cholesteotoma involves Prussak’s space Can have fistula to the lateral semicircular canal

155
Q

Most common type of acquired cholesteotoma?

A

Pars flaccida (other is pars tensa)

156
Q

Noise induced vertigo is associated with?

A

Dehiscence of the superior semicircular canal

157
Q

Most common cause of necrotizing external otitis?

A

Diabetes with pseudomonas infection

158
Q

Which portions of the facial nerve do not normally enhance?

A

cisternal, cannilicular, labyrinthine

159
Q

What can cause abnormal cranial nerve VII enhancement?

A

Bell’s palsy, lymes, Ramsay Hunt, perineural tumor spread

160
Q

What T-bone fracture is most likely to injure CNVII?

A

Transverse

161
Q

Which is typically midline Chordoma or Chondrosarcoma?

162
Q

What is the blood supply to the juvenile nasal angiofibroma?

A

Internal maxillary

163
Q

Where is the JPA centered typically?

A

sphenopalantine foramen can expand the pterygopalantine foramen

164
Q

Antrochoanal polyp arises in?

A

Maxillary sinus enlarges maxillary sinus ostium associated with nasal congestion and obstruction

165
Q

Inverting papilloma arise from?

A

Lateral wall of the nasal cavity, frequently close to middle turbinate MRI- cerebriform pattern, look like mini-brain 10% harbor squamous cell carcinoma

166
Q

Enthisioneuroblastoma originate?

A

Cribiform plate-> grow superiorly into the skull and down throught the sinus typically has cystic components, avid homogenous enhancement

167
Q

What nasal tumor is positive on octreotide scan ?

A

Enthesioneuroblastoma

168
Q

Most common site of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Maxillary sinus

169
Q

Epistaxis treatment?

A

IF posterior and compression does not work Embolize the sphenopalantine artery off the internal maxillary artery (evaluate for anastamosis between ECA and opthalamic)

170
Q

Where does a rannula arise?

A

sublingual gland

171
Q

Rannula is considered diving once it is below?

A

mylohyoid muscle

172
Q

Sialolithiasis most commonly involves the?

A

Submandibular gland whartons duct

173
Q

Spread of infection in the mouth is dictated by?

A

The mylohyoid muscle Above goes into the sublingual space Below goes into the submandibular space

174
Q

What causes osteonecrosis of the mandible

A

prior radiation or bisphosphonate use

175
Q

Causes of pulsatile exophthalmos?

A

CC fistula NF1 with sphenoid wind dysplasia

176
Q

Dacrocysticits is?

A

Inflammation and dilation of the lacrimal sac

177
Q

Most commonly affected extraoccular muscles in thyroid opthalmopathy?

A

IMSLO - inferior rectus > medial >superior rectus > lateral rectus > Superior oblique Painless, does not involve the tendon

178
Q

What divides the superficial and deep lobes of the parotid gland?

A

CN VII (retromandibular vein is medial to CN VII)

179
Q

Most common salivary gland tumor?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma- T2 bright with rim of low signal small malignant potential

180
Q

What are features of a warthin tumor?

A

Usually cystic Male smoker Bilateral Take up Pertechnetate

181
Q

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

A

Most common malignant tumor of minot salivary glands associated with radiation

182
Q

Which salivary gland tumor has increased propensity for perineural tumor spread?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

183
Q

Lymphoma of the parotid glands has a higher incidence in what population?

184
Q

Most common viral cause of parotitis?

185
Q

HIV patient with bilateral mixed cystic and solid parotid lesions?

A

Benign lymphoepithelial disease

186
Q

“Honeycombed” parotid gland?

A

Sjogrens (associated with MALT lymphoma)

187
Q

Carotid space contains?

A

Carotid artery, jugular nerve, CN IX, CN X, and CN XI

188
Q

Paragangliomas take up what radiotracer?

A

octreotide

189
Q

Most common paragangliomas?

A

Carotid Body- splays ECA/ICA Glomus Jugulare- jugular foramen Glomus Vagale- above carotid and below jugular foramen Glomus tympanicum- overlies cochlear promontory

190
Q

Massicator Space Contains?

A

masticator, temporalis, medial and lateral ptyergoids, inferior alveolar nerve

191
Q

Most common cause of massicator space mass?

A

odontogenic infection

192
Q

Retropharyngeal space extends down to?

193
Q

Common causes of retropharyngeal lymph nodes?

A

SCC, papillary thyroid carcinoma, lymphoma

194
Q

Bacterial cause of lemierre’s?

A

Fusobacterium Necrophorum

195
Q

A mass in what location would displace the parapharyengeal fat medially?

A

parotid carotid mass- displace anterior Superficial Mucosa- displace laterally Massicator space mass would displace posteriorly

196
Q

What separates 1A lymph nodes from 1B?

A

anterior belly of digastric

197
Q

Separates 1B from 2A?

A

stylohyoid

198
Q

Separates 2A from 2B?

A

Spinal accessory nerve

199
Q

Separates level 2 from level 3?

A

inferior hyoid

200
Q

separates level 3 from level 4?

A

lower border of cricoid

201
Q

Fixation of the vocal cords and paraglottic space involvement indicate what level laryngeal cancer?

202
Q

What determines surgical resection candidacy for laryngeal conservation?

A

Invasion of the cricoid

203
Q

Discontinuity of the posterior globe?

204
Q

Coloboma is associated with which syndrome?

205
Q

“martini glass globe”?

A

Persistent Hyperplastic primary vitreous can lead to retinal detachment

206
Q

Coat’s disease

A

retinal teleangestasia with subretinal exudate (does not calcify like retinoblastoma)

207
Q

Optic nerve glioma is associated with?

A

NF1 Global enlargement of the entire nerve WHO Grade I pilocytic astrocytomas

208
Q

“tram track” calcifications of the optic nerve?

A

meningioma

209
Q

Orbital Pseudotumor facts?

A

unilateral, painful, does not spare myotendinous junction most commonly involves lateral rectus

210
Q

Inflammatory process in the cavernous sinus?

A

Tolosa Hunt

211
Q

Lymphocytic hypophysitis?

A

Enlarged enhancing pituitary stalk and pituitary Can be T2 bright with dark surrounding rim Most common- 3rd trimester or post-partum

212
Q

Most common location of occular dermoid?

A

Superior and lateral (arise from the frontozygomatic suture)

213
Q

Appearance of metastatic breast cancer to the orbit?

A

desmoplastic reaction resulting in enophthalmos

214
Q

Lymphoma of the orbit is associated with?

A

Chlamydia Psittaci Frequently involves the lacrimal gland

215
Q

Most common intra-occular lesion in an adult?

A

Melanoma Invasion of Bruchs membrane- evaluate for

216
Q

Quadrilateral Retinoblastoma?

A

both eyes, pineal, and suprasellar

217
Q

Lymphangioma of the orbit?

A

Multi-spatial Fluid-fluid levels on MRI Do not increase with valsalve

218
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous orbital hemorrhage?

A

varix, distend with provocative maneuvers

Neuroradiology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions